Hints & Solution For Chapterwise Test-III (5th June, 22)

CODE-A, PAGE~1
Hints & solutions of

NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test - III
Booklet Code : A
Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

PHYSICS
Section-A
1. Electrical force between two point charges is 200 N. If we increase 10% charge on one of the charges and
decrease 10% charge on the other, then electrical force between them for the same distance becomes
(1) 198 N (2) 100 N (3) 200 N (4) 99 N
Ans (1)
Booklet Code : A
2. Two spheres of radii R1 and R2 respectively are charged and joined by a wire. The ratio of electric fields of
spheres is
R22 R12 R2 R1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
R12 R22 R1 R2
Ans. (3)
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3. A cube has point charges of magnitude -q at all its vertices. Electric field at the centre of the cube is
1 6q 1 8q 1 8 q
(1) 4 0 3a 2 (2) 4 0 a 2 (3) zero (4) 4 0 a 2

Ans. (3)
4. An electic dipole is placed in an uniform electric field with the dipole axis making an angle  with the direction
of the electric field. The orientation of the dipole for stable equilibrium is
(1)  /6 (2)  /3 (3) 0 (4)  /2
Ans. (3)
5. A sphere encloses an electric dipole with charge  3 x 10-6 C. What is the total electric flux across the sphere
Booklet Code : A
?
(1) -3 x 10-6 N-m2/C (2) zero
-6 2
(3) 3 x 10 N-m /C (4) 6 x 10-6 N-m2/C
Ans. (2)
6. An electric field is spread uniformly in Y-axis. Consider a point A as origin point. The coordinates of point B are
equal to (0, 2) m. The coordinates of point C are (2, 0) m. At point A, B and C, electric potentials are VA, VB
and VC , respectively. From the following options, which is correct ?
(1) VA = VC < VB (2) VA = VB = VC (3) VA = VB > VC (4) VA = VC > VB
Ans. (4)
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7. A spherical drop of capacitance 1  F is broken into eight drops of equal radius. Then, the capacitance of each
small drop is
1 1 1
(1) F (2) F (3) F (4) 8 F
2 4 8

Ans. (1)
Booklet Code : A
8. Two identical capacitors each of capacitance 5  F are charged to potentials 2kV and 1kV, respectively. Their
negative ends are connected together. When the positive ends are also connected together, the loss of energy
of the system is
(1) 160 J (2) zero (3) 5J (4) 1.25 J
Ans. (4)
9. If resistivity of copper is 1.72 x 10-8  -m and number of free electrons in copper is 8.5 x 1028/m3. Find the
mobility
(1) 4.25 x 10-3m2/C  (2) 6.8 x 10-3m2/C 
-3 2
(3) 8.5 x 10 m /C  (4) 3.4 x 10-3m2/C 
Ans. (1)
CODE-A, PAGE~4
10. A carbon resistor of (47  4.7)k  is to be marked with rings of different colours for it identification. The
colour code sequence will be
(1) Yellow - Green - Violet - Gold (2) Yellow - Violet - Orange - Silver
(3) Violet - Yellow - Orange - Silver (4) Green - Orange - Violet - Gold

Ans. (2)
11. Two copper wires of length l and 2l have radii r and 2r, respectively. What is the ratio of their specific resis-
tances ?
(1) 1:2 (2) 2:1 (3) 1:1 (4) 1:3
Ans. (3)
The specific resistance is independent of the dimensions of the wire but depends upon the nature of the
materials of the wire.
12. Resistors of 6  and 12  are connected in parallel. This combination is connected in series with a 10V
battery and 6  resistor. What is the potential difference between the terminals of the 12  resistor ?
(1) 4V (2) 16 V (3) 2V (4) 8V
Booklet Code : A
Ans. (1)
CODE-A, PAGE~5
13. The potential difference (VA - VB) between the point A and B in the given figure is

(1) -3V (2) +3V (3) +6 V (4) +9V
Ans. (4)
VA  VB   3  2 x 2+2 x 1
 VA  VB  9volt
14. A current of 2A flows through a 2  resistor when connected across a battery. The same battery supplies a
current of 0.5 A when connected across a 9  resistor. The internal resistance of the battery is
(1) (1/3)  (2) (1/4)  (3) 1 (4) 0.5 
Ans. (1)
Booklet Code : A
15. A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 cm of potentiometer wire respectively with and without being
short circuited through a resistance of 10  . Its internal resistance is
(1) 1.0  (2) 0.5  (3) 2.0  (4) zero
Ans. (1)
l1  l2 110  100 10 x 10
r R x10 =  1
l2 100 100
16. Two unknown resistances X and Y are connected to left and right gaps of a metre bridge and the balancing
point is obtained at 80 cm from left. When a 10  resistance is connected in parallel to X the balancing point
is 50 cm from left. The values of X and Y, respectively are
(1) 40  , 9  (2) 30  , 7.5  (3) 20  , 6  (4) 10  , 3 
Ans. (2)
CODE-A, PAGE~6
17. Two parallel infinitely long current carrying wires are shown in figure. If resultant magnetic field at point A is
zero, then determine the value of current I.

(1) 50 A (2) 15 A (3) 30 A (4) 25 A
Ans. (3)
Booklet Code : A
18. Electron revolving with speed v is producing magnetic field B at centre. Find the relation between radius of
path, B and v
v v v2 v2
(1) B (2) B (3) B (4) B
r r2 r r2
Ans. (2)
0 I 0 q
B 
2r 2 x T
0 qv v
 B 2
2r x 2 r r
19. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular current carrying conductor of radius r is Bc. The magnetic field on
its axis at a distance r from the centre is Ba. The value of Bc : Ba will be
(1) 1: 2 (2) 1:2 2 (3) 2 2 :1 (4) 2 :1
Ans. (3)
CODE-A, PAGE~7
20. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field, a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R
with constant speed v. The time period of the motion
(1) depends on v and not on R (2) depends on both R and v
(3) is independent of both R and v (4) depends on R and not on v

Ans. (3)
21. The magnetic force on a charged particle moving in the field does not work, because
(1) kinetic energy of the charged particle does not change
Booklet Code : A
(2) the charge of the particle remains same
(3) the magnetic force is parallel to velocity of the particle
(4) the magnetic force is parallel to magnetic field
Ans. (1)
The magnetic force on a charged particle moving in the field does not work, because the
kinetic energy of the charged particle does not change
22. A straight wire of length 2 m carries a current of 10A. If this wire is placed in uniform magnetic field
of 0.15 T making an angle of 450 with the magnetic field, the applied force on the wire will be
3
(1) 1.5 N (2) 3N (3) 3 2 N (4) N
2
Ans. (4)
CODE-A, PAGE~8
23. A wire of length L is bent in the form of circular coil of some turns. A current I flows through the coil. The coil
is placed in a uniform magnetic field B. The maximum torque on the coil can be
IBL2 IBL2 IBL2 2IBL2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 4  

Ans. (2)
24. A square coil of side 10 cm consists of 20 turns and carries a current of 12 A. The coil is suspended vertically
and the normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle of 300 with the direction of a uniform horizontal magnetic
field of magnitude 0.80 T. What is the magnitude of torque experienced by the coil ?
Booklet Code : A
(1) 0.96 N-m (2) 2.06 N-m (3) 0.23 N-m (4) 1.36 N-m
Ans. (1)
25. Graph of force per unit length between two long parallel currents carrying conductor and the distance between
them is
(1) straight line (2) parabola (3) ellipse (4) rectangular hyperbola
Ans. (4)
26. A coil having 500 turns of square shape, each of side 10 cm is placed normal to a magnetic field which is
increasing at 1 Ts-1. The induced emf is
(1) 0.1 V (2) 0.5 V (3) 1V (4) 5V
Ans. (4)
CODE-A, PAGE~9
27. In a closed circuit of resistance 10  , the change of flux  with respect to time t is given by the equation
  2t 2  5t  1 , the current at t = 0.25s will be
(1) 4A (2) 0.04 A (3) 0.4 A (4) 1A

Ans. (3)
  2t 2  5t  1
e 1 d
i 
R R dt
1
 4t  5
10
1
 i / t  0.25   4 x 0.25-5
10
 0.4 A
28. Two coils are wound on the same iron rod, so that the flux generated by one passes through the other. the
primary coil has Np turns in it and when a current 2A flows through it, the flux in it is 2.5 x 10-4 Wb. If the
secondary coil has 12 turns, the mutual inductance of the coils is (assume the secondary coil is in open circuit)
(1) 10 x 10-4 H (2) 15 x 10-4 H (3) 20 x 10-4 H (4) 25 x 10-4 H
Ans. (2)
Booklet Code : A
Ns
M
ip
12 x 2.5 x 10-4

2
15 x 10-4 H
29. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn
of the solenoid is 4 x 10-3 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is
(1) 3H (2) 2H (3) 1H (4) 4H
Ans. (3)
30. An inductive coil has a resistance of 100  . When an AC signal of frequency 1000 Hz is applied to the coil, the
voltage leads the current by 450. The inductance of the coil is
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
10 20 40 60
Ans. (2)
CODE-A, PAGE~10
31. In non-resonant circuit, what will be the nature of the circuit for frequencies higher than the resonant frequency
?
(1) Resistive (2) Capacitive (3) Inductive (4) None of these
Ans. (3)

32. A charged oil drop is suspended in uniform field of 3 x 104 Vm-1, so that it neither falls nor rise. The charge on
the drop will be (take, the mass of the charge 9.9 x 10-15 kg and g = 10 ms-2)
(1) 3.3 x 10-18 C (2) 3.2 x 10-18C (3) 1.6 x 10-18C (4) 4.8 x 10-18C
Ans. (1)
Booklet Code : A
33. A solenoid of 1.5 m length and 4.0 cm diameter possesses 10 turns/cm. A current of 5 A is flowing through it.
The magnetic induction at axis inside the solenoid is
(1) 2 x 10 -3T (2) 2 x 10 -5 T (3) 2 x 10 3G (4) 2 x 10 5 G
Ans. (2)
34. For the magnetic field to be maximum due to a small element of current carrying conductor at a point, the angle
between the element and the line joining the element to the given point must be
(1) 00 (2) 900 (3) 1800 (4) 450
Ans. (2)
CODE-A, PAGE~11
35. An electric current passes through a long straight copper wire. At a distance 5cm from the straight wire, the
magnetic field is B. The magnetic field at 20 cm from the straight wire would be
B B B B
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 4 3 2

Ans. (2)
PHYSICS
Section-B
36. Two metal spheres, one of the radius R and the other of radius 2R respectively have the same surface charge
density  . They are brought in contact and separated. What will be the new surface charge densities on them
?
Booklet Code : A
5 5 5 5
(1)  p   , Q   (2)  p   , Q  
6 2 2 6
5 5 5 5
(3)  p   , Q   (4)  p   , Q  
2 3 3 6
Ans. (4)
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37. If a charged spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has potential V at a point distant 5 cm from its centre, then the
potential at a point distant 15 cm from the centre will be
1 2 3
(1) V (2) V (3) V (4) 3V
3 3 2

Ans. (2)
Booklet Code : A
38. A certain electrical conductor has a square cross-section, 2.0 mm on a side and is 12 m long. The resistance
between its ends is 0.072  . The resistivity of its material is equal to
(1) 2.4 x 10-6  -m (2) 1.2 x 10-6  -m
(3) 1.2 x 10-8  -m (4) 2.4 x 10-8  -m
Ans. (4)
CODE-A, PAGE~13
39. What current will flow through the 2k  resistor in the circuit shown in the figure ?

(1) 3 mA (2) 6 mA (3) 12 mA (4) 36 mA
Ans. (1)
6k I1 4k
72 2k
3k
9x10- 3 -I1
Re q = 6 + 2
= 8k W
729
I= A = 9x10 - 3 A
8x 103
2 3
\ 3x103 (9x10- 3 - I1 ) = I1x 6 x10

Booklet Code : A
9
Þ 9x 10- 3 = 3I1 Þ I1 = x10 - 3 A
3
= 3mA
40. Four cells, each of emf E and internal resistance r are connected in series across an external resistance R. By
mistake, one of the cells is connected in reverse, then the current in the external circuit is
2E 3E 3E 2E
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4r  R 4r  R 3r  R 3r  R
Ans. (1)
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41. Two batteries of emfs 2V and 1V of internal resistances 1  and 2  respectively are connected in parallel.
The effective emf of the combination is
3 5 3
(1) V (2) V (3) V (4) 2V
2 3 5

Ans. (2)
42. Current I is flowing in conductor shaped as shown in the figure. The radius of the curved part is r and the length
of straight portion is very large. The value of the magnetic field at the centre O will be
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Booklet Code : A
Ans. (1)
43. A proton, a deuteron and an  -particle with the same kinetic energy enter a region of uniform magnetic field,
moving at right angles to B. What is the ratio of the radii of their circular paths ?
(1) 1 : 2 :1 (2) 1: 2 : 2 (3) 2 :1:1 (4) 2 : 2 :1
Ans. (1)
CODE-A, PAGE~15
44. An inductor L, a capacitor of 20  F and a resistor of 10  are connected in series with an AC source of
frequency 50 Hz. If the current is in phase with the voltage, then the inductance of the inductor is
(1) 2.00 H (2) 0.51 H (3) 1.5 H (4) 0.99 H
Ans. (2)

Booklet Code : A
45. An ideal choke draws a current of 8 A when connected to an AC supply of 100 V, 50 Hz. A pure resistor
draws a current of 10 A when connected to the same source. The ideal choke and the resistor are connected
in series and then connected to the AC source of 150 V, 40 Hz. The current in the circuit becomes
15
(1) A (2) 8A (3) 18A (4) 10 A
2
Ans. (1)
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46. A coil has an inductance of 0.7 H and is joined in series with a resistance of 220  . When an alternating emf of
220 V at 50 Hz is applied to it, then the wattless component of the current in the circuit is
(1) 5A (2) 0.5 A (3) 0.7 A (4) 7A
Ans (2)

Booklet Code : A
CODE-A, PAGE~17
47. A capacitor of capacitance 15  F having dielectric slab of  r = 25, dielectric strength 30 MV/m and potential
difference = 30 V. Calculate the area of the plate.
(1) 6.7 x 10-4 m2 (2) 4.2 x 10-4 m2 (3) 8.0 x 10-4 m2 (4) 9.85 x 10-4 m2
Ans. (1)

48. Two long straight wires are set parallel to each other at separation r and each carries a current i in the same
Booklet Code : A
direction. The strength of the magnetic field at any point midway between the two wires is
 0i 2  0i 0i
(1) (2) (3) (4) zero
r r 2 r
Ans. (4)
CODE-A, PAGE~18
49. Three identical charges are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle. If the force between any two
charges is F, then the net force on each will be
(1) 2F (2) 2F (3) 3F (4) 3F
Ans. (3)

50. A coil of 1200 turns and mean area of 500 cm2 is held perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of induction 4
x 10-4 T. The resistance of the coil is 20  . When the coil is rotated through 1800 in the magnetic field in 0.1 s,
the average electric current (in mA) induced is
(1) 12 (2) 24 (3) 36 (4) 48
Ans. (2)
CHEMISTRY
Section-A
Booklet Code : A
51. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron ?
(1) Malachite (2) Cassiterite (3) Pyrolusite (4) Magnetite
Ans. (4)
i.e Magnetite, Fe3O4 also called ferrosoferric oxide
52. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous oxide
with
(1) Copper (I) sulphide (Cu2S) (2) Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
(3) Iron sulphide (FeS) (4) Carbon monoxide (CO)
Ans. (1)
i.e Auto reduction
53. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that
(1) Zr and Y have about the same radius
(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation states
Ans. (3)
i.e Due to lanthanide contraction, the atomic size of the elements of 4 d series and 5 d series are near the
same.
54. Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with their catalytic activity ?
(1) Variable oxidation (2) High enthalpy of atomization
(3) Parmagnetic behaviour (4) Colour of hydrated ions
Ans. (1)
i.e Transition metals and their compounds have good catalytic activity due to variable oxidation states
55. Among the following complexes, optical activity is possible in
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (2) [Co(H2O)2(NH3)2Cl2]+
(3) [Cr(H2O)2Cl2]+ (4) [Co(CN)5NC]
Ans. (2)
i.e Complex with [Ma2b2c2]n  can exhibit optical isomerism
56. Which of the following will give maximum number of isomers ?
(1) [Ni(C2O4)(en)2]2- (2) [Ni(en)(NH3)4]2+
(3) [Cr(SCN)2(NH3)4]+ (4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]
Ans. (3)
i.e It can exhibit both linkage and geometrical isomerism.
CODE-A, PAGE~19
57. Which of the following complex ions is expected to absorb visible light ?
(1) [Ti(en)2(NH3)2]4+ (2) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
2+
(3) [Zn(NH3)6] (4) [Sc(H2O)3(NH3)3]3+
Ans. (2)

i.e [Cr(NH3)6]3+ has 3 unpaired electrons and hence it can absorb visible light
58. Benzaldehyde reacts with ethanoic KCN to give
(1) C6H5CHOHCN (2) C6H5CHOHCOC6H5
(3) C6H5CHOHCOOH (4) C6H5CHOHCHOHC6H5
Ans. (2)
i.e Benzoin condensation
OH
CHO OHC
CH - C
+ alc . KCN
 
O
59. An ester (A) with molecular formula, C9H10O2 was treated with excess of CH3MgBr and the complex so
formed was treated with H2SO4 to give an olefin (B). Ozonolysis of (B) gave a ketone with molecular formula
C8H8O which shows +ve iodoform test. The structure of (A) is
(1) C6H5COOC2H5 (2) C2H5COOC6H5
(3) H3COCH2COC6H5 (4) P-H3CO-C6H4-COCH3
Ans. (1)
OH
Booklet Code : A
O CH 3
CH 3 MgBr
i.e C6 H5 - C - OC2 H 5

(2 moles )
 C6 H5 - C - CH 3 conc . H 2 SO4
 C6 H5 - C = CH 2
CH 3 3
CH 3 O
( i ) O3
C6 H5 - C = CH 2  C6 H 5 - C - CH 3  can give +ve iodoform reaction due to pres-
( ii ) Zn / H 2O
ence of 3.H  atoms

60. In a set of reactions acetic acid yielded a product D.
SOCl2 Benzene HCN H .OH
CH 3COOH   A 
Anhy . AlCl3
 B   C  D
The structure of D would be
COOH CN
CH 2 - C - CH 3 C - CH3
(1) OH (2)
OH
OH OH
CH 2 - C - CH 3 C - COOH
(3) (4)
CN CH 3
Ans. (4)
i.e
O OH
O O C6 H 6 C - CN
CH 3 - C - OH
SOCl2
 CH3 - C - Cl

AlCl3
 C - CH 3 
HCN

Pyridine CH 3
OH
C - COOH H 2O / H +
CH 3
CODE-A, PAGE~20
61. An organic compound ‘A’ on treatment with NH3 gives ‘B’ which on heating gives ‘C’, ‘C’ when treated with
Br2 in the presence of KOH produces ethylamine. Compound ‘A’ is
(1) CH3COOH (2) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(3) CH 3 - CHCOOH (4) CH3CH2COOH

CH 3
Ans. (4)
i.e Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction
CH 3 CH 2 COOH  NH 3  CH 3 CH 2 COONH 4  
 CH 3 CH 2 CONH 2
A B C
 Br2  KOH
CH 3 CH 2 NH 2
62. Aniline is an activated system for electrophilic substitution. The compound formed on heating aniline with acetic
anhydride is
NH 2
NH 2
(1) (2)
COCH 3
Booklet Code : A
COCH 3
NH 2 NHCOCH 3
(3) (4)
COCH3
Ans. (4)
NH 2 NHCOCH 3
Side chain
i.e  (CH 3CO) 2 O 
Acetylation

Acetic anhydride
63. The final product C, obtained in this reaction
NH 2
Ac2O Br2 H 2O
  A 
CH 3COOH
 B 
H
C
CH 3
would be
NHCOCH 3 NH 2 COCH 3 NH 2
Br COCH 3 Br Br
(1) (2) (3) (4)

CH3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
Ans. (4)
NH 2 NHCOCH 3 NHCOCH 3 NH 2
Br Br
AC 2 O Br2 H 2O
i.e  
  

CH 3COOH H
CH 3 CH3 CH 3 CH3
CODE-A, PAGE~21
64. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly acidic medium gives

(1) N-Phenylhydroxylamine (2) Nitrosobenzene
(3) Aniline (4) p-Hydroxyaniline
Ans. (4)

NH - OH NH 2
NO2
strongly
i.e 
acidic medium
 Rearrangement
 
phenyl OH
hydroxylamine p - hydroxyaniline
65. Which of the following compounds is most basic ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Booklet Code : A
i.e Aliphatic 10 amine is more basic than aromatic 10 amine.
66. 25 ml of a solution of Barium hydroxide on titration with a 0.1 molar solution of hydrochloric acid gave a titre
value of 35 ml. The molarity of Barium hydroxide solution was
(1) 0.07 (2) 0.14 (3) 0.28 (4) 0.35
Ans. (1) 0.07
2HCl + Ba(OH)2  BaCl2 + 2H2O
Moles of HCl taken = MV
= 0.1 x 35
= 3.5 mmoles
1
Moles of Ba(OH)2 requred, MV = x Moles of HCl
2
1
M x 25 = x 3.5 mmoles
2
3.5
M=
25 x 2
= 0.07
CODE-A, PAGE~22
67. 3 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.11 g/ml. The molarity of the solution is
(1) 3.05 (2) 2.75 (3) 3.64 (4) 2.97
Ans. (4) 2.97
3 molal NaOH solution means 3 moles of NaOH is present in 1000 g of water or

3 x 40 = 120 g of NaOH is present in 1000 g of water
 weight of the solution = 1000 + 120
= 1120 g
W
Volume of solution, V 
d
1120
=
1.11
= 1009 ml
= 1.009 L
n
Molarity, M =
V
3
=
1.009
= 2.97 M
Booklet Code : A
68. Which solution will show the maximum vapour pressure at 300 K
(1) 1M C12H22O11 (2) 1MCH3COOH
(3) 1MCaCl2 (4) 1M NaCl
Ans. (1) 1M C12H22O11
69. A solution with negative deviation among the following is
(1) Ethanol - Acetone (2) Chloroform - Bromobenzene
(3) Acetone - aniline (4) Water - Ethanol
Ans. (3)
70. Which of the following pair of solutions are expected to be isotonic at the same temperature
(1) 0.2 M urea and 0.2 M NaCl (2) 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2
(3) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1M Na2SO4 (4) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4
Ans. (4) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4
71. Van’t Hoff factor of centimolal solution of K3[Fe(CN)6] is 3.333. Calculate the percent dissociation of [K3
Fe(CN)6]
(1) 33.33 (2) 0.78 (3) 78 (4) 23.33
Ans. (3) 78
i  1   n 
i 1
or  
n 1
Here i  3.333 and n  4
3.333  1
substituting  
4 1
 0.78
%   78%
CODE-A, PAGE~23
72. Which of the following 0.1 m aqueous solution will have the lowest freezing point
(1) 0.1M K 2Cr2O7 (2) 0.1M NH4Cl
(3) 0.1M BaSO4 (4) 0.1M Al2(SO4)3
Ans. (4) 0.1M Al2(SO4)3

73. A gaseous hypothetical chemical equation, 2A  4B + C is carried out in a closed vessel. The concentration
of B is found to increase by 5 x 10-3mol L-1 in 10 second. The rate of appearance of B is
(1) 5 x 10-4 molL-1s-1 (2) 5 x 10-5 molL-1s-1
-5 -1 -1
(3) 6 x 10 molL s (4) 4 x 10-4 molL-1s-1
Ans. (1) 5 x 10-4 molL-1s-1
B 5 x 103
  5 x 104 molL1s 1
t 10
74. For the elementary reaction M  N, the rate of disappearance of M increases by a factor of 8 upon doubling
the concentration of M. The order of the reaction with respect to M is
(1) M (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
Ans. (2) 3
Rate, r = K[M]n
r1 = K[M]n - (1)
8r1= K[2M]n - (2)
dividing
8 = 2n
Booklet Code : A
23 = 2n
n=3
75. The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every 100C rise in temperature. If the temperature is raised by
500C, the rate of reaction increases by about
(1) 10 times (2) 24 times (3) 32 times (4) 64 times
Ans. (3) 32 times
Increase in rate 2n where n is the number of 100 intervals, Here n = 5
 Increase in rate = 25
=2x2x2x2x2
= 32 times
76. Reaction, 3ClO-  ClO3- + 2Cl- occurs in following two steps
(i) ClO- + ClO-  K1 - -
 ClO2 + Cl (slow step)
(ii) ClO2- + ClO-  K2 - -
 ClO3 + Cl (fast step)
Then the rate of given reaction is
(1) K1[ClO-]2 (2) K1[ClO-] (3) K2[ClO2-][ClO-] (4) K1K2[ClO-]3
- -
Ans. (1) K1[ClO ] [ClO ]
77. Consider the reaction,
2A + B  products
When the concentration of B alone is doubled, the half life do not change. When the concentration of A alone
was doubled, the rate increased by two times. The unit of rate constant for this reaction is
(1) L mol-1 s-1 (2) No unit (3) mol L-1 s-1 (4) s-1
Ans. (1) L mol-1s-1
Order w.r.t. B is 1st order since half life is independent of B. Order w.r.t A is also 1st order because
rate is doubled when concentration of A is doubled. So overall order is 2.
CODE-A, PAGE~24
78. The decomposition of ammonia on tunsten surface at 500 K follows zero order kinetics. The half life period of
this reaction is 45 minutes when the initial pressure is 4 bar. The half life period (in minutes) of the reaction when
the initial pressure is 16 bar at the same temperature is
(1) 120 (2) 60 (3) 240 (4) 180

Ans (4) 180
For zero order, t1/2  [A]0
so, t1 A1

t2 A2
45 4

t2 16
45x16
t2 
4
 180 min
79. Inversion of sucrose is

(1) zero order reaction (2) first order reaction
(3) second order reaction (4) third order reaction
Ans. (2) frist order reaction
80. If the activation energy for the forward reaction is 150 kJ mol-1 and that of reverse reaction is 260 kJ mol-1, the
Booklet Code : A
enthalpy change for the reaction is
(1) 410 kJ mol-1 (2) -110 kJ mol-1 (3) 110 kJ mol-1 (4) -410 kJ mol-1
-1
Ans. (2) -110 kJ mol
H  E f  Eb
 150  260
 110kJ mol 1
81. At the equilibrium position, the process of adsorption is
(1) H  0 (2) H  T S (3) H  T S (4) H  T S
Ans. (2) H  T S
At equilibrium, G  0
H  T S  0
or H  T S
82. Which of the following interface cannot be obtained
(1) liquid - liquid (2) solid - liquid (3) liquid - gas (4) Gas - Gas
Ans. (4) Gas - Gas
Gas - Gas interface cannot exist because they are completely miscible with each other
83. The term sorption stand for
(1) Absorption (2) Adsorption
(3) Both absorption and adsorption (4) Desorption
Ans. (3) Both absorption and adsorption
84. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as
(1) Molecular colloid (2) Associated colloid
(3) Macromolecular colloid (4) Lyophillic colloid
Ans. (2) Associated colloid
CODE-A, PAGE~25
85. Method by which Lyophobic sol can be protected

(1) By addition of oppositely charged sol (2) By addition of an electrolyte
(3) By addition of lyophillic sol (4) By boiling
Ans. (3) By addition of lyophillic sol

CHEMISTRY
Section-B
86. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method ?
(1) Ga and In (2) Zr and Ti (3) Ag and Au (4) Ni and Fe
Ans. (2)
i.e Zr and Ti
87. CrO3 dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give
(1) Cr2O72- (2) CrO42- (3) Cr(OH)3 (4) Cr(OH)2
Ans. (2)
i.e CrO3 + 2NaOH  Na2CrO4 + H2O
88. German silver is an alloy of
(1) Fe, Cr, Ni (2) Cu, Zn, Ag (3) Cu, Zn, Ni (4) Cu, Sn, Al
Ans. (3)
i.e Cu, Zn and Ni
89. Which one of the following complexes will have four different isomers ?
(1) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl (2) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]Cl
Booklet Code : A
(3) [Co(PPH3)2Cl2]Cl (4) [Co(en)3]Cl3
Ans. (2)
i.e Complex with [M(AA)a2b2]n  can exhibit both geometrical and optical isomerism.
90. A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among the following
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2- (2) TiCl4 (3) [CoCl6]4- (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
Ans. (4)
i.e [Cu(NH3)4]2+ has 1 unpaired electron and   n(n  1) BM
91. The reagent (s) which can be used to distinguish acetophenone from benzophenone is (are)
(1) 2, 4-Dinitrophenylhydrazine (2) Aqueous solution of NaHSO3
(3) Benedict reagent (4) I2 and NaOH
Ans. (4)
i.e Acetophenone has 3  -H atoms so it can give +ve iodoform reaction
92. Among acetic acid, phenol and n-hexanol, which of the following compounds will react with NaHCO3 solution
to give sodium salt and carbon dioxide ?
(1) Acetic acid (2) n-Hexanol (3) acetic acid and phenol (4) Phenol
Ans. (1)
i.e Strong acids can liberate CO2 from NaHCO3
93. The preparation of ethyl acetoacetate involves
(1) Witting reaction (2) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(3) Reformatsky reaction (4) Claisen condensation
Ans. (4)
i.e Claisen condensation
O O O O
C2 H 5ONa
CH 3 - C - OC2 H 5 + CH 3 - C - OC2 H 5   CH 3 - C - OH O - OC2 H 5
C 2- C
94. Benzoic acid may be converted to ethyl benzoate by reaction with
(1) sodium ethoxide (2) ethyl chloride
(3) dry HCl-C2H5OH (4) ethanol
Ans. (3)
i.e Esterification reaction
CODE-A, PAGE~26
95. In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a compound D.

SOCl2 NH 3 KOH
CH 3CH 2COOH   B   C 
Br2
D
The structure of D would be

(1) CH3CH2CONH2 (2) CH3CH2NHCH3
(3) CH3CH2NH2 (4) CH3CH2CH2NH2
Ans. (3)
i.e The conversion of C into D is Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction.
96. The relative lowering of vapour pressure produced by dissolving 71.5 g of a substance in 1000 g of water is
0.00713. The molecular weight of the substance will be
(1) 18 (2) 342 (3) 60 (4) 180
Ans. (4) 180
P
 X B  0.00713( according to question)
PA0
nB

nA  nB
WB
n M 71.5 18
 B  B  x
nA W A MB 1000
Booklet Code : A
MA
Solving M B  180
97. If two substances A and B have PA0 : PB0  1: 2 and have mole fraction in solution 1 : 2 then mole fraction of A
in vapour sate is
(1) 0.33 (2) 0.25 (3) 0.52 (4) 0.2
Ans. (4) 0.2
PA  PA0 . X A
1
 1x
3
PB  PB0 . X B
2
2 x
3
PT  PA  PB
1 4
 
3 3
5

3
According to Dalton’s law,

PA  PT . X 1A where X 1A is mole fraction in vapour phase
PA
X 1A 
PT
1
1 3
 3  x
5 3 5
3
 0.2
CODE-A, PAGE~27
98. A reaction that is of the first order, with respect to reactant A has a rate constant of 6 min-1. If we start with [A]
= 0.5 mol L-1, when would [A] reach the value of 0.05 mol L-1.
(1) 0.384 min (2) 0.15 min (3) 3 min (4) 3.84 min
Ans. (1) 0.384 min

For 1st order,
[A]
Rate constant, K  2.303 log 0
t [A]
2.303 0.5
6 log
t 0.05
2.303
t
6
t  0.384 min
99. The activation energy for a reaction that doubles the rate when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K
is
(1) 50.5 kJmol-1 (2) 53.6 kJmol-1 (3) 56.6 kJmol-1 (4) 59.6 kJmol-1
Ans. (2) 53.6 kJmol-1
k2 Ea  1 1 
log    
k1 2.303R  T1 T2 
Booklet Code : A
Ea  1 1 
log 2  
2.303 x 8.314  300 310 

0.3 x 2.303 x 8.314 x 300 x 310
Ea 
10
1
 53.6kJmol
100. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for Ag/Ag+ sol.
(1) Na2S (2) Na3PO4 (3) Na2SO4 (4) NaCl
Ans. (4) NaCl
1
Coagulating value  coagulating power
To coagulate the positive sol, PO43- ion will have highest power and Cl- ion the least coagulating power
based on their charge according to Hardy - Schultz rule
CODE-A, PAGE~28
BOTANY
Section-A
101. Transport over longer distance proceeds through the vascular system - xylem and phloem - is called
(1) Transpiration (2) Imbibition

(3) Translocation (4) Transformation
Ans. (3) NCERT (XI - Page~184)
102. Dry wooder stakes driven in cracks of a rock and soaked will develop pressure that will split the rock. The
phenomenon is
(1) Osmotic pressure (2) Imbibition
(3) Turgor pressure (4) Deplasmolysis
103. Apoplast is the system of adjacent cell walls that is continuous throughout the plant except at the
(1) Cortex (2) Vessel elements
(3) Casparian strips of endodermis (4) Tracheids
104. Path of water movement from soil to xylem is
(1) Metaxylem  Protoxylem  Cortex  Soil  Root hair
(2) Cortex  Root hair  Endodermis  Pericycle  Protoxylem  Metaxylem
(3) Soil  Root hair  Cortex  Endodermis  Pericycle  Protoxylem  Metaxylem
(4) Pericycle  Soil  Root hair  Cortex  Endodermis  Protoxylem  Metaxylem
105. Guttation is mainly due to
Booklet Code : A
(1) Root pressure (2) Osmosis
(3) Transpiration (4) Imbibition
106. Which of the following is not an essential micronutrient ?
(1) Boron (2) Sodium
(3) Chlorine (4) Nickel
107. The macronutrient which is essential component of all organic compounds but is not obtained by plants from soil
is
(1) Nitrogen (2) Phosphorus (3) Magnesium (4) Carbon
108. In plants flowering is delayed due to the deficiency of
(1) Mo, S and N (2) Mo, S, N and K
(3) Ca, Mg, Cu and K (4) Mg, Zn, Mn and K
109. During N2-fixation by Rhizobium in soyabean, which one is incorrect ?
(1) Leghaemoglobin is a pink coloured pigment
(2) Nitrogenase helps to convert N2 gas into two molecules of ammonia which requires 16 ATP.
(3) Nitrogen require anaerobic condition for its functioning
(4) Nitrogenase is an oxygen scavenger
110. In purple and green sulphur bacteria, the hydrogen donor for photosynthesis is
(1) H2S (2) H2O (3) H 2SO 4 (4) Sulphate
111. The PS II and PS I in Z-scheme are connected by
(1) Electron transport syetm (2) Light harvesting complex
(3) Cyclic photophosphorylation (4) Non-cycle photophosphorylation
112. The products of photochemical reaction are
(1) O2, ATP and NADPH (2) O2
(3) ATP and NADPH (4) Organic compounds especially carbohydrates
CODE-A, PAGE~29
113. In electron transport system, the last electron acceptor of photophosphorylation is

(1) NADPH (2) NADP +
(3) Oxygen (4) Chlorophyll-a

114. In C4 plants, Calvin cycle operates in
(1) Stroma of bundle sheath chloroplasts (2) Grana of bundle sheath chloroplasts
(3) Grana of mesophyll chloroplasts (4) Stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts
115. Sugarcane shows high efficiency of CO2 fixation because it performs
(1) Calvin cycle (2) EMP pathway
(3) Hatch and Slack pathway (4) TCA cycle
116. Which is wrongly matched ?
(1) Sorghum - Kranz anatomy (2) PS II - P700
(3) Photorespiration - C3 (4) PEP carboxylase - Mesophyll cells
117. Number of cell organelles involved in photorespiration is
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
Ans. (3)
118. The number of molecules of pyruvic acid formed from one molecule of glucose at the end of glycolysis is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Booklet Code : A
119. Recognise the figure and find out the correct leballing.
(1) a - ethanol, b - CO2, c - acetaldehyde (2) a - CO2, b - acetaldehyde, c - ethanol

(3) a - CO2, b - ethanol, c - acetaldehyde (4) a - ethanol, b - acetaldehyde, c - CO2
120. Which is end-product of oxidative phosphorylation ?
(1) ATP (2) ATP + H2O (3) NADH (4) Oxygen
Ans. (2) NCERT (XI - Page~233, 234)
121. Which is wrong about Krebs’ cycle ?
(1) It occurs in mitochondria (2) It starts with 6 carbon compound
(3) It is also called citric acid cycle (4) Glycolysis is linked to it through malic acid
122. Mitochondrial electron transport chain is
(1) Cyclic phosphorylation (2) Oxidative phosphorylation
(3) Noncyclic phosphorylation (4) Photooxidation
Ans. (2) NCERT (XI - Page~232 to 234)
123. In aerobic respiration one glucose produces
(1) 8 NADH +2FADH2 + 2ATP (2) 12 NADH + 2FADH2 + 38 ATP
(3) 12 NADH + 30 ATP + 2 GTP (4) 10 NADH + 2 FADH2 + 2 ATP + 2 GTP
CODE-A, PAGE~30
124. Component of ETC of mitochondria is

(1) Carotenoids (2) Plastocyanin
(3) Phytochrome (4) Cytochrome oxidase

125. Recognise the figure and find out the correct labelling
(1) a - lag phase, b - log phase, c - stationary phase

(2) a - log phase, b - lag phase, c - stationary phase
(3) a - lag phase, b - exponential phase, c - stationary phase
(4) Both (1) and (3)
126. Which of the following is an example of the dedifferentiation ?
(1) The formation of tracheary elements (xylem tracheids and xylem vessels)
(2) Formation of meristem like interfascicular cambium from fully differentiated parenchyma cells
Booklet Code : A
(3) Formation of meristem like fascicular cambium
(4) Both (2) and (3)
127. Which is correctly matched ?
(1) Passive transport - ATP (2) Apoplast - Plasmodesmata
(3) Potassium - Readily mobilisation (4) Bakane of Rice seedling - F-skoog
128. The PGRs which play an important role in plant responses to wound and stresses of biotic and abiotic origin and
also involved in various growth inhibiting activities such as dormancy and abscission, is/are
(1) ABA (2) Ethylene
(3) Auxin, cytokinin and GA (4) ABA and ethylene
129. Some early experiments on phototropic curvature in grasses led to discovery of
(1) Auxins (2) Gibberellins (3) Cytokinins (4) Ethylene
130. Gibberellin was first isolated from
(1) A bacterium (2) A fungus (3) All alga (4) A virus
131. Which one of the PGRs would be used by farmers if they are asked to ?
(a) Induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes (b) Hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples
(c) Induces flowering in mango (d) Elongation and improvement in shape of apple
(e) Promote nutrient mobilisation
(1) a - auxins, b - ethephon, c - ethylene, d - GA, e - cytokinin
(2) a - ethylene, b - GA, c - auxin, d - ethephon, e - cytokinin
(3) a - auxins, b - ethephon, c - cytokinin, d - ethylene, e - GA
(4) a - cytokinin, b - auxin, c - GA, d - ethephon, e - ethylene
132. ABA acts as an antagonist to
(1) NAA (2) IBA (3) IAA (4) GAs
CODE-A, PAGE~31
133. Which one of the PGRs would you use if you are asked to ?
(a) Induce rooting in a twig (b) Quickly ripen a fruit
(c) Delay leaf senescence
(1) a - auxin, b - ethylene, c - GA (2) a - cytokinin, b - ethylene, c - GA
(3) a - auxin, b - ethylene, c - cytokinin (4) a - cytokinin, b - GA, c - auxin

134. Parthenocarpy can be achieved by
(1) Zeatin (2) ABA (3) Auxins (4) Kinetin
135. Certain plants need to be exposed to low temperature so as to hasten flowering later in life. This treatment is
known as
(1) Stratification (2) Scarification (3) Vernalisation (4) Photoperiodisum
BOTANY
Section-B
136. The force respondible for raising water in 100 ft tall plants is
(1) Transpiration pull (2) Root pressure
(3) Air pressure (4) Capillary action
137. Stomatal opening and closing is due to
(1) Change in turgidity of guard cells
Booklet Code : A
(2) Cellulose microfibrils of guard cells are oriented radially
(3) The inner wall of each guard cell is thick and elastic
(4) All the above
138. The compound whichis mostly used to form amino acid through transamination is
(1) α -ketoglutaric acid (2) Glutamine
(3) Glutamic acid (4) Aspartic acid
139. Nitrifying bacteria
(1) Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
(2) Convert proteins into ammonia
(3) Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
(4) Oxidise ammonia to nitrates
140. Photorespiration is favoured by
(1) High oxygen and low carbon dixoide (2) High carbon dioxide and low oxygen
(3) High temperature and low orygen (4) High humudity and temperature
141. Bundle sheath cells around the vascular bundles in C4 plant are characterized by
(1) Few chloroplasts, thick cell walls and no intercellular spaces
(2) Large number of chloroplasts, thin cell walls and no intercellular spaces
(3) Large number of chloroplasts, thick cell walls and no intercellular spaces
(4) Few chloroplasts, thick cell walls and intercellular spaces
142. In a chloroplast, the highest number of protons are found in
(1) Stoma (2) Lumen of thylakoids
(3) Inter-membrane space (4) Antennae complex
143. Most effective wavelength of light for photosynthesis is
(1) Green (2) Violet (3) Red (4) Yellow
144. Energy released in aerobic respiration is higher than the one available from anaerobic respiration by
(1) 8 times (2) 18 times (3) 28 times (4) 36 times
CODE-A, PAGE~32
145. Differences between photophosphorylation (PP) and oxidative phosphorylation (OP) is

(1) In PP, synthesis is of ATP while in OP it is of ADP
(2) In PP, oxygen is evolved while in OP oxygen is taken up
(3) Both cannot take place in light
(4) PP can take place in green leaves while OP cannot occur in green leaves

Ans. (2) NCERT (XI - Page~213 - 215)
146. What is the R.O. of the given reaction ?
2C51H98O6 + 146O2  102CO2 + 98H2O
(1) 0.7 (2)  (3) 1.45 (4) 1.62
147. Enzymes of Krebs’ cycle occur in mitochondrial matrix except one which is attached to inner mitochondrial
membrane
(1) Citrate synthetase (2) α -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase (4) Malate dehydrogenase
Ans. (3) NCERT (XI - Page~231 - 235)
148. Florigen is produced in the region of
(1) Leaves (2) Fruit (3) Root (4) Trunk
149. Which one shows red  far red interconversions ?
(1) Carotenoids (2) Cytochromes (3) Chlorophylls (4) Phytochrome
150. Gibberellins can promote seed germination because of their influence on
Booklet Code : A
(1) rate of cell division (2) production of hydrolyzing enzymes
(3) synthesis of abscisic acid (4) absorption of water through hard seed coat
ZOOLOGY
Section-A
151. Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass through the cell
membrane of the target cell and bind to a receptor inside it (mostly in the nucleus) ?
(1) Somatostatin, Oxytocin (2) Cortisol, Testosterone
(3) Insulin, Glucagon (4) Thyroxin, Insulin
152. Select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and function.
Hormone Source Function
(1) Vasopressin Posterior pituitary Increases loss of water through urine.
(2) Nor-epinephrine Adrenal medulla Increases heart beat, rate of respiration and alertness.
(3) Glucagon Beta-cells of Islets Stimulates glycogenolysis.
of langerhans
(4) Prolactin Posterior Pituitary Regulates growth of mammary glands and milk formation in
females.
153. The Hypophyseal portal system transports releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus into the
_____
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV

CODE-A, PAGE~33
154. Which of the following is an Autoimmune disorder ?

(1) Myasthenia gravis (2) Osteoporosis
(3) Muscular dystrophy (4) Gout

155. A Sarcomere is best described as a
(1) movable structural unit within a myofibril bounded by H zones.
(2) fixed structural unit within a myofibril bounded by Z lines.
(3) fixed structural unit within a myofibril bounded by A bands.
(4) movable structural unit within a myofibril bounded by Z lines.
156. Read the following A to D statements and select the one option that contains both correct statements.
A. Z-line is present in the centre of the light band.
B. Thin filaments are firmly attached to the M-line.
C. The central part of thick filaments, not overlapped by thin filaments is called Z-band.
D. Light band contains only thin filaments.
(1) A and D (2) B and C (3) A and C (4) B and D
157. Choose the correct option-
Type of Synovial joint Bone involved
A. Ball and Socket joint I. Carpal and Metacarpal of thumb
B. Hinge joint II. Humerus and Pectoral girdle
C Pivot joint III. Knee
D. Saddle joint IV Atlas and Axis
Booklet Code : A
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
158. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to
(1) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band.
(2) The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band
(3) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band.
(4) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band.
159. The cerebral cortex is
(1) The outer layer of cerebrum, called white matter
(2) Inner layer of cerebrum, called white matter
(3) The outer layer of cerebrum, called grey matter
(4) Inner layer of cerebrum, called grey matter
160. Nervous band connecting the two cerebral hemispheres is
(1) Corpus albicans (2) Corpus callosum
(3) Corpus striatum (4) Corpus spongiosum
161. For seeing the nearby objects, the lens becomes more convex by
(1) relaxation of iris muscles (2) contraction of iris muscles
(3) contraction of ciliary muscles (4) relaxation of ciliary muscles
162. When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is
(1) Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions.
(2) Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions.
(3) Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions.
(4) Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions.
CODE-A, PAGE~34
163. The given diagram represents the sectional view of cochlea

The movement of ______ causes hair cell microvilli to bend back and forth
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV
164. The opening of auricles into ventricles on the right side is guarded by which valve?
(1) Tricuspid (2) Bicuspid (3) Semilunar (4) Mitral valve
165 ‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which one of the following organs in humans?
(1) Brain (2) Heart (3) Kidney (4) Pancreas
166. In which of the following options the types of heart is correctly matched to their respective group of animals?
(1) Two chambered heart- Fishes and Amphibians
(2) Three chambered heart- Amphibians and Birds
(3) Four chambered heart- Birds and Mammals
Booklet Code : A
(4) Three chambered heart- Reptiles and Mammals
167. Match each area of the heart with the structure from which it receives blood.’
Area of heart Receives blood from
A. Right atrium I. Left atrium
B. Right ventricle II. Vena cavae
C. Left atrium III. Right atrium
D. Left ventricle IV. Pulmonary veins
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A- I, B- II, C- III, D- IV
(3) A- IV, B- I, C- II, D- III (4) A- III, B- IV, C- I, D- II
168. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional,
what will be the immediate effect ?
(1) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced
(2) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down
(3) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working
(4) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium
169. Which of the following hormone is secreted from kidney ?
(1) ANF (2) Erythropoietin (3) Rennin (4) Aldosterone
170. Which of the following accessory excretory structure eliminates NaCl, Lactic acid and Urea?
(1) Kidney (2) Liver (3) Sebaceous gland (4) Sweat gland
171. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes is found in
(1) Reptiles and Birds (2) Birds and Annelids
(3) Amphibians and Reptiles (4) Insects and Amphibians
172. The maximum reabsorption of useful substances back into the blood from filtrate in a nephron occurs in
(1) PCT (2) Loop of Henle (3) DCT (4) Collecting duct
CODE-A, PAGE~35
173. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates

(1) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone. (2) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline.
(3) juxta - glomerular cells to release renin. (4) posterior pituitary to release vasopressin.

174. Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
(1) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes.
(2) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water.

(3) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3
(4) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
175. Which of the following is likely to accumulate in dangerous proportion in the blood of a person whose kidney is not
working properly?
(1) Ammonia (2) Urea (3) Lysine (4) Sodium chloride
176. Brunner’s glands are found in
(1) Submucosa of stomach (2) Mucosa of stomach
(3) Submucosa of duodenum (4) Mucosa of duodenum
177. Which cells of gastric mucosa secrete pepsinogen?
(1) Parietal (2) Oxyntic (3) Chief cells (4) Goblet
178. Which of the following statements is correct regarding absorption of fatty acids?
Booklet Code : A
(1) It is absorbed into the bloodstream at the small intestine.
(2) It is absorbed into the lymph vessels at the small intestine.
(3) It is absorbed into the lymph vessels from the blood stream.
(4) It is absorbed into the bloodstream at the large intestine.
179. Which of the following represent the correct matching pair?
Organs Functions
A. Mouth I. Reclaims water and salts
B. Stomach. II. Carries out most of the digestion and absorption of nutrients.
C. Small intestine III. Releases amylase enzyme that break down carbohydrates.
D. large intestine IV. An acidic compartment that begins to break proteins polypeptides.
(1) A  I, B  II, C  III, D  IV (2) A  III, B  IV, C  II, D  I
(3) A  II, B  III, C  I, D  IV (4) A  IV, B  I, C  II, D  III
Ans. (2) NCERT (XI - Page~262/263)
180. The amount of air remaining in the air passages and alveoli at the end of quiet respiration is
(1) Tidal volume (2) Inspiratory reserve volume
(3) Expiratory capacity (4) Functional residual capacity
181. Mark incorrect statement in the following.
(1) Diffusion membrane is made up of 3-major layers.
(2) Solubility of CO2 is higher than O2 by 25 times.
(3) Breathing volumes are estimated by spirometer.
(4) High conc. of hydrogen ions favours oxyhaemoglobin formation.
182. Which of the following statements are true/false?
(i) The blood transports CO2 comparatively easily because of its higher solubility.
(ii) Approximately 8 - 9% of CO2 is transported being dissolved in the plasma of blood.
(iii) The carbon dioxide produced by the tissues, diffuses passively into the blood stream and passes into red
blood corpuscles and react with water to form H2CO3
(iv) The oxyhaemoglobin (HbO2) of the erythrocytes is basic.
(v) The chloride ions diffuse from plasma into the erythrocytes to maintain ionic balance.
(1) (i), (iii) and (v) are true (ii) and (iv) are false
(2) (i), (iii) and (v) are false, (ii) and (iv) are true
(3) (i), (ii), and (iv) are true, (iii) and (v) are false
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv) are false (iii) and (v) are true
CODE-A, PAGE~36
183. About 70% of CO2 is transported as

(1) Carbonic acid (2) Carboxyhaemoglobin
(3) Bicarbonates (4) Carbamino compounds

184. During inspiration in mammals, the diaphragm becomes
(1) Dome shaped (2) Raised highly (3) Flat (4) Static
185. Which of the following are the stages of respiration in correct order
A – Gaseous transport
B – Cellular respiration
C – Tissue respiration
D – Breathing
(1) A  D  C  B (2) D –A– C – B (3) D  A  B  C (4) DCBA
ZOOLOGY
Section-B
186. From deep to superficial, what are the tunics of the intraperitoneal portions of the alimentary canal?
(1) Serosa, muscularis, submucosa and mucosa
(2) Mucosa, Submucosa, Muscularis and serosa
(3) Adventia, muscularis, submucosa and mucosa
(4) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis and adventia
Ans. (2) NCERT (XI) - Page 260
Booklet Code : A
187. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) Blood group O is universal donor.
(ii) Blood group AB is universal acceptor.
(iii) Blood group A contains antigen Band anti-A antibodies
(iv) Blood group B contains antigen B and anti-A antibodies
(1) Only (i) and (ii) is correct. (2) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) is correct.
(3) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) is correct. (4) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) is correct.
188. In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respective activity of
the human heart?
(1) P-Depolarization of the atria (2) R-Repolarization of ventricles
(3) S-Start of systole (4) T-End of diastole
189. Which of the following represents the correct
order of vertebral regions from superior to inferior ?
I. Sacrum II. Thoracic
III. Cervical IV. Lumbar
V. Coccyx
(1) I-II-III-IV-V (2) II-IV-I-III-V (3) IV-I-II-V-I (4) III-II-IV-I-V
190. Which of the following statement is correct regarding Glucagon hormone ?
(1) It has opposite effect to that of insulin. (2) It converts glucose to glycogen.
(3) It is given to diabetic patients. (4) It is formed by P-cells of pancreas
191. Which of the following substances involved in organic molecule digestion is correctly matched with their descrip-
tions?
(1) Salivary amylase - It begins lipid digestion in mouth
(2) Trypsin - It emulsifies fats for digestion
(3) Bile - It digests proteins in small intestine.
(4) Maltase - It is an enzyme that acts on disaccharides.
CODE-A, PAGE~37
192. Match the following organic molecules with their correct description and then choose the correct option.
Organic molecules Description
A. Carbohydrates I. It is made of fatty acids and glycerol
B. Proteins II. It is mostly ingested in the form of starch
C. Nucleic acids III. It is built of long chains of amino acids

D. Lipids IV. It is made of ribose or deoxyribose sugars and nitrogenous bases.
(1) A  I, B  II, C  III, D  IV (2) A– IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(3) A  III, B  IV, C  I, D  II (4) A  II, B  III, C  IV,, D  I
193. Match the disorders given in column - I with symptoms under column -II. Choose the answer which gives the
correct combination of alphabets with numbers.
Column-I Column-II
A. Asthma I. Inflammation of nasal tract
B. Bronchitis II. Spasm of bronchial muscles
C. Rhinitis III. Fully blown out alveoli
D. Emphysema IV. Inflammation of bronchi
V. Cough with blood strained sputum
(1) A  IV, B  II, C  V,, D  I (2) A  V, B  III, C  II, D  I
(3) A  III, B  I, C  V,, D  IV (4) A  II, B  IV, C  I, D  III
194. Which of the following parts of the nephron is correctly matched with their functions?
Column-I (Parts of the nephron) Column-II (Function)
A. Proximal convoluted tubules I. Sodium is reabsorbed actively in this region.
Booklet Code : A
B. Distal convoluted II. Sodium and water are reabsorbed under hormonal influence
in this region.
C. Descending limb III. Primary site of glucose and amino acid reabsorption
D Ascending limb IV. Major substance reabsorbed here is water by osmosis.
(1) A –I, B –II, C –III, D – IV (2) A– IV, B –I, C –II, D –III
(3) A– III, B –IV, C –II, D –I (4) A– III, B –II, C – IV, D – I
195. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action ?
(1) Calcium (2) Sodium (3) cAMP (4) cGMP
196. The macrophages in human body exhibit
(1) Ciliary movement (2) Amoeboid movement
(3) No movement (4) Movement with the blood flow only
197. A cup shaped cavity for articulation of femur head is
(1) Acetabulum (2) Glenoid cavity
(3) Sigmoid notch (4) Obturator foramen
CODE-A, PAGE~38
198. Part of mammalian brain controlling cardiovascular reflex is

(1) Cerebrum (2) Corpus callosum
(3) Medulla oblongata (4) Cerebellum

199. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(i) Somatic nervous system- Conducts impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles.
(ii) Autonomic nervous system- Conduct impulses from CNS to internal organ and smooth muscles.
(iii) Central nervous system- Consists of brain and spinal cord
(iv) Peripheral nervous system- Consists of nerves carrying impulses to brain and spinal cord only
(1) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct. (2) Only (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(3) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct. (4) All of these are correct.
200. In the human heart, blood from the lungs enters the heart through the left atrium, pumps into the left ventricle, out
the aorta and through the body, and then returns into the right atrium, pumps into the right ventricle and exits to the
lungs.
Using the diagram, which set. of letters correctly, represents this process?
Booklet Code : A
(1) E, D, A, B, C (2) B, C, A, E, D (3) C, D, A, B, E (4) D, C, A, E, B

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CODE-A, PAGE~1

Hints & solutions of

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

ence of 3.H  atoms

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

63. The final product C, obtained in this reaction

(1) (2) (3) (4)

64. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly acidic medium gives

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

65. Which of the following compounds is most basic ?

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

79. Inversion of sucrose is

85. Method by which Lyophobic sol can be protected

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

95. In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a compound D.

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

According to Dalton’s law,

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

113. In electron transport system, the last electron acceptor of photophosphorylation is

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

(1) a - ethanol, b - CO2, c - acetaldehyde (2) a - CO2, b - acetaldehyde, c - ethanol

124. Component of ETC of mitochondria is

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

(1) a - lag phase, b - log phase, c - stationary phase

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

145. Differences between photophosphorylation (PP) and oxidative phosphorylation (OP) is

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV

154. Which of the following is an Autoimmune disorder ?

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

163. The given diagram represents the sectional view of cochlea

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

173. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

183. About 70% of CO2 is transported as

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

198. Part of mammalian brain controlling cardiovascular reflex is

Hints & solutions of NEET (UG) 2022 Chapterwise Test -III

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