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Career ride TMC MCQS
Turbo Machines Test Questions Set - 1

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1) The product of force (F) and time (t) is called as________.
a. momentum
b. work done
c. impulse
d. pressure
Answer Explanation Related Ques
ANSWER: impulse
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
2) What is the formula for forces exerted by fluid on a body?
a. (Rate of momentum in) x (Rate of momentum out)

b. (Rate of momentum in) – (Rate of momentum out)
c. (Rate of momentum in) + (Rate of momentum out)
d. None of the above
ANSWER: (Rate of momentum in) – (Rate of momentum out)
Explanation:
3) The radial force in rotodynamic machine, which is developed by rate of change of momentum in radial velocity,
is taken care by__________.
a. journal bearing
b. radial thrust bearing
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
ANSWER: journal bearing

Explanation:
4) Meridonial velocity is the resultant of _____________ components of fluid velocity.
a. radial and tangential

b. tangential and axial
c. radial and axial
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: radial and axial

Explanation:
5) _______________ components of fluid velocity have the responsibility of the transportation of fluid through the
machine.
a. Radial and tangential

b. Tangential and axial
c. Radial and axial
d. None of the existing
ANSWER: Radial and axial

Explanation:
6) In which turbine the pressure energy of water is first converted into kinetic energy by means of nozzle kept
close to the runner?
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Both a. and b.
ANSWER: Impulse turbine

Explanation:
7) The pressure of water is atmospheric and remains constant while passing over the runner in __________ .
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Both a. and b.
Explanation:
8) The energy of water entering the reaction turbine is _______
a. fully the kinetic energy

b. fully the pressure energy
c. partly the pressure energy and partly the kinetic energy
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: partly the pressure energy and partly the kinetic energy
Explanation:
9) Which of the following is an example of impulse turbine?
a. Propeller turbine
b. Francis turbine
c. Kaplan turbine
d. Pelton wheel
ANSWER: Pelton wheel
Explanation:
10) The runner of __________ turbine always be under pressure of above atmospheric
a. Turgo
b. Girand
c. Kaplan
ANSWER: Kaplan
Explanation:
11) The water from runner in reaction turbine is discharged into tail race through a draft tube which has
____________ cross sectional area.
a. constant
b. gradually decreasing
c. gradually increasing
d. uneven
ANSWER: gradually increasing

Explanation:
12) __________ turbines are also called as parallel flow turbine.
a. Radial flow
b. Axial flow
c. Both radial flow and axial flow
ANSWER: Axial flow

Explanation:
13) In which type of reaction turbine does the water flow in radial direction at the outer periphery of runner and
leave at the centre in the direction parallel to the axis of rotation of runner?
a. Radial flow turbine

b. Axial flow turbine
c. Mixed flow turbine
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Mixed flow turbine

Explanation:
14) What is the formula to calculate specific speed (Ns) of a turbine rotating at a speed of 'N' rpm that develops
the power of 'P' kW at the heat of 'H' m?
a. (Ns) = (√N x P) x (H)(5/4)

b. (Ns) = (2 √N x P) x (H)(5/4)
c. (Ns) = (N √P) x (H)(5/4)
d. (Ns) = (2N √P) x (H)(5/4)
ANSWER: (Ns) = (N √P) x (H)(5/4)
Explanation:
15) Generally, the value of specific speed of Kaplan turbine is _____________ that of the Pelton turbine.
a. lower than
b. higher than
c. same as
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: higher than

Explanation:
16) The passage of uniformly varying cross-section in which the kinetic energy of steam increases at the expense
of its pressure is called as__________
a. steam turbine
b. steam nozzle
c. steam area
d. all of the above
ANSWER: steam nozzle

Explanation:
17) How does the change in velocity of the steam in steam nozzle take place? Select the correct graph in the
diagram below.
a. (1)
b. (2)
c. (3)
d. (4)
ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
18) The nozzle efficiency can be defined as the ratio of
a. isentropic enthalpy drop to actual enthalpy drop

b. actual enthalpy drop to isentropic enthalpy drop
c. isothermal enthalpy drop to isentropic enthalpy drop
d. isentropic enthalpy drop to isothermal enthalpy drop
ANSWER: actual enthalpy drop to isentropic enthalpy drop

Explanation:
19) Which of the following are effects of nozzle friction?
1. Enthalpy drop decreases

2. Exit velocity reduces
3. Decrease in specific volume
4. Decrease in mass flow rate
a. (1), (2) and (3)

b. (2), (3) and (4)
c. (1), (3) and (4)
d. (1), (2) and (4)
ANSWER: (1), (2) and (4)
Explanation:
20) The quality of vapour at the exit of nozzle ___________ due to nozzle friction.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. does not change
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: increases
Explanation:
21) Pump transfers the mechanical energy of a motor or of an engine into _________ of a fluid.
a. pressure energy
b. kinetic energy
c. either pressure energy or kinetic energy
d. pressure energy, kinetic energy or both
ANSWER: pressure energy, kinetic energy or both

Explanation:
22) Which of the following is NOT a type of positive displacement pumps?
a. Reciprocating pump
b. Rotary displacement pump
c. Centrifugal pump
ANSWER: Centrifugal pump
Explanation:
23) Rotary displacement pumps are suitable for handling ________.
a. oils
b. gritty liquids
c. both oils as well as gritty liquids
ANSWER: oils
Explanation:
24) Which of the following is/are example/s of rotary displacement pumps?
a. Gear pump
b. Vane pump
c. Rotary piston pump
d. All of the above
ANSWER: All of the above
Explanation:
25) ___________ pump is also called as velocity pump.
a. Reciprocating
b. Rotary displacement
c. Centrifugal
d. Screw
ANSWER: Centrifugal
Explanation:
26) The mass flow rate of air compressed in axial flow compressor is _____________centrifugal compressor.
a. lower than
b. higher than
c. same as
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: higher than

Explanation:
27) Which of the following is NOT a type of rotary compressor?
a. Positive displacement type of compressor

b. Steady flow compressor
c. Both a. and b.
ANSWER: None of the above

Explanation:
28) Which compressors are suitable for large volume flow rates of above 1200 m3/min
a. Centrifugal compressors
b. Axial flow compressors
c. Both a. and b.
ANSWER: Axial flow compressors

Explanation:
29) The function of _________ is to convert high kinetic energy of gases into pressure energy.
a. impeller
b. diffuser
c. casing
ANSWER: diffuser
Explanation:
30) How is the variation of air velocity while passing through impeller followed by diffuser in centrifugal
compressor?
a. Air velocity goes no increasing in impeller followed by diffuser

b. Air velocity goes no decreasing in impeller followed by diffuser
c. Air velocity increases in impeller and then decreases in diffuser
d. Air velocity decreases in impeller and then increases in diffuser
ANSWER: Air velocity increases in impeller and then decreases in diffuser

Explanation:
31) A pair of fixed blade and rotor blade in axial flow compressor is called as _________.
a. step
b. pair
c. stage
d. state
ANSWER: stage
Explanation:
32) An axial flow compressors have _______.
a. a drum type rotor

b. a disc type rotor
c. a drum type rotor or a disc type rotor
ANSWER: a drum type rotor or a disc type rotor
Explanation:
33) ________ blades are attached to the rotor or spindle.
a. Fixed
b. Moving
c. Both fixed and moving
ANSWER: Moving
Explanation:
34) The basic principle of operation of axial flow compressor is _______that of the centrifugal compressor.
a. same as
b. totally different than
ANSWER: same as
Explanation:
35) The blade passages in a compressor are ________
a. converging
b. diverging
c. constant
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: diverging
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question
1) Which component of fluid velocity is responsible for transmission of power through rotodynamic machine?
a. Radial
b. Axial
c. Tangential
ANSWER: Tangential
Explanation:
2) What is the general energy equation for transfer of energy between the fluid and machine?
Where,
Vw1 = Tangential component of the velocity of fluid at the entry of the rotor
Vw2 = Tangential component of the velocity of fluid at the exit of the rotor
u1 = Peripheral velocity of fluid at the entry of the rotor
u2 = Peripheral velocity of fluid at the exit of the rotor
ṁ = Flow rate of fluid
a. E = ṁ (Vw1 – Vw2) x (u1 – u2)

b. E = ṁ (Vw1 – Vw2) / (u1 – u2)
c. E = ṁ (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2)
d. E = ṁ (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2)2

ANSWER: E = ṁ (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2)
Explanation:
3) If (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2), then machine is called as________.
a. compressor
b. turbine
c. pump
d. all of the above
ANSWER: turbine
Explanation:
4) Consider the below diagram of jet of water striking flat stationary plate normal to jet. What will be the phase of
workdone on the plate?
a. negative
b. positive
c. zero
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: zero
Explanation:
5) Consider the following diagram of jet of water striking flat stationary plate inclined at an angle θ. What will be
the phase of workdone on the plate?
a. negative
b. positive
c. zero
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: zero
Explanation:
6) What is the head of water available at turbine inlet in hydro-electric power plant called?
a. head race
b. tail race
c. gross head
d. net head
ANSWER: net head

Explanation:
7) Gross head is the difference between __________.
a. head race and tail race

b. head race and net head
c. head race and friction losses
d. net head and friction losses

ANSWER: head race and tail race
Explanation:
8) Which of the following hydraulic turbines has a construction given in diagram below?
a. Kaplan turbine
b. Francis turbine
c. Pelton turbine
d. Propeller turbine

ANSWER: Pelton turbine
Explanation:
9) What is runaway speed of the runner of Pelton wheel?
a. maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden increase in load on turbine
b. minimum safe speed of the runner due to sudden increase in load on turbine
c. maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden decrease in load on turbine
d. minimum safe speed of the runner due to sudden decrease in load on turbine

ANSWER: maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden decrease in load on turbine
Explanation:
10) What is the formula for the velocity of water jet at the inlet of turbine?
Where,
H = Net head acting on Pelton wheel
Cv = coefficient of velocity of jet
a. V = Cv √gH
b. V = 2 Cv √gH
c. V = Cv √2gH
d. V = 2 Cv g √H

ANSWER: V = Cv √2gH
Explanation:
11) The gates of aerofoil section in between the outer and inner ring of guide wheel are called as ________.
a. guide gates
b. guide vanes
c. scrolling gates
d. scrolling vanes

ANSWER: guide vanes
Explanation:
12) Which of the following components of reaction turbine increases the head on the turbine by an amount equal
to the height of runner outlet above the tail race?
a. Scroll casing
b. Guide vanes
c. Moving vanes
d. Draft tube
ANSWER: Draft tube

Explanation:
13) As the reaction turbine works on the principle of impulse and reaction, it follows the law of ________.
a. impulse momentum
b. angular momentum
c. both a. and b.

ANSWER: angular momentum
Explanation:
14) In which type of turbine, the runner needs to be run full of water?
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Both a. and b.
ANSWER: Reaction turbine

Explanation:
15) In reaction turbine work is done_______________.
a. totally due to change in kinetic energy of jet

b. totally due to change in pressure head
c. mostly due to change in pressure head and small amount of work is due to change in kinetic energy
d. mostly due to change in kinetic energy and small amount of work is due to change in pressure head

ANSWER: mostly due to change in pressure head and small amount of work is due to change in kinetic energy
Explanation:
16) Consider the following (h-S) diagram of steam passing through a nozzle. Which is the correct path followed
by steam when total friction loss occurs in divergent section.
Where,
p1 = pressure at the inlet of nozzle
p2 = pressure at the exit of nozzle
pt = pressure at the throat of nozzle
a. 1 – 2 – 3
b. 1 – 2 – 3'
c. 1 – 2 – 3''

ANSWER: 1 – 2 – 3''
Explanation:
17) What is the relation between Velocity Coefficient (Cc) and Nozzle efficiency (ηn)?
a. Cc = (1/2) (ηn)
b. Cc = √(ηn)
c. Cc = (ηn)2
d. Cc = (ηn)3
ANSWER: Cc = √(ηn)
Explanation:
18) The ratio of actual mass flow rate (ṁa) to ideal mass flow rate (ṁi) is called as________
a. nozzle coefficient
b. coefficient of nozzle friction
c. coefficient of discharge
d. coefficient of mass

ANSWER: coefficient of discharge
Explanation:
19) Which of the following sentences are correct for steam turbine?
1. Steam turbine requires large floor area

2. Steam turbine is a rotary high speed machine
3. Steam turbine has low weight to power ratio
4. Steam turbine has more initial cost and maintenance cost
a. (1) and (2)

b. (2) and (3)
c. (3) and (4)
d. (1) and (4)
ANSWER: (2) and (3)

Explanation:
20) The blade speed ratio of impulse turbine is given as ___________
a. (Blade velocity) / (Steam velocity at inlet)

b. (Blade velocity) / (Steam velocity at exit)
c. (Steam velocity at inlet) / (Blade velocity)
d. (Steam velocity at exit) / (Blade velocity)
ANSWER: (Blade velocity) / (Steam velocity at inlet)

Explanation:
21) Discharge capacity of the reciprocating pump is __________ that of the centrifugal pump.
a. higher than
b. lower than
c. same as
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: lower than

Explanation:
22) Which pump is more suitable for an application where very high pressure is required to be developed at
moderate discharge?
b. Centrifugal pump
c. Turbine

ANSWER: Reciprocating pump
Explanation:
23) The process of filling the liquid into the suction pipe and pump casing upto the level of delivery valve is called
as _________.
a. filling
b. pumping
c. priming
d. leveling

ANSWER: priming
Explanation:
24) The volute pumps and vortex volute pumps are __________ pumps with _________ shaft.
a. multistage, horizontal
b. multistage, vertical
c. single stage, horizontal
d. single stage, vertical

ANSWER: single stage, horizontal
Explanation:
25) Which of the following centrifugal pumps has higher specific speed than the others?
a. Axial flow
b. Radial flow
c. Mixed flow
d. All have same specific speed
ANSWER: Axial flow

Explanation:
26) Angular momentum of gas in the free vortex of vaneless diffuser ___________.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. becomes unpredictable
ANSWER: remains constant

Explanation:
27) Vaneless diffusers are suitable for ___________.
a. only low pressure rise

b. only high pressure rise
c. both low as well as high pressure rise
ANSWER: only low pressure rise

Explanation:
28) The diffuser blades are kept ______ the number of impeller blades .
a. 1/10 th of
b. 1/3 rd of
c. 10 times
d. 3 times
ANSWER: 1/3 rd of
Explanation:
29) The ratio of actual whirl velocity to the ideal whirl velocity in the centrifugal compressor is called as
_________.
a. velocity factor
b. slip factor
c. work factor

ANSWER: slip factor
Explanation:
30) What is the ratio of isentropic work to Euler work in an centrifugal compressor called?
a. Work coefficient
b. Velocity coefficient
c. Pressure coefficient
d. Flow coefficient

ANSWER: Pressure coefficient
Explanation:
31) ___________ can be defined as the ratio of the pressure rise in rotor blades to the pressure rise in stages in
an axial flow compressor.
a. Degree of pressure
b. Degree of reaction
c. Pressure ratio
d. Reaction ratio
ANSWER: Degree of reaction

Explanation:
32) What is the ratio of the actual work absorbed by an axial flow compressor to the theoretical work called?
a. Work input factor

b. Workdone factor
c. Both a. and b.
ANSWER: Both a. and b.

Explanation:
33) What is the effect of increasing number of stages in axial flow compressor on the mean work input factor
(Ψw)?
a. Mean work input factor (Ψw) decreases

b. Mean work input factor (Ψw) increases
c. Mean work input factor (Ψw) remains constant
d. Unpredictable
ANSWER: Mean work input factor (Ψw) decreases

Explanation:
34) What is the formula for blade loading coefficient (Ψ) for an axial flow compressor?
Where,
W = Workdone
Cf = Axial flow velocity
Cb = Blade velocity
a. Ψ = W / (Cf)2
b. Ψ = (Cf)2 / W
c. Ψ = W / (Cb)2
d. Ψ = (Cb)2 / W

ANSWER: Ψ = W / (Cb)2
Explanation:
35) What is the effect of increasing flow coefficient (Φ) in an axial flow compressor on blade loading coefficient
(Ψ)?
a. Blade loading coefficient (Ψ) increases
b. Blade loading coefficient (Ψ) decreases
c. Blade loading coefficient (Ψ) remains constant
d. Unpredictable
ANSWER: Blade loading coefficient (Ψ) decreases

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question
Mcq geekmcq for tmc

1. Which of the following preferred for supercharging of internal combustion engines?
A. Roots blower B. Axial flow compressor
C. Sliding vane type compressor D. Reciprocating compressor
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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2. In an axial flow compressor, the pressure rise occurs in
A. fixed blades only B. Moving blades only
C. Both fixed and moving blades D. none of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
3. An axial flow compressor has
larger blades at gas entry and smaller smaller blades at gas entry and larger
A. B.
blades at exit blades at exit
size of blades remains same only angles

C. identical dlades at exit as well as entry D.
changes
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
4. An axial flow compressor is suitable for
high volume flow rates with a small pressure high volume flow rates with high pressure
A. B.
rise rise
low volume flow rates with high pressure

C. low volume flow rates with low pressure rise D.
rise
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
5. In a gas turbine cycle regenerator is used to
heat the gases coming out of combustion

A. B. heat fuel supplied to combustion chamber
chamber
heat exhaust gases released from low

C. heat air supplied to combustion chamber D.
pressure turbine
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
6. A regenerator can be used on
A. open cycle gas turbines only B. closed cycle gas turbines only
both open as well as closed cycle gas

C. D. none of the above
turbines
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
7. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle can be improved by
A. reheating between expansion stage B. intercooling between compression stges
C. regeneration D. any of the above

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
8. Gas turbine used in aircraft is of
A. open cycle type B. closed cycle type with reheating
closed cycle type with reheating and open cycle type with reheating, regeneration
C. D.
regeneration and intercooling and intercooling
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
9. A diffuser is used to
A. increase velocity and decrease pressure B. increase velocity as well as pressure
C. decrease velocity and increase pressure D. decrease velocity as well as pressure
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
10. In which of the following heat exchanger, heat is extracted from air?
A. Regenerator B. Reheater
C. Intercooler D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
11. Which component of a gas turbine consumes maximum power?
A. Starter B. Regenerator
C. Compressor D. Combustion chamber
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
12. In which of the following plant inferior quality fuel can be used?
Open cycle gas turbine Open cycle gas turbine

A. B.
with regeneration with intercooling
Open cycle gas turbine

C. with reheating and D. Closed cycle gas turbine
regeneration
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
13. In a reheating gas turbine cycle, reheating is done
by gases from turbine

A. B. by gases from intercooler
exhaust
in separate combustion
C. D. any of the above
chamber
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
14. In a gas turbine combined cycle plant, a waste heat boiler is used to
A. heat air from intercooler B. gases from regenerator
recover heat form exhaust

gases
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
15. A control volume has an inlet area of 0.1 m2 and exit area of 0.05 m2. The
density is 3.89 kg/m2 and constant. If the inlet velocity is 30 m/s, the
force on the control volume will be
A. 50 N B. 150 N
C. 250 N D. 350 N

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
16. Under standard atmospheric condition, the velocity of air is
A. 236 m/s B. 336 m/s
C. 436 m/s D. 536 m/s
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
17. The ratio of actual velocity to the local velocity of sound is called
A. Velicity ratio B. Velocity factor
C. Speed ratio D. Mach number
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
18. In a nozzle, once the critical conditions are achieved at the throat, than
which of the following remains constant:
A. Density of fluid B. Velocity of fluid
C. Flow rate D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
19. In a nozzle under choked flow conditions pressure waves travel, in the
divergent portion, at
A. subsonic speed B. sonic speed
subsonic to supersonic
C. supersonic speed D.
speed

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
20. In a nozzle if back pressure is equal to inlet pressure
A. no flow occurs B. maximum flow occurs
flow is supersonic in
flow is subsonic in
C. D. converging as well as
diverging section
supersonic sections
Answer: Option A
Explanation
21. The flow on two sides of a normal shock wave is
A. subsonic B. sonic
supersonic on one side and

C. supersonic D.
subsonic on the other side
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
22. The diverging portion of the nozzle acts as a diffuser for
A. the subsonic flow B. the supersonic flow
C. both the subsonic as well as supersonic flow D. none of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
23. A diffuser
A. converts kinetic energy into thermal energy B. converts potential energy into kinetic energy
C. converts pressure energy into kinetic energy D. converts thermal energy into kinetic energy
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
24. Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even for same compression ratio and work output
because
A. Otto cycle is more efficient B. Brayton cycle is less efficient
Large volume of low pressure gas cannot be

C. Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only D.
efficiently handled in reciprocating engines
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
25. Actual gas turbine cycle is different from ideal cycle because
of internal irreversibility of the process due of variation of specific heats with

A. B.
to friction, turbulence, etc. temperature
C. of losses due to incomplete combustion D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
26. The advantage of a gas turbine over a reciprocating engine is
A. perfect balancing of rotor B. continuous and uniform power
C. usually small working pressures D. all of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
27. Overall efficiency of a gas turbine is
A. equal to Rankine cycle efficiency B. equal to Carnot cycle efficiency
C. less than Diesel cycle efficiency D. more than Otto or Diesel cycle efficiency
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
28. Air fuel ratio for a gas turbine is closer to
A. 10 ; 1 B. 15 ; 1
C. 20 ; 1 D. 60 ; 1
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
29. Which of the following is a positive displacement rotory compressor?
A. Roots blower B. Centrifugal compressor
C. Axial flow compressor D. All of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
30. All of the following are positive displacement compressors EXCEPT :
A. Screw compressor B. Axial flow compressor
C. Roots blower D. Vane blower
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
31. For efficient operation of axial flow compressors the blades are made
A. straight B. slightly curved
C. aerofoil section D. forward curved
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
32. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine is in the range

A. 50 to 60 percent B. 40 to 50 percent
C. 30 to 40 percent D. 20 to 30 percent
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
33. The efficiency of a simple open cycle gas turbine depends upon
A. pressure ratio B. compressor efficiency
C. turbine inlet temperature D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
34. Which of the following steam turbine has identical fixed and moving blades?
A. Curtis turbine B. Rateau turbine
C. Parson's turbine D. none of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
35. Which of the following is a pressure compounded turbine?
A. Parson's turbine B. Curtis turbine
C. Rateau turbine D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
36. The continuity equation in compressible fluids is derived on the basis of
A. conservation of momentum B. conservation of energy

C. conservation of mass D. conservation of velocity head
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
37. As there is plenty of time for heat transfer across the walls, the flow in long pipes
at low velocities attains
A. isentropic conditions B. adiabatic conditions
C. isothermal conditions D. polytropic conditions
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
38. In a hot wire anemometer the rate of heat loss from sensing element is a
function of
A. pressure B. mass rate of flow
C. velocity of flow D. none of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
39. The normal shock wave in compressible flow is analogous to
vortex formation in centrifugal

A. surges in open channel B.
pump
C. hydraulic bore in tidal rivers D. hydraulic jump in channel flow
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
40. A roots blower compresses 0.06 cubic metres of air from 1.0 bar to 1.45 bar per
revolution. The compressor efficiency is nearly
A. 99% B. 87%
C. 75% D. 63%
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
41. Normal standard of compression for rotary compressor is
A. adiabatic compression B. polytropic compression
constant pressure
C. isentropic compression D.
compression
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
42. Though there are no cyclic variations even then rotary compressors need precise
balancing because
cooling arrangement does not

A. It is bulky in size B.
exist
it is driven by an electric
C. operating speeds are too high D.
motor
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
43. In air compressor performance curve a surge line represents
A. limits of compressor discharge B. limit of compressor efficiency
C. limit of stable operation D. lower critical speed of shaft
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
44. Curtis turbine is
a velocity compounded
A. in impulse turbine B.
turbine
a pressure compounded a velocity pressure
C. D.
turbine compounded turbine
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
45. The source of power for driving a turbocharger is
kinetic energy of exhaust chemical energy of exhaust

A. B.
gases from the engine gases
C. air motor D. electric motor
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
46. Maximum delivery pressure in case of rotary compressors is usually restricted to
A. 2 atmospheres B. 5 atmospheres
C. 10 atmospheres D. 20 atmospheres
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
47. Which of the following is a displacement compressors?
A. Reciprocating air compressor B. Vane blower
C. Centrifugal blower D. Axial flow compressors
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
48. Which type of rotary compressor is used in oil fired furnaces?
A. Sliding vane type blower B. Screw compressor

C. Axial flow compressor D. Centrifugal blower
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
49. In rotary compressors, slip factor is the ratio of
stagnation pressure to static isentropic work done to actual

A. B.
pressure work
outlet whirl velocity to the

blade velocity
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
50. In rotory compressors, the ratio of isentropic work to Eulers work is known as
A. slip factor B. work factor
C. pressure coefficient D. degree of reaction
Answer: Option C
Explanation
51. Stalling of the blades of axial flow compressor is
an unsteady periodic and reversal the fixed mass flow rate regardless
A. B.
of flow of pressure ratio
the reduction in lift force at higher

angle of incidence
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
52. Surging is
an unsteady, periodic and reversal of flow in the fixed mass flow rate regardless of
A. B.
the compressor pressure ratio
the reduction in lift force at higher angles of
incidence
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
53. Choking is
Variation of mass flow rate in proportion to variation of mass flow rate in inverse
A. B.
pressure ratio proportion to pressure ratio
fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure

ratio
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
54. Gas turbines are taken to
the gasoline and diesel engines in its the petrol and diesel engines in its internal
A. B.
working medium combustion
the steam turbine in its aspect of steady

C. D. All of the above
flow of the working medium
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
55. Which gas turbine has lest weight per bhp developed?
Open cycle gas turbine with intercooling and

A. Simple open cycle gas turbine B.
reheating
Open cycle gas turbine with intercooling,

C. D. Closed cycle gas turbine
reheating and regeneration
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

56. In gas turbines, intercooling results in
decrease in net output as well as thermal decrease in net output and increase in
A. B.
efficiency thermal efficiency
increase in net output but decrease in increase in net output as well as thermal
C. D.
thermal efficiency efficiency
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
57. Working medium for closed cycle gas turbine should have
A. high molecular weight B. low specific volume
C. higher adiabatic index D. lower specific speed
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
58. The advantage of closed cycle gas turbine over open cycle gas turbine is
no contamination of working substance with

A. B. inferior quality fuel can be used
combustion gases
C. low maintenance costs D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
59. The range of compression ratio in a gas turbine is
A. 3 to 6 B. 5 to 8
C. 8 to 12 D. 12 to 22
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

60. A constant volume combustion gas turbine operates on
A. Ericsson cycle B. Brayton cycle
C. Joule cycle D. Atkinson cycle
Answer: Option D
Explanation
61. When working substance is released through nozzles, the direction of
reaction will be
A. clockwise B. counter clockwise
direction depends on other

C. either of (A) and (B) above D.
design features
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
62. In a velocity compounded steam turbine, as steam moves along moving and
guide blades
pressure gradually
pressure is low and velocity
A. B. increases and velocity is
gradually decreases
low
both pressure and velocity Both pressure and velocity

C. D.
gradually decrease gradually increase.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
63. The effect of blade friction in a steam turbine is to
A. reheat the steam B. increase the specific output
C. reduce exhaust pressure D. reduce work done
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

64. If stage efficiency is S, blade efficiency is B and nozzle efficiency in N, then
A. N = B.S B. S = B.N
C. B = SN D. BSN = 1
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
65. Bleeding in steam turbine refers to
leakage of steam through leakage of steam through

A. B.
bearings packings
purposely withdrawn steam purposely withdrawn for

C. D.
for process application feed water heating
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
66. Critical pressure for steam is
A. 185.85 kg/cm2 B. 212.55 kg/cm2
C. 225.65 kg/cm2 D. 245.55 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
67. An ideal fluid for vapour turbine cycle should have
high critical temperature high critical temperature

A. B.
with low pressure with high pressure
low critical temperature low critical temperature

C. D.
with high pressure with low presure
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

68. Which of the following fluid can be used in binary vapour cycle?
A. Mercury B. Diphenyl oxide
C. Aluminium bromide D. any of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
69. Which of the following loss in steam turbines is negligible?
A. Residual velocity loss B. Leakage loss
C. Mechanical friction loss D. Radiation loss
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
70. Which of the following is the least efficient method of governing steam
turbines?
A. Nozzle control governing B. Throttle governing
Combined throttle and

C. Bypass governing D.
nozzle governing
Answer: Option B
Explanation
71. Ljungstrom steam turbine is a
A. radial flow turbine B. axial flow turbine
C. mixed flow turbine D. any of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
72. In a modern steam turbine, the steam rte is nearly
A. 1 kg/kWhr B. 2 kg/kWhr
C. 4 kg/kWhr D. 8 kg/kWhr
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
73. Which of the following rotary compressor has two shafts?
A. Axial flow compressor B. Sliding vane compressor
C. Centrifugal compressor D. Lobe type compressor
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
74. The ratio of outlet whirl velocity to blade velocity in case of centrifugal compressor is called
A. slip factor B. Velocity ratio
C. Blade efficiency D. Diagram efficiency
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
75. The following property is the most important for material used for gas turbine blades
A. Fatigue B. Strength against bending
C. Group D. Strength against direct force
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
76. Which of the following is the smallest and lighest for generating a given amount of power
A. Steam power plant B. Petrol engine
C. Diesel engine D. Solar plant

E. Gas turbine plant
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
77. Generally, steam turbines in power stations operate at
A. 3000 rpm B. 1500 rpm
C. 1000 rpm D. 375 rpm
E. 50 rpm
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
78. For gas turbine, compressors used are
A. Reciprocating type B. Centrifugal type
C. Axial flow type D. Lobe type
E. Sliding vane type
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
79. De Laval turbine is used for applications requiring
A. High power, high speed B. High power, low speed
C. Low power, high speed D. Low power, low speed
E. Low speed
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

80. As a result of blade friction, the outlet relative velocity of impulse turbine compared to inlet
relative velocity is
A. Nearly same B. 2% less
C. 10% - 15% less D. 30% less
E. 50% less
Answer: Option C
Explanation
81. Maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air compressor is of the order of
A. 6 KSC B. 10 KSC
C. 16 KSC D. 25 KSC
E. 40 KSC
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
82. Efficiency of gas turbine is increased by
A. Reheating B. Intercooling
C. Adding a regenerator D. All of the above
E. None
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
83. Most serious energy loss in reaction steam turbine
Leakage over blade ends

Steam leakage between
A. B. through radia clearance
diaphragm and shaft
passages
Frictional resistance
Impact loss as steam enters
C. between steam and nozzle D.
moving blades
side
E. Bearing friction
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
84. Basic closed cycle for gas turbine is
A. Carnot cycle B. Rankine cycle
C. Brayton cycle D. none of the above
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
85. The work ratio of closed cycle gas turbine plant with fixed top temperature of
the cycle and fixed pressure ratio rp
increases with increase in an increases with decrease in

A. inlet temperature to B. an inlet temperature to
compressor compresor
remain same irrespective of

C. inlet temperature to D. none of the above
compressor
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
86. Thermal efficiency of closed cycle gas turbine plant increases by
A. reheating B. intercooling
C. regenerator D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
87. With increase in pressure ratio, thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine
plant with fixed turbine inlet temperature
A. increases B. decreases
first increases and then
decreases
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
88. With ideal regencrative heat exchanger, the thermal efficiency of gas turbine
cycle is
A. equal to work ratio B. is less than work ratio
C. is more than work ratio D. none of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
89. In a two stage gas turbine plant reheating after first stage
A. increases thermal efficiency B. decreases thermal efficiency
doesoes not affect thermal

efficiency
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
90. In a two stage gas turbine plant, reheating after first stage
A. increases work ratio B. decreases work ratio
C. does not affect work ratio D. none of the above
Answer: Option A
Explanation
91. For a jet prepulsion unit, ideally the compressor work and turbine work are
A. unequal B. equal
C. not related to each other D. none of the above

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
92. Greater the difference between jet velocity and aeroplane velocity
A. greater the propulsive efficiency B. Lesser the propulsive efficiency
C. unaffected is the propulsive efficiency D. None of the above
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
This set of Hydraulic Machines Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on
“Turbines-1”.
1. Hydraulic energy is converted into another form of energy by hydraulic machines. What
form of energy is that?
a) Mechanical Energy
b) Electrical Energy
c) Nuclear Energy
d) Elastic Energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydraulic machines firstly convert the energy possessed by water into
mechanical energy. Later it can be transformed into electrical energy.
2. In hydraulic turbines, inlet energy is greater than the outlet energy.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The operating member which receives energy at the inlet should be more
compared to energy at the outlet.
3. Which principle is used in Hydraulic Turbines?

a) Faraday law
b) Newton’s second law
c) Charles law
d) Braggs law
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A Hydraulic Machine uses the principle of momentum which states that a force
is generated which is utilized in a turbine.
4. Buckets and blades used in a turbine are used to:

a) Alter the direction of water
b) Switch off the turbine
c) To regulate the wind speed
d) To regenerate the power
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbines use blades and buckets to alter the direction of water. It is used to
change the momentum of water. As momentum changes, force is produced to rotate the
shaft of a hydraulic machine.
5. _______________is the electric power obtained from the energy of the water.
a) Roto dynamic power
b) Thermal power
c) Nuclear power
d) Hydroelectric power
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The energy from the energy of water is also called hydro power. The electric
power so obtained is known as hydroelectric power.
6. Which energy generated in a turbine is used to run electric power generator linked to the
turbine shaft?
a) Mechanical Energy
b) Potential Energy
c) Elastic Energy
d) Kinetic Energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The kinetic and potential energies produced are converted to some useful
mechanical energy. This part of energy is available to the turbine shaft.
7. Hydraulic Machines fall under the category :

a) Pulverizers
b) Kinetic machinery
c) Condensers
d) Roto-dynamic machinery
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydraulic Machines use the principle of rotation of blades to alter the speed of
water. Hence fall under roto dynamic machinery.
8. Which kind of turbines changes the pressure of the water entered through it?
a) Reaction turbines
b) Impulse turbines
c) Reactive turbines
d) Kinetic turbines
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reaction turbines which act on water try to change the pressure of the water
through its motion.
9. Which type of turbine is used to change the velocity of the water through its flow?
a) Kinetic turbines
b) Axial flow turbines
c) Impulse turbines
d) Reaction turbines
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Impulse turbines, potential energy is utilized to convert as kinetic energy
thereby changing the velocity of the water through its process.
10. Which type of turbine is a Francis Turbine?

a) Impulse Turbine
b) Screw Turbine
c) Reaction turbine
d) Turgo turbine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Francis turbine is a reaction turbine as it changes the pressure of water through
its process. Hence it cannot be an impulse turbine.
11. How many types of Reaction turbines are there?

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 9
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are five types of reaction turbines namely VLH, Francis, Kaplan, Tyson,
Gorolov helical turbine.
12. Turgo Turbine is an impulsive turbine.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a turgo turbine, velocity of water changes with due respect. Hence it is an
Impulse turbine.
13. Which kind of turbine is a Fourneyron Turbine?

a) Inward flow turbine
b) Outward flow turbine
c) Mixed flow turbine
d) Radial flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a Fourneyron turbine, the flow is centrifugal type. The flow is outwards from
the centre to the periphery
1. Maximum Number of jets, generally, employed in an impulse turbine without jet

interference can be?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Equating equations of initial jet velocity and energy of a turbine, we get the
minimum number of jets to be 6.
2. The overall efficiency of a reaction turbine is the ratio of

a) Actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel
b) Work done on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually supplied to the turbine
c) Power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine
d) Actual work available at the turbine to energy imparted to the wheel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The overall efficiency of any turbine will be mechanical efficiency * hydraulic
efficiency.
3. In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is used to _________

a) To increase the head of water by an amount that is equal to the height of the runner outlet
above the tail race
b) To prevent air to enter the turbine
c) To increase pressure energy of water
d) To transport water to downstream
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A draft tube influences performance of a turbine. It is located below the runner
to decelerate flow velocity.
4. In reaction turbine hydraulic efficiency is______________

a) Ratio of actual work at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel.
b) Ratio of work done on the wheel to energy that is supplied to the turbine.
c) Ratio of power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine.
d) Ratio of Work done on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually supplied to the
turbine.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In turbines, overall efficiency is the product of hydraulic and mechanical
efficiencies. Here the hydraulic efficiency is ratio of work done to head of water.
5. Consider an inward flow reaction turbine, here, water _______

a) Flows parallel to the axis of the wheel
b) Enters the wheel at the outer periphery and then flows towards the centre of the wheel
c) Flow is partly radial and partly axial
d) Enters at the centre of the wheel and then flows towards the outer periphery of the wheel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In any inward reaction flow turbine, water enters the outer periphery towards
the centre of the wheel.
6. The working of which of the following hydraulic units is based on Pascal’s law?
a) Air lift pump
b) Hydraulic coupling
c) Hydraulic press
d) Jet pump
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pascal’s law can be described as the rate of flow of volume is constant. Hydraulic
press uses similar principle.
7. Which kind of turbine is a Pelton Wheel turbine?

a) Tangential flow turbine.
b) Radial flow turbine
c) Outward flow turbine
d) Inward flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tangential turbine is one which water strikes runner in direction of the tangent
to wheel of the turbine.
8. IN what type of turbine water enters in radial direction and leaves axial direction?
a) Tangential flow turbine
b) Axial flow turbine
c) Outward flow turbine
d) Mixed flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Only in a mixed flow turbine, water enters in radial direction and leaves axial
direction.
9. How many types of turbines can you classify on the basis of direction of flow through
runner?
a) 6
b) 3
c) 4
d) 7
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 4 types of turbines, namely tangential, radial, axial , mixed flow
turbines.
10. Into how many types can you classify radial flow turbines?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 6
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We can classify radial flow turbines into 2 types, namely inward radial flow and
outward radial flow.
11. Into how many types can you classify turbines on basis of head at inlet?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: We can classify turbines into 3 types on basis of head. Into high head, low head,
medium head discharged
“Heads in a Turbine”.
1. Among the following which turbine requires more head?

a) Pelton Turbine
b) Kaplan Turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Tube Turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Except Pelton remaining are reaction turbines, in impulse pressure energy is
constant and only available energy is kinetic energy which is directly proportional to head.
2.Total head of turbines is_______

a) Pressure head + Static head
b) Kinetic head + Static head
c) Static head + Pressure head
d) Pressure head + Kinetic head + Static head
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Generally total is calculated as sum of pressure head, static head and kinetic
head.
3. Head under which Kaplan turbine is operated______

a) 10-70 meters
b) 70 -100 meters
c) 100-200 meters
d) Above 200 meters
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kaplan turbine is reaction turbine and it operates at low head 10-70 meters and
output power is 5-200 MW.
4. Head under which Francis turbine is operated

a) 10-70 meters
b) 70-100 meters
c) 100-200 meters
d) 40 -600 meters
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Francis turbine is also reaction turbine but pressure energy is less when
compared with Kaplan turbine .hence head is between 40 and 600 meters.
5. The turbine is preferred for 0 to 25 m head of water?
a) Pelton wheel
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Tube turbine
d) Francis turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Kaplan is reaction turbine and its range of operation is between 10-70 meters
which has output range between 5-200 MW.
6. Under what head is Pelton turbine operated?

a) 20-50 meters
b) 15-2000 meters
c) 60-200 meters
d) 50-500 meters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pelton turbine is an impulse turbine only energy available is kinetic energy which
is proportional to head, hence it requires high head. Theoretically there is no limit to max
value of head.
7. _____________ is difference between head race and tail race

a) Gross head
b) Net head
c) Net positive suction head
d) Manometric head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gross head is the difference in elevation of water levels of fore bay and tail race.
8. The head available at inlet of turbine

a) Net positive suction head
b) Gross head
c) Net head
d) Manometric head
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is the available effective head used for production. This is also called as static
gross head.
9. Head lost due to friction is given by k*f*L*v*v/D*2g where f- friction coefficient, L- length of
pen stock, D- diameter of penstock and” k” is constant and its value is ____________
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The constant determined from the given formula is 4.
10. The difference between gross head and friction losses is ____________
a) Net head
b) Gross head
c) Manometric head
d) Net positive suction head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Net head is the effective head used to calculate power production. It includes
the elimination of frictional losses from the gross head
1. _____________ is defined as ratio between power delivered to runner and power supplied at
inlet of turbine.
a) Mechanical efficiency
b) Volumetric efficiency
c) Hydraulic efficiency
d) Overall efficiency
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic efficiency is defined as ratio between power given by water to runner
of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine.
2. Which among the following which is not an efficiency of turbine?

d) Electrical efficiency
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electrical efficiency is ratio of work output and electrical power input to electrical
machine but turbine is a hydraulic machine which consists of only mechanical, volumetric
and hydraulic efficiencies.
3. The ratio of power at the shaft of turbine and power delivered by water to runner is known
as?
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to mechanical losses, power available at shaft of turbine is less than power
delivered to the runner of turbine. Hence ratio of power at the shaft of turbine and power
delivered by water to runner is known as mechanical efficiency.
4. The product of mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency is known as?

View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Overall efficiency is defined as ratio of power available at shaft of turbine to
power supplied at the inlet of turbine which is also product of mechanical and hydraulic
efficiency.
5. Among the following which turbine has highest efficiency?

a) Kaplan turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Pelton turbine
d) Propeller turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kaplan is inward flow reaction turbine and is operated under head less than 60
meters. The vanes attached to hub are adjustable and Kaplan is mainly operated in location
where large quantity of water at low head is available.
6. _____________ is ratio of volume of water actually striking the runner and volume of water
supplied to turbine?
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Volumetric efficiency is ratio between volume of water actually striking the
runner of turbine and volume of water supplied to the turbine.
7. In the expression for overall efficiency of turbine, which is p/(k*g*q*h), where “k” is known
as
a) Density of liquid
b) Specific density of liquid
c) Volume of liquid
d) Specific gravity of liquid
View Answer
Answer: a
efficiency. Its expression is given by p/(k*g*q*h) where k is density of liquid.
8. The expression for maximum hydraulic efficiency of pelton turbine is given by?
a) (1+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
b) (2+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
c) (3+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
d) (4+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
View Answer
Answer: a
of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine. Its maximum value is
obtained by replacing u=v/2 and it is (1+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle.
9. To obtain maximum hydraulic efficiency of pelton turbine, blade velocity should be

___________ Times the inlet velocity of jet.
a) Half
b) One quarter
c) Twice
d) Thrice
View Answer
Answer: a
of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine. This efficiency will be
maximum when differentiating it with “u” and it is obtained as u=v/2.
10. Among the following which turbine has least efficiency?

a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pelton turbine is an impulse turbine, where there is no theoretical limit for head
due to high head there is loss due to friction when water passing through penstocks hence its
efficiency is less.
11. The ratio of volume available at shaft of turbine and power supplied at the inlet of the
turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
efficiency
1. A hydraulic coupling belongs to the category of________

a) Energy absorbing machines
b) Energy generating machines
c) Power absorbing machines
d) Energy transfer machines
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydraulic coupling is a device used for transmitting rotation between shafts by
means of acceleration and deceleration of hydraulic fluid.
2. The electric power which is obtained from hydraulic energy____________

a) Thermal power
b) Mechanical power
c) Solar power
d) Hydroelectric power
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydroelectric power is generated by using hydraulic machines. Potential energy
of water is converted to mechanical energy which is connected to dynamo to generate
electrical energy.
3. At present which is cheapest means of generating power_____________

a) Thermal power
b) Nuclear power
c) Hydroelectric power
d) Electric Power
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic energy is renewable source of energy in which Potential energy of
water is converted to mechanical energy which is connected to dynamo to generate electrical
energy.
4. Pipes of largest diameter which carry water from reservoir to the turbines is known
as_____________
a) Head stock
b) Tail race
c) Tail stock
d) Pen stock
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Penstocks are channels which transport water from reservoir to turbines which
are usually made up of cast iron or concrete.
5. Pen stocks are made up of_____________

a) Steel
b) Cast iron
c) Mild steel
d) Wrought iron
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Penstocks are channels which transport water from reservoir to turbines which
are usually made up of cast iron or concrete.
6. ____________is an inward radial flow reaction turbine?

a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Kaplan and propeller are outward axial flow reaction turbines but Francis is
outward radial flow reaction turbine.
7. The important type of axial flow reaction turbines are ______________

a) Propeller and Pelton turbines
b) Kaplan and Francis turbines
c) Propeller and Francis turbines
d) Propeller and Kaplan turbines
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Axial flow turbine is a turbine in which water flows axially outwards and turbines
fall into this category are propeller and Kaplan turbines.
8. ______________ is a axial flow reaction turbines, if vanes are fixed to hub of turbine
a) Propeller turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Pelton turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Axial flow turbine is a turbine in which water flows axially outwards, if vanes are
fixed to hub of turbine it is known as Propeller turbine but if vanes are free to move it is
known as Kaplan Turbine.
9. Francis and Kaplan turbines are known as _______

a) Impulse turbine
b) Reaction turbine
c) Axial flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Francis and Kaplan are reaction turbines because pressure energy of water
changes when it enters the rotor.
10. Specific speed of reaction turbine is between?

a) 5 and 50
b) 10 and 100
c) 100 and 150
d) 150 and 300
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific turbines of reaction turbines such as Francis and Kaplan lie under the
range 10-100.
11. Impulse turbine is generally fitted at ______________
a) At the level of tail race
b) Above the tail race
c) Below the tail race
d) About 2.5mts above tail race to avoid cavitations.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Impulse turbine is fitted above the tail race because in impulse turbines, the
pressure energy must convert into kinetic energy for usage
1. Hydraulic turbines are classified based on ____________

a) Energy available at inlet of turbine
b) Direction of flow through vanes
c) Head at inlet of turbine
d) Energy available, Direction of flow, Head at inlet.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydraulic Turbines can be classified on any basis like energy supplied, direction
of flow, and head at inlet.
2. Impulse turbine and reaction turbine are classified based on ?

a) Type of energy at inlet
b) Direction of flow through runner
d) Specific speed of turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In impulse turbine, pressure energy firstly converts into kinetic energy but in
reaction turbine pressure change of water is present only when it passes through the rotor of
the turbine.
3. Tangential flow, axial flow, radial flow turbines are classified based on?
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Different types of flow of water classify turbines into tangential, axial, radial flow.
4. High head, low head and medium head turbines are classified based on
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Different heads of turbines classifies turbines based on their heads, namely
Kaplan, Francis, Pelton.
5. Low specific speed, high specific speed and medium specific speed are classified based on
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Different specific speed of turbines classifies turbines based on their heads,
namely Kaplan, Francis, Pelton.
6. If energy available at inlet of turbine is only kinetic energy then it is classified based on
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When there is energy such as kinetic energy at inlet, turbines is classified based
on their energies at inlet. In this case, it is an impulse turbine.
7. If water flows in radial direction at inlet of runner and leaves axially at outlet then turbine is
named as
b) Axial flow turbine
c) Radial flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a mixed flow turbine, water enters in radial direction and exits axially.
8. Pelton turbine is operated under_________

a) Low head and high discharge
b) High head and low discharge
c) Medium head and high discharge
d) Medium head and medium discharge
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on heads and discharges, turbines are classified into Pelton, Francis or
Kaplan. Pelton has high head and low discharge.
9. Kaplan turbine is operated under __________

a) Low head and high discharge
b) High head and low discharge
c) Medium head and high discharge
d) Medium head and medium discharge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Based on heads and discharges, turbines are classified into Pelton, Francis or
Kaplan. Kaplan has low head and high discharge.
10. Medium specific speed of turbine implies _____________

a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Francis turbine is a widely used turbine. It has a medium specific speed.
11. High specific speed of turbine implies that it is___________

a) Francis turbine
b) Propeller turbine
c) Pelton turbine
d) Kaplan turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Kaplan turbines have high specific speeds compared to Francis and Pelton
turbines
1. Velocity triangles are used to analyze ____________

a) Flow of water along blades of turbine
b) Measure discharge of flow
c) Angle of deflection of jet
d) Flow of water, measure of discharge, angle of deflection.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By using velocity triangles we can determine discharge of flow, angle of
deflection of jet and to measure relative velocity of jet with respect to speed of wheel.
2. In which of following turbine inlet and outlet blade velocities of vanes are equal?
a) Francis turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Pelton turbine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Pelton turbine each blade has same angular velocity and same linear speed
unlike Francis and Kaplan turbines.
3. Tangential velocity of blade of Pelton wheel is proportional to ____________

a) Speed of wheel
b) Angular velocity of wheel
c) Rpm of wheel
d) Speed, angular velocity, RPM of the wheel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Usually velocity of blade is given by u=radius*angular velocity from which
velocity is proportional to speed of wheel.
4. The value of coefficient of velocity is _____________

a) 0.98
b) 0.65
c) 0.85
d) 0.33
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Coefficient of velocity is defined as ratio of actual velocity of jet at vena
contraction to theoretical velocity. Its value is approximate to 0.98.
5. In which of following turbine inlet whirl velocity and inlet jet velocity are equal in
magnitude?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Propeller turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Francis turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Pelton turbine velocity of inlet is parallel to splitter and is parallel to x axis
which doesn’t have flow velocity.
6. In Pelton wheel, if outlet velocity angle of jet is “acute angled” then outlet whirl velocity of
jet is ______________
a) x- component of V(r2) – blade velocity
b) x- component of V (r2) + blade velocity
c) Blade velocity – x- component of V (r2)
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: By constructing velocity triangle we come to know that whirl velocity of jet is
equal in magnitude to that of x- component of V r2 – blade velocity.
7. In Pelton wheel, if outlet velocity angle of jet is “obtuseangled” then outlet whirl velocity of
jet is _____________
a) x- component of V (r2) – blade velocity
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation:By constructing velocity triangle we come to know that whirl velocity of jet is
equal in magnitude to that of Blade velocity – x- component of V (r2).
8. In Pelton wheel, if outlet velocity angle of jet is “right angled” then outlet whirl velocity of jet
is __________
a) x- component of V (r2) – blade velocity
d) Zero
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By constructing velocity triangle we come to know that whirl velocity of jet is
equal to zero as x- component of V(r2)= blade velocity.
9. In Pelton wheel, relative inlet velocity of jet with respect to velocity of vane is _____________
a) Difference between inlet jet velocity and blade velocity
b) Sum of inlet jet velocity and blade velocity
c) Inlet jet velocity
d) Blade velocity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Pelton turbine, inlet velocity of jet and velocity of vanes are in same direction
and of different magnitude hence relative velocity is found by calculating its difference.
10. In Pelton wheel if angle of deflection is not mentioned then we assume it as______________
a) 150 degrees
b) 200 degrees
c) 165 degrees
d) 185 degrees
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It is standard value for deflection of jet, which is found by performing several
experimental operations.
1. The work done per unit weight of water jet striking runner blades of Pelton turbine is given
by expression ______________
a) [Vw1+Vw2] u/g
b) Vw1*u/g
c) [Vw1+Vw2]/g
d) [Vw1+Vw2]u
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Generally work done is force times velocity and expression for it is PQ
[Vw1+Vw2] u/g and work done per unit weight gives [Vw1+Vw2]u/g.
2. In Pelton turbine the energy available at inlet of runner that is at outlet of nozzle is known
as
a) Shaft power
b) Runner power
c) Output power
d) Water power
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Pelton turbine the energy available at inlet of runner that is at outlet of nozzle
is known as runner power, the energy available in penstock is water energy.
3. In Pelton turbines the expression for power delivered at inlet to runner is given by
__________
a) W*[Vw1+Vw2]u/g
b) W*[Vw1-Vw2]u/g
c) W*[Vw1+Vw2]u/g, W*[Vw1-Vw2]u/g
d) [Vw1+Vw2]u/g
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally work done is force times velocity and expression for it is PQ
[Vw1+Vw2] u/g and work done per unit weight gives [Vw1+Vw2]u/g.
4. In Pelton turbine runner power is more when compared with power available at exit of
nozzle.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Runner power is less when compared with power available at exit of nozzle due
to frictional losses.
5. Kinetic energy of jet at inlet of turbine is given as __________________

a) 0.5(paV1)*V1
b) 0.5(paV1)*V1*V1
c) 0.5(aV1)*V1*V1
d) 0.5(pV1)*V1*V1
p= density of liquid, a= area of jet, V1= inlet jet velocity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Expression for kinetic energy is product of half times mass and square of
velocity, mass can be written as density time volume.
6. The force exerted by a jet of water in the direction of jet of jet on a stationary curved plates
Fx is ____________
a) pav*v
b) pav
c) pav*v(1+cos k)
d) pav*v(1+sin k)
p=density, v= velocity of jet, k= blade angle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally force is rate of change of momentum, in curved blade of angle k
change of momentum will be pav*v (1+cos k).
7. The force exerted by a jet of water in the direction of jet of jet on moving curved plates is
___________
a) pa(v-u)*(v-u)
b) pa(v-u)
c) pav*(v-u)(1+cos k)
d) pa(v-u)*(v-u)(1+sin k)
p=density, v= velocity of jet, k= blade angle, u= blade velocity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally force is rate of change of momentum, in curved blade of angle k
change of momentum will bepav*(v-u)(1+cos k) here relative velocity is considered than
absolute.
8. Calculate work done by jet per second on the runner where, discharge=0.7cubic meters/s,
inlet and outlet whirl velocities be 23.77 and 2.94?
a) 200Kw
b) 150Kw
c) 187Kw
d) 250Kw
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As we know the expression for work done per second is W*[Vw1+Vw2] u/g on
substituting the above given values we get it as 187Kw.
9. The power supplied at inlet of turbine in S.I units is known as_____________

a) Shaft power
d) Runner power
c) Water power
d) Total power
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The power supplied at inlet of turbine in S.I units is known as water energy,
which contain both kinetic energy and pressure energy.
10.The expression for water power in Pelton wheel is ________________

a) (P*g*Q*H) Kw
b) (g*Q*H*a) Kw
c) (g*Q) Kw
d) (g*H) Kw
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Expression for water power of Pelton turbine is potential energy of water which
is converted into kinetic energy
can be written as (P*g*Q*H) Kw
1. The hydraulic efficiency of Pelton turbine will be maximum when blade velocity is equal to
_______
a) V/2
b) V/3
c) V/4
d) V/5
View Answer
Answer: a
of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine. This efficiency will be
maximum when differentiating it with “u” and it is obtained as u=v/2.
2. In Pelton turbine ___________ is defined as ratio between power delivered to runner and
power supplied at inlet of turbine
View Answer
Answer: c
of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine.
3. The maximum efficiency of Pelton turbine is _________

a) 80%
b) 70%
c) 50%
d) 88%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: We know that efficiency will be Maximumwhen blade velocity is equal to half of
its jet velocity upon substitution we get efficiency as 50%.
4. In Pelton turbine product of mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency is known as

_____________
View Answer
Answer: d
efficiency.
5. Among the following which turbine has least efficiency?

a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pelton is impulse turbine and remaining are reaction turbine, efficiency of
reaction turbine is more compared to impulse turbine.
6. In Pelton ____________ is ratio of volume of water actually striking the runner and volume of
water supplied to turbine?
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Volumetric efficiency is ratio between volume of water actually striking the
runner of turbine and volume of water supplied to the turbine.
7. In Pelton turbine the ratio of volume available at shaft of turbine and power supplied at the
inlet of the turbine is _______
View Answer
Answer: d
efficiency.
8. The expression for maximum hydraulic efficiency of Pelto turbine is given by ______________
a) (1+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
b) (2+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
c) (3+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
d) (4+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle
View Answer
Answer: a
of turbine and to the power supplied by water at inlet of the turbine. Its maximum value is
obtained by replacing u=v/2 and it is (1+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade angle.
9. In the expression for overall efficiency of turbine, which is p/ (k*g*q*h), where “k” is known
as _______
a) Specific density of liquid
b) Density of liquid
c) Specific gravity of liquid
d) Volume of liquid
View Answer
Answer: b
efficiency. Its expression is given by p/ (k*g*q*h) where k is density of liquid.
10. In Pelton turbine hydraulic efficiency is product of mechanical efficiency and overall
efficiency.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The above statement is false generally overall efficiency is product of mechanical
and hydraulic efficiency.
11. The expression for hydraulic efficiency is given by

a) 2(V1-u)[1+cos k]u/V1*V1
b) 2(V1+u)[1+cos k]u/V1*V1
c) 2(V1-u)[1-cos k]u/V1*V1
d) 2(V1+u)[1+cos k]u/V1*V1
Where, V1=inlet jet velocity, u=blade velocity, k=outlet blade angle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydraulic efficiency is ratio of power delivered to runner to power supplied at
inlet of turbine upon substituting the mathematical terms we get expression as follows.
12. In Pelton turbine inlet velocity of jet is 85.83m/s, inlet and outlet whirl velocities be 85.83
and 0.143 and blade velocity be 38.62 then its hydraulic efficiency is ___________
a) 90.14%
b) 80%
c) 70%
d) 85%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Substitute the above given values in expression for hydraulic efficiency which is
given by expression 2[Vw1+Vw2] u/V1*V1 and we get it as 90.14%
1. Design of Pelton wheel means the following data is to be determined.

a) Width of buckets
b) Depth of buckets
c) Number of buckets
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In design of Pelton wheel we determine diameter of jet, diameter of runner,
Width of buckets, Depth of buckets, Number of buckets on runner.
2. The width of buckets of Pelton wheel is _________________

a) 2 times diameter of jet
b) 3 times diameter of jet
c) 4 times diameter of jet
d) 5 times diameter of jet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: To obtain Pelton wheel of higher efficiency, width of buckets is specified as 5
times diameter of jet by considering several experimental observations.
3. The depth of buckets of Pelton wheel ____________

a) 1.2 times diameter of jet
b) 1.3 times diameter of jet
c) 1.4 times diameter of jet
d) 1.5 times diameter of jet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To obtain Pelton wheel of higher efficiency, depth of buckets is specified as 1.2
4. The ratio of pitch diameter of Pelton wheel to diameter of jet is known as ___________
a) Speed ratio
b) Jet ratio
c) Velocity ratio
d) Co-efficient of velocity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of pitch diameter of Pelton wheel to diameter of jet is known as jet
ratio.
5. Find the diameter of jet D, if jet ratio m and diameter of jet d are given as 10 and 125mm.
a) 1.25 meters
b) 1.5 meters
c) 2 meters
d) 1.2 meters
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Expression for jet ratio is m=D/d which is 10*0.125= 1.25 meters.
6. The number of buckets of Pelton wheel is 25 and diameter of runner is 1.5meters then
calculate diameter of jet is ___________
a) 80mm
b) 85mm
c) 90mm
d) 82mm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The expression for measuring number of buckets is 15 + diameter of runner/2
times diameter of jet by using this expression we get diameter of jet as 85mm.
7. In most of cases the value of jet ratio is _______________

a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Jet ratio is 12 because in most of Pelton turbines diameter of runner is 12 times
the diameter of jet.
8. Number of buckets on runner of Pelton wheel is given by expression? (D-diameter of

runner and d- diameter of jet)
a) 15 + D/2d
b) 15 + 3D/2d
c) 15 + D/d
d) 15 + 2D/d
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To obtain Pelton wheel of higher efficiency, number of buckets is specified as 15
+ D/2d by considering several experimental observations.
9. ____________ is obtained by dividing total rate of flow through the turbine by rate of flow
through single jet.
a) Number of jets
b) Diameter of jets
c) Velocity of jets
d) Speed ratio
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Total discharge is sum of individual discharges hence, by dividing total rate of
flow through the turbine by rate of flow through single jet we get number of jets.
10. If diameter of jet is 85mm and diameter of runner is 1.5 meter then calculate width of
buckets.
a) 400mm
b) 500mm
c) 420mm
d) 425mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The expression for measuring width of buckets is 5*diameter of jet, which is
5*85=425mm.
11. If diameter of jet is 85mm and diameter of runner is 1.5 meter then depth of buckets is
___________
a) 100mm
b) 105mm
c) 106mm
d) 102mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The expression for measuring depth of buckets is 1.2*diameter of jet, which is
1.2*85=102mm.
12. If diameter of jet is 85mm and diameter of runner is 1.5 meter then calculate number of
buckets on Pelton wheel approximately
a) 20
b) 22
c) 23
d) 25
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The expression for measuring number of buckets is 15 + diameter of runner/2
time’s diameter of jet, which are 15 + 1.5/2*0.085.
13. The width of Pelton wheel should be 5 times the diameter of jet?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: To obtain Pelton wheel of higher efficiency, width of buckets is specified as 5
14. The ratio of diameter of jet to diameter of runner is _____________

a) 1:3
b) 1:6
c) 1:5
d) 3:4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To obtain Pelton wheel of higher efficiency, diameter of runner is 5 times
diameter of jet by considering several experimental observations
“Main Parts of Radial flow Reaction Turbines”.
1. Radial flow reaction turbines are those turbines in which water flows ____________
a) Radial direction
b) Axial direction
c) Tangential direction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The name itself indicates the type of flow that is radial direction but the thing
that is unknown is whether it is radially inward or outwards.
2. Main parts of radial flow reaction turbines are ______________

a) Casing
b) Guide mechanism
c) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The main parts in a radial turbine are tight casing to prevent spill of water,
runner, guide vanes, guide mechanism to regulate flow and draft to increase inlet pressure.
3. Discharge through radial flow reaction turbine is ______________

a) P1*b1*Vf1
b) P2*b2*Vf2
c) P1*b2*Vf2
d) Both P1*b1*Vf1 & P2*b2*Vf2
Where, P1= perimeter of runner at inlet, P2= perimeter of runner at outlet, b= thickness and
Vf= flow velocity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Discharge of radial flow reaction turbine is product of perimeter of runner,
thickness, whirl velocity, at inlet as well as outlet runner vanes.
4. Radial flow reaction turbines contain spiral casing which area ____________
a) Remains constant
b) Gradually decreases
c) Gradually increases
d) Suddenly decreases
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Area of spiral structure gradually decreases because as discharge decreases
correspondingly area also decreases. So, runner will rotate with constant velocity.
5. ____________ consists of stationary circular wheel all around the runner of turbine
a) Casing
b) Guide mechanism
c) Runner
d) Drafting
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Guide vanes are placed around the runner to regulate the flow and to provide
shock less entry at inlet to runner.
6. The casing of radial flow reaction turbine is made of spiral shape, so that water may enter
the runner__________
a) Variable acceleration
b) Constant acceleration
c) Variable velocity
d) Constant velocity
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Area of spiral structure gradually decreases because as discharge decreases
correspondingly area also decreases. So, runner will rotate with constant velocity.
7. _____________ allow the water to strike the vanes fixed on runner without shock at inlet
a) Casing
b) Guide vanes
c) Runner
d) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: b
8. Runner blades are made up of _____________

a) Cast steel
b) Cast iron
c) Wrought iron
d) Steel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Runner blades are made up of cast steel because they are less corrosive and
highly durable.
9. The pressure at the exit of runner of reaction turbine is generally____________than

atmospheric pressure
a) Greater
b) Lesser
c) Constant
d) Equal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In general, the exit of runner has a low pressure compared to the atmospheric
pressure.
10. ___________is a pipe of gradually increasing area used for discharging water from exit of
the turbine to the tail race
a) Casing
b) Guide mechanism
c) Draft tube
d) Runner
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Draft is a pipe of gradually increasing area, as water leaving runner has less
pressure, draft tube will increase pressure energy of water by decreasing its velocity.
11. ____________and __________of radial flow reaction turbine are always full of water.
a) Casing and runner
b) Casing and penstocks
c) Runner and penstocks
d) Runner and draft tube
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Casing and runner are completely covered by water as it is a reaction turbine in
which pressure energy is predominant.
12. ____________governs the flow of water entering the runner blades.

a) Casing
b) Guide vanes
c) Draft tube
d) Runner
View Answer
Answer: b
13. Spiral casing of reaction turbine will regulate the flow?

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
shock less entry at inlet to runner
1. Inward radial flow reaction turbine is a turbine in which water flows across the blades of
runner______________
a) Radial direction
b) Radially inward
c) Radially outward
d) Axial direction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The name itself indicates that flow is in radial direction and flowing from outer
periphery towards center.
2. Which of following is inward radial flow reaction turbine?

a) Pelton wheel
b) Francis turbine
c) Axial turbine
d) Kaplan turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pelton is impulse a turbine, Kaplan is axial flow turbine and Francis is an inward
flow reaction turbine.
3. In Inward radial flow reaction turbine which is not required?

a) Runner
b) Air tight casing
c) Guide vanes
d) Breaking jet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Here in inward flow reaction turbine, instead of jet water is passed into spiral
casing directly and breaking jet is not used for its halt instead of it guide vanes are used.
4. The main difference between reaction turbine and inward radial flow reaction turbine is
water flows___________
a) Radial direction
b) Radially inward
c) Radially outward
d) Axial direction
View Answer
Answer: b
5. In Inward radial flow reaction turbine the ratio of tangential wheel at inlet to given velocity
of jet is known as _______
a) Speed ratio
b) Flow ratio
c) Discharge
d) Radial discharge
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Flow ratio is known as ratio of tangential wheel at inlet to given velocity of jet
and it is scalar quantity.
6. In Inward radial flow reaction turbine the ratio of tangential velocity at inlet to the given
velocity ____________
a) Speed ratio
b) Flow ratio
c) Discharge
d) Radial discharge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed ratio is ratio of tangential velocity at inlet to the given velocity and it is
scalar quantity because it is ratio of two speeds.
7. The discharge through a reaction radial flow turbine is given by____________

a) P1*b1*Vf1
b) P2*b2*Vf2
c) P1*b2*Vf2
d) Both a & b
Where, P1= perimeter of runner at inlet, P2= perimeter of runner at outlet, b= thickness and V
f= flow velocity
View Answer
Answer: d
thickness, whirl velocity, at inlet as well as outlet runner vanes.
8. In Inward radial flow reaction turbine if thickness is considered then discharge is _________
a) (P1-n*t)*b1*Vf1
b) (P2-n*t)*b2*Vf2
c) (P1-n*t)*b2*Vf2
d) Both a & b
Where, P1= perimeter of runner at inlet, P2= perimeter of runner at outlet, b= width, Vf= flow
velocity, n= number of blades and t= thickness of blades
View Answer
Answer: d
thickness, whirl velocity, at inlet as well as outlet runner vanes. If n blades of thickness t is
considered then discharge is (P1-n*t)*b1*Vf1.
9. In Inward radial flow reaction turbine if angle made by absolute velocity with its tangent is
90 degrees and component of whirl is zero at outlet is _____________
a) Radial inlet discharge
b) Radial outlet discharge
c) Flow ratio
d) Speed ratio
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If angle made by absolute velocity with its tangent is 90 degrees and component
of whirl is zero at outlet in radial flow reaction then total velocity will be flow velocity.
10. In which of following turbine whirl component is zero?

a) Reaction turbine
b) Inward radial flow reaction turbine
c) Axial flow turbine
d) Impulse turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If angle made by absolute velocity with its tangent is 90 degrees and component
of whirl is zero at outlet in radial flow reaction turbines then total velocity will be flow velocity.
11. Discharge in inward flow reaction turbine ____________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Gradually decreases
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Discharge in inward flow reaction turbine decreases because area decreases as
fluid flows across spiral structure.
12. Speed control of Outward flow reaction turbine is _________
a) Easy
b) Moderate
c) Difficult
d) Very difficult
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In an outward reaction turbine, we can only partly control the speed.
13. Centrifugal head in inward flow reaction turbine __________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Because centrifugal head is proportional to difference of outlet blade velocity
and inlet blade velocity.
Here, u2 < u1 so centrifugal head decreases.
14. Tendency of wheel to race is almost nil in ___________turbine

a) Inward flow reaction turbine
b) Outward flow reaction turbine
c) Impulse turbine
d) Axial flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In an inward reaction flow turbine, wheel moves with the constant speed.
15. Inward flow reaction turbine is used in practical applications __________

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanations: Inward flow reaction turbine is used in practical applications that is “Francis
turbine”.
1. The formation of vapour cavities is called _____

a) Static pressure drop
b) Cavitation
c) Isentropic expansion
d) Emulsion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The formation of vapour cavities is called cavitation. It is formed due to the
presence of small free liquids with different zones. These zones consists of different layers of
forces acting on them.
2. What is the degree of reaction denoted as?
a) D
b) R
c) r
d) d
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of the static pressure drop in the rotor
to the static pressure drop in the stage. It can also be defined in the same way for enthalpy in
different stages. It is denoted by the letter ‘R’.
3. Voids are created due to______

a) Reaction ratio
b) Pressure ratio
c) Liquid free layers
d) Volumetric layers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Voids in a turbine or pump is created due to the presence of liquid free layers. It
is formed due to the presence of small free liquids with different zones. These zones consists
of different layers of forces acting on them.
4. Cavitation usually occurs due to the changes in ________

a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Heat
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cavitation usually occurs due to the changes in pressure. The pressure change is
so rapid that it leads to formation of liquid free layers or cavities that start to affect the
overall performance.
5. Degree of reactions are most commonly used in________

a) Turbomachinery
b) Pressure drag
c) Aerodynamics
d) Automobiles
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Degree of reaction is most commonly used in turbomachinery. Degree of
reaction is defined as the ratio of the static pressure drop in the rotor to the static pressure
drop in the stage. It can also be defined in the same way for enthalpy in different stages. It is
denoted by the letter ‘R’.
6. At high pressure, the voids can generate ______

a) Drag force
b) Mass density
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: At high pressure, the voids can generate shock waves. Cavitation usually occurs
due to the changes in pressure. The pressure change is so rapid that it leads to formation of
liquid free layers or cavities that start to affect the overall performance.
7. Voids that implode near metal surface develops a_______

a) Drag force
b) Cyclic stress
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Voids that implode near metal surface develops a cyclic stress. This happens
mainly due to repeated implosion of voids. Thus, option ‘b’ is correct.
8. In case of gas turbines and compressors, degree of reaction is ________

a) Static pressure drop in rotor/ static pressure drop in stage
b) Static pressure drop in stage/ static pressure drop in rotor
c) Isentropic enthalpy drop in rotor/ isentropic enthalpy drop in stage
d) Static temperature drop in stage/ static temperature drop in rotor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Degree of reaction in terms of gas turbines and compressors is defined as the
ratio of isentropic enthalpic drop that is developed in the rotor such as the moving blades to
that of the isentropic heat drop in the fixed blades.
9. Non- inertial cavitation is the one in which a bubble of fluid is forced to oscillate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Non- inertial cavitation is the one in which a bubble of fluid is forced to oscillate.
It oscillates in a different size or shape due to some form of energy called the acoustic field.
10. The efficiency of the vane is given by_________

a) 1-V22/ V12
b) 1-(V22/ V12)
c) V22/ V12
d) 1- V12
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a velocity triangle at the inlet and the outlet, the control volume is moving
with a uniform velocity. Therefore, the momentum theorem of the control volume is at a
steady flow. Thus, the efficiency of the vane is given by 1-(V22/ V12).
11. The velocities of the blade angles can be found out using________
a) Mach number
b) Froude’s number
c) Velocity triangles
d) Reynolds number
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The velocity triangle represents various components. It mainly determines the
velocities of fluids that act in a turbomachinery. It can be drawn for both inlet and outlet
triangles with its angles.
12. Which among the following velocities cannot be found using the velocity triangle?
a) Tangential
b) Whirl
c) Relative
d) Parabolic
View Answer
Answer: d
13. Hydrodynamic cavitation is due to the process of _________

a) Vaporisation
b) Sedimentation
c) Filtration
d) Excavation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrodynamic cavitation is due to the process of vaporisation. A bubble
generation takes place in which implosion occurs during the flowing of liquid.
14. The process of bubble generation leads to __________

a) High temperatures
b) High pressures
c) High energy densities
d) High volumetric ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of bubble generation leads to high energy densities. The local
temperatures and local pressures at this point last for a very short time. Thus, the option is ‘c’.
15. Super cavitation is the use of cavitation effect to create a bubble of steam inside a liquid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, it is true. Super cavitation is the use of cavitation effect to create a bubble of
steam inside a liquid. It is large to encompass an object passing through the liquid to reduce
skin friction drag.
16. Degree of reaction turbine is the ratio of?

a) Pressure energy to total energy
b) Kinetic energy to total energy
c) Potential energy to total energy
d) Kinetic energy to potential energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Degree of reaction is defined to be the ratio of pressure and total energies
inside the runner of a turbine.
17. Which of these options are best suited for the total energy change inside the runner per
unit weight?
a) Degree of action
b) Degree of reaction
c) Turbulence
d) Efficiency of turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Degree of reaction is defined to be the ratio of pressure and total energies
inside the runner of a turbine.
18. Which of these ratios are termed to be hydraulic efficiency?

a) Water power to delivered power
b) Delivered power to input power
c) Power lost to power delivered
d) Runner power to water power
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: From the equation of hydrodynamic machines, we get hydraulic efficiency to be
the ratio of runner power and water power.
19. When a container containing a liquid is rotated, then due to centrifugal action, then which
of these energies are changed?
a) Kinetic energy
b) Pressure energy
c) Potential energy
d) Energy due to viscous force
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a container containing a liquid is rotated, then due to centrifugal action
there is a change in pressure energy.
20. For an actual reaction turbine, what should be the angle beta, such that the loss of kinetic
energy at the outlet is to be minimum?
a) 90
b) 45
c) 60
d) 30
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Only when the angle beta is 90, V2 will be minimum so that loss of kinetic energy
is minimized.
21. Discharge through a reaction flow reaction turbine is given by, Q = ______
a) Pi*d*b*Vf1
b) Pi*d*d*b*Vf1
c) Pi*d*b*b*Vf2
d) Pi*b*b*Vf1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The discharge in a radial flow reaction turbine is the product of diameter, width
and velocity of flow at inlet Vf1 with pi.
22. When the thicknesses of vanes are to be considered in the discharge of a turbine, what
will be the area under consideration?
a) Pi*d – n*t
b) Pi*d – n*n*t
c) Pi*d – t*t
d) Pi*d *d– n*t
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the thicknesses of vanes are to be considered in the discharge of a
turbine, and n is the number of vanes, are is given by Pi*d – n*t.
23. The speed ratio is defined as u/(2gH)1/2

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed ratio is termed to be the ratio of tangential velocity at inlet to square
root of 2gH.
24. Flow ratio is defined as Vf1/(2gH)1/2

a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Flow ratio is the ratio between velocities of flow at inlet to square root of 2gH.
Here, H is the head of the turbine.
25. _________ means the angle made by absolute velocity with the tangent on the wheel is 90
degrees and the component of whirl velocity is zero.
a) Axial discharge
b) Tangential discharge
c) Turbulent discharge
d) Radial discharge
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Radial discharge is the angle made by absolute velocity with the tangent on the
wheel is 90 degrees and the component of whirl velocity is zero. Radial discharge at outlet
means the angle beta is 90.
26. In a Francis turbine, degree of reaction lies between _____

a) 0 and 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 0 and 0.5
d) 0.5 and 0.1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For a Francis turbine, theoretically and practically, 0< R< 1.
1. In an outward flow reaction turbine, water from casing enters guiding wheel.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Water enters the stationary guide wheel from the casing of the turbine in the
outward radial flow reaction turbine.
2. The water from penstocks enters the _____ which is spiral in shape which the area of cross
section of casing goes on decreasing gradually
a) guide wheel
b) draft tube
c) casing
d) runner
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The water from penstocks enters the casing which is spiral in shape in which the
area of cross section of casing decreases gradually.
3. If the water flows from inwards to outwards, the turbine is known as _____________
b) Turbulent low inward flow
c) Inward flow turbine
d) Outward flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If the water in the runner flows from inwards to outwards, then such type of
turbine is said to be outward radial flow turbine.
4. In general, reaction turbines consist of which types of energies?

a) kinetic energy and potential energy
b) potential energy and pressure energy
c) kinetic energy and pressure energy
d) gravitational energy and potential energy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Reaction turbine is a kind of turbine in which the water at inlet of the turbine
possesses both kinetic energy and pressure energy.
5. ___________ is a circular wheel on which a series of smooth, radial curved vanes are fixed.
a) Guide wheel
b) Runner
c) Casing
d) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The radial curved vanes are so shaped that water enters and leaves the runner
without shock .It is a circular type wheel on which a series of smooth, radial curved vanes are
fixed.
6. In outward radial flow reaction turbines, tangential velocity at inlet is less than that of the
outlet.
a) False
b) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In outward radial flow reaction turbines, tangential velocity at inlet is less than
that of the outlet as the inlet of the runner is the inner diameter.
7. In an outward radial flow reaction turbine the ratio of tangential wheel at inlet to given
velocity of jet is known as ___________
a) Speed ratio
b) Flow ratio
c) Discharge
d) Radial discharge
View Answer
Answer: b
8. In an outward radial flow reaction turbine the ratio of tangential velocity at inlet to the
given velocity is ______
a) Speed ratio
b) Flow ratio
c) Discharge
d) Radial discharge
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Speed ratio is ratio of tangential velocity at inlet to the given velocity and it is
scalar quantity because it is ratio of two speeds.
9. Discharge in an outward flow reaction turbine ____________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Discharge in an outward flow reaction turbine increases because area increases
as fluid flows across spiral structure in the turbine.
10. An outward radial reaction turbine has ______

a) u1 < u2
b) u1 > u2
c) u1 = u2
d) u2 = u1 = 0
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For an outward flow reaction turbine, tangential velocity at inlet should be less
than the tangential velocity at outlet.
11. An outward flow reaction turbine, ________

a) D1 > D2
b) D1 < D2
c) D1 = D2
d) D1 = D2 = 0
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In an outward flow reaction turbine, to maintain flow of water, the inlet diameter
should be less than outlet diameter.
12. ___________is ratio of pressure energy change inside runner to total energy change inside
runner
a) Degree of reaction
b) Speed ratio
c) Flow ratio
d) Hydraulic efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This is just a formula and it is scalar quantity because it is ratio of two changes of
energies.
13. Degree of reaction for impulse turbine

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For pelton turbine u1=u2 and Vr1=Vr2 by substituting these values in degree of
reaction we get it as 0.
14. The formula for degree of reaction for hydraulic turbines is __________
a) 1- (V1*V1-V2*V2)/(V1*V1-V2*V2)*(u1*u1-u2*u2)*(Vr2*Vr2-Vr1*Vr1)
b) (V1*V1-V2*V2)/ (V1*V1-V2*V2)*(u1*u1-u2*u2)*(Vr2*Vr2-Vr1*Vr1)
c) 1+ (V1*V1-V2*V2)/ (V1*V1-V2*V2)*(u1*u1-u2*u2)*(Vr2*Vr2-Vr1*Vr1)
d) 1- (V2*V2-V1*V1)/ (V1*V1-V2*V2)*(u1*u1-u2*u2)*(Vr2*Vr2-Vr1*Vr1)
Where, V= jet velocity, V r= relative velocity, u= blade velocity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This is obtained by substituting mathematical terms in actual expression of
degree of reaction .
15. Degree of reaction for reaction turbine is _____________

a) 1- cot x /2(cot x –cot y )
b) 1+ cot x /2(cot x –cot y )
c) 1- cot x /2(cot x +cot y )
d) 1+ cot x /2(cot x +cot y )
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Because for reaction turbine Vw2=0 and V2=Vf2, there is also no much change in
velocity of flow implies that Vf1=Vf2 by substituting these values, we get it.
16. A turbine is a ________

a) Rotary mechanical device
b) Static pressure drop device
c) Electrical device
d) Static temperature device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbine is a vortex related device. It means turbulence. Turbine is a rotary
mechanical device. The energy generated from the turbine can be used to generate electrical
power. It is used in jet engines.
17. Turbine converts _________

a) Work to energy
b) Energy to work
c) Work to Electricity
d) Work to pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Turbine extracts energy and converts it into useful work. Turbine is a vortex
related device. It means turbulence. Turbine is a rotary mechanical device. The energy
generated from the turbine can be used to generate electrical power. It is used in jet engines.
18. Turbine extracts energy from________

a) Reaction ratio
b) Pressure ratio
c) Fluid flow
d) Volumetric ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Turbine extracts energy from fluid flow and converts it into useful work. Turbine
is a vortex related device. It means turbulence. Turbine is a rotary mechanical device. The
energy generated from the turbine can be used to generate electrical power. It is used in jet
engines.
19. Inward flow reaction turbine enter through ______

a) Outer periphery
b) Blades
c) Inner periphery
d) Pressure angle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Inward flow flow reaction turbine enter through outer periphery of the turbine.
It provides a force at the outer curvature of the blades to provide an inward flow.
20. A turbine is a ________

a) Turbomachinery
b) Pressure drag
c) Aerodynamics
d) Automobiles
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A turbine is a turbomachinery. Turbine extracts energy from fluid flow and
converts it into useful work. Turbine is a vortex related device. It means turbulence. Turbine is
a rotary mechanical device.
21. Centrifugal flow is imparted when the__________

a) Reaction flow is negative
b) Reaction flow is positive
c) Efficiency is 100 percent
d) Reaction rate is negligible
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Centrifugal flow is imparted when the reaction flow is negative in its direction.
This happens when the centrifugal head loses its relative velocity with the flow of water.
22. Where is the turbine not used?

a) Solar power
b) Windmill
c) Water wheels
d) Gas plant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbine is not used in solar power plants. The source of energy in solar power
plants is the sunlight. It falls on the solar plates during the day, which stores the energy and
converts them into useful work.
23. In an inward flow reaction turbine the discharge _______

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In an inward flow reaction turbine the discharge of fluid decreases. Thus, making
it different from an outward flow reaction turbine.
24. A working fluid contains kinetic energy only.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A working fluid contains kinetic energy and potential energy. The fluid that flows
and hits the turbine blades coverts kinetic energy into useful work. The flow can be either
compressible or incompressible.
25. In impulse turbines with moving blades, there is no _________ in blades of the turbine.
a) Pressure change
b) Same pressure
c) Volumetric change
d) Pressure independent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In impulse turbines, there is no pressure change in blades of the turbine. There
is no pressure change that is developed in fluid or gas in the turbine blades. The turbine
blades are in moving condition.
26. In impulse turbines with stationary blades, there is_________ in blades of the turbine.
a) Pressure change
b) Same pressure
c) Volumetric change
d) Pressure independent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In impulse turbines, there is pressure change in blades of the turbine. There is
pressure change that is developed in fluid or gas in the turbine blades. The turbine blades are
in stationary condition.
27. In an outward flow reaction turbine the discharge _______

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In an outward flow reaction turbine the discharge of fluid increases. Thus,
making it different from an inward flow reaction turbine.
28. Before reaching the turbine, the acceleration of the fluid takes place through the__________
a) Vane angle
b) Nozzle
c) Pump
d) Pipe
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Before the fluid reaches the turbine, the pressure head is converted into its
velocity head by accelerating the fluid with a nozzle. Nozzle increases the velocity and
decreases the pressure.
29. The Pelton wheel extracts energy from________

a) Vane angle
b) Moving fluid
c) Increase in temperature
d) Heat rejection
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Pelton wheel extracts energy from moving of fluid. When the fluid flows
through the Pelton wheel, a kinetic energy is developed. This kinetic energy is extracted from
the moving fluid.
30. Pelton wheel is a Reaction type water turbine.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The Pelton wheel is not a reaction type water turbine. It is
an impulse type water turbine. The Pelton wheel extracts energy from moving of fluid. When
the fluid flows through the Pelton wheel, a kinetic energy is developed
1. The outward radial flow reaction turbine is a turbine in which direction of water flow is
___________
a) Radial direction
b) Radially inward
c) Radially outward
d) Axial direction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The name itself indicates that flow is in radial direction and flowing from center
towards outer periphery.
2. Outward flow reaction turbine is used in practical applications
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are several limitations of outward flow reaction turbine hence it is used in
practical applications.
3. The energy available at inlet for outward reaction flow turbine is ____________
a) Potential
b) Kinetic energy
c) Pressure energy
d) Pressure energy and Kinetic energy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since it is reaction turbine energy available at inlet consists of both pressure
energy and kinetic energy.
4. Centrifugal head in Outward flow reaction turbine _____________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Because centrifugal head is proportional to difference of outlet blade velocity
and inlet blade velocity .
Here, u1<u2 so centrifugal head increases.
5. Discharge in outward flow reaction turbine ____________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Discharge in outward flow reaction turbine increase because area increases to
keep velocity constant.
6. Speed control of Outward flow reaction turbine is _____________

a) Easy
b) Moderate
c) Difficult
d) Very difficult
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7. Tendency of wheel to race is predominant in____________turbine
a) Inward flow reaction turbine
b) Outward flow reaction turbine
c) Impulse turbine
d) Axial flow turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. Outward flow reaction turbine will quite suitable for_____________

a) High head
b) Medium head
c) Low head
d) Static head
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since it is radial flow reaction turbine which is operated under medium head
and medium discharge.
9. In outward flow reaction turbine tangential velocity at inlet is always__________than outlet

velocity.
a) Equal
b) Less
c) More
d) Constant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Though runner has same angular velocity, diameter of outer periphery is large
when compared to inner diameter.
10. In outward radial flow reaction turbine if angle made by absolute velocity with its tangent
is 90 degrees and component of whirl is zero at inlet is _______________
a) Radial inlet discharge
b) Radial outlet discharge
c) Flow ratio
d) Speed ratio
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: if angle made by absolute velocity with its tangent is 90 degrees and component
of whirl is zero at inlet in radial flow reaction then total velocity will be flow velocity.
11. In outward radial flow reaction turbine if thickness is considered then discharge is
____________
a) (P1-n*t)*b1*Vf1
b) (P2-n*t)*b2*Vf2
c) (P1-n*t)*b2*Vf2
d) Both (P1-n*t)*b1*Vf1 & (P2-n*t)*b2*Vf2
Where, P1= perimeter of runner at inlet, P2= perimeter of runner at outlet, b= width, Vf= flow
velocity, n= number of blades and t= thickness of blades
View Answer
Answer: d
thickness, whirl velocity, at inlet as well as outlet runner vanes. If n blades of thickness t is
considered then discharge is (P1-n*t)*b1*Vf1 .
12. The main difference between reaction turbine and outward radial flow reaction turbine is
water flows __________
a) Radial direction
b) Radially inward
c) Radially outward
d) Axial direction
View Answer
Answer: b
13. In outward radial flow reaction turbine the ratio of tangential wheel at inlet to given
velocity of jet is known as ___________
a) Speed ratio
b) Flow ratio
c) Discharge
d) Radial discharge
View Answer
Answer: b
14. Conical diffuser draft tube is also called_______

a) Straight divergent tube
b) Simple elbow tube
c) Thermal tube
d) Elbow tube with varying cross section
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Conical diffuser draft tube is one of the most commonly used drafts tubes in the
Kaplan turbine. It works as an outlet at the Kaplan turbine. Conical diffuser draft tube is also
called straight divergent tube.
15. Steam turbine converts energy into________

a) Electrical work
b) Mechanical work
c) Chemical work
d) Thermal work
View Answer
Answer: b
related device. It means turbulence. Steam turbine converts energy into mechanical work by
extracting thermal energy from pressurized steam.
16. Most common application of steam turbine is _______

a) Motor
b) Generator
c) Pump
d) Filter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since the turbine generates rotary motion, it is best suited for the use of
electrical generator. It is used to drive an electrical generator. Now a days, the maximum
usage for generation of electricity is done by using an electrical generator.
17. Conical diffuser draft tube consists of conical diffuser with angles of______
a) 10 degrees
b) 20 degrees
c) 30 degrees
d) 40 degrees
View Answer
Answer: a
Kaplan turbine. Conical diffuser draft tube consists of conical diffuser with angles less than or
equal to 10 degrees.
18. What is the purpose of a conical diffuser?

a) To prevent flow separation
b) To avoid Pressure drag
c) To prevent rejection of heat
d) To increase efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
Kaplan turbine. It is called so because it consists of a conical diffuser. The main function of
the diffuser is to prevent flow separation.
19. What is the efficiency of conical diffuser draft tube?

a) 30
b) 50
c) 70
d) 90
View Answer
Answer: d
Kaplan turbine. It is called so because it consists of a conical diffuser. The main function of
the diffuser is to prevent flow separation. The efficiency of conical diffuser draft tube is 90
percent.
20. The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the_______
a) Head race
b) Tail race
c) Tank
d) Nozzle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the tail race. It consists of an
extended elbow type tube. It is mainly used in the Kaplan turbine. It is placed close to the tail
race of the turbine.
21. Turbine that consists of moving nozzles and with fixed nozzles is called as__________
a) Impulse turbine
b) Curtis turbine
c) Rateau turbine
d) Reaction turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A turbine that consists of moving nozzles which are alternating with the fixed
nozzles is called as a reaction turbine. When the steam hits the nozzle, the pressure is
decreased and the temperature is increased.
22. An example of reaction turbine is________

a) Parsons turbine
b) Curtis turbine
c) Rateau turbine
d) Pelton wheel
View Answer
Answer: a
decreased and the temperature is increased. It is also called as Parson’s turbine.
23. When we arrange turbine blades in multiple stages it is called ________

a) Pressure change
b) Vane deviation
c) Compounding
d) Pressure ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When we arrange turbine blades in multiple stages it is called as compounding.
Compounding plays an essential role in turbines. It has various plus points.
24. Compounding is needed to ___________

a) Increase Pressure
b) Decrease temperature
c) Change volume
d) Increase efficiency
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Compounding is needed to improve efficiencies at low speeds. When we arrange
turbine blades in multiple stages it is called as compounding. Compounding plays an
essential role in turbines.
25. Which among the following is not a type of compounding?

a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Pressure velocity
d) Velocity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Temperature is not a type of compounding. The three important types of
compounding are pressure compounding, velocity compounding and pressure- velocity
compounding.
26. Newtons second law describes the transfer of energy through impulse turbines.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Before the fluid reaches the turbine, the pressure head is converted into its
velocity head by accelerating the fluid with a nozzle. Thus, Newtons second law describes the
transfer of energy through impulse turbines.
27. Inner radial flow extracts energy from _____

a) Turbine blades
b) Moving fluid
c) Pressure change
d) Temperature increase
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inner radial flow extracts energy from moving fluid of a turbine. It also helps in
determine the efficiency of the turbine blades.
28. Reaction turbines develop torque by reacting to the gas or fluids pressure or mass.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reaction turbines develop torque by reacting to the gas or fluids pressure or
mass. The pressure or the gas of a fluid changes during this as it contains the working fluid
acts on the turbine stages.
1. What is the water flow direction in the runner in a Francis turbine?

a) Axial and then tangential
b) Tangential and then axial
c) Radial and then axial
d) Axial and then radial
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Francis turbine is radial flow reaction turbine. Though the water enters the
turbine tangentially, it enters the runner radially inward and flows outward along the axis of
the runner.
2. Which of the following is true in case of flow of water before it enters the runner of a
Francis Turbine?
a) Available head is entirely converted to velocity head
b) Available head is entire converted to pressure head
c) Available head is neither converted to pressure head nor velocity head
d) Available head is partly converted to pressure head and partly to velocity head
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since Francis Turbine is a reaction turbine, part of the available head is
converted to velocity head. It is not entirely converted to velocity head. The rest of the
available head is converted into pressure head.
3. Why does the cross sectional area of the Spiral casing gradually decrease along the
circumference of the Francis turbine from the entrance to the tip?
a) To ensure constant velocity of water during runner entry
b) To prevent loss of efficiency of the turbine due to impulsive forces caused by extra area
c) To prevent leakage from the turbine
d) To reduce material costs in order to make the turbine more economical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary purpose of the gradual decrease in area is so that the runner sees
constant velocity of water at each point of entry. Absence of this may lead to inefficiency. The
spiral casing is used to prevent leakage from the turbine but the gradual decrease in area is
not for that reason.
4. Which of the following profiles are used for guide vanes to ensure smooth flow without
separation?
a) Rectangular
b) Bent Rectangular
c) Elliptical
d) Aerofoil
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Smooth flow and flow without separation (eddiless flow) can be ensured when
the cross sectional profile of the guide vanes are aerofoil in nature. Aerofoil shape is used in
airplane wings to ensure smooth flow too. Rectangular profiles are not effective in guiding
the water into the runner. Elliptical profiles will cause more drag, finally ending up with
turbine inefficiency.
5. In which of the following type of runners the velocity of whirl at inlet is greater than the
blade velocity?
a) Such a case is practically impossible
b) Slow Runner
c) Medium Runner
d) Fast Runner
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Considering the velocity diagram of Francis turbine at the inlet for a slow runner,
we notice that the whirl velocity exceeds the blade velocity along the same direction. They are
equal in case of a medium runner.
6. Which of the following runner types will have the highest vane angle at inlet (β1 value)?
a) Slow Runner
b) Medium Runner
c) Fast Runner
d) Vane angle is defined only for Kaplan Turbines and not Francis turbines
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Considering the velocity diagram of Francis turbine at the inlet for a fast runner,
vane angle is an obtuse angle. Whereas, it is right angle for medium runner and an acute
angle for a slow runner.
7. In case of a Medium runner, tan (α1) CANNOT be given by (α1 = Guide vane angle at inlet)?
a) Vf1 / Vw1
b) Vr1 / Vw1
c) Vr1 / u1
d) Vw1 / u1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In medium runner, Vf1 = Vr1 & Vw1 = u1. Vw1 and u1 are along the same direction,
hence that cannot be written as tan (α1).
8. In the velocity diagrams for Francis turbine, which of the following velocity directions is
along the blade curvature?
a) Vr1
b) Vw1
c) V1
d) u1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vr1 is the relative velocity of the water flow as seen from the blade. Thus, relative
velocity is along the direction of the curvature of the blade.
9. In the figure shown below,which of the following angles replace the question mark?
a) Guide vane angle at inlet

b) Blade angle at inlet
c) Vane angle at inlet
d) Blade angle at outlet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The angle between V1 and the blade velocity u1 is α1, which is the guide vane
angle at the inlet.
10. In the figure shown below, which of the following type of runners has the blade curvature
as shown in the above figure (The arrow denotes direction of blade motion)?
a) Information insufficient to determine

b) Slow Runner
c) Medium Runner
d) Fast Runner
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fast runners have forward curved blades, where slow runners have backward
curved blades. The blades shown in the figure are backward curved blades of a runner, which
are used for slow runners
1. Francis turbine is typically used for which of the following values of available heads?
a) 300 m
b) 100 m
c) 30 m
d) 5 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Francis Turbine is a medium head turbine, typically used for heads in the range
60 m to 240 m. Hence, only 100 m from the above options fit in that range.
2. Water flow velocity is given 10 m/s. The runner diameter is 3 m and the width of the wheel
is 25 cm. Find the mass of water (kg) flowing across the runner per second.
a) 7500π
b) 50π
c) 300π
d) RPM of the turbine needs to be given
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Area of the flow (A) = πDB = 0.75π m2. Mass flow rate = ρ.A.Vf = 1000*0.75π*10
= 7500π kg/s.
3. Work done per second by a Francis turbine can be given by ρAVf (Vw1u1 + Vw2u2).
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The work done per second is given by ρAVf (Vw1u1 – Vw2u2). Hence, the outlet
term is subtracted from the inlet term and not added to it.
4. Which of the following terms is considered to be zero while deriving the equation for work
done per second for Francis Turbine?
a) Vr1
b) Vw2
c) Vf2
d) Vr2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since the flow out of the runner of the Francis turbine is axial in nature, the whirl
velocity at outlet is zero. Hence, Vw2 is ignored in the derivation of work done for Francis
Turbine.
5. Power developed by Francis turbine are calculated for a certain set of conditions. Now, the
inlet whirl velocity is doubled, the blade velocity at inlet is doubled and the flow velocity is
quartered. The power developed:
a) Is 4 times the original value
b) Is 2 times the original value
c) Is ½ times the original value
d) Is same as the original value
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The power developed by a Francis Turbine is given by P = ρAV (Vw1.u1). Hence, if
inlet whirl velocity is doubled, the blade velocity at inlet is doubled and the flow velocity is
quartered, then the power developed will remain the same as its original value.
6. Volume flow rate of water in a Francis turbine runner is 25 m3/s. The flow velocity, whirl
velocity and blade velocity are 11 m/s, 10 m/s and 5 m/s respectively, all values given at
runner inlet. Find the power developed by the turbine.
a) 25 kW
b) 1.25 MW
c) 1.25 kW
d) 25 MW
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: P = ρQ (Vw1.u1te is directly given.
7. The flow rate of the water flow in a Francis turbine is increased by 50% keeping all the
other parameters same. The work done by the turbine changes by?
a) 50% increase
b) 25% increase
c) 100% increase
d) 150% increase
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Power developed in a Francis turbine directly depends on the flow rate of
water. If flow rate is increased by 50%, i.e. made 1.5 times the original value, then the power
developed becomes 1.5 times its original value too. Hence, a 50% increase.
8. A student performs an experiment with a Francis turbine. He accidently set the RPM of
Francis turbine to 1400 rpm instead of 700 rpm. He reported the power to be 1 MW. His
teacher asks him to perform the same experiment using the correct RPM. The student
performs the same experiment again, but this time the 1. In a Kaplan turbine, what is the
direction of water flow?
a) Axial and then axial
b) Radial and then axial
c) Tangential and then axial
d) Tangential and then radial
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Kaplan turbine is an axial flow reaction turbine. The water inlet is axial and
the water outlet is axial too.
2. For which of the following values of available heads may Kaplan turbine be used?
a) 250 m
b) 100 m
c) 80 m
d) 50 m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Kaplan turbine is said to be a Low head turbine. The low head ranges from 0
to 60 m. Only 50 m falls in this range and hence, it’s the correct option.
3. In this type of low head turbine, the guide vanes are fixed to the hub of the turbine and are
not adjustable. What is this type of turbine called?
a) Francis turbine
b) Kaplan Turbine
c) Propeller Turbine
d) Pelton turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a Kaplan turbine, the guide vanes are adjustable and not fixed to the hub of
the turbine. Francis and Pelton turbines are not low head turbines. In a propeller turbine, the
guide vanes are fixed to the hub of the turbine.
4. The velocity of flow through a Kaplan turbine is 10 m/s. The outer diameter of the runner is
4 m and the hub diameter is 2 m. Find the volume flow rate of the turbine in m3/s?
a) 95
b) 75
c) 85
d) 105
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The volume flow rate is given by Substituting the given

values in the above equation, we get Q = 95 m3/s.
5. The velocity of the flow at the inlet of Kaplan turbine is V. In an experimental setup, what
could be the possible value of the velocity of the flow at the outlet of Kaplan turbine?
a) V
b) 0.8V
c) 1.2V
d) 2V
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The flow velocity of turbine at the outlet of the Kaplan turbine will be lesser than
that of the inlet due to effects of friction in the blade. Hence, practically a lower value would
be obtained. 0.8V is the only option lower than V.
6. Which of the following turbines will have the lowest number of blades in it?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Steam turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Kaplan turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As the head for Kaplan turbine is low, the discharge of water through the turbine
is high and hence, blade resistance should be low. That’s why Kaplan turbine will have the
lowest number of blades.
7. The velocity of the flow through the Kaplan turbine is 25 m/s. The available head of the
turbine is 60 m. Find the flow ratio of the turbine (take g = 10 m/s2).
a) 0.65
b) 0.72
c) 0.69
d) 0.75
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Flow ratio is given by ψ = Vf1 / sqrt(2gH). The given of head and flow velocity must
be substituted in this equation to obtain the flow ratio which comes out to be 0.72.
8. A Kaplan turbine requires a speed ratio of 2. The available head of the turbine is 5 m. What
should be the blade velocity of the turbine such that a speed ratio of 2 is maintained (take g =
10 m/s2)?
a) 75.75 m/s
b) 63.25 m/s
c) 23.35 m/s
d) 50.00 m/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The speed ratio φ = U/ sqrt(2gH). Substitute the value for speed ratio and
available head in this equation and rearrange to find U = 63.25 m/s.
9. The flow ratio of a Kaplan turbine is given as 0.7. The available head is 30 m. The outer
diameter of the runner is 3.5 m and the hub diameter is 2 m. Find the volume of water
flowing through the turbine per second (m3/s)?
a) 90
b) 111
c) 125
d) 168
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We know that We can write V as ψ*(sqrt(2gH)). Now,

substitute the values in the modified equation to find Q which comes out to be around 111
m3/s.
10. In which of the following type of runners in a Kaplan turbine the velocity of whirl at inlet is
smaller than the blade velocity?
a) Such a case is practically impossible
b) Slow Runner
c) Medium Runner
d) Fast Runner
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Considering the velocity diagram of a Kaplan turbine at the inlet for a fast
runner, we notice that the whirl velocity is lower the blade velocity along the same direction.
They are equal in case of a medium runner.
11. In the outlet velocity triangle of a Kaplan turbine, β2 = 30o. Vf2 = 5 m/s. What is the relative
velocity of the flow at outlet?
a) 10 m/s
b) 5.77 m/s
c) 8.66 m/s
d) 2.88 m/s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the outlet velocity triangle, sin (β2) = Vf2/ Vr2. Therefore, Vr2 = 5/sin(30) = 10 m/s.
12. In the inlet velocity triangle of a Kaplan turbine, α1 = 45o. The velocity of flow at inlet = 10
m/s. Find the whirl velocity of water at the inlet of Kaplan turbine?
a) 5 m/s
b) 10 m/s
c) 12.5 m/s
d) 15 m/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the inlet velocity triangle, tan (α1) = Vf1/ Vw1o, V = V = 10 m/s.
f1 w1
13. The whirl velocity of water at the inlet of the Kaplan turbine is 15 m/s. The velocity of
water at inlet of the turbine is 20 m/s. Find the guide vane angle at inlet (In degrees).
a) 53.13
b) 36.86
c) 45
d) 41.41
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: cos (α1) = Vw1/ V1o.
14. The relative velocity of water at the inlet of the Kaplan turbine is 7 m/s. β1 = 75o. The whirl
velocity of the water at inlet is 10 m/s. Find the blade velocity of the turbine?
a) 26.124 m/s
b) 40 m/s
c) 36.124 m/s
d) 60 m/s
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: cos (β1) = (u – Vw1)/ Vr1. Substituting the given values in the above equation and
rearranging to find the value of u, we get 36.124 m/s.
15.For the figure given below, find the missing terms in the order of (1), (2), (3) and (4).
a) Vr1, α1, β1, Vw1

b) Vw1, β1, α1, Vr1
c) Vw1, α1, β1, Vr1
d) Vr1, β1, α1, Vw1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Vw1 is along the direction of u. Hence (1) will be replaced by Vw1. The angle
between V1 and u is α1, Hence α1 replaces (2). (4) will then be replaced by Vr1 and (3) will be
replaced by β1, since β1 is the angle between Vr1 and u
1. Kaplan turbine works on________

a) Electrical energy
b) Hydro energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Chemical energy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Turbine is a vortex related device. It means turbulence. Turbine is a rotary
mechanical device. Kaplan turbine is also called as a water turbine. It works when the blades
are adjustable.
2. Kaplan turbine is an ______ reaction turbine

a) Inward flow
b) Outward flow
c) Radial
d) Axial
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbine extracts energy and converts it into useful work. Kaplan turbine is an
inward flow reaction turbine. It is one of the most efficient turbines to drive electricity.
3. The Kaplan Turbine is an evolution of ________

a) Francis turbine
b) Pelton wheel
c) Parsons turbine
d) Curtis turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Kaplan Turbine is an evolution of Francis turbine. It was invented for an
essential purpose. It allowed efficient power production in low head applications. Thus,
making it better than Francis.
4. What is the dimension of thermal efficiency of a Kaplan turbine?

a) kg
b) m
c) kg/m
d) Dimensionless
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermal efficiency in thermodynamics is a dimensionless performance. It is a
device that is used to measure thermal energy. It is mainly used in internal combustion
engines.
5. A Kaplan turbine is used in ________

a) Turbomachinery
b) Pressure drag
c) Aerodynamics
d) Automobiles
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A Kaplan turbine is a turbomachinery. Turbine extracts energy from fluid flow
and converts it into useful work. Turbine is a vortex related device. It means turbulence.
Turbine is a rotary mechanical device.
6. The head of the Kaplan ranges from ______

a) 100 to 200 m
b) 250 to 300 m
c) 10 to 70 m
d) 0 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The head of the Kaplan ranges from 10 meters to 70 meters. A Kaplan turbine is
a turbomachinery. Turbine extracts energy from fluid flow and converts it into useful work.
Turbine is a vortex related device.
7. Nozzles in the Kaplan turbine move due to impact of ________

a) Water
b) Steam
c) Blade
d) Another nozzle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Nozzle is moved due to the impact of steam. When the steam hits the nozzle, the
pressure is decreased and the temperature is increased.
8. The power output of Kaplan turbine ranges from__________

a) 5 to 200 MW
b) 1000 to 2000 MW
c) 2000 to 3000 MW
d) 5000 and above
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The power output of Kaplan turbine ranges from 5 mega Watt to 200 mega Watt.
It has got runner diameters which ranges from 2 meters to 11 meters. It varies from place to
place.
9. Kaplan turbines rotates at a ________ rate
a) Increasing
b) Decreasing
c) Constant
d) Increasing and then decreasing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Kaplan turbines rotates at a constant rate. A Kaplan turbine is a turbomachinery.
Turbine extracts energy from fluid flow and converts it into useful work. Turbine is a vortex
related device.
10. What type of turbine is Kaplan?

a) Impulse
b) Reaction
c) Energy
d) Hydro
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Kaplan turbine is a reaction turbine. It extracts energy from fluid flow and
converts it into useful work. Kaplan turbine is a vortex related device.
11. Kaplan turbine is needed to improve ________

b) Decrease temperature
c) Change volume
d) Increase efficiency
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Kaplan turbine is needed to improve efficiencies at low speeds. When we
arrange turbine blades in multiple stages. It plays an essential role in turbines.
12. Kaplan turbine is an ________ type turbine

a) Pressure
b) Inward flow
c) Outward flow
d) Velocity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Kaplan turbine is an inward flow reaction turbine. It means that the working fluid
changes its pressure as it moves through the turbine and gives up its energy.
13. The turbine does not have to be at the lowest point of water flow as long as the water in
the draft tube is full.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The turbine does not have to be at the lowest point of water flow as long as the
water in the draft tube is full. A higher turbine located increases the suction and is imparted
on the turbine blades by the draft tube.
14. The outlet of the Kaplan turbine is through _______

a) Vane Blades
b) Moving pipeline
c) Draft tube
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The outlet of the Kaplan turbine is through draft tube. It is a specially shaped
tube that helps to decelerate the water and recover its kinetic energy. It happens at a faster
rate.
15. Kaplan turbine is most commonly used in propeller turbines.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kaplan turbine is most commonly used in propeller turbines. Since, the Kaplan
turbines have non-adjustable propeller vanes it is most commonly used. They are used in a
wide rage if flow and for other commercial products
1. For a Kaplan turbine, the whirl velocity at inlet of the turbine is given to be 18 m/s. The
blade velocity is given as 25 m/s. What is the hydraulic efficiency for a head of 50 m. Take g =
10 m/s2?
a) 80%
b) 90%
c) 70%
d) 98%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The hydraulic efficiency of a Kaplan turbine is given by ηh = Vw1.u1/ gH.
Substituting the values of the given parameters in the equation, we get hydraulic efficiency =
90%.
2. Which of the following efficiencies for Kaplan Turbine is described as the ratio between the
power produced by runner to the power supplied by water at the inlet?
a) Hydraulic efficiency
c) Mechanical efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The definition of Hydraulic efficiency in a Kaplan turbine states that it is the ratio
between the Runner power to the shaft power. Hence, the correct option is Hydraulic
efficiency.
3. The desired hydraulic efficiency of a Kaplan turbine is 98% at a whirl velocity of 20 m/s and
a head of 60 m. What should be the blade velocity of the turbine at inlet in m/s? Take g = 10
m/s2.
a) 40
b) 60
c) 80
d) 30
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The hydraulic efficiency of a Kaplan turbine is given by ηh = Vw1.u1/ gH.
Substituting the values of the given parameters in the equation, we get blade velocity at the
inlet as 29.4 m/s which can be roughly approximated to 30 m/s.
4. It is given that the input water power of the Kaplan turbine is 1.10 times the runner power.
What would be the hydraulic efficiency of the turbine (in %)?
a) 60.61
b) 70.71
c) 80.81
d) 90.91
View Answer
5. Which of the following efficiencies for Kaplan Turbine is described as the ratio between
total quantity of water over runner blades to total quantity of water supplied to turbine?
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The definition of volumetric efficiency in a Kaplan turbine states that it is the
ratio between the total volume of water flowing over the runner blades to the volume of
water entering the turbine. Hence, the correct option is volumetric efficiency.
6. The volume flow rate into a Kaplan turbine is Q m3/s. 0.10Q m3/s volume of water do not
flow over the runner blades. What further information is required to find the volumetric
efficiency (numerical value) of the Kaplan turbine?
a) The numerical value of Q
b) The available head of the turbine
c) The RPM or the blade velocity of the turbine
d) No further information is required
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The volumetric efficiency of the Kaplan turbine is given by Q – ΔQ/ Q. In this
problem, ΔQ = 0.1Q. Thus, Q – ΔQ = 0.9Q. Hence, we get volumetric efficiency as 90%. The
problem can be solved with the available information.
7. A student reports the volumetric efficiency of a Kaplan turbine to be 95%. If he measures

the volume flow rate through the turbine is 40 m3/s. What is the flow rate of water over the
runner blades (in m3/s)?
a) 38
b) 40
c) 42.11
d) 45
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The definition of volumetric efficiency in a Kaplan turbine states that it is the
water entering the turbine. Hence, if Q = 40 m3/s, the volume of water over runner blades =
0.95*40 = 38 m3/s.
8. In a Kaplan turbine experiment, the volumetric efficiency of a given turbine is 91%. If

volume flow rate of water in given to be 35 m3/s, find the volume of water (m3) NOT flowing
over the runner blades per second?
a) 4.05
b) 3.15
c) 3.30
d) 2.55
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The volume of water flowing over runner blades = 0.91*35 = 31.85 m3/s. The
volume of water NOT flowing over the runner blades would then be 35 – 31.85 = 3.15 m3/s.
9. Which of the following efficiencies for Kaplan Turbine is defined as the ratio between the
power available at the shaft of the turbine to the power produced by the runner?
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The definition of Mechanical efficiency in a Kaplan turbine states that it is the
ratio between the Shaft power to the Runner power. Hence, the correct option is Mechanical
efficiency.
10. The power available at the shaft of a Kaplan turbine is 0.75 MW. The volume flow rate of
water in 15 m3/s, whirl velocity at inlet is 12 m/s and blade velocity is 5 m/s. Find the
mechanical efficiency (in %)?
a) 66.66
b) 75.00
c) 83.33
d) 91.33
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mechanical efficiency of a Kaplan Turbine is given by ηm = shaft power /
ρQVw1u1. Substituting the given values into this equation, we get mechanical efficiency =
83.33%.
11. The whirl velocity at inlet of a Kaplan turbine is 7.5 m/s and blade velocity is 5 m/s. The
volume flow rate of water in 20 m3/s. Find the power output available at the shaft if the
mechanical efficiency is 93% (in MW)?
a) 0.831
b) 0.697
c) 1.362
d) 0.298
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mechanical efficiency of a Kaplan Turbine is given by ηm = shaft power /
ρQVw1u1. Substituting the given values into this equation, we get shaft power = 697500 W =
0.697 MW.
12. In a Kaplan Turbine experimental setup, the power output of the shaft is 4.325 MW. The
volume flow rate of water in 15 m3/s at an available head of 50 m. Find the overall efficiency
of the turbine in % (g = 10 m/s2)?
a) 57.66
b) 83.63
c) 81.33
d) 79.95
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a Kaplan turbine is given by ηo = shaft power/ ρQgH.
Substituting the given values in this equation, we get overall efficiency = 57.66 %.
13. The hydraulic efficiency of a Kaplan turbine is 95%, the mechanical efficiency is 93% and
the volumetric efficiency is assumed to be 100%. Fine the overall efficiency (in %)?
a) 80.05
b) 93.15
c) 87.55
d) 88.35
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For a Kaplan Turbine, the overall efficiency is also given by ηo = ηh*ηm*ηv. So,
ηo = 0.95*0.93*1 = 0.8835 = 88.35%.
14. Which of the following efficiencies for Kaplan Turbine is defined as the ratio between the
power available at the shaft to the power supplied by water at the inlet?
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The definition of Overall efficiency in a Kaplan turbine states that it is the ratio
between the Shaft power to the Water power. Hence, the correct option is Overall efficiency.
15. In Kaplan turbine apparatus, the volume flow rate of water in 15 m3/s at an available head
of 55 m (g = 10 m/s2). Find the shaft power (in MW) if the overall efficiency of the turbine is
95%.
a) 78.3
b) 7.83
c) 783
d) 0.783
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a Kaplan turbine is given by ηo = shaft power/ ρQgH.
Substituting the given values in this equation, we get shaft power = 7.83 x 106 W = 7.83 MW
a) 0.5 MW
b) 0.25 MW
c) 2 MW
d) 1 MW
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Power developed by the turbine varies directly with both flow velocity as
well as the blade velocity (which in turn varies directly with RPM). So, if all parameters were
correct, the reported value should be 0.5 MW. But, flow velocity is again doubled, so the
student again reports 1 MW.
9. Velocity of whirl at the runner inlet is given to be 10 m/s and blade velocity to be 5 m/s. The
volume flow rate of water in Francis turbine is given to be 25 m3/s. Find the power generated
by the turbine?
a) 1700 HP
b) 800 HP
c) 3400 HP
d) 1000 HP
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: P = ρQ (Vw1.u1) = 1.25 MW. It is important to know the 1 HP = 736 W. Hence, the
answer is 1.25 MW/ 736 = 1700 HP.
10. The available head of a Francis Turbine is 100 m. Velocity of the flow at the runner inlet is
15 m/s. Find the flow ratio.
a) 0.33
b) 0.45
c) 0.67
d) 0.89
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flow ratio is given by ψ = Vf1 / sqrt(2gH). Substituting the given values and taking
the value of g = 10 m/s2, we get ψ = 0.33.
11. How does the flow ratio (ψ) of a Francis turbine vary with available head (H)?
a) ψ α H
b) ψ α 1/H
c) ψ α sqrt (H)
d) ψ α 1/(sqrt (H))
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Flow ratio is given by ψ = Vf1 / sqrt(2gH). Hence, the flow ratio is inversely
proportional to the square root of available head.
12. What is the typical value for flow ratio in a Francis turbine?
a) 0.05 – 0.1
b) 0.15 – 0.30
c) 0.35 – 0.45
d) 0.50 – 0.60
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Flow ratio denoted by ψ is given by Vf1 / sqrt(2gH). Sqrt (2gH) is called the
spouting velocity. The practical values of the flow ratio for Francis turbine lie in the range of
0.15 – 0.3.
13. The available head of a Francis Turbine is 120 m. The blade velocity is given 35 m/s. Find
the speed ratio of the turbine.
a) 0.56
b) 0.61
c) 0.71
d) 0.81
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The speed ratio φ = U/ sqrt(2gH). Hence, substituting the given values into this
equation, we get φ = 0.71.
14. The speed ratio (φ) varies directly with which of the following parameters?
a) Vw1
b) V1
c) N (RPM)
d) H (Available head)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The speed ratio is given by φ = U/ sqrt(2gH). Speed ratio directly depends upon
U which in turn depends directly upon RPM of the turbine (N).
15. The typical value range of speed ratio for a Francis turbine is:
a) 0.3 – 0.6
b) 0.5 – 0.6
c) 0.1 – 0.4
d) 0.6 – 0.9
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Speed ratio denoted by φ is given by U / sqrt(2gH). Sqrt (2gH) is called the
spouting velocity. The practical values of the speed ratio for Francis turbine lie in the range of
0.6 – 0.9.
1. Which of the following efficiencies for Francis Turbine is described as the ratio between the
power produced by runner to the power supplied by water at the inlet?
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The definition of Hydraulic efficiency in a Francis turbine states that it is the ratio
between the Runner power to the shaft power. Hence, the correct option is Hydraulic
efficiency.
2. Which of the following efficiencies for Francis Turbine is described as the ratio between
total quantity of water over runner blades to total quantity of water supplied to turbine?
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The definition of volumetric efficiency in a Francis turbine states that it is the
water entering the turbine. Hence, the correct option is volumetric efficiency.
3. Which of the following efficiencies for Francis Turbine is defined as the ratio between the
power available at the shaft of the turbine to the power produced by the runner?
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The definition of Mechanical efficiency in a Francis turbine states that it is the
ratio between the Shaft power to the Runner power. Hence, the correct option is Mechanical
efficiency.
4. Which of the following efficiencies for Francis Turbine is defined as the ratio between the
power available at the shaft to the power supplied by water at the inlet?
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The definition of Overall efficiency in a Francis turbine states that it is the ratio
between the Shaft power to the Water power. Hence, the correct option is Overall efficiency.
5. The whirl velocity at inlet of Francis turbine is given to be 20 m/s. The blade velocity is given
as 35 m/s. What is the hydraulic efficiency for a head of 100 m?
a) 80%
b) 90%
c) 70%
d) 98%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The hydraulic efficiency of a Francis turbine is given by ηh = Vw1.u1/ gH.
Substituting the values of the given parameters in the equation, we get hydraulic efficiency =
70%.
6. The desired hydraulic efficiency of a turbine is 80% at a whirl velocity of 20 m/s and a head
of 100 m. What should be the blade velocity of the turbine at inlet in m/s?
a) 40
b) 60
c) 80
d) 25
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The hydraulic efficiency of a Francis turbine is given by ηh = Vw1.u1/ gH.
Substituting the values of the given parameters in the equation, we get blade velocity at the
inlet as 40 m/s.
7. The input water power of the Francis turbine is 1.25 times the runner power. What would
be the hydraulic efficiency of the turbine (in %)?
a) 60
b) 70
c) 80
d) 90
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The definition of Hydraulic efficiency in a Francis turbine states that it is the ratio
between the Runner power to the shaft power. If input water power is 1.25 times the runner
power, the runner power is 1/1.25 = 0.8 Times the water power. Hence, hydraulic efficiency =
80%.
8. The volume flow rate into a Francis turbine is Q m3/s. 0.25Q m3/s volume of water do not
flow over the runner blades. What is the mechanical efficiency of the turbine (in %)?
a) 65
b) 75
c) 80
d) Mechanical efficiency cannot be found out from the given information
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: With the given information, we can find the volumetric efficiency and not the
mechanical efficiency. If you got this question wrong, its advised to read the question
carefully before answering.
9. The volumetric efficiency of a Francis turbine is given to be 90%. If the volume flow rate
through the turbine is 25 m3/s. What is the flow rate of water over the runner blades (in m3/s)?
a) 20
b) 25
c) 22.5
d) 21.5
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The definition of volumetric efficiency in a Francis turbine states that it is the
water entering the turbine. Hence, if Q = 25 m3/s, the volume of water over runner blades =
0.9*25 = 22.5 m3/s.
10. The volumetric efficiency of a given turbine is 80%. If volume flow rate of water in given to
be 30 m3/s, find the volume of water (m3) NOT flowing over the runner blades per second?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 10
d) 12
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The volume of water flowing over runner blades = 0.8*30 = 24 m3/s. The volume
of water NOT flowing over the runner blades would then be 30 – 24 = 6 m3/s.
11. The power available at the shaft of a Francis turbine is 1 MW. The volume flow rate of
water in 25 m3/s, whirl velocity at inlet is 10 m/s and blade velocity is 5 m/s. Find the
mechanical efficiency (in %)?
a) 65
b) 75
c) 80
d) 90
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mechanical efficiency is given by ηm = shaft power / ρQVw1u1. Substituting the
given values into this equation, we get mechanical efficiency = 80%.
12. The whirl velocity at inlet is 15 m/s and blade velocity is 10 m/s. The volume flow rate of
water in 20 m3/s. Find the power output available at the shaft if the mechanical efficiency is
95% (in MW)?
a) 2.85
b) 3.075
c) 6.55
d) 0.285
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mechanical efficiency is given by ηm = shaft power / ρQV w1u1. Substituting the
given values into this equation, we get shaft power = 2.85 MW.
13. The power output of the shaft is 5 MW. The volume flow rate of water in 10 m3/s at an
available head of 60 m. Find the overall efficiency of the turbine in % (g = 10 m/s2)?
a) 80
b) 82.5
c) 83.3
d) 85
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a Francis turbine is given by ηo = shaft power/ ρQgH.
Substituting the given values in this equation, we get overall efficiency = 83.33 %.
14. The volume flow rate of water in 10 m3/s at an available head of 60 m (g = 10 m/s3). Find
the shaft power (in MW) if the overall efficiency of the turbine is 90%.
a) 54
b) 5.4
c) 540
d) 0.54
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a Francis turbine is given by ηo = shaft power/ ρQgH.
Substituting the given values in this equation, we get shaft power = 5.4 MW.
15. The hydraulic efficiency of a Francis turbine is 90%, the mechanical efficiency is 95% and
the volumetric efficiency is assumed to be 100%. Fine the overall efficiency (in %)?
a) 80
b) 85.5
c) 87.5
d) 83.3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Overall efficiency is also given by ηo = ηh*ηm*ηv. So, ηo = 0.90*0.95*1 = 0.855 =
85.5%
1. Draft tube is also called_______

a) Straight divergent tube
b) Simple elbow tube
c) Thermal tube
d) Elbow tube with varying cross section
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Draft tube is one of the most commonly used in the Kaplan turbine. It works as
an outlet at the Kaplan turbine. Draft tube is also called straight divergent tube.
2. A draft tube helps in converting kinetic energy into________
a) Electrical work
b) Mechanical work
c) Chemical work
d) Thermal work
View Answer
Answer: b
related device. It means turbulence. Steam turbine converts energy into mechanical work by
extracting thermal energy from pressurized steam.
3. Most common application of the draft tube is ______

a) Rotor
b) Motor
c) Pump
d) Filter
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Most common application of the draft tube is different types of pumps. It plays
an important role in the putlet of the pump and the turbine.
4. Draft tube consists of conical diffuser with angles of______

a) 10 deg
b) 20 deg
c) 30 deg
d) 40 deg
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Draft tube consists of conical diffuser with angles of 10 degrees with respect to
its position, Draft tubes are situated in the outlet of the turbine.
5. What is the purpose of a Draft tube?

a) To prevent flow separation
b) To avoid Pressure drag
c) To prevent rejection of heat
d) To increase efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Draft tube in a turbine and pumps helps to prevent flow separation in order to
increase the turbine efficiency and increase its performance.
6. What is the maximum value of efficiency in a draft tube?

a) 100
b) 50
c) 90
d) 40
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum value of efficiency in a draft tube is 90 percent. It cannot exceed
more than 90 percent because of the heat losses due to flow of fluid.
7. The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the_______

a) Head race
b) Tail race
c) Tank
d) Nozzle
View Answer
Answer: b
8. Turbine that consists of draft tubes is called as__________

a) Impulse turbine
b) Curtis turbine
c) Rateau turbine
d) Reaction turbine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A turbine that consists of draft tubes is called as a reaction turbine. Reaction
turbines make maximum use of the draft tubes for improving its performance characteristics.
9. Which of the following is a 50 percent reaction turbine?

a) Parsons turbine
b) Curtis turbine
c) Rateau turbine
d) Pelton wheel
View Answer
Answer: a
decreased and the temperature is increased. It is also called as Parson’s turbine.
10. The simple elbow draft tube helps to cut down the cost of excavation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The simple elbow draft tube helps to cut down the cost of excavation. The
simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the tail race. It consists of an extended elbow type
tube. It is mainly used in the Kaplan turbine. It is placed close to the tail race of the turbine.
11. The exit diameter for a simple elbow draft tube should be________
a) Large
b) Small
c) Very small
d) Same
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The exit diameter for a simple elbow draft tube should be large as possible. It
helps to cut down the cutdown the cost and recover the kinetic energy at the outlet of
runner. The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the tail race.
12. Properties that do not affect a draft tube is _______

a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Pressure velocity
d) Velocity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Temperature does not affect the performance of the draft tube. With increase
and decrease of temperature of fluid in a draft tube, the draft tube remains the same.
13. The other name for elbow with varying cross section tube is called_____
a) Pressure tube
b) Bent draft tube
c) Velocity tube
d) Sink tube
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The other name for elbow with varying cross section tube is called bent draft
tube. It is so called because only the bent part is of varying cross section. Thus, the answer is
bent draft tube.
14. What is the efficiency of the simple elbow type draft tube?
a) 10
b) 30
c) 60
d) 90
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of the simple elbow type draft tube is 60 percent. The exit
diameter for a simple elbow draft tube should be large as possible. It helps to cut down the
cutdown the cost and recover the kinetic energy at the outlet of runner. The simple elbow
draft tube is placed close to the tail race.
15. The horizontal portion of the draft tube is usually bent to prevent entry of air from the
exit end.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The horizontal portion of the draft tube is usually bent to prevent entry of air
from the exit end. This might lead to a mixing up of gases. In order to avoid this, it is
important to avoid air entry from exit
1. The efficiency of the draft tube is ratio of ________

a) Pressure energy by kinetic energy
b) Kinetic energy by Pressure energy
c) Kinetic energy into mechanical energy
d) Pressure into mechanical
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The efficiency of the draft tube is defined as the ratio of actual conversion of
kinetic energy into the pressure energy. The pressure energy and kinetic energy is present at
the inlet of the draft tube.
2. Draft tubes are not used in which of the following turbines?

a) Francis
b) Reaction
c) Kaplan
d) Pelton
View Answer
Answer: d
related device. Draft tubes are not used in Pelton wheels. Draft tube is a tube that is installed
in power turbines.
3. The draft tube at the exit of the nozzle increases the _______
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Volume of the flow
d) Density of flow
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The draft tube at the exit of the nozzle increases the pressure in the fluid. It
increases it at the expense of its velocity. This means that the turbine can reduce its pressure
without fear of back flow to the tail race.
4. Efficiency of a draft tube gives __________

a) Temperature difference
b) Pressure difference
c) Kinetic energy difference
d) Density of flow
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of the draft tube gives difference of the kinetic energy between
the inlet and the outlet tube losses. The efficiency of the draft tube is defined as the ratio of
actual conversion of kinetic energy into the pressure energy.
5. Cavitation in a draft tube occurs when _______

b) Pressure drop
d) Density of flow
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cavitation in a draft tube occurs when pressure drop takes place. The absolute
pressure falls below the saturated vapour pressure of the water for the given temperature.
6. Which among the following is an important parameter to avoid cavitation?

a) Tail race length
b) Head race length
c) Height of draft tube
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cavitation in a draft tube occurs when pressure drop takes place. The absolute
pressure falls below the saturated vapour pressure of the water for the given temperature.
Height of the draft tube is an important parameter to avoid cavitation.
7. The draft tube is situated in the _______

a) Inlet
b) Outlet
c) Tank
d) Nozzle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The simple elbow draft tube is placed close to the inlet of the turbine. It consists
of an extended elbow type tube. It is mainly used in the Kaplan turbine. It is placed close to
the tail race of the turbine.
8. Which equation is applied to determine the flow?

a) Newtons equation
b) Rutherford’s equation
c) Bernoulli’s equation
d) Faradays equation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bernoulli’s equation is used to determine the flow of the fluid from inlet to the
outlet. It also helps in avoiding cavitation. Cavitation in a draft tube occurs when pressure
drop takes place.
9. Height of the draft tube is denoted by _____

a) H
b) h
c) z
d) x
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Height of the draft tube is denoted by ‘z’. It is equated to z2, which is attached at
the outlet of the turbine. Thus, the universal symbol to denote height of the draft tube is ‘z’.
10. Draft tube allows turbine to be placed above the tail race.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The draft tube helps to cut down the cost of excavation. The draft tube is placed
close to the tail race. The turbine pressure head is increased by decreasing the velocity at the
draft tube. Draft tube allows turbine to be placed above the tail race
1. The efficiency of the draft tube depends on the ______

a) Heat
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Pressure and temperature
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The efficiency of the draft tube is defined as the ratio of actual conversion of
kinetic energy into the pressure energy. The pressure energy and kinetic energy is present at
the inlet of the draft tube.
2. Draft tubes have _________ shafts

a) Horizontal
b) Vertical
c) Circular
d) Cross sectional
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Draft tubes have vertical shafts. The pressure energy and kinetic energy is
present at the inlet of the draft tube.
3. Draft tubes are situated at the outlet in____________

a) Pelton
b) Reaction
c) Kaplan
d) Francis
View Answer
Answer: a
related device. Draft tubes are not used in Pelton wheels. Draft tube is a tube that is installed
in power turbines.
4. Efficiency of a draft tube is directly proportional to its __________

a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Velocity
d) Density
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of the draft tube gives difference of the kinetic energy between
the inlet and the outlet tube losses. It is directly proportional to its velocity.
5. Z is a draft tube is _______

b) Pressure drop
d) Datum head
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Height of tail race which is referenced as datum line is equal to zero. It is
denoted as ‘Z’. It plays an important role to determine its efficiency.
6. Draft tube operates at ______

a) Same efficiency
b) Different efficiency
c) Turbine
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Draft Tube allows turbine to be placed above the tail race and simultaneously
allows it to operate at the same efficiency if it was placed at the tail race.
7. The draft tube is an ________

a) Interior tube
b) Exterior tube
c) Tank depth alternator
d) Nozzle tube
View Answer
Answer: b
8. What type of pressure does the draft tube depend upon?

a) Gauge pressure
b) Atm pressure
c) Normal pressure
d) Normal and Atm pressure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Draft tube is mainly used to determine the gauge pressure of the turbine and
pumps and is located at the inlet of the turbine.
9. Gauge pressure of the draft tube is denoted by _____

a) P
b) h
c) z
d) x
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gauge pressure of the draft tube is denoted by ‘P’. It helps to determine the
pressure of the fluid in the draft tube.
10. Draft tube allows turbine to be placed below the tail race.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The draft tube helps to cut down the cost of excavation. The draft tube is placed
close to the tail race. The turbine pressure head is increased by decreasing the velocity at the
draft tube. Draft tube allows turbine to be placed above the tail race
1. Specific speed is denoted by ________

a) N
b) n
c) Ns
d) S
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Specific speed is denoted by Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo
machinery. Some of the main examples of turbomachinery are turbines. Specific speed plays
an important role in the turbine.
2. Specific speeds are used in pumps to determine ________

a) Temperature
b) Reaction speed
c) Suction specific speed
d) Wheel speed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Specific speeds are used in pumps to determine. Specific speed is denoted by
Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery. Some of the main examples of
turbomachinery are turbines. Specific speed plays an important role in the turbine.
3. The tube at the exit of the nozzle increases the _______

a) Temperature
b) Pressure
d) Density of flow
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The draft tube at the exit of the nozzle increases the pressure in the fluid. It
increases it at the expense of its velocity. This means that the turbine can reduce its pressure
without fear of back flow to the tail race.
4. Specific speed is used to characterize _______

a) Turbomachinery speed
b) Flow speed
c) Energy flow
d) Heat generated
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific speed is used to characterize Turbomachinery speed. Specific speed is
denoted by Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery. Some of the main
examples of turbomachinery are turbines. Specific speed plays an important role in the
turbine.
5. Specific speed predicts the shape of a/an _________

a) Pump
b) Density head
c) Impeller
d) Motor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Specific speed predicts the shape of an impeller. Some of the main examples of
6. What helps in categorizing the impellers?

a) Quasi static number
b) Rotor
c) Height of draft tube
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The impellers are categorized using a quasi static non dimensional number. It
helps in determining the impellers time and proportional quantities.
7. Imperial units is defined as _________

a) Temperature by pressure
b) Tail race and head race
c) Revolutions per minute
d) Turbine performance
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In Imperial units it is defined as the speed in revolutions per minute at which a
geometrically similar impeller would operate if it were of such a size as to deliver one gallon
per minute against one foot of hydraulic head.
8. Ratio of pump or turbine with reference pump or turbine is called as _________

a) Efficiency
b) Performance
c) Heat generated
d) Relative velocity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ratio of pump or turbine with reference pump or turbine is called as the
performance of that particular turbine or pump.
9. Low specific speed in hydraulic head is developed due to _________

a) Mass flow rate
b) Increase in temperature
c) Centrifugal force
d) Increase in pressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Low specific speed with a radial flow in impellers are developed in hydraulic
head principally due to centrifugal force. Pumps having higher specific speed develop a head
that is partly by axial force.
10. Centrifugal pump impellers have speed ranging from ________

a) 500- 10000
b) 50- 100
c) 200-300
d) 0-50
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pump impellers have speed ranging from 500- 10000 English units. IT
has got radial flow with pumps mixed with axial flow pumps.
11. What is the unit of specific speed in metric system?

a) m.s
b) m/s
c) m3/s
d) m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The unit of specific speed in the metric system is given as m3/s. Specific speed is
denoted by Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery.
12. Specific speed develop a hydraulic flow through the centrifugal pumps.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific speed develop a hydraulic flow through the centrifugal pumps. Specific
speed is denoted by Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery. With the
increase in specific speeds, diameter of the impellers increases.
13. Net suction speed is used in problems with cavitation.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Net suction speed is used in problems with cavitation during the pump’s
operation on the suction side. It is defined by centrifugal and axial pump.
14. Low specific speed in hydraulic head is developed due to _________

a) Mass flow rate
b) Increase in temperature
c) Centrifugal force
d) Increase in pressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Low specific speed with a radial flow in impellers are developed in hydraulic
head principally due to centrifugal force. Pumps having higher specific speed develop a head
that is partly by axial force.
15. The runner diameter in a turbine is denoted as __________

a) A
b) Dr
c) Rr
d) De
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The runner diameter in a turbine is denoted as ‘De’. Its SI unit is meters. It plays
an essential role in improving the efficiency of the turbine. As the efficiency of the turbine is
related to its design and structure
1. Specific speed is the speed of the turbine which is similar to its ________
b) Pressure difference
c) Aspect ratio
d) Speed of rotor
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Specific speed is the speed of the turbine which is similar to its aspect ratio.
Specific speed is denoted by Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery. Some of
the main examples of turbomachinery are turbines. Specific speed plays an important role in
the turbine.
2. Specific speeds are used in pumps to determine ________

a) Temperature
b) Reaction speed
c) Suction specific speed
d) Wheel speed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Specific speeds are used in pumps to determine. Specific speed is denoted by
Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery. Some of the main examples of
3. Specific speed develops a unit power under a unit _______

a) Temperature
b) Pressure
d) Head
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Specific speed develops a unit power under a unit head of the turbine. The unit
head of the turbine plays an important role in denoting the specific speed of the turbine.
4. Impeller in a motor is used to _________

a) Change temperatures
b) Change Pressure
c) Kinetic energy change
d) Change density
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Impellers that are present in motors are used to increase or decrease the
pressure of the fluid flow in the turbines. Thus, the correct option is ‘b’.
5. Hydraulic head is also called as _________

a) Pressure head
b) Density head
c) Kinetic head
d) Piezometric head
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydraulic head is also called a Piezometric head. It is a measurement of the
liquid pressure above the geodetic datum. Hydraulic head is usually measured as a liquid in
surface elevation.
6. Specific speed of a Pelton wheel with single jet is _______

a) 8.5 to 30
b) 30 to 51
c) 51 to 225
d) 230 to 500
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific speed of a Pelton wheel with a single jet is equal to 8.5 to 30. Specific
speed is denoted by Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery. Some of the
main examples of turbomachinery are turbines. Specific speed plays an important role in the
turbine.
7. Specific speed is an index used to predict _______

a) Head race distance
b) Tail race distance
c) Tank dimensions
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Specific speed of a turbine is used to predict its turbine performance. Specific
speeds are used in pumps to determine. Specific speed is denoted by Ns. It is used to
characterize speeds in turbo machinery.
8. Specific speed of a Pelton wheel with multiple jets is _______

a) 8.5 to 30
b) 30 to 51
c) 51 to 225
d) 230 to 500
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Specific speed of a Pelton wheel with multiple jets is equal to 30 to 51. Specific
speed is denoted by Ns. It is used to characterize speeds in turbo machinery. Some of the
main examples of turbomachinery are turbines. Specific speed plays an important role in the
turbine.
9. Specific speed of a Francis turbine is _______

a) 8.5 to 30
b) 30 to 51
c) 51 to 225
d) 230 to 500
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Specific speed of a Francis turbine is equal to 51 to 225. Specific speed is
turbine.
10. Specific speed of a Kaplan turbine is _______

a) 8.5 to 30
b) 30 to 51
c) 51 to 225
d) 355 to 860
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Specific speed of a Kaplan turbine is equal to 51 to 225. Specific speed is
turbine.
11. Specific speed less than 500 are called _________

a) Positive displacement pumps
b) Negative displacement pumps
c) Draft tubes
d) Tanks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific speed less than 500 are called positive displacement pumps. Centrifugal
pump impellers have speed ranging from 500- 10000 English units. IT has got radial flow with
pumps mixed with axial flow pumps.
12. With the increase in specific speeds, ________

a) Head race distance increases
b) Tail race distance increases
c) Tank dimensions increases
d) Diameters of impeller increases
View Answer
Answer: d
speeds are used in pumps to determine. Specific speed is denoted by Ns. It is used to
characterize speeds in turbo machinery. With the increase in specific speeds, diameter of the
impellers increases.
13. Specific speed is used to predict desired pump or turbine performance.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific speed is used to predict desired pump or turbine performance. It
predicts the general shape of the impeller. Thus, it is a true statement.
14. Once we know the desired functions of the specific speed, it is easier to calculate its
components units.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, Once we know the desired functions of the specific speed, it is easier to
calculate its components units. Specific speed is used to predict desired pump or turbine
performance. It predicts the general shape of the impeller.
1. Which among the following is not a unit quantity of turbine?

a) Unit speed
b) Unit discharge
c) Unit power
d) Unit temperature
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Unit discharge, unit speed and unit power the three basic functions of the
turbine. It plays an important role in determining the specific speeds and to increase the
overall output efficiency of the turbine.
2. What does DMU stand for?
a) Density matter usage
b) Direct material usage
c) Density material usage
d) Depth matter usage
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DMU in hydraulic machines and turbo machinery stands for Direct material
usage. It plays an important role in specifying the unit quantities.
3. Unit speed is the speed of the turbine operating under________

a) One-meter head
b) Pressure head
c) Volumetric head
d) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Specific speed develops a unit power under a unit head of the turbine. The unit
head of the turbine plays an important role in denoting the specific speed of the turbine. Unit
speed is the speed of the turbine operating under one-meter head.
4. One dyne is equal to ________ N.

a) 10
b) 100
c) 1000
d) 10-5
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: One dyne is equal to 10-5 N. It is in accordance to the USCS ( United States
Customary units). Thus the correct option is ‘d’.
5. What is symbol for unit speed?

a) S
b) N
c) Ns
d) Nu
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The most commonly used symbol of unit speed is Nu. Unit speed is the speed of
the turbine operating under one-meter head. Thus, the option is ‘c’.
6. Unit speed of a single jet in a turbine is _______

a) 100 m/s
b) 300 m/s
c) 500 m/s
d) 800 m/s
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Unit speed of a single jet in a turbine is around 800 m/s. The most commonly
used symbol of unit speed is Nu. Unit speed is the speed of the turbine operating under one-
meter head. Thus, the option is ‘c’.
7. Unit speed is directly proportional to________

b) Specific speed
c) Pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
speeds are used in pumps to determine. Unit speed is directly proportional to its specific
speed. Specific is takes place at the inlet and the outlet of the turbines.
8. Unit discharge is the discharge through the turbine when the head of the turbine is ________
a) High
b) Zero
c) Unity
d) Low
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Unit discharge is the discharge through the turbine when the head of the
turbine is unity. Unit discharge is one of the major unit quantities that determine the overall
efficiency of the turbine.
9 Unit discharge is denoted as _______

a) Du
b) Qu
c) Su
d) Nu
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The basic symbol of unit discharge is given as Qu. Unit discharge is the discharge
through the turbine when the head of the turbine is unity. Unit discharge is one of the major
unit quantities that determine the overall efficiency of the turbine.
10. Unit discharge is directly proportional to _______

b) Discharge of fluid in the turbine.
c) Pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unit discharge is directly proportional to the discharge of fluid in the turbine.
Unit discharge is the discharge through the turbine when the head of the turbine is unity.
Unit discharge is one of the major unit quantities that determine the overall efficiency of the
turbine.
11. Unit quantities are physical quantities _________

a) With numerical variables
b) Without numerical variables
c) With different sets
d) With unit difference
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unit quantities are physical quantities without numerical variables. Unit is a way
to assign measurement to any dimensional quantity.
12. Dyne cm is a Torque measurement unit.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dyne cm is a Torque measurement unit. One dyne is equal to 10-5 N. It is in
accordance to the USCS (United States Customary units).
13. Unit quantities play an important role in determining the dimensional quantities.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, Unit quantities play an important role in determining the dimensional
quantities as they denote the unit quantities usage and also its dimensions.
14. Unit power is developed by the turbine when the head of the turbine is unity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, Unit power is developed by the turbine when the head of the turbine is
unity. Unit power is one of the major quantities that influence the overall efficiency of the
turbine and thus, plays an important role.
1. Constant head curves are also called as _______

a) Head race curves
b) Tail race curves
c) Main characteristic curves
d) Impeller curves
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Constant head curves are also called as main characteristic curves. It helps in
determining the overall efficiency of the turbine by drawing curves with different set of
parameters that play a major role in determining the performance of the turbine.
2. The speed of the turbine in a constant head curve is varied by __________
a) Temperature change
b) Reaction speed change
c) Changing the gate opening
d) Wheel speed change
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The speed of the turbine in a constant head curve is varied by maintaining a
constant head. When we maintain a constant head, the speed of the turbine is varied by
regulating the flow of fluid through a sluice gate.
3. Constant speed curves travel at constant speed when the value is equal to _______
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Constant speed curves detect the performance at different conditions.
Characteristic curves of a turbine play an important role. It helps in determining the overall
efficiency of the turbine by drawing curves with different set of parameters that play a major
role in determining the performance of the turbine.
4. Power of a turbine is measured ______

a) Mechanically
b) Electrically
c) Chemically
d) Thermally
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Power of a turbine is measured mechanically by adjusting the flow of fluid using
the percentage variations in a sluice gate. It helps in determining the overall efficiency of the
turbine.
5. Which among the following is not a parameter to determine the efficiency of the turbine?
a) Unit speed
b) Unit power
c) Unit volume
d) Unit discharge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Unit volume is not a parameter to determine the efficiency of the turbine. Power
of a turbine is measured mechanically by adjusting the flow of fluid using the percentage
variations in a sluice gate. It helps in determining the overall efficiency of the turbine.
6. Which among the following is not an important parameter to determine the performance
of the turbine?
a) Speed
b) Discharge
c) Head
d) Volume of tank
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Volume of tank is not an important parameter to determine the efficiency of the
turbine. These are not drawn in the curves pertaining its efficiency.
7. Which among the following is not a type of curve?

a) Logarithimic curve
b) Straight curve
c) Pressure vs power
d) Efficiency vs speed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pressure vs power is not a characteristic curve that determines the overall
efficiency of the turbine. This relation does not exist.
8. The inlet passage of water entry is controlled by ________

a) Head race
b) Gate
c) Tail race
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The inlet passage of water entry is controlled by the gate opening. The gate
opening is an opening that sends only a percentage of fluid through the inlet passages for
water to enter to the turbine.
9. Overall efficiency vs what is drawn to determine the turbine performance?

a) Unit Discharge
b) Unit speed
c) Unit power
d) Unit pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: One of the graphs to determine the performance of the turbine is overall
efficiency vs the unit speed of the turbine. Unit speed is a speed of the fluid flow from inlet to
the outlet of the turbine.
10. Constant discharge takes place due to _______

a) Unit Discharge
b) Unit speed
c) Unit power
d) Unit pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unit discharge is directly proportional to the discharge of fluid in the turbine.
Unit discharge is the discharge through the turbine when the head of the turbine is unity.
Unit discharge is one of the major unit quantities that determine the overall efficiency of the
turbine.
11. All the characteristic curves are drawn with respect to __________
a) Unit Discharge
b) Unit speed
c) Unit power
d) Unit pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All the characteristic curves that specify different parameters in a turbine are
drawn with respect to its unit speed. Unit discharge, unit power and overall efficiency vs the
unit speed is drawn.
12. Constant head curves are also called as _______

a) Head race curves
b) Tail race curves
d) Impeller curves
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Constant head curves are also called as main characteristic curves. It helps in
13. In constant speed curves, the speed is kept a constant varying its head.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Constant speed curves are also called as operating characteristic curves. It helps
in determining the overall efficiency of the turbine by drawing curves with different set of
14. In all the characteristic curves, the overall efficiency is aimed at the maximum value.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, In all the characteristic curves, the overall efficiency is aimed at the
maximum value. It helps in determining the overall efficiency of the turbine by drawing
curves with different set of parameters that play a major role in determining the performance
of the turbine.
15. Constant efficiency curves are plotted using _______

a) Constant head curves
b) Constant speed curves
d) Constant speed and constant head
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Constant efficiency curves are plotted using both Constant speed and constant
head. Constant efficiency curves are also called as Muschel curves. It helps in determining the
overall efficiency of the turbine by drawing curves with different set of parameters that play a
major role in determining the performance of the turbine
1. Constant speed curves are also called as _______

a) Main characteristic curves
b) Turbine curves
c) Tail race curves
d) Impeller curves
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Constant speed curves are also called as main characteristic curves. It helps in
2. Constant speed curve is denoted as _____

a) T
b) V
c) c
d) V
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The constant speed curve is denoted as ‘c’. It is also called as called as the main
characteristic curve. It plays an important role in determining the performance of the turbine.
3. Constant speed curves are ________

a) Scalar quantities
b) Vector quantities
c) Constant quantities
d) Different conditions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Constant speed curves detect the performance at different conditions. Constant
speed curves are vector quantities.
4. Constant speed is measured _________

a) Mechanically
b) Electrically
c) Chemically
d) Thermally
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Constant speed is measured is measured mechanically by adjusting the flow of
fluid using the percentage variations in a sluice gate. It helps in determining the overall
efficiency of the turbine.
5. Constant speed curves are determined by the _________

a) Arc length
b) Power
c) Heat
d) Temperature
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Constant speed curves are determined by the unit arc length. Constant speed is
measured is measured mechanically by adjusting the flow of fluid using the percentage
6. Which component is necessary for writing the velocity equation?

a) Cos component
b) Sine Component
c) Cos and sine component
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Both the cosine and sine component are necessary for determining and writing
down the equation for the velocity. It also helps to determine the characteristic curves using
the equation.
7. Which among the following is not a shape for a curve?

a) Logarithmic curve
b) Helix curve
c) Straight curve
d) Speed curve
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Speed curve is not a shape of a characteristic curve. Constant speed is measured
is measured mechanically by adjusting the flow of fluid using the percentage variations in a
sluice gate. It helps in determining the overall efficiency of the turbine.
8. How do we plot points in a curve?

a) Analytical approach
b) General approach
c) Tail approach
d) Head approach
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The plotting of curves take place in an analytical approach. It is very essential for
the plotting of the characteristic points.
9. Plotting sine curve will take place along the _________

a) y axis
b) x axis
c) z axis
d) x and z
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Plotting sine curve will take place along the x axis. It is the motion of the x-y
plane that will occur in space.
10. In analytical approach, dp= __________

a) vdt
b) v
c) dt
d) dx
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In any sort of analytical approach, the equation for dp = vdt. It takes place when
the sine component and cosine components equal to one.
11. The equation is general approach is called as central difference.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The equation is general approach is called as central difference. All the
characteristic curves that specify different parameters in a turbine are drawn with respect to
its unit speed.
12. The approximate value of the constant speed curve is given by ratio of ________
a) dy/dp
b) dx/dp
c) dt/dx
d) dt/dy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The approximate value of the constant speed curve is given by ratio of dy/dp. It
helps in determining the overall efficiency of the turbine by drawing curves with different set
of parameters that play a major role in determining the performance of the turbine.
13. In constant speed curves, the velocity is kept a constant varying its head.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Constant speed curves are also called as operating characteristic curves. It helps
in determining the overall efficiency of the turbine by drawing curves with different set of
14. The performance of a characteristic curve is kept at a high value.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, In all the characteristic curves, the performance is aimed at the maximum
value. It helps in determining the overall efficiency of the turbine by drawing curves with
different set of parameters that play a major role in determining the performance of the
turbine
1. In nozzle governing, the flow rate of steam is regulated by _________

a) Nozzles
b) Pumping
c) Drafting
d) Intercooling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The process of controlling the flow rate of a substance is called as governing. It is
done by maintaining the speed of rotation at a constant rate. In nozzle governing, the flow
rate of steam is regulated by nozzles.
2. The flow rate of steam is controlled by regulating the _________

a) Steam
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Speed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The process of controlling the flow rate is called as governing. It is done to
maintain its speed at a constant rate during rotation of the turbine rotor. The flow rate of
steam is controlled by regulating the pressure.
3. The main function of nozzle is to __________

a) Varying temperatures
b) Pressure variations
c) Load variations
d) Heat variations
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main function of nozzle is to vary the pressure of fluid passing through the
nozzle. It is done by opening and shutting the sets of nozzles. Thus, its main function is to
regulate pressure of the fluid.
4. What is primary objective of steam turbine governing?

a) Maintain constant speed
b) Maintain constant pressure
c) Maintain constant temperature
d) Maintain constant expansion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary objective of steam turbine governing is to maintain a constant
speed at varying loads. That means, irrespective of the load that is developed in the turbine,
the speed remains a constant.
5. What is the purpose of a steam turbine governing?

a) Controls speed
b) Controls flow rate
c) Controls volume
d) Controls discharge
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main purpose of the steam turbine governing is to control the flow rate of
steam in the turbine. It also helps in regulating the load that is developed.
6. Which among the following control the flow rate?

a) Valve
b) Pump
c) Head
d) Tank pipe
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flow rate of the tank is controlled by the valve. The actuation of individual valve
closes. This corresponds to the set of nozzle thereby controlling the actual flow rate of the
fluid passing through the valve.
7. The advantage of nozzle governing is that no regulating pressure is applied.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The advantage of nozzle governing is that no regulating pressure is applied. The
actuation of individual valve closes the corresponding set of nozzle. Thus, controlling the flow
rate.
8. During the steam turbine governing, what remains a constant?

a) Speed of rotation
b) Flow rate
c) Pump head
d) Volume of fluid
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: During the steam turbine governing the speed of rotation remains a constant.
The main purpose of the steam turbine governing is to control the flow rate of steam in the
turbine. It also helps in regulating the load that is developed.
9. When do we apply by pass governing?

a) When turbine is overloaded
b) When Unit speed decreases
c) When Unit power increases
d) When Unit pressure decreases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main purpose of by pass governing is taken into full action when the turbine
is overloaded for short durations. This happens occasionally in the working of the turbine.
During this, a bypass valve is used.
10. When bypass valve is opened to _______

b) Increase Unit speed
c) Increase Unit power
d) Increase the amount of fresh steam
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When a by pass valve is opened, a fresh steam is introduced into the turbine,
thereby increasing the amount of fresh steam. The main purpose of by pass governing is
taken into full action when the turbine is overloaded for short durations.
11. What is the unit of steam rate?

a) kg
b) kg/m
c) kg/kWh
d) N/m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The unit of stream is equal to kg/kWh. In the process of throttle governing, it is
denoted by the symbol ‘a’. The variation of the steam consumption rate with the turbine load
during governing is linear.
12. With the increase in load, Energy in the turbine ________

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When there is an increase in the load, the energy in the turbine is drained off.
Thus, to increase the energy, the by pass valve is opened to increase the amount of fresh
steam entry. This increases the energy in the turbine.
13. Combination governing involves usage of two or more governing.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, Combination governing involves usage of two or more governing. Most
usage is the by pass and the nozzle governing as they tend to match the load on the turbine.
Thus, increasing its efficiency.
14. When the mechanical speed of the shaft increases beyond 110 percent, we use _________
a) Throttle governing
b) Steam governing
c) Nozzle governing
d) Emergency governing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the mechanical speed of the shaft increases beyond 110 percent, we use
emergency governing. These governors come into action only when there are emergencies in
the turbine.
15. When the balancing of the turbine is disturbed, we use ________

b) Steam governing
c) Nozzle governing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the balancing of the turbine is disturbed, we use emergency governing.
These governors come into action only when there are emergencies in the turbine
1. In nozzle governing, the flow rate of steam is regulated by _________

a) Nozzles
b) Pumping
c) Drafting
d) Intercooling
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The process of controlling the flow rate of a substance is called as governing. It is
done by maintaining the speed of rotation at a constant rate. In nozzle governing, the flow
rate of steam is regulated by nozzles.
2. The flow rate of steam is controlled by regulating the_________

a) Steam
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Speed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The process of controlling the flow rate is called as governing. It is done to
maintain its speed at a constant rate during rotation of the turbine rotor. The flow rate of
steam is controlled by regulating the pressure.

c) Load variations
d) Heat variations
View Answer
Answer: b
4. What is primary objective of steam turbine governing?

a) Maintain constant speed
b) Maintain constant pressure
c) Maintain constant temperature
d) Maintain constant expansion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary objective of steam turbine governing is to maintain a constant
speed at varying loads. That means, irrespective of the load that is developed in the turbine,
the speed remains a constant.
5. Which among the following is not a parameter to determine the efficiency of the turbine?
a) Unit speed
b) Unit power
c) Unit volume
d) Unit discharge
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Unit volume is not a parameter to determine the efficiency of the turbine. Power
of a turbine is measured mechanically by adjusting the flow of fluid using the percentage

a) Valve
b) Pump
c) Head
d) Tank pipe
View Answer
Answer: a
7. The advantage of nozzle governing is that no regulating pressure is applied.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The advantage of nozzle governing is that no regulating pressure is applied. The
actuation of individual valve closes the corresponding set of nozzle. Thus, controlling the flow
rate.

a) Head race
b) Gate
c) Tail race
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: b
9. When do we apply by pass governing?

a) When turbine is overloaded
b) When Unit speed decreases
c) When Unit power increases
d) When Unit pressure decreases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main purpose of by pass governing is taken into full action when the turbine
is overloaded for short durations. This happens occasionally in the working of the turbine.
During this, a bypass valve is used.
10. When bypass valve is opened to _______

b) Increase Unit speed
c) Increase Unit power
d) Increase the amount of fresh steam
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When a by pass valve is opened, a fresh steam is introduced into the turbine,
thereby increasing the amount of fresh steam. The main purpose of by pass governing is
taken into full action when the turbine is overloaded for short durations.
11. What is the unit of steam rate?

a) kg
b) kg/m
c) kg/kWh
d) N/m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The unit of stream is equal to kg/kWh. In the process of throttle governing, it is
denoted by the symbol ‘a’. The variation of the steam consumption rate with the turbine load
during governing is linear.

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a
13. Combination governing involves usage of two or more governing.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, Combination governing involves usage of two or more governing. Most
usage is the by pass and the nozzle governing as they tend to match the load on the turbine.
Thus, increasing its efficiency.
14. When the mechanical speed of the shaft increases beyond 110 percent, we use _________
b) Steam governing
c) Nozzle governing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the mechanical speed of the shaft increases beyond 110 percent, we use
emergency governing. These governors come into action only when there are emergencies in
the turbine.

b) Steam governing
c) Nozzle governing
View Answer
Answer: d
These governors come into action only when there are emergencies in the turbine
1. Centrifugal pump is a_________

a) Turbomachinery
b) Flow regulating device
c) Drafting device
d) Intercooling device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that
transfer energy between a rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors. It is a
mechanical device.
2. Turbomachines work under ________

a) Newtons first law
b) Newtons second law
c) Newtons third law
d) Kepler’s law
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Turbomachines work under Newtons second law. Centrifugal pump is a
turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a rotor and a
fluid, including both turbines and compressors. It is a mechanical device.

c) Load variations
d) Heat variations
View Answer
Answer: b
4. The main function of centrifugal pumps are to ________

a) Transfer speed
b) Transfer pressure
c) Transfer temperature
d) Transfer energy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The primary objective of a centrifugal pump is to transfer energy. Centrifugal
pump is a turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy between a
rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors. It is a mechanical device.
5. Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from _______

a) Rotor to fluid
b) Fluid to rotor
c) Draft to rotor
d) Rotor to draft
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from rotor to fluid. The primary objective of a
centrifugal pump is to transfer energy. Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery.

a) Valve
b) Pump
c) Head
d) Tank pipe
View Answer
Answer: a
7. Turbines and compressors work with the gas, while centrifugal pump transfers energy.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Turbines and compressors work with the gas, while centrifugal pump transfers
energy. Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from rotor to fluid. The primary objective of a

a) Head race
b) Gate
c) Tail race
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: b
9. Centrifugal pumps are a sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work absorbing

turbomachinery.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Centrifugal pumps are a sub class of dynamic
axisymmetric work absorbing turbomachinery. The main function of centrifugal pumps are to
transfer energy.
10. Centrifugal pumps are used to transport ________

a) Pressure
b) Speed
c) Power
d) Fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps are used to transport fluids. They transport fluids by
conversion of energies. Centrifugal pumps are a sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work
absorbing turbomachinery.
11. Centrifugal pumps transport fluids by converting _________
a) Kinetic energy to hydrodynamic energy
b) Hydrodynamic energy to kinetic energy
c) Mechanical energy to kinetic energy
d) Mechanical energy to Hydrodynamic energy
View Answer
Answer: a
conversion of energies. Centrifugal pumps transport fluids by converting rotational Kinetic
energy to hydrodynamic energy.
12. With the increase in load, Energy in the turbine________

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a
13. The rotational kinetic energy comes from ______

a) Engine motor
b) Pump
c) Tank
d) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps transport fluids by converting rotational Kinetic energy to
hydrodynamic energy. The rotational kinetic energy comes from engine or electrical motor.

b) Steam governing
c) Nozzle governing
View Answer
Answer: d
These governors come into action only when there are emergencies in the turbine.
15. The fluid coming into the centrifugal pump is accelerated by ________
a) Throttle
b) Impeller
c) Nozzle
d) Governor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fluid coming into the centrifugal pump is accelerated by an impeller. The
fluid enters the pump along a radially outward direction into the diffuser or a volute chamber
1. A gear pump uses ___________

a) Petrochemical pumps
b) Meshing of gears
c) Froth pumps
d) Airlift pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A gear pump uses meshing of gears. This meshing is done to pump fluid by
displacement. Gear pumps are widely used in chemical installations.
2. The fundamental significance of all the turbomachinery is _______

a) Conservation of momentum
b) Conservation of mass
c) Conservation of heat
d) Conservation of speed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The fundamental significance of all the turbomachinery is the conservation of
momentum. It plays an important role in various turbomachinery.
3. The most common pump used for hydraulic fluid power application is __________
a) Centrifugal pumps
b) Gear pump
c) Froth pumps
d) Airlift pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most common pump used for hydraulic fluid power application is gear
pump. A gear pump uses meshing of gears. This meshing is done to pump fluid by
4. The change of angular momentum in a pump is equal to the _________

a) Sum of speeds
b) Sum of individual momentum
c) Sum of temperatures
d) Sum of energy transferred from a body
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The change of angular momentum in a pump is equal to the sum of individual
momentum.
5. Conservation of angular momentum is described by _______

a) Newtons equation
b) Euler’s equation
c) Rutherford’s equation
d) Maxim equation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Conservation of angular momentum is described by Euler’s equation. It states
that the change of angular momentum in a pump is equal to the sum of individual
momentum.
6. Gear pumps are mainly used in chemical installations because they pump ________
a) High viscosity fluids
b) High density fluids
c) High pressure fluids
d) High temperature fluids
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gear pumps are mainly used in chemical installations because they pump high
viscosity fluids. They use two external spur gears for this purpose.
7. Gear pumps convert rotational kinetic energy to hydrodynamic energy.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gear pumps are used to transport fluids. They transport fluids by conversion of
energies. Gear pumps transport fluids by converting rotational Kinetic energy to
hydrodynamic energy.
8. The inlet passage of centrifugal pump is controlled by ________

a) Gate
b) Head race
c) Turbine
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: a
9. Absolute exit velocity in a pump is denoted as ______

a) c2
b) v2
c) p2
d) w2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Absolute exit velocity in a pump is denoted as ‘c2’.
10. Gear pumps are used to transport ________

a) Pressure
b) Speed
c) Power
d) Fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
energies. A gear pump uses meshing of gears. This meshing is done to pump fluid by
11. Vertical Centrifugal pumps are also called as _________

a) Cantilever pumps
b) Hydrodynamic pump
c) Mechanical pump
d) Hydroelectric pump
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vertical Centrifugal pumps are also called as cantilever pumps.

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a

a) Engine motor
b) Pump
c) Tank
d) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: a

b) Steam governing
c) Nozzle governing
View Answer
Answer: d
15. Gear pumps are ___________
a) Tangential flow pumps
b) Positive displacement pumps
c) Negative displacement pumps
d) Radial pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gear pumps are positive displacement pumps or fixed displacement pumps.
This means that they pump at a constant amount of fluid each revolution
1. The fluid gains _________ while passing through the impeller.

a) Velocity
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Velocity and pressure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The fluid gains both velocity and pressure while passing through the impeller.
Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy
between a rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors.
2. What is the shape of the diffuser in the centrifugal pump?

a) Round
b) Dough nut
c) Rectangle
d) Cylindrical
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The shape of the diffuser passing present in the centrifugal pump is doughnut
shaped. It is made into that shape as it allows the device to scroll up and down. Due to this,
the casing decelerates the flow.
3. When the casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the flow, what increases?
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the flow, pressure in the
turbine increases. The diffuser helps this happen. The shape of the diffuser passing present
in the centrifugal pump is doughnut shaped.
4. The velocity imparted by the impeller is converted into _________

a) Pressure energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Momentum
d) Potential energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The velocity imparted by the impeller is converted into pressure energy. It is in
accordance with the Newtons second law.
5. The consequence of Newtons second law is_________

a) Conservation of angular momentum
c) Conservation of potential energy
d) Conservation of kinetic energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The consequence of Newtons second law is the conservation of angular
momentum. This, in accordance with newtons second law, provides the basic details to define
parameters in the centrifugal pump.
6. Change of angular momentum is equal to ________

a) Sum of external moments
b) Sum of their potential energies
c) Sum of their kinetic energies
d) Sum of their pressures
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Change of angular momentum is equal to Sum of external moments. This is in
accordance with Newtons second law. The consequence of Newtons second law is the
conservation of angular momentum.
7. Euler developed the head pressure equation in centrifugal pumps.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
energy to hydrodynamic energy. Euler developed the head pressure equation in centrifugal
pumps.
8. What is a major advantage of centrifugal pump?

a) Cost
b) Simple in construction
c) Efficiency
d) Pump parameters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The major advantage of the centrifugal pump is that it has got a simple
construction when compared to other types of centrifugal pumps.
9. ‘Ht’ means _______
a) Tangential head
b) Horizontally head
c) Theory head pressure
d) Radially head pressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: ‘Ht’ in the context of centrifugal pump means theory head pressure. It is used in
a centrifugal pump equation that was derived by Euler. Euler developed the head pressure
equation in centrifugal pumps.

a) Pressure
b) Speed
c) Power
d) Fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
11. Different velocities in a centrifugal pump are determined by using ________

a) Velocity triangle
b) Reynolds number
c) Froude number
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Different velocities in a centrifugal pump are determined by using velocity
triangle. This is an important triangle that determines the way the pump works.
12. Due to its impeller action, centrifugal pumps can cover a wide range of fluid pump
applications.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to its impeller action, centrifugal pumps can cover a wide range of fluid
pump applications. Thus, the impeller action plays an important role.
13. With the increase in the input power, efficiency _______

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: With the increase in the input power, efficiency decreases. As the input power is
inversely proportional to the efficiency of the pump.
14. What is unit of standard acceleration?

a) kg/m
b) kg/s
c) kg/m3
d) N/m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The unit of standard acceleration of the centrifugal pump is kg/m3. It is denoted
as g. It is also called as the acceleration due to gravity.
15. What does PSP stand for?

a) Pump start procedure
b) Positive start pump
c) Pump start pointer
d) Positive start pointer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PSP stands for Pump start procedure. It is the basic method to start the pump by
lining up the pump valves in a sequence by ensuring that the drain valve is closed
1. What is the unit of flow rate?

a) kg.m
b) kg/m
c) m3/s
d) /s
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The unit of flow rate in a centrifugal pump is m3/s. It is denoted as ‘Q’. It plays an
important role to determine the efficiency of the pump.
2. With the increase in the flow rate, efficiency ______

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: With the increase in the flow rate, efficiency increases. The unit of flow rate in a
centrifugal pump is m3/s. It is denoted as ‘Q’. It plays an important role to determine the
efficiency of the pump.
3. Pump efficiency is defined as the ratio of ___________

a) Pressure to temperature
b) Temperature to pressure
c) Water horsepower to pump horsepower
d) Pump horse power to water horse power
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pump efficiency is defined as the ratio of water horsepower to the pump
horsepower. The unit of flow rate in a centrifugal pump is m3/s. It is denoted as ‘Q’. It plays an
4. The difference in the total head of the pump is called _______

a) Manometric head
b) Euler head
c) Pressure head
d) Shaft head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The difference in the total head of the pump is called manometric head.
Centrifugal pump is a turbomachinery. Turbomachines are machines that transfer energy
between a rotor and a fluid, including both turbines and compressors.
5. The ratio of manometric head to the work head is called _______

a) Manometric head
b) Euler head
c) Pressure head
d) Shaft head
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of manometric head to the work head is called Euler head. It is also
called as manometric efficiency.
6. What is the unit of energy head?

a) m
b) m/s
c) m3/s
d) /s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The unit of energy head is meter. The energy head is denoted as ‘H’. It plays an
7. With the increase in energy head, efficiency ________

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: With the increase in energy head, efficiency increases. Since energy is directly
proportional to the efficiency of the turbine. The unit of energy head is meter. The energy
head is denoted as ‘H’. It plays an important role to determine the efficiency of the pump.
8. The head added by the pump is a sum of _________
a) Pressure
b) Static lift
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The head added by the pump is a sum of static lift. With the increase in energy
head, efficiency increases. Since energy is directly proportional to the efficiency of the
turbine. The unit of energy head is meter. The energy head is denoted as ‘H’. It plays an
9. Power is most commonly expressed as ________

a) m
b) kW
c) m3/s
d) /s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Power is most commonly expressed as kilo watts. One kilo watts is equal to
0.746 horse power. It plays an important role in determining the efficiency of the turbine.
10. PHE stands for __________

a) Pump Hydraulic efficiency
b) Pressure Hydraulic efficiency
c) Power Hydraulic efficiency
d) Pump hydraulic engine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PHE stands for Pump hydraulic efficiency. Centrifugal pumps are used to
transport fluids. They transport fluids by conversion of energies.
11. Vertical centrifugal pumps are also called as cantilever pumps.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vertical centrifugal pumps are also called as cantilever pumps. Centrifugal
pumps are used to transport fluids. They transport fluids by conversion of energies.
Centrifugal pumps are a sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work absorbing turbomachinery.
12. With increase in power, the efficiency_________

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a
13. Vertical pumps utilize unique shaft and bearing support configuration.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vertical pumps utilize unique shaft and bearing support configuration. It allows
them to hang in the sump while the bearings are outside the sump. Thus, it is a true.
14. Which among the following is used in mineral industries?

a) Vertical pumps
b) Horizontal pumps
c) Froth pumps
d) Multistage pumps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the mineral industries, we use froth pumps to extract oil sand. Froth is
generated to separate rich minerals.
1. Vertical centrifugal pumps are also called as ________

a) Froth pumps
b) Multistage pumps
c) Cantilever pumps
d) Magnetic pumps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Vertical centrifugal pumps are also called as cantilever pumps. They utilize a
unique shaft and bearing support for configuration. Thus, it is called as cantilever pumps.
2. Vertical pump uses _______

a) Draft tube
b) Throttle bush
c) Stuffing box
d) Interlining
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Vertical pumps use throttle bush. They do not use stuffing box. Vertical
centrifugal pumps are also called as cantilever pumps. They utilize a unique shaft and bearing
support for configuration. Thus, it is called as cantilever pumps.
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
View Answer
Answer: a
4. The maximum volumetric efficiency of a pump(100cc) is ________

a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 80%
d) 90%
View Answer
Answer: d
5. The most common application of vertical centrifugal pump is used in _______

a) Parts washer
b) Mineral industry
c) Paper plating
d) Jukebox
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The most application of the vertical centrifugal pump is used in parts washer.
Vertical pumps use throttle bush. They do not use stuffing box. Vertical centrifugal pumps are
also called as cantilever pumps.
6. What does BEP stand for?

a) Best efficiency point
b) Brake ejection point
c) Break effect point
d) Best effect point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: BEP stands for Best efficient point. It is a point at which Shut off and Run out
point. It helps to identify the pumps performance.
7. The height of a column in a pump is called as _______

a) Vertical head
b) Horizontal head
c) Static head
d) Multi head
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a centrifugal pump, the height of the column is called as a static head. Static
head corresponds to the pressure depending on the weight.
8. The centrifugal pump has varying flow depending on the _________

a) Pressure
b) Static lift
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to pressure variations there are changes that take place in the centrifugal
pump. Thus, the flow keeps varying.
9. What is purpose of froth in froth pumps?

a) Separates rich minerals
b) Mixes rich minerals
c) Removes ores
d) Detects oil
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of the froth in froth pumps is to separate rich minerals. It is
also used to separate bitumen from the sand and the clays.
10. Froth contains air that blocks the pumps.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Froth contains air that blocks the pumps. The main function of the froth in froth
pumps is to separate rich minerals. It is also used to separate bitumen from the sand and the
clays.
11. When froth blocks the pump, it leads to _______

a) Separation of rich minerals
b) Mixing of rich minerals
c) Removing of ores
d) Loss of prime
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When froth blocks the pump, it leads to loss of prime. The main function of the
froth in froth pumps is to separate rich minerals. It is also used to separate bitumen from the
sand and the clays.
12. What affects volumetric efficiency of the pump?

a) Complex interactions
b) Internal interactions
c) Retain flow
d) Air flow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The volumetric efficiency of the centrifugal is affected due to complex
interactions. Thus, some engines use two intake manifolds.
13. The Positive Displacement Pump has more or less a constant flow regardless of the
system pressure or head.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Positive Displacement Pump has more or less a constant flow regardless of
the system pressure or head.
14. What is the purpose of inducer in a froth pump?

a) It recirculates air
b) The pressurizes the air
c) Froths are generated
d) It breaks the bubbles
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The purpose of the inducer in a froth pump is to break the bubbles. The main
function of the froth in froth pumps is to separate rich minerals. It is also used to separate
bitumen from the sand and the clays.
1. A multistage centrifugal pumps has more than two _______

a) Pumps
b) Impellers
c) Turbines
d) Magnetic pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A multistage centrifugal pumps has more than two impellers. The multistage
centrifugal is similar to the centrifugal pumps working.
2. The impeller is mounted on a ________

a) Draft tube
b) Throttle bush
c) Stuffing box
d) Shaft
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The impeller is mounted on one shaft or different shaft. A multistage centrifugal
pump has more than two impellers. The multistage centrifugal is similar to the centrifugal
pumps working.
3. At each stage the fluid is directed ________

a) Towards the centre
b) Away the centre
c) Towards the surface
d) Away from the centre
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: At each stage in the centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre.
A multistage centrifugal pump has more than two impellers. The multistage centrifugal is
similar to the centrifugal pumps working.
4. If the cylinder is filled with fuel or air it is said to be ___________

a) 100% efficient
b) Transfer efficient
c) Nil efficient
d) Flow effective
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the cylinder is filled with fuel or air, it is said to be 100 percent efficient. It plays
a major role in regulating the flow of fluid.
5. SOH in a pump stands for_______

a) Shut Off head
b) Shut off heat
c) Shut off hybrid
d) Set off head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: SOH in a pump stands for Shut OFF head. The shut off head is located at the
maximum head of the pipe.
6. At higher pressures, the impeller is connected in _______

a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Equilibrium
d) Series and parallel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: At higher pressures, the impeller is connected in series. The impeller is mounted
on one shaft or different shaft. A multistage centrifugal pump has more than two impellers.
The multistage centrifugal is similar to the centrifugal pumps working.
7. When the flow output is higher, impellers are connected in________

a) Series
b) Parallel
c) Equilibrium
d) Series and parallel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the flow output is higher, impellers are connected in parallel. The impeller
is mounted on one shaft or different shaft. A multistage centrifugal pump has more than two
impellers. The multistage centrifugal is similar to the centrifugal pumps working.
8. The point at which piping system controls the flow rate is called ______
a) Pressure point
b) Static lift
c) Operating point
d) Flow point
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The point at which piping system controls the flow rate is called operating point
of the pump. It plays a major role in controlling the piping system before regulation.
9. What is the common application of multistage centrifugal pump?

a) Mineral industries
b) Boiler feed water pump
c) Removes ores
d) Detects oil
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most common application of multistage centrifugal pump is boiler feed
water pump.
10. A multistage centrifugal pump produces a pressure of __________

a) 10 Pa
b) 100 MPa
c) 21 MPa
d) 150 MPa
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A multistage centrifugal pump produces a pressure of 21 MPa. A multistage
centrifugal pump has more than two impellers. The multistage centrifugal is similar to the
centrifugal pumps working.
11. All energy that is transferred from the fluid is derived from ________
a) Electrical energy
b) Mechanical energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Chemical energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: All energy that is transferred from the fluid is derived from Mechanical energy. A
multistage centrifugal pump has more than two impellers. The multistage centrifugal is
12. The point at which the centrifugal pump operates at maximum efficiency is called _______
a) Duty point
b) Flow point
c) Static point
d) Operating point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The point at which the centrifugal pump operates at maximum efficiency is
called duty point. It is determined by the flow rate of the pump.
13. The energy transferred can be measured by isentropic compression.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The energy transferred in a centrifugal pump can be measured by isentropic
compression. The multistage centrifugal is similar to the centrifugal pumps working.
14. What does TDH stand for?

a) Total dynamic head
b) Total depth head
c) Tight drum head
d) Target dynamic head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: TDH stands for total dynamic head. It is total height at which fluid is to be
pumped for maximum effiency.
15. The mechanical energy is developed by the impeller.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The mechanical energy is developed by the impeller. The energy transferred in a
centrifugal pump can be measured by isentropic compression. The multistage centrifugal is
similar to the centrifugal pumps working. Thus, it is true
1. The mechanical energy can be measured by ______

a) Adiabatic expansion
b) Isentropic compression
c) Adiabatic compression
d) Isentropic expansion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The mechanical energy in a centrifugal pump that is driven by the impeller
mounted on a shaft is measured by isentropic compression. Thus, the correct choice is
isentropic compression.
2. How many impellers does a multistage centrifugal pump have?

a) Zero
b) One
c) Exactly two
d) Two and more
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The centrifugal pump consists of two or more impellers. The impeller is
mounted on one shaft or different shaft. A multistage centrifugal pump has more than two
impellers. The multistage centrifugal is similar to the centrifugal pumps working.
3. The energy usage in pumping installation is determined by _______

a) Friction characteristics
b) Pipe diameter
c) Surface tension
d) Thermal expansion
View Answer
Answer: a
The energy usage in pumping installation is determined by Friction characteristics. Thus, it is
the most suitable option.
4. Which among the following is a friction factor?

a) Newtons factor
b) Darcy’s factor
d) Heizenberg’s factor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: From the above, the factor that involves friction is determined by Darcy’s friction
factor. The energy usage in pumping installation is determined by Friction characteristics.
Thus, it is used in energy calculations in a pump.
5. What is the dimension for Darcy’s friction factor?

a) kg/m
b) N/mm
c) kg
d) Dimensionless
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Darcy’s friction factor is dimensionless. It is one of the major applications in Fluid
dynamics. The energy usage in pumping installation is determined by Friction characteristics.
Thus, it is dimensionless.
6. Formation of bubbles in an impeller is called ______

a) Cavities
b) Defects
c) Friction
d) Heat burn
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Formation of bubbles in an impeller is called as its as its cavities. These cavities
develop intense shockwaves in the impeller.
7. Centrifugal pump works by imparting _______
a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Heat energy
d) Electrical energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Centrifugal pump works by imparting kinetic energy to the liquid for rotating the
impeller rotor.
8. What is the full form of NPSH in a pump?

a) Net pressure suction head
b) Net positive suction head
c) Non-pressure suction head
d) Net pressure super head
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of NPSH is Net positive suction head. The head added by the pump
is a sum of static lift. Thus, corresponds to the efficient working of the pump. Higher the
NPSH, more efficient the pump is.
9. When the NPSH is low, it leads to ________

a) Breaking
b) Wear
c) Corrosion
d) Cavitation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the NPSH is low, it leads to cavitation. Cavitation is one of the major
drawbacks that are seen in a centrifugal pump. There are various other problems as well. But,
cavitation is due to low NPSH.
10. Wear of impeller can be worsened by __________

a) Draft tube
b) Pump pressure
c) Suspended solenoids
d) Turbine head
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wear of impeller can be worsened by suspended solenoids. Wear and tear is
one of the major drawbacks that are seen in a centrifugal pump. It affects the working of the
impeller, thus resulting in an inefficient working.
11. Which pump is the most efficient centrifugal pump?

a) Electrical pump
b) Reciprocating pump
c) Heat pump
d) Pressure pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reciprocating pump is the most efficient centrifugal pump because as the
pressure increases, the flow rate remains constant.
12. Corrosion in the pump is developed due to _______

a) Pressure of air
b) Fluid properties
c) Draft tube
d) Tank dimensions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Corrosion in the pump is developed due to fluid properties. The flow of fluid
plays a major role in determining the corrosion developed. Fluid flow can broadly be
classified into laminar and turbulent depending on its Reynolds number.
13. Over heating is a major problem faced in a pump.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Over heating is a major problem faced in a pump. The temperature in a
centrifugal pump is increases mainly due to the presence of low flow. Thus, by heating the
fluid, the velocity of fluid flow increases.
14. What is the effect of cavitation in boat propeller?

a) It recirculates air
b) The pressurizes the air
c) It leads to fast spinning
d) It breaks the bubbles
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cavitation in a boat propeller or a ship propeller leads to fast spinning due to
the formation of bubbles.
15. Lack of prime is a problem faced in centrifugal pump.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, Lack of prime is a problem faced in centrifugal pump. It means that the
centrifugal pump must be filled in order to operate in an effective way. The fluid must be
filled in such a way so that it can pump. 1. The energy usage of a pump is determined by
_______
b) Power required
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The energy usage of a pump is determined by power required. Thus, it plays an
important role in determining the amount of energy that a pump dissipates during its
operation. It is with respect to the length of time.
2. For an oil field to have solid control, it needs _______

a) Draft tubes
b) Throttle bush
c) Stuffing box
d) Centrifugal pumps
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For an oil field to have solid control, it needs centrifugal pumps. At each stage in
the centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. This makes it more efficient
in operating a large oil field.
3. If we lower the temperature, the water pump cavitation ________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If we lower the temperature, the water pump cavitation decreases. This happens
as the NPSH value reaches a safety margin.
4. Which among the following is not a centrifugal pump?

a) Sand pumps
b) Froth pumps
c) Slurry pumps
d) Energy pumps
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: From the above, Energy pumps are not a type of centrifugal pump. At each stage
in the centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. The energy usage in
pumping installation is determined by Friction characteristics. Thus, it is not a suitable option.
5. Centrifugal pumps work under the same principle, but differ in their _______
a) Working
b) Functions
c) Dimensions
d) Impeller
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps work under the same principle, but differ in their functions.
At each stage in the centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. The energy
usage in pumping installation is determined by Friction characteristics.
6. If we raise the liquid level in the suction vessel, cavitation ______

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If we raise the liquid level in the suction vessel, cavitation decreases. This
happens as the NPSH value reaches a safety margin.
7. Magnetic coupled pumps are also called as _________

a) Series pumps
b) Parallel pumps
c) Froth pumps
d) Drive pumps
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Magnetic coupled pumps are also called a magnetic drive pumps. They show a
lot of difference in their traditional pumping style. It is connected by means of direct
mechanical shaft.
8. Magnetic coupled pumps works via ________

a) Antiferromagnet
b) Drive magnet
c) Pump magnet
d) Ferromagnet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Magnetic coupled pumps works via drive magnet. Magnetic coupled pumps are
also called a magnetic drive pumps. They show a lot of difference in their traditional pumping
style. It is connected by means of direct mechanical shaft.
9. When we change the pump, the cavitation ______

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: By changing the pump we can decrease the cavitation in the pump by bringing
the NPSH value to a safety margin.
10. If we reduce the motor rpm in an impeller, cavitation _______

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If we reduce the motor rpm in an impeller, cavitation decreases. This can be
done by setting the NPSH value in the safety limit.
11. Decreasing the diameter of the eye of the impeller, cavitation _________
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Decreasing the diameter of the eye of the impeller, cavitation increases due to
deviation from the safety limit.
12. No gland is needed for the centrifugal pump.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: No gland is needed for the centrifugal pump. This is because they have no direct
connection between the motor shaft and the impeller, so there is not a requirement of gland
in pumps.
13. Pump is always supported by bearings.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pump shaft is not always supported by bearings. Since the pumps have no
bearing support. The pumps are provided with a housing. The inner walls of the pump are
provided with bushings.
14. If we use an impeller inducer, we can reduce the cavitation in a centrifugal pump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, If we use an impeller inducer, we can reduce the cavitation in a centrifugal
pump by bringing the NPSH value to a safety limit.
15. There will be leakage only if there is ________

a) High pressure
b) High temperature
c) Froths are generated
d) Casing breakage
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pumps have a major problem called as leakage. This might lead to a lot of losses
during product manufacture. Thus, the leakage is mainly due to the breaking of the case.
Thus, the correct option is casing breakage
1. When a pump casing is filled with liquid before it is started, it is called as _________
b) Priming
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a pump casing is filled with liquid before it is started, it is called as
priming. Most of the centrifugal pumps are not self priming. At this stage, the pump will not
be able to function.
2. The pump will become incapable of pumping in case of _______

a) Gas bounding
b) Throttle bush
c) Stuffing box
d) Casing breakage
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For an oil field to have solid control, it needs centrifugal pumps. At each stage in
the centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. This makes it more efficient
in operating a large oil field.
3. Priming is needed when impeller cannot impart enough _________

a) Draft speed
b) Energy
c) Pressure
d) Heat
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Priming is needed when impeller cannot impart enough energy. Therefore
priming is compulsory in this case.
4. Priming performs response using ________

a) Stimulus
b) Froth
c) Slurry
d) Heat
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Priming performs response using a stimulus. It is an implicit method in which
exposure to flow of fluid takes place.
5. To avoid gas bounding, the pump is _________

a) Heated
b) Elevated
c) Primed
d) Charged
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps work under the same principle, but differ in their functions.
At each stage in the centrifugal pump, the fluid is directed to towards the centre. To avoid gas
bounding, the pump is primed.
6. Centrifugal pumps are located ________ the level of source

a) Below
b) Above
c) Parallel with
d) Series with
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps are located below the level of source. It is located in such way
because, it takes away the suction at a faster rate.
7. A pump that can evacuate air is called as _________

a) Series pumps
b) Self priming pumps
c) Froth pumps
d) Drive pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pump that can evacuate air is called as self priming pumps. In normal
conditions, it is difficult for centrifugal pumps to evacuate the air from the inlet line leading to
a fluid level to a different altitude.
8. What does CPO stand for?

a) Centrifugal pump operation
b) Centrifugal part operation
c) Centrifugal pump output
d) Centrifugal part output
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: CPO stands for centrifugal pump operation. It has got a pump start off
procedure and pump shut down procedure.
9. Self priming pumps overshadow the function of __________

a) Self auxiliary device
b) Wear rate
c) Corrosion device
d) Cavitation device
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Self priming pumps overshadow the function of self auxiliary device. A pump
that can evacuate air is called as self priming pumps. In normal conditions, it is difficult for
centrifugal pumps to evacuate the air from the inlet line leading to a fluid level to a different
altitude.
10. What is necessary for self priming to take place?

a) Draft tube
b) Pump casing
c) Suspended solenoids
d) Turbine head
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For self priming to take place, pump casing is necessary. This helps to evacuate
air in normal conditions.
11. Centrifugal pumps with an internal suction stage are called as _________
a) Series pumps
c) Froth pumps
d) Drive pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps with an internal suction stage are called as self priming
pumps. A pump that can evacuate air is called as self priming pumps. In normal conditions, it
is difficult for centrifugal pumps to evacuate the air from the inlet line leading to a fluid level
to a different altitude.
12. Two phase mixture is pumped unit the suction line is evacuated.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Two phase mixture is pumped unit the suction line is evacuated as the pump
operates without a foot valve and without an evacuation device on the suction side. The
pump has to be primed for this purpose.
13. During normal working operation, the pump works like __________
c) Froth pumps
d) Drive pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pump shaft is not always supported by bearings. Since the pumps have no
bearing support. The pumps are provided with a housing. During normal working operation,
the pump works like centrifugal pumps.
14. The pump function that works on rinsing is called as dialysis of pump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, The pump function that works on rinsing is called as dialysis of pump.
15. What is purpose of vent valve in a pump?

a) High pressure control
b) High temperature control
c) Froths are generated can be minimized
d) To prevent siphon action
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The main function of a suction swindle valve or vent valve in a centrifugal pump
is to prevent any siphon action and ensure that the fluid remains in the casing when the
pump has been stopped.
1. In hydraulic head, NPSH is used for the analysis of __________

b) Priming
c) Wear
d) Cavitation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In hydraulic head, net positive circuit is used for the analysis of cavitation. It
determines the cavitation present in the centrifugal pump by different methods.
2. NPSH is the difference between _______

a) Suction pressure and vapour pressure
b) Vapour pressure and suction pressure
c) Suction pressure and heat
d) Shaft and head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NPSH is defined as the difference suction pressure and vapour pressure. It is
called as the net positive suction head.
3. What can NPSH be used to determine _______

a) Friction characteristics
b) Pipe diameter
c) Cavitation
d) Thermal expansion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: NPSH is used to determine the cavitation in pumps. NPSH is defined as the
difference suction pressure and vapour pressure. It is called as the net positive suction head.
4. The measure of how close the fluid is to the given point is called _________
a) Flashing
b) Darcy’s factor
d) Heizenberg’s factor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The measure of how close the fluid is to the given point is called flashing. It is
one of the major methods in the NPSH to determine the cavitation.
5. What is the dimension for Darcy’s friction factor?

a) kg/m
b) N/mm
c) kg
d) Dimensionless
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Darcy’s friction factor is dimensionless. It is one of the major applications in Fluid
dynamics. The energy usage in pumping installation is determined by Friction characteristics.
Thus, it is dimensionless.
6. NPSH is relevant ________

a) Outside the pumps
b) Inside the pumps
c) Away from the pumps
d) Series and parallel with the pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NPSH is relevant inside the pumps. hydraulic head, net positive circuit is used for
the analysis of cavitation. It determines the cavitation present in the centrifugal pump by
different methods.
7. With the increase in cavitation, the drag coefficient of the impeller ______
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: With the increase in cavitation, the drag coefficient of the impeller increases.
When the flow output is higher, impellers are connected in parallel. The impeller is mounted
on one shaft or different shaft.
8. What is the full form of NPSH in a pump?

a) Net pressure suction head
b) Net positive suction head
c) Non-pressure suction head
d) Net pressure super head
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of NPSH is Net positive suction head. The head added by the pump
is a sum of static lift. Thus, corresponds to the efficient working of the pump. Higher the
NPSH, more efficient the pump is.
9. When the NPSH is low, it leads to ________

a) Breaking
b) Wear
c) Corrosion
d) Cavitation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the NPSH is low, it leads to cavitation. Cavitation is one of the major
drawbacks that are seen in a centrifugal pump. There are various other problems as well. But,
cavitation is due to low NPSH.
10. What is positive suction head?

a) Draft tube is above
b) Pump pressure is above
c) Liquid level is above
d) Turbine head is above
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Positive suction head is defined as the point in which the liquid level is above the
centre line of the pump.
11. NPSHr is determined by using ______

a) Pump pressure
b) PumpLinx
c) Heat transfer
d) Chemical energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: NPSHr of a pump can be determined by using Pumplinx. The full form of NPSH is
Net positive suction head. The head added by the pump is a sum of static lift.
12. Corrosion in the pump is developed due to _______

a) Pressure of air
b) Fluid properties
c) Draft tube
d) Tank dimensions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Corrosion in the pump is developed due to fluid properties. The flow of fluid
plays a major role in determining the corrosion developed. Fluid flow can broadly be
classified into laminar and turbulent depending on its Reynolds number.
13. Calculation of NPSH in a turbine is different from the calculation of NPSH in a pump.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Calculation of NPSH in a turbine is different from the calculation of NPSH in a
pump. It is mainly because the point at which the cavitation will first occur is in a different
place.
14. If we use two lower capacity pumps in parallel, cavitation ________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If we use two lower capacity pumps in parallel, cavitation decreases. It happens
when the NPSh value is bought in its safety limit.
15. Vapour pressure is strongly dependent on temperature in a pump.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, Vapour pressure is strongly dependent on temperature in a pump. It will
thus increase the net positive suction head of the centrifugal pump
1. The characteristic curves of a centrifugal pump, plots ______ required by the pump.
a) Velocity
b) Pressure
c) NPSH
d) Velocity and pressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The characteristic curves of a centrifugal pump, plots net positive suction head
required by the pump. These curves play an important role in determining the efficiency of a
centrifugal pump.
2. What is the shape of the diffuser in the centrifugal pump?

a) Round
b) Dough nut
c) Rectangle
d) Cylindrical
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The shape of the diffuser passing present in the centrifugal pump is doughnut
shaped. It is made into that shape as it allows the device to scroll up and down. Due to this,
the casing decelerates the flow.
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Flow rate
View Answer
Answer: a
4. Which among the following is not a characteristic curve for centrifugal pump?
a) Transfer speed vs Transfer pressure
b) Head vs Flow rate
c) Power input vs pump efficiency
d) Specific speed vs pump efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
pump is a turbomachinery. Transfer speed vs Transfer pressure is not considered as a correct
characteristic curve.
5. The consequence of Newtons second law is _________

a) Conservation of angular momentum
c) Conservation of potential energy
d) Conservation of kinetic energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The consequence of Newtons second law is the conservation of angular
momentum. This, in accordance with newtons second law, provides the basic details to define
parameters in the centrifugal pump.
6. Which of the following is taken into account during a characteristic curve?

a) Flow rate
b) Cavitation
c) Tolerances
d) Casing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flow rate is an important parameter that is taken into account for a
characteristic curve. These curves play an important role in determining the efficiency of a
centrifugal pump.
7. The normal operating range of centrifugal pump is sufficient to plot the characteristic
curve.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The normal operating range of centrifugal pump is sufficient to plot the
characteristic curve. Centrifugal pumps are used to transport fluids. They transport fluids by
conversion of energies.

a) Head race
b) Gate
c) Tail race
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: b
9. As the specific speed increases, the slope of HQ curve _______

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Independent
d) Remains the same
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: As the specific speed increases, the slope of HQ curve increases. It becomes
steeper with the corresponding increase in the specific speed.
10. The primary selection tool is called as _______

a) Pump curve
b) Speed curve
c) Power curve
d) Fluid curve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary selection tool is called as pump curve. It plays an essential role in
determining efficiency.
11. In case of centrifugal turbines with low specific speed, the efficiency curve is _________
a) Pointed
b) Small
c) Steep
d) Flat
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In case of centrifugal turbines with low specific speed, the efficiency curve is
relatively flat in the vertex. These curves play an essential role in determining the overall
performance of the turbine.
12. In case of centrifugal turbines with high specific speed, the efficiency curve is
a) Pointed
b) Small
c) Steep
d) Flat
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In case of centrifugal turbines with high specific speed, the efficiency curve is
relatively pointed in the vertex. These curves play an essential role in determining the overall
performance of the turbine.
13. With the increase in the input power, efficiency _______

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
14. What is unit of standard acceleration?

a) kg/m
b) kg/s
c) kg/m3
d) N/m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The unit of standard acceleration of the centrifugal pump is kg/m3. It is denoted
as g. It is also called as the acceleration due to gravity. Thus, the correct option is ‘c’
1. The formation of vapour cavities is called _____

a) Static pressure drop
b) Cavitation
c) Isentropic expansion
d) Emulsion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The formation of vapour cavities is called cavitation. It is formed due to the
presence of small free liquids with different zones. These zones consists of different layers of
forces acting on them.
2. What is the degree of reaction denoted as?

a) D
b) R
c) r
d) d
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of the static pressure drop in the rotor
to the static pressure drop in the stage. It can also be defined in the same way for enthalpy in
different stages. It is denoted by the letter ‘R’.
3. Voids are created due to ______
a) Reaction ratio
b) Pressure ratio
c) Liquid free layers
d) Volumetric layers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Voids in a turbine or pump is created due to the presence of liquid free layers. It
is formed due to the presence of small free liquids with different zones. These zones consists
of different layers of forces acting on them.
4. Cavitation usually occurs due to the changes in ________

a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Heat
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cavitation usually occurs due to the changes in pressure. The pressure change is
so rapid that it leads to formation of liquid free layers or cavities that start to affect the
overall performance.
5. Degree of reactions are most commonly used in ________

a) Turbomachinery
b) Pressure drag
c) Aerodynamics
d) Automobiles
View Answer
Answer: a

a) Drag force
b) Mass density
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: c
7. Voids that implode near metal surface develops a_______

a) Drag force
b) Cyclic stress
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Voids that implode near metal surface develops a cyclic stress. This happens
mainly due to repeated implosion of voids.
8. Internal cavitation occurs due to __________

a) Drag force
b) Cyclic stress
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: c
9. Non- inertial cavitation is the one in which a bubble of fluid is forced to oscillate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Non- inertial cavitation is the one in which a bubble of fluid is forced to oscillate.
It oscillates in a different size or shape due to some form of energy called the acoustic field.
10. The efficiency of the vane is given by _________

a) 1-V22/ V12
b) 1-(V22/ V12)
c) V22/ V12
d) 1- V12
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a velocity triangle at the inlet and the outlet, the control volume is moving
with a uniform velocity. Therefore, the momentum theorem of the control volume is at a
steady flow. Thus, the efficiency of the vane is given by 1-(V22/ V12).
11. The velocities of the blade angles can be found out using ________
a) Mach number
b) Froude’s number
c) Velocity triangles
d) Reynolds number
View Answer
Answer: c
12. Which among the following velocities cannot be found using the velocity triangle?
a) Tangential
b) Whirl
c) Relative
d) Parabolic
View Answer
Answer: d
13. Hydrodynamic cavitation is due to the process of _________

a) Vaporisation
b) Sedimentation
c) Filtration
d) Excavation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrodynamic cavitation is due to the process of vaporisation. A bubble
generation takes place in which implosion occurs during the flowing of liquid.
14. The process of bubble generation leads to __________

a) High temperatures
b) High pressures
c) High energy densities
d) High volumetric ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of bubble generation leads to high energy densities. The local
temperatures and local pressures at this point last for a very short time.
15. Super cavitation is the use of cavitation effect to create a bubble of steam inside a liquid.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, it is true. Super cavitation is the use of cavitation effect to create a bubble of
steam inside a liquid. It is large to encompass an object passing through the liquid to reduce
skin friction drag.
1. Reciprocating pump is a ________

a) Negative displacement pump
b) Positive displacement pump
c) Diaphragm pump
d) Emulsion pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reciprocation pump is a type of positive displacement pump. It has a piston
pump, plunger and diaphragm. Reciprocating pumps have a good life provided that they are
not left untouched.
2. What happens to the reciprocating pump when left untouched?

a) Efficiency decreases
b) Wear and tear
c) Surface expansion
d) Pressure change
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When left untouched over a period of time, the reciprocating pump undergoes
wear and tear. Reciprocating pumps have a good life provided that they are not left
untouched.
3. Reciprocating pumps operate by drawing ______ into the chamber

a) Liquid
b) Pressure
c) Heat
d) Electricity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps operate by drawing liquid into the chamber or the cylinder
with the help of a piston.
4. The cylinder of reciprocating cylinder is made up of _______

a) Cast iron
b) Wrought iron
c) Aluminium
d) Copper
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The cylinder of reciprocating cylinder is made up of cast iron. Sometimes it is
also made of steel alloy. The movement of piston is obtained by a connecting rod which
connects piston and rotating crank inside the cylinder.
5. The higher discharge valve line holds the discharge valve ________
a) Open
b) Closed
c) Stop functioning
d) Automatic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The higher discharge valve line holds the discharge valve closed. This helps in
maintaining the valve safely.
6. Reciprocating pumps are also called as __________

a) Force pumps
b) Mass Pumps
c) Heat pumps
d) Speed pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps are also called as force pumps. It helps to lift the liquid by
the help of a pressure and thus it is called as a force pump.
7. Reciprocating pumps are classified according to ___________

a) Drag force
b) Number of cylinders
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps are classified according to the number of cylinders. And
also it classified according to the number of piston sides.
8. Simple hand operating pump is also called as ______

a) Froth pump
b) Bicycle pump
c) Multistage pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Simple hand operating pump is also called as bicycle pumps. It is the simplest
pump that is used to inflate bicycle tires and various sporting balls.
9. Internal cavitation in reciprocating pumps occurs due to __________

a) Drag force
b) Cyclic stress
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: c
10. Bicycle pump generates more compression than volume displacement.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bicycle pump generates more compression than volume displacement. Simple
hand operating pump is also called as bicycle pumps. It is the simplest pump that is used to
inflate bicycle tires and various sporting balls.
11. Power operated pump in which only one side engages the fluid displacement is called
_______
a) Froth pump
b) Single acting
c) Double acting
d) Bicycle pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Power operated pump in which only one side engages the fluid displacement is
called as single acting reciprocating pump. It consists of piston in only one side of the fluid
being displaced.
12. Operation of reciprocating motion is done by a ________ source

a) Power
b) Energy
c) Momentum
d) Inertia
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Operation of reciprocating motion is done by a power source. This power source
consists of electric motor or IC engines. Power source gives rotary motion to crank.
13. An up and down back and forth relative linear motion is called __________
a) Reciprocation
b) Rotation
c) Filtration
d) Excavation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An up and down back and forth relative linear motion is called reciprocation.
This is how the piston in a reciprocating pump moves.
14. Power operated pump in which only both sides engage the fluid displacement is called
_____
a) Froth pump
b) Single acting
c) Double acting
d) Bicycle pump
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Power operated pump in which both the side engages the fluid displacement is
called as double acting reciprocating pump. It consists of piston in both the side of the fluid
being displaced.
15. High pressure reciprocating pumps are generally from 1500 HP.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, it is true. High pressure reciprocating pumps are generally, from 1500 HP.
They have a pressure of 20000 PSI and flow rates up to 1000 GPM
1. How many number of valves are required for the rotary pump?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There are no valves required for a rotary pump. A rotary pump is the one in
which the flow is continuous. Since, the flow is continuous, we do not require any valves.
2. Reciprocating pump is divided into how many types, based on its cylinders?
a) 0
b) 5
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on the number of cylinders, the reciprocating pump is divided into five
types. It is divided on the basis of cylinders as single, double, triple , duplex and quintuplex.
3. At each stage the fluid is directed ________

a) Towards the centre
b) Away the centre
c) Towards the surface
d) Away from the centre
View Answer
Answer: a
A multistage centrifugal pump has more than two impellers. The multistage centrifugal is
4. The maximum efficiency of the reciprocating pump is _________

a) 20
b) 50
c) 70
d) 85
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Reciprocating pump is more favourable for small liquid quantities. As the
chamber in the liquid is trapped, it has a stationary cylinder which contains a piston and a
plunger. The maximum efficiency of the reciprocating pump is 85 percent.
5. The two opposite motion that comprise a single reciprocation is called _________
a) Turbocharger
b) Stokes
c) Fluid motion
d) Auto motion
View Answer
Answer: a
6. Reciprocating pumps has ____ efficiency compared to centrifugal pumps

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
d) Exponential
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps has lower efficiency compared to centrifugal pumps. They
are generally just used for discharges at higher heads. Their main purpose is to pump water
in hilly areas.
7. Reciprocating pumps works on the principle of __________

a) Drag force
b) Liquid flow push
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps works on the principle of liquid flow push by a piston that
reciprocates in a closed fitting cylinder.
8. Reciprocating pump is a type of ___________

a) Positive displacement pump
b) Bicycle pump
c) Multistage pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reciprocating pump is a type of positive displacement pump. The positive
displacement pump includes piston pump, diaphragm and plunger pump.
9. During the suction stroke the _______ moves left thus creating vacuum in the Cylinder.
a) Piston
b) Cylinder
c) Valve
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: During the suction stroke the piston moves left. Thus, a vacuum is created in the
cylinder. This vacuum causes the suction valve to open and water enters the Cylinder.
10. In reciprocating pumps, the chamber in which the liquid is trapped is a stationary cylinder
that contains piston or cylinder
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In reciprocating pumps, the chamber in which the liquid is trapped is a
stationary cylinder that contains piston or cylinder.
11. Reciprocating pump works like a positive displacement pump.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reciprocating pump works like a positive displacement pump. In reciprocating
pumps, the chamber in which the liquid is trapped is a stationary cylinder that contains
piston or cylinder.
12. When both the sources are effective it is called as __________

a) Double acting pump
b) Single acting pump
c) Triple acting pump
d) Normal pump
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When both the sources are effective it is called as double acting centrifugal
pump. The pumping unit consists of piston and cylinder.
13. A repetitive variation about the central value of equilibrium is called ________
a) Reciprocation
b) Oscillation
c) Filtration
d) Excavation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A repetitive variation about the central value of equilibrium is called as
oscillation. It need not be linear.
14. A linear wheel turning motion is called as a ________

a) Reciprocation
b) Rotation
c) Oscillation
d) Bicycle pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A linear wheel turning motion is called as a rotational motion. It is linear motion
that takes place along a circular section.
15. A reciprocating pump that has 1200 crank is _________

a) Froth pump
b) Single acting
c) Double acting
d) Triple acting
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A reciprocating pump that has 1200 crank is triple acting or triple cylinder pump.
Each cylinder in a reciprocating pump has it suction and delivery pipes. Thus, has a crank of
1200
1. In a positive displacement pump, what gets displaced?

a) Fluid
b) Volume
c) Pressure
d) Temperature
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reciprocation pump is a type of positive displacement pump. It has a piston
pump, plunger and diaphragm. Reciprocating pumps have a good life provided that they are
not left untouched. The fluid gets displaced in a positive displacement pump.
2. What happens to the reciprocating pump when left untouched?

a) Efficiency decreases
b) Wear and tear
c) Surface expansion
d) Pressure change
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When left untouched over a period of time, the reciprocating pump undergoes
wear and tear. Reciprocating pumps have a good life provided that they are not left
untouched.
3. Positive displacement pumps are capable of developing ______ pressures, in _______ suction
pressure.
a) High, low
b) Low, high
c) High, high
d) Low, low
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Positive displacement pumps are capable of developing high pressures, in low
suction pressure. Reciprocation pump is a type of positive displacement pump.
4. When is a reciprocating pump used?

a) When quantity of liquid is small
b) When quantity of liquid is large
c) To pump high pressure
d) To pump low pressure
View Answer
Answer: a
plunger.
5. Positive displacement pumps are also called as__________

a) Constant pressure pump
b) Pressure drag pumps
c) Constant volume pumps
d) Constant head pumps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Positive displacement pumps are also called as constant volume pumps. Positive
displacement pumps are capable of developing high pressures, in low suction pressure.
Reciprocation pump is a type of positive displacement pump.

a) Drag force
b) Mass density
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: c
7. In centrifugal pumps, their capacity is affected due to___________

a) Drag force
b) Cyclic stress
c) Shock waves
d) Pressure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In centrifugal pumps, their capacity is affected due to the presence of pressure
that works against the pump they operate.
8. A quantity of fluid that leaks from a higher pressure discharge to a lower pressure
discharge is called______
a) Slip
b) Heat
c) Friction
d) Enthalpy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Slip is defined as the quantity of fluid that leaks from a higher pressure
discharge to a lower pressure discharge.
9. Positive displacement pumps regulate the flow by varying its ________
a) Drag force
b) Cyclic stress
c) Shock waves
d) Flow speed
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Positive displacement pumps regulate the flow by varying its flow speed. This
happens by the pump or by the process of recycling. Positive displacement pumps are also
called as constant volume pumps.
10. Positive displacement pumps are divided into two types.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, Positive displacement pumps are divided into two types. The two types are
reciprocating pumps and rotary pumps. Both these pumps differ in their working and
construction.
11. Centrifugal pump is less efficient than a reciprocating pump because of its _______
a) Temperature
b) Speed
c) Heat
d) Cost
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Centrifugal pump is less efficient than a reciprocating pump because of its cost
of maintenance. Cost factor plays an important role in determining the efficiency.
12. Simplest example of single acting reciprocating pump is _______

a) Mineral ores
b) Whirl wheels
c) Bicycle tires
d) Syringe
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Simplest example of single acting reciprocating pump is a syringe. Power
operated pump in which only one side engages the fluid displacement is called as single
acting reciprocating pump. It consists of piston in only one side of the fluid being displaced.
13. Rotary pumps do not function well under _______

a) High Vaporisation
b) High Sedimentation
c) High viscosity
d) Excavation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rotary pumps do not function well under high viscosity fluid. Theses pumps are
normally limited to services during the increase of such parameters.
14. The parameter that disturbs the working of the rotary pump is______
a) High Vaporisation
b) High Sedimentation
c) Low flow rate
d) Excavation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The parameter that disturbs the working of the rotary pump is low flow rate and
a high viscosity. Theses pumps are normally limited to services during the increase of such
parameters.
15. In a double acting reciprocating pump, the piston carries suction and expulsion at the
same time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, it is true. In a double acting reciprocating pump, the piston carries suction
and expulsion at the same time. It consists of piston in both the side of the fluid being
displaced.
1. Rotary pumps are commonly used to circulate________

a) Lube oils
b) Petroleum
c) Diesel
d) Water
View Answer
Answer: a
which the flow is continuous. Since, the flow is continuous, it circulates lube oils in different
turbomachinery.
2. Reciprocating pump is divided into how many types, based on its cylinders?
a) 0
b) 5
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on the number of cylinders, the reciprocating pump is divided into five
types. It is divided on the basis of cylinders as single, double, triple , duplex and quintuplex.
3. How many number of valves are required for the rotary pump?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: a
which the flow is continuous. Since, the flow is continuous, we do not require any valves.
4. Capacity of a rotary pump is defined as _________

a) Total liquid displaced
b) Overall performance of pump
c) Maximum fluid flow
d) Minimum fluid flow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacity of a rotary pump is defined as the total displacement of the pump with
lesser amount of slip. Thus, the correct option for the capacity of pump is ‘a’.
5. The pump that converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy is called as _________
a) Turbomachinery
b) Centrifugal pump
c) Aerodynamics
d) Auto pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pump that converts mechanical energy into hydraulic energy is called as
centrifugal pump.
6. What type of flow does the reciprocating pump have?

a) Uniform
b) Continuous
c) Pulsating
d) Non-uniform
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The reciprocating pump has a continuous flow because of its constant discharge
even with the variations in the delivery side.
7. What is the full form of PD?

a) Positive displacement
b) Pump displacement
c) Plunger displacement
d) Plunger direct
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: PD stands for positive displacement pump. Reciprocating pump is a positive
displacement.
8. Why can’t rotary pumps non-lubricate water?

a) Because it has lesser viscosity
b) Because it contains abrasive particles
c) Multistage pumps are difficult to operate
d) Draft tube is thin
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A rotary pump cannot non lubricate fluids such as water because water contains
hard abrasive particles or hard substances.
9. The maximum speed of reciprocating pump is __________

a) 20m/min
b) 30m/min
c) 40m/min
d) 50m/min
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum speed of reciprocating pump is only 30m/min. Reciprocating
pump runs at a very low speed. When they are connected to driving machines, speed
reducing device is required.
10. Pumps require clearances because of machining tolerances or wear exhibits larger slip.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pumps require clearances because of machining tolerances or wear exhibits
larger slip. Reciprocating pump runs at a very low speed. When they are connected to driving
machines, speed reducing device is required.
11. The pump that uses a relatively smaller amount of liquid is called ________
a) Froth pump
b) Reciprocating pump
c) Double acting
d) Bicycle pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pump that uses a relatively smaller amount of liquid is called as
reciprocating pump. It is a positive displacement pump.
12. Sliding vanes in pumps are held by ________

a) Draft pins
b) Whirl wheels
c) Springs
d) Nails
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sliding vanes is mounted on a rotor in which the vanes slide in and out of the
rotor. These sliding vanes are held by springs or sealer rings.
13. Air vessel accumulates excess quantity of ______
a) Vapor
b) Water
c) Heat
d) Pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Air vessel accumulates excess quantity of water flowing in the suction pipe or
delivery pipe.
14. In which pump is the liquid in contact with both the sides of the plunger_____
a) Froth pump
b) Single acting
c) Double acting
d) Bicycle pump
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Power operated pump in which both the side engages the fluid displacement is
called as double acting reciprocating pump. It consists of piston in both the side of the fluid
being displaced.
15. The sliding vane is capable of delivering medium capacity and heat.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The sliding vane is capable of delivering medium capacity and heat. Sliding vanes
is mounted on a rotor in which the vanes slide in and out of the rotor. These sliding vanes are
held by springs or sealer rings
1. When a cylinder has inlet and outlet ports at each end, then it is called as __________
a) Double acting
b) Air lift pumps
c) Reciprocating pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a cylinder has inlet and outlet ports at each end, then it is called as double
acting pumps. It operates similar to the single acting pump with respect to its motion.

d) Kepler’s law
View Answer
Answer: b

c) Load variations
d) Heat variations
View Answer
Answer: b
4. When the piston moves forward, liquid is drawn ________

a) Into the cylinder
b) Away from the cylinder
c) Into the draft tube
d) Away from the draft tube
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the piston moves forward, liquid is drawn into the cylinder head. When a
cylinder has inlet and outlet ports at each end, then it is called as double acting pumps. It
operates similar to the single acting pump with respect to its motion.
5. The pump injects compressed air at the _________

a) Rotor pipe
b) Bottom of the discharge pipe
c) Top of the discharge pipe
d) Rotor to draft
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An airlift pump injects the compressed air at the bottom of the discharge pipe. A
pump that has low suction and moderate discharge is called air lift pumps. These pumps
have a moderate discharge with liquid and entrained solids.
6. In a reciprocating pump, with the change in discharge pressure, ________

a) The Volume delivered increases
b) The volume delivered decreases
c) Volume delivered remains the same
d) Volume delivered is independent
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Irrespective of the change in the discharge pressure, the volume of the fluid
delivered remains the same in a reciprocating pump. Thus, it does even vary with the slight
increase or decrease of the pump.
7. The compressed air mixes with the liquid casing to become less dense.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The compressed air mixes with the liquid casing to become less denser that the
rest of the liquid. This is because it will get displaced upwards through the discharge pipe.
8. The amount of fluid that leaks internally is called ________

a) Head race
b) Slip
c) Tail race
d) Internal friction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The amount of fluid that leaks internally is called as slip. The slip indicates the
condition of the pump to improve its overall efficiency.
9. Airlift pumps are widely used in aquaculture to pump.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Airlift pumps are widely used in aquaculture to pump. It
also circulates and aerates the water in a closed environment. This helps it to recirculate in
system and ponds.

a) Pressure
b) Speed
c) Power
d) Fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
11. For a good condition, slip should be________

a) Below 1 percent
b) 1 to 2 percent
c) 3 to 4 percent
d) Above 5 percent
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For a good condition of the pump, the slip should be below 1 percent. The
amount of fluid that leaks internally is called as slip. The slip indicates the condition of the
pump to improve its overall efficiency.
12. If the slip is above 5 percent, the pumps needs to be ______

a) Dragged
b) Overhauled
c) Retracted
d) Intermittent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the slip is above 5 percent, the pumps needs to be overhauled. The amount of
fluid that leaks internally is called as slip. The slip indicates the condition of the pump to
improve its overall efficiency.

a) Engine motor
b) Pump
c) Tank
d) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: a

b) Steam governing
c) Nozzle governing
View Answer
Answer: d
15. Slip in a pump depends on which of following parameters?

a) Wear
b) Pressure
c) Temperature
d) Heat
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The slip on the pump remains a constant most of the time. The slip changes only
when the wear is not rapid. The amount of fluid that leaks internally is called as slip. The slip
indicates the condition of the pump to improve its overall efficiency
1. Internal breakage in a pump mainly takes place when ________

a) Discharge pressure is increased
b) Temperature is increased
c) Heat leads to expansion
d) Corrosion takes place
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Internal breakage in a pump mainly takes place when the discharge pressure in
the pump is increased in between that of the piston rings and the cylinder liner or the leading
internal valves.
2. During internal breakage, output power ________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: During internal breakage, output power decreases. This is an important
measure to determine the volumetric efficiency of the pump.
3. The output that we get after an internal breakage can be classed as _________
a) An increase
b) A decrease
c) Constant
d) An independent variable
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The output that we get after an internal breakage can be classed as an
independent variable. During internal breakage, output power decreases. This is an
important measure to determine the volumetric efficiency of the pump.
4. When the hydraulic fluid forms on only one side of the piston, it is called _______
a) Single acting pump
b) Double acting pump
c) Froth pump
d) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the hydraulic fluid forms on only one side of the piston, it is called a single
acting pump.
5. The speed of the reciprocating pump is generally measured in ______

a) Stokes.min
b) Stokes/min
c) rps
d) rp/s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The speed of the reciprocating pump is generally measured in stokes/min. This
is the number of times the piston moves backward and forth in one minute. It can also be
measured in rpm.
6. A pump with two steams and two water cylinders is called ________
a) Single acting pump
b) Double acting pump
c) Froth pump
d) Duplex pump
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A pump with two steams and two water cylinders is called duplex pumps. It
consists of a basic hydraulic system layout.
7. Reciprocating pumps can deliver fluid at high pressure.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps can deliver fluid at high pressure. It can do it with its high
delivery head. This is one of the major advantage of reciprocating pumps.
8. When an external force is not available in a pump, we use a ________

a) Hydraulic cylinder
b) Slip gauge
c) Tail race
d) Heater
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When an external force is not available in a pump, we use a hydraulic cylinder
attached at the port end.
9. Piston pumps are self priming.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Piston pumps are self priming. They do not need cylinders
to be filled before the starting of the operation. This is one of the major advantage of the
piston pumps.
10. Reciprocating pumps give a ________ flow

a) Uniform
b) Non- uniform
c) Pulsating
d) Sinusoidal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Reciprocating pumps give a pulsating flow. Reciprocating pumps can deliver fluid
at high pressure. It can do it with its high delivery head. This is one of the major advantage of
reciprocating pumps.
11. Suction stroke becomes difficult to pump ______

a) High temperature fluids
b) Viscous fluids
c) Fluids with abrasives
d) High velocity fluids
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For a good condition of the pump, the slip should be below 1 percent. Suction
stroke becomes difficult to pump when the fluid is of high viscosity.
12. Piston pumps are very _______

a) Expensive
b) Cheap
c) Reasonable
d) Intricate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The piston pumps are very expensive because of their accurate sizes of the
cylinders and their pistons. Also, they require a conversion of their gearing that involves extra
equipment cost.
13. What is the full form of DAC?

a) Digital Acting pumps
b) Double acting pumps
c) Data acting pumps
d) Draft tube pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DAC stands for Double acting pumps. Suction stroke becomes difficult to pump
when the fluid is of high viscosity in a double acting pump.
14. Which among the following is not a multi-cylinder pump?

a) Double acting simplex
b) Single acting duplex
c) Double acting duplex
d) Single acting triplex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Double acting simplex is not a multi-cylinder pump. It is a single cylinder pump.
The more the double acting cylinders in a pump, the smoother the operation is providing a
better output.
15. As the motor rotates the flywheel, the eccentrically mounted connecting rod rotates with
it.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the motor rotates the flywheel, the eccentrically mounted connecting rod
rotates with it. The other end of the connecting rod is coupled to the slide assembly or the
cross head gear
1. A pressure vessel is used to hold _______
a) Air
b) Gases
c) Molecules
d) Solids
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pressure vessels in most turbomachinery are used to hold liquid and gasses
at a pressure that is different from an ambient pressure.
2. Why do we need a maximum safe operating pressure?

a) Pressure vessel might explode
b) Temperature increase needs to be controlled
c) Heat transfer is rejected
d) Improve overall efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure vessels need to be operated under low conditions as they might
explode due to increase in pressure. The pressure vessels in most turbomachinery are used
to hold liquid and gasses at a pressure that is different from an ambient pressure.
3. When is a reciprocating pump used?

a) When quantity of liquid is small
b) When quantity of liquid is large
c) To pump high pressure
d) To pump low pressure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reciprocating pump is used when the quantity of liquid is small. Because
handling such small quantity liquids is difficult. Especially when the delivery pressure is quite
large.
4. The maximum efficiency of the reciprocating pump is _________

a) 20
b) 50
c) 70
d) 85
View Answer
Answer: d
plunger. The maximum efficiency of the reciprocating pump is 85 percent.
5. A tank that is used to protect closed water heating systems is called ________
a) Pressure vessel
b) Expansion vessel
c) Heat vessel
d) Auto vessel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A tank that is used to protect closed water heating systems is called expansion
vessel. It is essential for heating process of water.
6. How is the construction of the vessel tested?

a) Uniform testing
b) Continuous testing
c) Pulsating test
d) Non-destructive testing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pressure vessels are tested using non-destructive testing also called the NDT. It
is a very essential method to determine the defects in the turbomachinery.
7. What does BPVC stand for?

a) Boiler and pressure vessel code
b) Boiler and pump vessel code
c) Boiler and pressure vessel clutch
d) Boiler and pump vessel clutch
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: BPVC stands for Boiler and pressure vessel code. It is a standard code for
determining the pressure that the pressure vessels can withstand.
8. Which of the following is not an NDT type?

a) Ultrasonic
b) Liquid penetrant
c) Visual
d) Hammer test
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hammer test is not a non destructive type of testing. Some of the examples of
destructive testing are ultrasonic, radiography, liquid penetrant and visual testing.
9. What is the full form of NDI?

a) Non-destructive intern
b) Non-destructive inspection
c) Non-destructive inkling
d) Non-destructive inertia
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of NDI is Non-destructive inspection. It is a very essential method
to determine the defects in the turbomachinery.
10. NDT is a money and time saving technique.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NDT is a money and time saving technique because it does not permanently
alter the article that is being inspected. It does evaluation, trouble shooting and research
work.
11. Where is the excess quantity of water from the pump accumulated?
a) Froth tube
b) Draft tube
c) Air vessels
d) Bicycle pump
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The excess quantity of water is accumulated in air vessels. Air vessels help to
maintain high temperature and pressure of fluid.
12. NDT relies upon _________

a) Electromagnetic radiation
b) Heat
c) Pressure change
d) Temperature
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: NDT relies upon sound and electromagnetic radiation. NDT is a money and time
saving technique because it does not permanently alter the article that is being inspected. It
does evaluation, trouble shooting and research work.
13. What is the shape of a pressure vessel?

a) Square
b) Spheres
c) Cones
d) All the shapes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pressure vessel can be made of any shape. It is most commonly made up in
spheres, cones , cylinders and cut into different sections with different cross sections.
14. Safety valve is used to ensure that the pressure in the vessels is not exceeded.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Safety valve is used to ensure that the pressure in the vessels is not exceeded.
Safety valve is also called as the relief valve. It has an intricate design to serve this purpose.
15. Pressure vessel closures are used to _________

a) Avoid breakage
b) Avoid leakage
c) Retain structures
d) Maintain pressure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pressure vessel closures are used for retaining structures. It is designed in such
a way to provide quick access to pressure vessels, pipelines and filtration systems
1. The hydraulic press is also known as _________ press

a) Pascal
b) Toricelli
c) Bernouille
d) Bramah
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The hydraulic press is also known as Bramah’s press. It was invented by Joseph
Bramah, from England. Hence, it was named after him.
2. The underlying principle behind a hydraulic press is based on ______ principle

a) Bramah’s
b) Pascal’s
c) Stoke’s
d) Newton’s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The underlying principle behind a hydraulic press is Pascal’s principle. It states
that the pressure throughout a closed system is constant. This pressure is applied with an
equal force on equal areas and at right angles to the container wall.
3. In a hydraulic press, the pump acts as a _________

a) Piston
b) Motor
c) Tubing
d) Cylinder
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a hydraulic press, the pump acts as a piston. It will have a considerable
mechanical force acting on a small cross-sectional area. The other part is a piston is large
area which will deliver a higher mechanical force.
4. A hydraulic press makes use of a _________

a) hydraulic pump
b) hydraulic cylinder
c) hydraulic accumulator
d) hydraulic shaft
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A hydraulic press utilizes a hydraulic cylinder. This cylinder is used to generate a
compressive force. It’s working is similar to that of a hydraulic lever.
5. In a hydraulic press, the metal can be _______
a) Crushed
b) Straightened
c) Molded
d) Crushes, straightened and molded
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The metallic material placed in a hydraulic press can be crushed, straightened
and molded. These are some of the crucial features of a hydraulic press. It consists of a bed
or plate on which this metal is placed for the action to take place.
6. The cylinder with the smaller diameter Is called _________

a) Slave cylinder
b) Master cylinder
c) Working cylinder
d) Casting Cylinder
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The cylinder with the smaller diameter is called the slave cylinder. The hydraulic
press consists of 2 cylinders. These are classified as master and slave cylinder depending on
their diameters.
7. A ________ is the main essence of a car crushing system.

a) hydraulic press
b) hydraulic cylinder
c) hydraulic crane
d) accumulator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main essence of a car crushing system is a hydraulic press. In this process, a
hydraulic motor applies a large pressure on the fluids into the cylinders. The fluid pressure
makes the plates rise and with a large force, the plate is driven on the car thereby crushing it.
8. The cylinder having the larger diameter is called _______ cylinder.

a) Slave
b) Master
c) Cage
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The cylinder with the larger diameter is called the master cylinder. The hydraulic
press consists of 2 cylinders. These are classified as master and slave cylinder depending on
their diameters.
9. A ________ is a storage reservoir under pressure where a liquid is held under pressure.
a) Hydraulic accumulator
b) Hydraulic crane
c) Hydraulic gear
d) Hydraulic pump
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A hydraulic accumulator is a storage reservoir under pressure where a liquid is
stored under pressure. The fluid is mostly a non-compressible hydraulic fluid. This pressure is
usually applied by an external source.
10. The most frequently used accumulator type is ________

a) Liquid accumulator
b) Solid accumulator
c) Compressed gas accumulator
d) Plasma accumulator.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The most common accumulator type is compressed gas accumulator. It Is also
known as hydro-pneumatic accumulator. They have a wide range of application.
11. The first accumulators for Armstrong’s hydraulic dock machinery were ________ which is
placed raised.
a) oil towers
b) gas towers
c) water towers
d) plasma towers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first accumulators for Armstrong’s hydraulic dock machinery were raised
water towers Water was pumped to a tank at the top of these towers by steam pumps. When
dock machinery required hydraulic power, the hydrostatic head of the water’s height above
ground provided the necessary pressure.
12. ________ is the simplest form of an accumulator.

a) air filled
b) oil filled
c) water filled
d) gas filled
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Air filled accumulator is one of the simplest accumulators. It is an enclosed
space. It is filled with air.
13. ________ invented the compressed air accumulator.

a) Reynold
b) Braman
c) Pascal
d) Jean Mercier
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The compressed air accumulator was invented by Jean Mercier. It was invented
for use in variable pitch propellers. It is the most commonly used accumulator.
14. The inert gas used in gas compressed accumulator is usually _______
a) Sulphur
b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Carbon dioxide
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The inert gas used in a gas compressed accumulator is usually nitrogen. It
generates the required compressive force for the liquid. The volume of this gas is inversely
proportional to the pressure exerted by this gas.
15. Spring type accumulator works on the principle of ______

a) Bernouille’s law
b) Charles’ law
c) Hooke’s law3
d) Pascal’s law
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Spring type accumulator works on the principle of Hooke’s law. Hooke’s law
states that the magnitude of the force exerted by a spring is linearly proportional to its length
change. Hence, as the spring compresses, the force it exerts on the fluid is accelerated
linearly.
1. A __________ is a hydraulic machine for converting hydraulic power at low pressure into a
reduced volume at higher pressure.
a) Hydraulic Ram
b) Hydraulic crane
c) Hydraulic Intensifier
d) Hydraulic accumulator
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A hydraulic intensifier is a hydraulic machine for converting hydraulic power at
low pressure into a reduced volume at higher pressure. The working volume of the intensifier
is limited by the stroke of the piston. This in turn limits the amount of work that may be done
by one stroke of the intensifier.
2. If the diameters of the two pistons used in the arrangement are different, the _______ in
each cylinder will vary.
a) Hydraulic velocities
b) Hydraulic acceleration
c) Hydraulic pressure
d) Hydraulic force
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the diameters of the two pistons used in the arrangement are different, the
hydraulic pressure in each cylinder will vary. The hydraulic pressure in both the cylinders will
change in the same ratio as their areas. The smaller piston will give rise to a higher pressure.
3. The working volume of the intensifier is restricted by the stroke of the ________
a) Piston
b) Shaft
c) Jack
d) Cylinder
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The working volume of the intensifier is restricted by the stroke of the piston. As
a result of this the amount of work that may be done by one stroke of the intensifier is
controlled. These are not reciprocating machines.
4. Intensifiers are employed as a part of machines such as ________

a) Hydraulic presses
b) Hydraulic Crane
c) Hydraulic accumulator
d) Hydraulic Ram
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Intensifiers are employed as part of machines such as hydraulic presses. Here, a
higher pressure is required. Also,a suitable supply is made sure to be already available.
5. Small intensifiers usually have a ________ in their basic system.

a) Stepped piston
b) Stepped cylinder
c) Accumulator
d) Stepped presses
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Small intensifiers have been constructed with a stepped piston. It is usually a
double-ended piston. It consists of two unique diameters where each end works in a different
cylinder.
6. Most commonly used hydraulic intensifier for water jet cutting is _________
a) Inline hydraulic intensifier
b) Parallel hydraulic intensifier
c) Pressed hydraulic intensifier
d) Casting hydraulic intensifier
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Most commonly used hydraulic intensifier for water jet cutting is inline hydraulic
intensifier. It is more reliable. Also, it causes the efficiency to be improved.
7. When the intensifier is placed outside its jack, it produces higher ________
a) Pressure
b) Force
c) Displacement
d) Momentum
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the intensifier is placed outside its jack, it produces higher pressure. As a
result, a smaller cylinder can be used to lift the same force. They are often employed with a
powerful hydraulic jack.
8. A ________ is a cyclic water pump that derives its power from hydroelectric sources.
a) Hydraulic crane
b) Hydraulic Ram
c) Hydraulic Accumulator
d) Hydraulic presses
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A hydraulic ram is a cyclic water pump that derives its power from hydroelectric
sources. It is also known as hydram. It takes in water at a particular pressure and flowrate
and delivers it at higher pressure and flowrate.
9. A hydraulic ram uses the _______ effect to develop pressure.

a) Water hammer
b) Pascal’s law
c) Bernouille’s
d) Toricelli’s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A hydraulic ram uses the water hammer effect to develop pressure. This effect
permits a portion of the input water to power a pump. This pump is then lifted to a point
higher than where the water originally started.
10. Hydraulic Ram is used in areas where there is a source of ________ power.
a) Thermal
b) Hydroelectric
c) Biogas
d) Solar
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydraulic Ram is used in areas where there is a source of hydroelectric power.
There should also be a necessity for pumping water to a destination higher in height than the
source. it doesn’t need any any outside source of power than the kinetic energy of flowing
water.
11. The typical efficiency of a hydraulic ram is ____

a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The typical efficiency of a hydraulic ram is 60%. This, however , is not the same
as volumetric efficiency. Volumetric efficiency relates the volume of water delivered to total
water taken from the source.
12. _______ aids in cushioning the shock of the hydraulic pressure during the working of the
hydraulic ram
a) Pressure vessel
b) air bags
c) inlet valve
d) Drive pipe
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure vessel aids in cushioning the shock of the hydraulic pressure during the
working of the hydraulic ram. It contains air cushions. It also helps in making the pumping
efficiency better.
13. ___________ restricts the dissolution of the pressurized air into the water.
a) Elastic diaphragm
b) Pressure vessel
c) Inlet pipe
d) Waste valve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Elastic diaphragm restricts the dissolution of the pressurized air into the water.
It is similar in design to an expansion tank. It causes the separation of the air from the water.
14. One of the main reasons why the cycling stops in the hydraulic ram is due to poor
adjustment of ________
a) pressure vessel
b) diaphragm
c) waste valve
d) water hammer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: One of the main reasons why the cycling stops in the hydraulic ram is due to
poor adjustment of waste valve. This is a common operational problem. This might cause a
lag in the proper delivery of water.
15. An alternate option to the hydraulic ram is _________

a) water-powered pump
b) Oscillating pump
c) Inlet pressure pump
d) Water vessel pump
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An alternate option to the hydraulic ram is the water-powered pump. It is used
when a large flow rate at a high head ratio is needed. A water-powered pump unit is a
hydraulic turbine connected to a water pump.
1. In a hydraulic lift ______ is fixed on the crown of the sliding ram where the carried load is
located.
a) Cage
b) Wire rope
c) Pulleys
d) Jiggers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cage is present at the crown of the sliding ram where the carried load is placed.
A cage is robust and sturdy. It will provide the required mechanical support for the carried
load.
2. When fluid is subjected to _______ it is pushed into the cylindrical chamber which gives the
ram gets a push in the upward direction.
a) Pressure
b) Force
c) Momentum
d) Acceleration
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When high pressure is applied to the fluid, it is pushed into the cylinder. This
high pressure is responsible for providing the required thrust to the ram in the upward
direction. As a result, the working fluid is always placed under high pressure.
3. ______ is attached to the fixed cylindrical chamber which moves in the upward or downward
direction.
a) Jiggers
b) Sliding Ram
c) Crown
d) Pulley
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sliding ram Is attached to the fixed cylinder. It enables the cylinder to move in
the upward or downward direction. It also has a cage attached to it for mechanical
robustness.
4. The two types of pulleys in a hydraulic lift are ______ and ______
a) fixed, fixed
b) movable, fixed
c) movable, movable
d) semi-movable, movable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The two types of pulleys available are fixed pulley and movable pulley. The one
end of both the pulleys is connected to the sliding ram. The other end of the pulleys is
connected to the fixed cylinder.
5. _________ is attached to the wall of the floor, where the sliding ram moves upwards or
downwards depending on how the pressure is applied.
a) Cage
b) Fixed cylinder
c) Pulleys
d) shaft
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fixed cylinder is attached to the wall of the floor. It is connected to the
sliding ram. This cylinder is stationary, whereas the sliding ram can reciprocate depending on
how the pressure is applied.
6. Working period is defined as the ratio of the height of lift to the ___________
a) acceleration of the lift
b) pressure of the lift
c) velocity of the lift
d) displacement of the lift.
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The reciprocal of the ratio of the velocity of the lift to the height of the lift is
defined as the working period. This implies that the ratio of the height of the lift to the
velocity of the lift is the working period. The greater the working period, the lesser is the
velocity of the lift and vice versa.
7. Idle period of lift is defined as the difference of the total time taken for one operation and
the _____ of the lift.
a) Working period
b) Stationary period
c) Active period
d) Passive period
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Idle period of a lift is defined as the difference of the total time taken for a single
operation and the working period of the lift. For a constant time, the greater the working
period, the lesser is the idle period. The ratio of the height of the lift to the velocity of the lift
is the working period.
8. Due to the arrangement of hydraulic jigger; the ________ rotates

a) Fixed cylinder
b) Sliding contact
c) Fluid
d) Pulley
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pulley rotates because of the arrangement of the jiggers. The fixed cylinder, as
the name suggests, is stationary. The sliding contact is only capable of translatory motion,
and not rotatory. The fluid doesn’t rotate. Hence, the answer is narrowed down to pulley.
9. In a hydraulic system the development of pressure is by variable displacement pump and

_____
a) stationary pump
b) fixed pump
c) gear pump
d) motor pump
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The two pumps in a hydraulic crane are variable displacement pump and gear
pump. The most commonly used pumps in hydraulic cranes are two gear pumps. They
provide the required pressure to pressurize the fluid.
10. In a hydraulic crane, _____ is the component mainly responsible for lifting.
a) Boom
b) Counter-weights
c) Jib
d) Rotex Gear
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Boom is the main component for lifting in hydraulic cranes. It is mechanically
robust and strong. It provides the adequate support needed for lifting objects. It is designed
so as to withstand heavy weights.
11. ________ helps in indicating the maximum lifting limit of the crane.
a) Jib
b) Gear
c) Shaft
d) Load moment indicator
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Load moment indicator helps in indicating the maximum lifting limit of the
crane. It is a set of lights. These lights start flashing when the maximum limit is reached,
thereby indicating a precaution.
12. Out of the ____ , a lattice structure called jib projects out.
a) Boom
b) Pump
c) Gear
d) Out-triggers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Out of the boom, the jib projects out. It is a lattice structure that provides
support to the boom. It is an essential component of the boom.
13. ________ allows the rotation of the boom.
a) Rotex gear
b) Jib
c) Motor
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rotex gear allows the rotation of the boom. It is a very large sized gear that is
placed under the cab. It provides mobility to the boom.
14. _______ restricts the crane from tipping

a) Gear
b) Indicator
c) Counterweights3
d) Boom
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Counterweights restricts the crane from tipping when the lifts take place. They
are multi-ton weights. They are usually positioned in the rear side of the cab.
15. The pressure generated by a counterweight gear pump is ______

a) 1200 psi
b) 1300 psi
c) 1400 psi
d) 1500 psi
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The pressure given out by a counterweight gear pump is 1400 psi. The
counterweights are installed to restrict the crane from tipping. A hydraulic lift is used to add
or remove them from their place
1. A pump that has low suction and moderate discharge is called _______
a) Froth pumps
b) Air lift pumps
c) Reciprocating pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A pump that has low suction and moderate discharge is called air lift pumps.
These pumps have a moderate discharge with liquid and entrained solids.

d) Kepler’s law
View Answer
Answer: b

c) Load variations
d) Heat variations
View Answer
Answer: b
4. The main function of centrifugal pumps are to ________

a) Transfer speed
d) Transfer energy
View Answer
Answer: d
5. The pump injects compressed air at the _________

a) Rotor pipe
b) Bottom of the discharge pipe
c) Top of the discharge pipe
d) Rotor to draft
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An airlift pump injects the compressed air at the bottom of the discharge pipe. A
pump that has low suction and moderate discharge is called air lift pumps. These pumps
have a moderate discharge with liquid and entrained solids.

a) Valve
b) Pump
c) Head
d) Tank pipe
View Answer
Answer: a
7. The compressed air mixes with the liquid casing to become less dense.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The compressed air mixes with the liquid casing to become less denser that the
rest of the liquid. This is because it will get displaced upwards through the discharge pipe.

a) Head race
b) Gate
c) Tail race
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: b
9. Airlift pumps are widely used in aquaculture to pump.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Airlift pumps are widely used in aquaculture to pump. It
also circulates and aerates the water in a closed environment. This helps it to recirculate in
system and ponds.

a) Pressure
b) Speed
c) Power
d) Fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
11. The air lift pump works under the principle of _______
a) Newtons equation
b) Buoyancy
c) Momentum conservation
d) Hydrodynamic energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The air lift pump works under the principle of buoyancy force that helps the
compressed air to get injected into the lower part of the pipe that transports the liquid.
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a

a) Engine motor
b) Pump
c) Tank
d) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: a

b) Steam governing
c) Nozzle governing
View Answer
Answer: d
15. The fluid coming into the airlift pump is accelerated by ________
a) Throttle
b) Impeller
c) Nozzle
d) Governor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The fluid coming into the airlift pump is accelerated by an impeller. The fluid
enters the pump along a radially outward direction into the diffuser or a volute chamber
1. A gear pump uses ___________

a) Petrochemical pumps
b) Meshing of gears
c) Froth pumps
d) Airlift pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A gear pump uses meshing of gears. This meshing is done to pump fluid by
2. A pump that has low suction and moderate discharge of liquid is called ________
a) Airlift Pump
b) Vacuum pump
c) Turbine pump
d) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A pump that has low suction and moderate discharge of liquid is called airlift
pump. It plays an essential role in pumping high pressure fluids.
3. The most common pump used for hydraulic fluid power application is __________
b) Gear pump
c) Froth pumps
d) Airlift pumps
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most common pump used for hydraulic fluid power application is gear
pump. A gear pump uses meshing of gears. This meshing is done to pump fluid by
4. The main function of gear pumps are to ________

a) Transfer speed
d) Transfer energy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The primary objective of a gear pump is to transfer energy. Gear pump is a
5. Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from _______

a) Rotor to fluid
b) Fluid to rotor
c) Draft to rotor
d) Rotor to draft
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from rotor to fluid. The primary objective of a
6. Gear pumps are mainly used in chemical installations because they pump ________
a) High viscosity fluids
b) High density fluids
c) High pressure fluids
d) High temperature fluids
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gear pumps are mainly used in chemical installations because they pump high
viscosity fluids. They use two external spur gears for this purpose.
7. Gear pumps convert rotational kinetic energy to hydrodynamic energy.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
energies. Gear pumps transport fluids by converting rotational Kinetic energy to
hydrodynamic energy.
8. The injection pumps used in most diesel engines can create up to ________
a) 300 psi
b) 3000 psi
c) 30000 psi
d) 3 psi
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The injection pumps used in most diesel engines can create up to 30000 psi. It
needs to maintain at this pressure in order to operate the fuel injectors.
9. A pneumatic sewage ejector includes a tank for holding _________

a) Fluid sewage
b) Horizontally sewage
c) Axial sewage
d) Radial sewage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A pneumatic sewage ejector includes a tank for holding fluid sewage.
10. Gear pumps are used to transport ________

a) Pressure
b) Speed
c) Power
d) Fluid
View Answer
Answer: d
energies. A gear pump uses meshing of gears. This meshing is done to pump fluid by
11. Centrifugal pumps transport fluids by converting _________

a) Kinetic energy to hydrodynamic energy
b) Hydrodynamic energy to kinetic energy
c) Mechanical energy to kinetic energy
d) Mechanical energy to Hydrodynamic energy
View Answer
Answer: a
energy to hydrodynamic energy.

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) Independent
View Answer
Answer: a

a) Engine motor
b) Pump
c) Tank
d) Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: a

b) Steam governing
c) Nozzle governing
View Answer
Answer: d
15. Gear pumps are ___________

a) Tangential flow pumps
b) Positive displacement pumps
c) Negative displacement pumps
d) Radial pumps
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gear pumps are positive displacement pumps or fixed displacement pumps.
This means that they pump at a constant amount of fluid each revolution
1. Reciprocating pumps are no more to be seen in industrial applications
(in comparison to centrifugal pumps) because of
(a) high initial and maintenance cost
(b) lower discharge
(c) lower speed of operation
(d) necessity of air vessel
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
2. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the impeller,

is
(a) rectilinear flow
(b) radial flow
(c) free vortex motion
(d) forced vortex
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
3. Head developed by a centrifugal pump depends on

(a) impeller diameter
(b) speed
(c) fluid density
(d) type of casing
(e) (a) and (b) above.
Ans: e
4. For starting an axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be

(a) closed
(b) open
(c) depends on starting condition and flow desired
(d) could be either open or closed
(e) partly open and partly closed.
Ans: b
5. The efficiency of a centrifugal pump is maximum when its blades are

(a) straight
(b) bent forward
(c) bent backward
(d) bent forward first and then backward
(e) bent backward first and then forward.
Ans: c
6. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the

(a) radial
(b) radial
(c) centrifugal
(d) rectilinear
(e) vortex.
Ans: e
7. Centrifugal pump is started with its delivery valve

(a) kept fully closed
(b) kept fully open
(c) irrespective of any position
(d) kept 50% open
Ans: a
8. Axial flow pump is started with its delivery valve

(a) kept fully closed
(b) kept fully open
(c) irrespective of any position
(d) kept 50% open
Ans: b
9. When a piping system is made up primarily of vertical lift and very

little pipe friction, the pump characteristics should be
(a) horizontal
(b) nearly horizontal
(c) steep
(d) first rise and then fall
Ans: c
10. One horsepower is equal to

(a) 102 watts
(b) 75 watts
(c) 550 watts
(d) 735 watts
(e) 33000 watts.
Ans: d
11. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to obtain

(a) high discharge
(b) high head
(c) pumping of viscous fluids
(d) high head and high discharge
(e) high efficiency.
Ans: b
12. When a piping system is made up primarily of friction head and very
little of vertical lift, then pump characteristics should be
(a) horizontal
(b) nearly horizontal
(c) steep
(d) first rise and then fall
Ans: b
13. In a single casing, multistage pump running at constant speed, the

capacity rating is to be slightly lowered. It can be done by
(a) designing new impeller
(b) trimming the impeller size to the required size by machining
(c) not possible
(d) some other alterations in the impeller
Ans: b
14. If a pump is handling water and is discharging a certain flow Q at

a constant total dynamic head requiring a definite B.H.P., the same pump
when handling a liquid of specific gravity 0.75 and viscosity nearly same
as of water would discharge
(a) same quantity of liquid
(b) 0.75 Q
(c) Q/0.75
(d) 1.5 Q
Ans: a
15. The horse power required in above case will be

(a) same
(b) 0.75 B.H.P.
(c) B.H.P./0.75
(d) 1.5 B.H.P.
Ans: b
16. Low specific speed of a pump implies it is

(a) centrifugal pump
(b) mixed flow pump
(c) axial flow pump
(d) any one of the above
Ans: a
17. The optimum value of vane exit angle for a centrifugal pump impeller
is
(a) 10-15°
(b) 20-25°
(c) 30-40°
(d) 50-60°
(e) 80-90°.
Ans: b
18. In a centrifugal pump, the liquid enters the pump

(a) at the top
(b) at the bottom
(c) at the center
(d) from sides
Ans: c
19. For small discharge at high pressure, following pump is preferred

(a) centrifugal
(b) axial flow
(c) mixed flow
(d) propeller
(e) reciprocating.
Ans: e
20. In centrifugal pumps, maximum efficiency is obtained when the blades

are
(a) straight
(b) bent forward
(c) bent backward
(d) radial
(e) given aerofoil section.
Ans: c
21. Motion of a liquid in a volute casing of a centrifugal pump is an

example of
(a) rotational flow
(b) radial
(c) forced spiral vortex flow
(d) forced cylindrical vortex flow
(e) spiral vortex flow.
Ans: e
22. For very high discharge at low pressure such as for flood control and
irrigation applications, following type of pump is preferred
(a) centrifugal
(b) axial flow
(c) reciprocating
(d) mixed flow
Ans: b
23. Medium specific speed of a pump implies it is

(b) mixed flow pump
(c) axial flow pump
Ans: b
24. High specific speed of a pump implies it is

(b) mixed flow pump
(c) axial flow pump
Ans: c
25. Indicator diagram of a reciprocating pump is a graph between

(a) flow vs swept volume
(b) pressure in cylinder vs swept volume
(c) flow vs speed
(d) pressure vs speed
(e) swept volume vs speed.
Ans: b
26. Low specific speed of turbine implies it is

(a) propeller turbine
(b) Francis turbine
(c) impulse turbine
Ans: c
27. Any change in load is adjusted by adjusting following parameter on
turbine
(a) net head
(b) absolute velocity
(c) blade velocity
(d) flow
(e) relative velocity of flow at inlet.
Ans: d
28. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is

(a) full load speed
(b) the speed at which turbine runner will be damaged
(c) the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without
load and with the wicket gates wide open
(d) the speed corresponding to maximum overload permissible

Ans: c
29. The maximum number of jets generally employed in impulse turbine

without jet interference is
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 12
(e) 16.
Ans: b
30. Medium specific speea of turbine implies it is

(b) Francis turbine
(c) impulse turbine
Ans: b
31. High specific speed of turbine implies it is

(b) Francis turbine
(c) impulse turbine
Ans: a
32. The specific speed of turbine is defined as the speed of a unit
(a) of such a size that it delivers unit dis-charge at unit head
(b) of such a size that it delivers unit dis-charge at unit power
(c) of such a size that it requires unit power per unit head
(d) of such a size that it produces unit horse power with unit head
Ans: d
33. Puck up the wrong statement about centrifugal pump

(a) discharge a diameter
(b) head a speed2
(c) head a diameter
(d) Power a speed3
(e) none of the above is wrong.
Ans: a
34. A turbine pump is basically a centrifugal pump equipped additionally

with
(a) adjustable blades
(b) backward curved blades
(c) vaned diffusion casing
(d) inlet guide blades
(e) totally submerged operation facility.
Ans: c
35. Casting of a centrifugal pump is designed so as to minimize

(a) friction loss
(b) cavitation
(c) static head
(d) loss of kinetic energy
(e) starting time.
Ans: d
36. In reaction turbine, draft tube is used

(a) to transport water downstream without eddies
(b) to convert the kinetic energy to flow energy by a gradual expansion
of the flow cross-section
(c) for safety of turbine
(d) to increase flow rate
Ans: b
37. Guide angle as per the aerofoil theory of Kaplan turbine blade design
is defined as the angle between
(a) lift and resultant force
(b) drag and resultant force
(c) lift and tangential force
(d) lift and drag
(e) resultant force and tangential force.
Ans: a
38. Francis turbine is best suited for

(a) medium head application from 24 to 180 m
(b) low head installation up to 30 m
(c) high head installation above 180 m
(d) all types of heads
Ans: a
39. The flow rate in gear pump

(a) increases with increase in pressure
(b) decreases with increase in pressure
(c) more or less remains constant with in-crease in pressure
(d) unpredictable
Ans: c
40. Impulse turbine is generally fitted

(a) at the level of tail race
(b) little above the tail race
(c) slightly below the tail race
(d) about 2.5 m above the tail race to avoid cavitation
(e) about 2.5 m below the tail race to avoid cavitation.
Ans: b
41. Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbines fall under the category of
(a) Impulse turbines
(b) Reaction turbines
(c) Axial flow turbines
(d) Mixed flow turbines
(e) Reaction-cum-impulse turbines.
Ans: b
42. Reaction turbines are used for

(a) low head
(b) high head
(c) high head and low discharge
(d) high head and high discharge
(e) low head and high discharge.
Ans: e
43. The discharge through a reaction turbine with increase in unit speed
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.
Ans: b
44. The angle of taper on draft tube is

(a) greater than 15°
(b) greater than 8°
(c) greater than 5°
(d) less than 8°
(e) less than 3°.
Ans: d
45. Specific speed for reaction turbines ranges from

(a) 0 to 4.5
(b) 10 to 100
(c) 80 to 200
(d) 250 to 300
Ans: b
46. In axial flow fans and turbines, fluid enters and leaves as follows
(a) radially, axially
(b) axially, radially
(c) axially, axially
(d) radially, radially
(e) combination of axial and radial.
Ans: c
47. Which place in hydraulic turbine is most susceptible for cavitation

(a) inlet of draft rube
(b) blade inlet
(c) guide blade
(d) penstock
(e) draft tube exit.
Ans: a
48. Air vessels in reciprocating pump are used to
(a) smoothen flow
(b) reduce acceleration to minimum
(c) increase pump efficiency
(d) save pump from cavitation
(e) increase pump head.
Ans: b
49. Saving of work done and power by fitting an air vessel to single acting
reciprocating pump is of the order of
(a) 39.2%
(b) 49.2%
(c) 68.8%
(d) 84.8%
(e) 91.6%.
Ans: d
50. Saving of work done and power by fitting an air vessel to double acting
reciprocating pump is of the order of
(a) 39.2%
(b) 49.2%
(c) 68.8%
(d) 84.8%
(e) 91.6%.
Ans: a
51. According to fan laws, for fans having constant wheel diameter, the
air or gas capacity varies
(a) directly as fan speed
(b) square of fan speed
(c) cube of fan speed
(d) square root of fan speed
Ans: a
52. According to fan laws, for fans having constant wheel diameter, the
pressure varies
Ans: b
53. According to fan laws, for the fans having constant wheel diameters,
the power demand varies
Ans: c
54. According to fan laws, at constant speed and capacity, the pressure
and power vary
(a) directly as the air or gas density
(b) inversely as square root of density
(c) inversely as density
(d) as square of density
(e) as square root of density.
Ans: a
55. According to fan laws, at constant pressure, the speed capacity and
power vary
Ans: b
56. According to fan laws, at constant weight of air or gas, the speed,
capacity and pressure vary
Ans: c
57. Pressure intensifier increases the pressure in proportion to

(a) ratio of diameters
(b) square of ratio of diameters
(c) inverse ratio of diameters
(d) square of inverse ratio of diameters
(e) fourth power of ratio of diameters.
Ans: b
58. A hydraulic accumulator normally consists of
(a) two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
(b) a cylinder and a ram
(c) two co-axial rams and two cylinders
(d) a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve
(e) special type of pump with storage device and a pressure regulator.
Ans: b
59. A hydraulic intensifier normally consists of

(a) two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
(b) a cylinder and a ram
(c) two co-axial rams and two cylinders
(d) a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve
(e) special type of pump with storage device and a pressure regulator.
Ans: c
60. Hydraulic accumulator is used for

(a) accumulating oil
(b) supplying large quantities of oil for very short duration
(c) generally high pressures to operate hydraulic machines
(d) supplying energy when main supply fails
(e) accumulating hydraulic energy.
Ans: d
61. Maximum impulse will be developed in hydraulic ram when

(a) waste valve closes suddenly
(b) supply pipe is long
(c) supply pipe is short
(d) ram chamber is large
(e) supply pipe has critical diameter,
Ans: a


1) What is the effect of increasing flow coefficient (Φ) in an axial flow
compressor on blade loading coefficient (Ψ)?
- Published on 16 Sep 15

d. Unpredictable
2) What is the formula for blade loading coefficient (Ψ) for an axial flow
compressor?
Where,
W = Workdone
Cb = Blade velocity
a. Ψ = W / (Cf)2
b. Ψ = (Cf)2 / W
c. Ψ = W / (Cb)2
d. Ψ = (Cb)2 / W
3) What is the effect of increasing number of stages in axial flow

compressor on the mean work input factor (Ψw)?

d. Unpredictable
4) What is the ratio of the actual work absorbed by an axial flow

compressor to the theoretical work called?

b. Workdone factor
c. Both a. and b.

!
5) ___________ can be defined as the ratio of the pressure rise in rotor

blades to the pressure rise in stages in an axial flow compressor.
c. Pressure ratio
d. Reaction ratio
6) What is the ratio of isentropic work to Euler work in an centrifugal

compressor called?
a. Work coefficient
d. Flow coefficient
7) The ratio of actual whirl velocity to the ideal whirl velocity in the
centrifugal compressor is called as _________.
a. velocity factor
b. slip factor
c. work factor
ANSWER: slip factor

a. 1/10 th of
b. 1/3 rd of
c. 10 times
d. 3 times
ANSWER: 1/3 rd of


10) Angular momentum of gas in the free vortex of vaneless diffuser

___________.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
!
1 2 3 4 56 7


11) Which of the following centrifugal pumps has higher specific speed
than the others?
a. Axial flow
b. Radial flow
c. Mixed flow
ANSWER: Axial flow
12) The volute pumps and vortex volute pumps are __________ pumps
with _________ shaft.
13) The process of filling the liquid into the suction pipe and pump
casing upto the level of delivery valve is called as _________.
a. filling
b. pumping
c. priming
d. leveling
ANSWER: priming
14) Which pump is more suitable for an application where very high
pressure is required to be developed at moderate discharge?
b. Centrifugal pump
c. Turbine
15) Discharge capacity of the reciprocating pump is __________ that of

the centrifugal pump.
a. higher than
b. lower than
c. same as
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: lower than



a. (1) and (2)

b. (2) and (3)
c. (3) and (4)
d. (1) and (4)
ANSWER: (2) and (3)

18) The ratio of actual mass flow rate (ṁa) to ideal mass flow rate (ṁi) is
called as________
19) What is the relation between Velocity Coefficient (C c) and Nozzle

efficiency (ηn)?
a. Cc = (1/2) (ηn)
b. Cc = √(ηn)
c. Cc = (ηn)2
d. Cc = (ηn)3
20) Consider the following (h-S) diagram of steam passing through a

nozzle. Which is the correct path followed by steam when total friction
loss occurs in divergent section.
Where,
a. 1 – 2 – 3
b. 1 – 2 – 3'
c. 1 – 2 – 3''
ANSWER: 1 – 2 – 3''
1 2 3 4 56 7



c. mostly due to change in pressure head and small amount of work is due to
change in kinetic energy
d. mostly due to change in kinetic energy and small amount of work is due to
change in pressure head
ANSWER: mostly due to change in pressure head and small amount of work
is due to change in kinetic energy
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Both a. and b.
23) As the reaction turbine works on the principle of impulse and

reaction, it follows the law of ________.
a. impulse momentum
b. angular momentum
c. both a. and b.
24) Which of the following components of reaction turbine increases

the head on the turbine by an amount equal to the height of runner
outlet above the tail race?
a. Scroll casing
b. Guide vanes
c. Moving vanes
d. Draft tube
ANSWER: Draft tube

25) The gates of aerofoil section in between the outer and inner ring of
guide wheel are called as ________.
a. guide gates
b. guide vanes
c. scrolling gates
d. scrolling vanes
ANSWER: guide vanes
26) What is the formula for the velocity of water jet at the inlet of
turbine?
Where,
a. V = Cv √gH
b. V = 2 Cv √gH
c. V = Cv √2gH
d. V = 2 Cv g √H

a. maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden increase in load on

turbine
b. minimum safe speed of the runner due to sudden increase in load on
turbine
c. maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden decrease in load on
turbine
d. minimum safe speed of the runner due to sudden decrease in load on
turbine
ANSWER: maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden decrease in

load on turbine
28) Which of the following hydraulic turbines has a construction given

in diagram below?
a. Kaplan turbine
b. Francis turbine
c. Pelton turbine


30) What is the head of water available at turbine inlet in hydro-electric

power plant called?
a. head race
b. tail race
c. gross head
d. net head
ANSWER: net head
1 2 3 4 56 7


31) Consider the following diagram of jet of water striking flat
stationary plate inclined at an angle θ. What will be the phase of
a. negative
b. positive
c. zero
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: zero
32) Consider the below diagram of jet of water striking flat stationary
plate normal to jet. What will be the phase of workdone on the plate?
a. negative
b. positive
c. zero
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: zero

a. compressor
b. turbine
c. pump
d. all of the above
ANSWER: turbine
34) What is the general energy equation for transfer of energy between
the fluid and machine?
Where,
Vw1 = Tangential component of the velocity of fluid at the entry of the
rotor
a. E = ṁ (Vw1 – Vw2) x (u1 – u2)

b. E = ṁ (Vw1 – Vw2) / (u1 – u2)
c. E = ṁ (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2)
d. E = ṁ (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2)2

35) Which component of fluid velocity is responsible for transmission
of power through rotodynamic machine?
a. Radial
b. Axial
c. Tangential
ANSWER: Tangential

a. converging
b. diverging
c. constant
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: diverging
37) The basic principle of operation of axial flow compressor is

_______that of the centrifugal compressor.
a. same as
ANSWER: same as
a. Fixed
b. Moving
ANSWER: Moving


40) A pair of fixed blade and rotor blade in axial flow compressor is
called as _________.
a. step
b. pair
c. stage
d. state
ANSWER: stage
1 2 3 4 56 7


41) How is the variation of air velocity while passing through impeller
followed by diffuser in centrifugal compressor?

42) The function of _________ is to convert high kinetic energy of

gases into pressure energy.
a. impeller
b. diffuser
c. casing
ANSWER: diffuser
43) Which compressors are suitable for large volume flow rates of
above 1200 m3/min
c. Both a. and b.


c. Both a. and b.
45) The mass flow rate of air compressed in axial flow compressor is
_____________centrifugal compressor.
a. lower than
b. higher than
c. same as
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: higher than

a. Reciprocating
c. Centrifugal
d. Screw
ANSWER: Centrifugal
47) Which of the following is/are example/s of rotary displacement

pumps?
a. Gear pump
b. Vane pump
d. All of the above

a. oils
b. gritty liquids
ANSWER: oils
49) Which of the following is NOT a type of positive displacement

pumps?
c. Centrifugal pump
50) Pump transfers the mechanical energy of a motor or of an engine

into _________ of a fluid.
a. pressure energy
b. kinetic energy
1 2 3 4 56 7


51) The quality of vapour at the exit of nozzle ___________ due to
nozzle friction.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. does not change
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: increases

a. (1), (2) and (3)

b. (2), (3) and (4)
c. (1), (3) and (4)
d. (1), (2) and (4)
ANSWER: (1), (2) and (4)


54) How does the change in velocity of the steam in steam nozzle take
place? Select the correct graph in the diagram below.
a. (1)
b. (2)
c. (3)
d. (4)
ANSWER: (3)
55) The passage of uniformly varying cross-section in which the kinetic

energy of steam increases at the expense of its pressure is called
as__________
a. steam turbine
b. steam nozzle
c. steam area
d. all of the above
56) Generally, the value of specific speed of Kaplan turbine is

_____________ that of the Pelton turbine.
a. lower than
b. higher than
c. same as
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: higher than
57) What is the formula to calculate specific speed (N s) of a turbine

rotating at a speed of 'N' rpm that develops the power of 'P' kW at the
heat of 'H' m?
a. (Ns) = (√N x P) x (H)(5/4)

b. (Ns) = (2 √N x P) x (H)(5/4)
c. (Ns) = (N √P) x (H)(5/4)
d. (Ns) = (2N √P) x (H)(5/4)
ANSWER: (Ns) = (N √P) x (H)(5/4)
58) In which type of reaction turbine does the water flow in radial
direction at the outer periphery of runner and leave at the centre in the
direction parallel to the axis of rotation of runner?

d. All of the above

a. Radial flow
b. Axial flow
ANSWER: Axial flow
60) The water from runner in reaction turbine is discharged into tail
race through a draft tube which has ____________ cross sectional area.
a. constant
d. uneven
1 2 3 4 56 7


61) The runner of __________ turbine always be under pressure of
above atmospheric
a. Turgo
b. Girand
c. Kaplan
ANSWER: Kaplan

b. Francis turbine
c. Kaplan turbine
d. Pelton wheel
Explanation:


d. unpredictable
64) The pressure of water is atmospheric and remains constant while

passing over the runner in __________ .
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Both a. and b.
65) In which turbine the pressure energy of water is first converted into
kinetic energy by means of nozzle kept close to the runner?
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Both a. and b.
66) _______________ components of fluid velocity have the

responsibility of the transportation of fluid through the machine.

c. Radial and axial
67) Meridonial velocity is the resultant of _____________ components

of fluid velocity.

c. radial and axial
d. unpredictable
68) The radial force in rotodynamic machine, which is developed by

rate of change of momentum in radial velocity, is taken care
by__________.
a. journal bearing
c. both a. and b.


a. momentum
b. work done
c. impulse
d. pressure
ANSWER: impulse
1 2 3 4 56 7

Hydraulic Machines-Fluid
Machineries - Set 01
1. Low specific speed of a pump implies it is
(A) Centrifugal pump
(B) Mixed flow pump
(C) Axial flow pump
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer
2. Head developed by a centrifugal pump is

(A) Proportional to diameter of impeller
(B) Proportional to speed of impeller
(C) Proportional to diameter and speed of impeller
Correct Answer
3. In centrifugal pumps, maximum efficiency is obtained when the

blades are
(A) Straight
(B) Bent forward
(C) Bent backward
(D) Radial
Correct Answer
4. A double overhung Pelton wheel has

(A) Two jets
(B) Two runners
(C) Four jets
(D) Four runners
Correct Answer
5. Medium specific speed of a pump implies it is

(B) Mixed flow pump
(C) Axial flow pump
(D) Any one of the above
Correct Answer
6. If the ratios of all the corresponding linear dimensions are equal,

then the model and the prototype are said to have
(A) Geometric similarity
(B) Kinematic similarity
(C) Dynamic similarity
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
7. The optimum value of vane exit angle for a centrifugal pump

impeller is
(A) 10-15°
(B) 20-25°
(C) 30-40°
(D) 50-60°
Correct Answer
8. Which of the following pump is suitable for small discharge and

high heads?
(B) Axial flow pump
(C) Mixed flow pump
(D) Reciprocating pump
Correct Answer
9. For small discharge at high pressure, following pump is

preferred
(A) Centrifugal
(B) Axial flow
(C) Mixed flow
(D) Reciprocating
Correct Answer
10. A hydraulic press is a device used

(A) To store pressure energy which may be supplied to a machine later
on
(B) To increase the intensity of pressure of water by means of energy
available from a large quantity of water at a low pressure
(C) To lift larger load by the application of a comparatively much
smaller force
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer
11. Low specific speed of turbine implies it is

(A) Propeller turbine
(B) Francis turbine
(C) Impulse turbine
Correct Answer
12. The function of guide vanes in a reaction turbine is to

(A) Allow the water to enter the runner without shock
(B) Allow the water to flow over them, without forming eddies
(C) Allow the required quantity of water to enter the turbine
Correct Answer
13. Hydraulic accumulator is used for

(A) Accumulating oil
(B) Supplying large quantities of oil for very short duration
(C) Generally high pressures to operate hydraulic machines
(D) Supplying energy when main supply fails
Correct Answer
14. The jet ratio is defined as the ratio of the

(A) Diameter of jet to the diameter of Pelton wheel
(B) Velocity of jet to the velocity of Pelton wheel
(C) Diameter of Pelton wheel to the diameter of jet
(D) Velocity of Pelton wheel to the velocity of jet
Correct Answer
15. Maximum impulse will be developed in hydraulic ram when

(A) Waste valve closes suddenly
(B) Supply pipe is long
(C) Supply pipe is short
(D) Ram chamber is large
Correct Answer
Answer: Option A
View All Answers
View All Answers

(1) Answer: Option A (2) Answer: Option C (3)
Answer: Option C (4) Answer: Option B (5) Answer:
Option B (6) Answer: Option A (7) Answer: Option B
(8) Answer: Option D (9) Answer: Option D (10)
Answer: Option C (11) Answer: Option C (12)
Answer: Option D (13) Answer: Option D (14)
Answer: Option C (15) Answer: Option A
1. In a single casing, multistage pump running at constant speed,
the capacity rating is to be slightly lowered. It can be done by
(A) Designing new impeller
(B) Trimming the impeller size to the required size by machining
(C) Not possible
(D) Some other alterations in the impeller
Correct Answer
2. Which of the following pump is successfully used for lifting

water to the turbines?
(B) Reciprocating pump
(C) Jet pump
(D) Air lift pump
Correct Answer

a constant total dynamic head requiring a definite B.H.P., the same
pump when handling a liquid of specific gravity 0.75 and viscosity
nearly same as of water , the horse power required will be
(A) Same
(B) 0.75 B.H.P.
(C) B.H.P./0.75
(D) 1.5 B.H.P.
Correct Answer
4. A jet of water is striking at the centre of a curved vane moving

with a uniform velocity in the direction of jet. For the maximum
efficiency, the vane velocity is ________ of the jet velocity
(A) One-half
(B) One-third
(C) Two-third
(D) Three-fourth
Correct Answer
5. In a centrifugal pump, the liquid enters the pump

(A) At the top
(B) At the bottom
(C) At the canter
(D) From sides
Correct Answer
6. Kinematic similarity is said to exist between the model and the

prototype, if both of them
(A) Have identical velocities
(B) Are equal in size and shape
(C) Are identical in shape, but differ only in size
(D) Have identical forces
Correct Answer
7. For very high discharge at low pressure such as for flood control
and irrigation applications, following type of pump is preferred
(A) Centrifugal
(B) Axial flow
(C) Reciprocating
(D) Mixed flow
Correct Answer
8. The flow ratio of Francis turbine is defined as the ratio of the

(A) Velocity of flow at inlet to the theoretical jet velocity
(B) Theoretical velocity of jet to the velocity of flow at inlet
(C) Velocity of runner at inlet to the velocity of flow at inlet
Correct Answer
9. The maximum number of jets generally employed in impulse

turbine without jet interference is
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 12
Correct Answer
10. The specific speed (Ns) of a centrifugal pump is given by

(A) (N√Q)/H2/3
(B) (N√Q)/H3/4
(C) (N√Q)/H
(D) (N√Q)/H5/4
Correct Answer
11. Medium specific speed of turbine implies it is

(B) Francis turbine
(C) Impulse turbine
Correct Answer
12. A turbine is required to develop 1500 kW at 300 r.p.m. under a

head of 150 m. Which of the following turbine should be used?
(A) Pelton wheel with one nozzle
(B) Pelton wheel with two or more nozzles
(C) Kaplan turbine
(D) Francis turbine
Correct Answer
13. Puck up the wrong statement about centrifugal pump

(A) Discharge a diameter
(B) Head a speed²
(C) Head a diameter
(D) Power a speed⁴
Correct Answer
14. The flow ratio in case of Francis turbine varies from

(A) 0.15 to 0.3
(B) 0.4 to 0.5
(C) 0.6 to 0.9
(D) 1 to 1.5
Correct Answer
15. In reaction turbine, draft tube is used

(A) To transport water downstream without eddies
(B) To convert the kinetic energy to flow energy by a gradual expansion
of the flow cross-section
(C) For safety of turbine
(D) To increase flow rate
Correct Answer
View All Answers
(1) Answer: Option B (2) Answer: Option C
(3) Answer: Option B (4) Answer: Option B
(5) Answer: Option C (6) Answer: Option A
(7) Answer: Option B (8) Answer: Option A
(9) Answer: Option B (10) Answer: Option
B (11) Answer: Option B (12) Answer:
Option A (13) Answer: Option A (14)
Answer: Option A (15) Answer: Option B
1. Specific speed for reaction turbines ranges from
(A) 0 to 4.5
(B) 10 to 100
(C) 80 to 200
(D) 250 to 300
Correct Answer
2. The efficiency of jet propulsion for a ship with inlet orifices at

right angles to the direction of motion of ship is given by
(A) [2(Vr - v) v]/ Vr²
(B) [2(Vr + v) v]/ Vr²
(C) [(Vr - v) v]/ Vr
(D) [(Vr + v) v]/ Vr
Correct Answer
3. Air vessels in reciprocating pump are used to

(A) Smoothen flow
(B) Reduce acceleration to minimum
(C) Increase pump efficiency
(D) Save pump from cavitations
Correct Answer
4. For 450 m head of water, _________ shall be used.

(A) Pelton wheel
(B) Kaplan turbine
(C) Francis turbine
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
Answer: Option A
5. According to fan laws, for fans having constant wheel diameter,

the air or gas capacity varies
(A) Directly as fan speed
(B) Square of fan speed
(C) Cube of fan speed
(D) Square root of fan speed
Correct Answer
6. The speed ratio in case of Francis turbine varies from

(A) 0.15 to 0.3
(B) 0.4 to 0.5
(C) 0.6 to 0.9
(D) 1 to 1.5
Correct Answer
7. The specific speed of turbine is defined as the speed of a unit

(A) Of such a size that it delivers unit discharge at unit head
(B) Of such a size that it delivers unit discharge at unit power
(C) Of such a size that it requires unit power per unit head
(D) Of such a size that it produces unit horse power with unit head
Correct Answer
8. The undershot water wheels are those in which

(A) The wheel runs entirely by the weight of water
(B) The wheel runs entirely by the impulse of water
(C) The wheel runs partly by the weight of water and partly by the
impulse of water
Correct Answer
9. Guide angle as per the aerofoil theory of Kaplan turbine blade

design is defined as the angle between
(A) Lift and resultant force
(B) Drag and resultant force
(C) Lift and tangential force
(D) Lift and drag
Correct Answer
10. In an outward flow reaction turbine

(A) The water flows parallel to the axis of the wheel
(B) The water enters at the centre of the wheel and then flows towards
the outer periphery of the wheel
(C) The water enters the wheel at the outer periphery and then flows
towards the centre of the wheel
(D) The flow of water is partly radial and partly axial
Correct Answer
11. Impulse turbine is generally fitted

(A) At the level of tail race
(B) Little above the tail race
(C) Slightly below the tail race
(D) About 2.5 m above the tail race to avoid cavitations
Correct Answer
12. The gross or total head of the turbine is the ___________ of

the water levels at the head race and tail race.
(A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Product
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
13. In axial flow fans and turbines, fluid enters and leaves as
follows
(A) Radially, axially
(B) Axially, radially
(C) Axially, axially
(D) Radially, radially
Correct Answer
14. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) In an impulse turbine, the water impinges on the buckets with
pressure energy.
(B) In a reaction turbine, the water glides over the moving vanes with
kinetic energy.
(C) In an impulse turbine, the pressure of the flowing water remains
unchanged and is equal to atmospheric pressure.
(D) In a reaction turbine, the pressure of the flowing water increases
after gliding over the vanes.
Correct Answer
15. According to fan laws, for fans having constant wheel diameter,
the pressure varies
Correct Answer
View All Answers

(5) Answer: Option A (6) Answer: Option C
(7) Answer: Option D (8) Answer: Option B
(9) Answer: Option A (10) Answer: Option
B (11) Answer: Option B (12) Answer:
Option B (13) Answer: Option C (14)
Answer: Option C (15) Answer: Option B
Hydraulic Machines-Fluid Machineries - Set 04
1. Saving of work done and power by fitting an air vessel to double
acting reciprocating pump is of the order of
(A) 39.2%
(B) 49.2%
(C) 68.8%
(D) 84.8%
Correct Answer
2. If the net positive suction head (NPSH) requirement for the

pump is not satisfied, then
(A) No flow will take place
(B) Cavitation will be formed
(C) Efficiency will be low
(D) Excessive power will be consumed
Correct Answer
3. According to fan laws, at constant pressure, the speed capacity

and power vary
(A) Directly as the air or gas density
(B) Inversely as square root of density
(C) Inversely as density
(D) As square of density
Correct Answer
4. Which of the following turbine is preferred for a specific speed

of 60 to 300 r.p.m.?
(A) Pelton wheel
(B) Francis turbine
(C) Kaplan turbine
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
5. The angle of taper on draft tube is

(A) Greater than 15°
(B) Greater than 8°
(C) Greater than 5°
(D) Less than 8°
Correct Answer
6. The width of the bucket for a Pelton wheel is generally
________ the diameter of jet.
(A) Double
(B) Three times
(C) Four times
(D) Five times
Correct Answer
7. Which place in hydraulic turbine is most susceptible for

cavitations?
(A) Inlet of draft rube
(B) Blade inlet
(C) Guide blade
(D) Penstock
Correct Answer
8. Discharge of a centrifugal pump is (where N = Speed of the

pump impeller)
(A) Directly proportional to N
(B) Inversely proportional to N
(C) Directly proportional to N²
(D) Inversely proportional to N²
Correct Answer
9. The discharge through a reaction turbine with increase in unit

speed
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain unaffected
(D) First increases and then decreases
Correct Answer
10. The power produced by the reaction turbine is ________ to the

head of water.
(A) Directly proportional
(B) Inversely proportional
(C) 4th power
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
11. The maximum number of jets, generally, employed in an
impulse turbine without jet interference are
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) Six
(D) Eight
Correct Answer
12. Pressure intensifier increases the pressure in proportion to

(A) Ratio of diameters
(B) Square of ratio of diameters
(C) Inverse ratio of diameters
(D) Square of inverse ratio of diameters
Correct Answer
13. The specific speed from 160 to 500 r.p.m. of a centrifugal pump
indicates that the pump is
(A) Slow speed with radial flow at outlet
(B) Medium speed with radial flow at outlet
(C) High speed with radial flow at outlet
(D) High speed with axial flow at outlet
Correct Answer
14. For centrifugal pump impeller, the maximum value of the vane
exit angle is
(A) 10° to 15°
(B) 15° to 20°
(C) 20° to 25°
(D) 25° to 30°
Correct Answer
15. A hydraulic accumulator normally consists of

(A) Two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
(B) A cylinder and a ram
(C) Two coaxial rams and two cylinders
(D) A cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve
Correct Answer
View All Answers

(1) Answer: Option A (2) Answer: Option B
(5) Answer: Option D (6) Answer: Option D
(7) Answer: Option A (8) Answer: Option A
A (11) Answer: Option C (12) Answer:
Option B (13) Answer: Option D (14)
1. Saving of work done and power by fitting an air vessel to single
acting reciprocating pump is of the order of
(A) 39.2%
(B) 49.2%
(C) 68.8%
(D) 84.8%
Correct Answer
2. Overall efficiency of a centrifugal pump is the ratio of

(A) Energy available at the impeller to the energy supplied to the pump
by the prime mover
(B) Actual work-done by the pump to the energy supplied to the pump
by the prime mover
(C) Energy supplied to the pump to the energy available at the impeller
(D) Manometric head to the energy supplied by the impeller per kN of
water
Correct Answer
3. Which of the following pump is generally used to pump highly

viscous fluid?
(C) Air lift pump
(D) Screw pump
Correct Answer
4. High specific speed of turbine implies it is

(B) Francis turbine
(C) Impulse turbine
Correct Answer
5. In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are used to

(A) Smoothen the flow
(B) Reduce suction head
(C) Increase delivery head
(D) Reduce acceleration head
Correct Answer
6. The specific speed of a turbine is given by the equation

(A) N√P / H3/2
(B) N√P / H²
(C) N√P / H5/4
(D) N√P / H3
Correct Answer
7. In order to avoid cavitation in centrifugal pumps

(A) The suction pressure should be high
(B) The delivery pressure should be high
(C) The suction pressure should be low
(D) The delivery pressure should be low
Correct Answer
8. The speed of an imaginary turbine, identical with the given

turbine, which will develop a unit power under a unit head, is
known as
(A) Normal speed
(B) Unit speed
(C) Specific speed
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
9. Francis turbine is best suited for

(A) Medium head application from 24 to 180 m
(B) Low head installation up to 30 m
(C) High head installation above 180 m
(D) All types of heads
Correct Answer
10. Power required (in watts) to drive a centrifugal pump is (where

Hm = Manometric head in metres, w = Specific weight in N/m3, Q =
Discharge of the pump in m3/s, and ηo = Overall efficiency of the
pump)
(A) (w Hm) / (Q × ηo)
(B) (w Hm Q) / ηo
(C) (w Q) / (Hm × ηo)
(D) (w Q ηo) / Hm
Correct Answer
11. By fitting an air vessel to the reciprocating pump, there is

always a saving of work done and subsequently saving of power.
The saving in case of a double acting reciprocating pump is
(A) 39.2%
(B) 48.8%
(C) 84.8%
(D) 88.4%
Correct Answer
12. Any change in load is adjusted by adjusting following parameter

on turbine
(A) Net head
(B) Absolute velocity
(C) Blade velocity
(D) Flow
Correct Answer
13. The maximum hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is

(where φ = Angle of blade tip at outlet)
(A) (1 + cos φ)/2
(B) (1 - cos φ)/2
(C) (1 + sin φ)/2
(D) (1 - sin φ)/2
Correct Answer
14. The hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum

when velocity of wheel is _______ of the jet velocity,
(A) One-fourth
(B) One-half
(C) Three-fourth
(D) Double
Correct Answer
15. A hydraulic intensifier normally consists of

(A) Two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
(B) A cylinder and a ram
(C) Two coaxial rams and two cylinders
(D) A cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve
Correct Answer
View All Answers

(3) Answer: Option D (4) Answer: Option A
(5) Answer: Option D (6) Answer: Option C
B (11) Answer: Option A (12) Answer:
Option D (13) Answer: Option A (14)
Answer: Option B (15) Answer: Option C
1. The centrifugal pump preferred for a specific speed between 80

to 160 r.p.m. is
(A) Slow speed with radial flow at outlet
(B) Medium speed with radial flow at outlet
(C) High speed with radial flow at outlet
(D) High speed with mixed flow at outlet
Correct Answer
2. Reaction turbines are used for

(A) Low head
(B) High head
(C) High head and low discharge
(D) Low head and high discharge
Correct Answer
3. Which of the following hydraulic unit is used for transmitting

increased or decreased torque to the driven shaft?
(A) Hydraulic ram
(B) Hydraulic intensifier
(C) Hydraulic torque converter
(D) Hydraulic accumulator
Correct Answer
4. A centrifugal pump will start delivering liquid only when the

pressure rise in the impeller is equal to the
(A) Kinetic head
(B) Velocity head
(C) Manometric head
(D) Static head
Correct Answer

a constant total dynamic head requiring a definite B.H.P., the same
pump when handling a liquid of specific gravity 0.75 and viscosity
nearly same as of water would discharge
(A) Same quantity of liquid
(B) 0.75 Q
(C) Q/0.75
(D) 1.5 Q
Correct Answer
6. The overall efficiency of a reaction turbine is the ratio of

(A) Power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the
turbine
(B) Actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the
wheel
(C) Work-done on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually
supplied to the turbine
Correct Answer
7. The force exerted by a jet of water (in a direction normal to flow)

impinging on a fixed plate inclined at an angle θ with the jet is
(A) (waV/2g) × sin θ
(B) (waV/g) × sin θ
(C) (waV²/2g) × sin 2θ
(D) (waV²/g) × sin θ
Correct Answer
8. Casting of a centrifugal pump is designed so as to minimize

(A) Friction loss
(B) Cavitations
(C) Static head
(D) Loss of kinetic energy
Correct Answer
9. A hydraulic ram is a device used to

(A) Store the energy of water
(B) Increase the pressure of water
(C) To lift water from deep wells
(D) To lift small quantity of water to a greater height when a large
quantity of water is available at a smaller height
Correct Answer
10. According to fan laws, at constant speed and capacity, the

pressure and power vary
Correct Answer
11. The ratio of quantity of liquid discharged per second from the
pump to the quantity of liquid passing per second through the
impeller is known as
(A) Manometric efficiency
(B) Mechanical efficiency
(C) Overall efficiency
(D) Volumetric efficiency
Correct Answer
12. Discharge (Q) of a centrifugal pump is given by (where D =

Diameter of impeller at inlet, b = Width of impeller at inlet, and Vf
= Velocity of flow at inlet)
(A) Q = π.D.Vf
(B) Q = π.b.Vf
(C) Q = π.D.bf.V
(D) Q = D.b.Vf
Correct Answer
13. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to obtain

(A) High discharge
(B) High head
(C) Pumping of viscous fluids
(D) High head and high discharge
Correct Answer
14. Which of the following turbine is preferred for 0 to 25 m head

of water?
(A) Pelton wheel
(B) Kaplan turbine
(C) Francis turbine
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
15. Dynamic similarity is said to exist between the model and the
Correct Answer
View All Answers

(3) Answer: Option C (4) Answer: Option C
(7) Answer: Option C (8) Answer: Option D
(9) Answer: Option D (10) Answer: Option
A (11) Answer: Option D (12) Answer:
Option C (13) Answer: Option B (14)
Answer: Option B (15) Answer: Option D
1. Which of the following pump is preferred for flood control and
irrigation applications?
(B) Axial flow pump
(C) Mixed flow pump
(D) Reciprocating pump
Correct Answer
2. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to

(A) Give high discharge
(B) Produce high heads
(C) Pump viscous fluids
(D) All of these
Correct Answer
3. Reciprocating pumps are no more to be seen in industrial

applications (in comparison to centrifugal pumps) because of
(A) High initial and maintenance cost
(B) Lower discharge
(C) Lower speed of operation
(D) Necessity of air vessel
Correct Answer
4. The efficiency of a Pelton wheel working under constant head

________ with the increase in power.
(A) Remain same
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
5. The discharge through a reaction turbine __________ with the

increase in unit speed.
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
6. Axial flow pump is started with its delivery valve

(A) Kept fully closed
(B) Kept fully open
(C) Irrespective of any position
(D) Kept 50% open
Correct Answer
7. A Pelton wheel working under a constant head and discharge,

has maximum efficiency when the speed ratio is
(A) 0.26
(B) 0.36
(C) 0.46
(D) 0.56
Correct Answer
8. The specific speed of a hydraulic turbine depends upon

(A) Speed and power developed
(B) Discharge and power developed
(C) Speed and head of water
(D) Speed, power developed and head of water
Correct Answer
9. Head developed by a centrifugal pump depends on

(A) Impeller diameter
(B) Speed
(C) Fluid density
(D) Both (A) and (B) above
Correct Answer
10. If the ratio's of the corresponding forces acting at

corresponding points are equal, then the model and the prototype
are said to have.
(A) Geometric similarity
(B) Kinematic similarity
(C) Dynamic similarity
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
11. A Pelton wheel develops 1750 kW under a head of
100 meters while running at 200 r.p.m. and
discharging 2500 liters of water per second. The unit speed of the
wheel is
(A) 10 r.p.m.
(B) 20 r.p.m.
(C) 40 r.p.m.
(D) 80 r.p.m.
Correct Answer
12. Centrifugal pump is started with its delivery valve

(A) Kept fully closed
(B) Kept fully open
(C) Irrespective of any position
(D) Kept 50% open
Correct Answer
13. The cavitation in reaction turbines is avoided, to a great extent

by
(A) Installing the turbine below the tail race level
(B) Using stainless steel runner of the turbine
(C) Providing highly polished blades to the runner
Correct Answer

impeller, is
(A) Rectilinear flow
(B) Radial flow
(C) Free vortex motion
(D) Forced vortex
Correct Answer
15. A hydraulic accumulator is a device used to store _________

energy which may be supplied to a machine later on.
(A) Strain
(B) Pressure
(C) Kinetic
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
View All Answers

C (11) Answer: Option B (12) Answer:
Option A (13) Answer: Option D (14)
1. Which of the following statement is correct as regard to water
wheels?
(A) They have slow speeds
(B) They are suitable even for low water heads
(C) They give constant efficiency, even if the discharge is not constant
Correct Answer
2. The unit power developed by a turbine is (where P = Power

developed by the turbine under a head of water (H).
(A) P/ √H
(B) P/ H
(C) P/ H3/2
(D) P/ H²
Correct Answer
3. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is

(A) Full load speed
(B) The speed at which turbine runner will be damaged
(C) The speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without
load and with the wicket gates wide open
(D) The speed corresponding to maximum overload permissible
Correct Answer
4. Which type of the pump is different from others in the same

group?
(A) Screw pump
(B) Gear pump
(C) Cam and piston pump
(D) Plunger pump
Correct Answer
5. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump, delivering 750 liters of

water per second against a head of 15 meters at 725 r.p.m., is
(A) 24.8 r.p.m.
(B) 48.2 r.p.m
(C) 82.4 r.p.m.
(D) 248 r.p.m
Correct Answer
6. When a piping system is made up primarily of vertical lift and

very little pipe friction, the pump characteristics should be
(A) Horizontal
(B) Nearly horizontal
(C) Steep
(D) First rise and then fall
Correct Answer
7. In an inward flow reaction turbine

(A) The water flows parallel to the axis of the wheel
(B) The water enters at the center of the wheel and then flows towards
the outer periphery of the wheel
(C) The water enters the wheel at the outer periphery and then flows
towards the center of the wheel
(D) The flow of water is partly radial and partly axial
Correct Answer
8. In impulse Turbine, energy available at the inlet is in the form of

(A) Potential Energy
(B) Strain Energy
(C) Kinetic energy
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
9. A Pelton wheel develops 1750 kW under a head of 100 meters

while running at 200 r.p.m. and discharging 2500 liters of water
per second. The unit discharge of wheel is
(A) 0.25 m3/s
(B) 0.5 m3/s
(C) 1.5 m3/s
(D) 2.5 m3/s
Correct Answer
10. Power required to drive a centrifugal pump is directly

proportional to _________ of its impeller.
(A) Diameter
(B) Square of diameter
(C) Cube of diameter
(D) Fourth power of diameter
Correct Answer
11. Which of the following statement is wrong?

(A) The reaction turbines are used for low head and high discharge
(B) The angle of taper on draft tube is less than 8°
(C) An impulse turbine is generally fitted slightly above the tail race
(D) A Francis turbine is an impulse turbine
Correct Answer
12. Discharge of a centrifugal pump is

(A) Directly proportional to diameter of its impeller
(B) Inversely proportional to diameter of its impeller
(C) Directly proportional to (diameter)² of its impeller
(D) Inversely proportional to (diameter)² of its impeller
Correct Answer
13. The speed of a turbine runner is

(A) Directly proportional to H1/2
(B) Inversely proportional to H1/2
(C) Directly proportional to H3/2
(D) Inversely proportional to H3/2
Correct Answer
14. In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is used

(A) To run the turbine full
(B) To prevent air to enter the turbine
(C) To increase the head of water by an amount equal to the height of
the runner outlet above the tail race
(D) To transport water to downstream
Correct Answer
15. Slip of a reciprocating pump is defined as the

(A) Ratio of actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
(B) Sum of actual discharge and the theoretical discharge
(C) Difference of theoretical discharge and the actual discharge
(D) Product of theoretical discharge and the actual discharge
Correct Answer
View All Answers
D (11) Answer: Option D (12) Answer:
Option D (13) Answer: Option A (14)
Answer: Option C (15) Answer: Option C
1. In a Kaplan turbine runner, the numbers of blades are generally
between
(A) 2 to 4
(B) 4 to 8
(C) 8 to 16
(D) 16 to 24
Correct Answer
2. The depth of the bucket for a Pelton wheel is generally

_________ the diameter of jet.
(A) Equal to
(B) 1.2 times
(C) 1.8 times
(D) Double
Correct Answer
3. An impulse turbine is used for

(A) Low head of water
(B) High head of water
(C) Medium head of water
(D) High discharge
Correct Answer
4. If V1 and V2 are the velocities of water at inlet and outlet of the

draft tube respectively, then the efficiency of a draft tube is
(A) (V1 - V2) / V1
(B) (V1² - V2²) / V1²
(C) V1 / (V1 - V2)
(D) V1² / (V1² - V2²)
Correct Answer
5. A Pelton wheel is
(A) Tangential flow impulse turbine
(B) Inward flow impulse turbine
(C) Outward flow impulse turbine
(D) Inward flow reaction turbine
Correct Answer
6. Delivery head of a centrifugal pump is

(A) Directly proportional to N
(B) Inversely proportional to N
(C) Directly proportional to N²
(D) Inversely proportional to N²
Correct Answer
7. Theoretical power required (in watts) to drive a reciprocating

pump is (where w = Specific weight of liquid to be pumped in N/m 3,
Q = Discharge of the pump in m3/s, Hs = Suction head in meters,
and Hd = Delivery head in meters)
(A) wQHs
(B) wQHd
(C) wQ (Hs - Hd)
(D) wQ (Hs + Hd)
Correct Answer
8. Slip of a reciprocating pump is negative, when

(A) Suction pipe is short and pump is running at low speeds
(B) Delivery pipe is long and pump is running at high speeds
(C) Suction pipe is short and delivery pipe is long and the pump is
running at low speeds
(D) Suction pipe is long and delivery pipe is short and the pump is
running at high speeds
Correct Answer
9. The Fourneyron turbine is _________ reaction turbine.

(A) An axial flow
(B) An inward flow
(C) An outward flow
(D) A mixed flow
Correct Answer
10. Braking jet in an impulse turbine is used

(A) To break the jet of water
(B) To bring the runner to rest in a short time
(C) To change the direction of runner
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
11. Which of the following pump is successfully used for lifting

water to the boilers?
(C) Jet pump
(D) Airlift pump
Correct Answer
12. The Thomson's turbine is _________ reaction turbine.

(A) An axial flow
(B) An inward flow
(C) An outward flow
(D) A mixed flow
Correct Answer
13. The static head of a centrifugal pump is equal to the

_________ of suction head and delivery head.
(A) Product
(B) Difference
(C) Sum
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
14. The hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is the

(A) Ratio of the actual power produced by the turbine to the energy
actually supplied by the turbine
(B) Ratio of the actual work available at the turbine to the energy
imparted to the wheel
(C) Ratio of the work done on the wheel to the energy of the jet
Correct Answer
15. The water in a jet propelled boat is drawn through the openings
facing the direction of motion of the boat. The efficiency of
propulsion is given by
(A) 2V/(vr - v)
(B) 2V/(vr + v)
(C) V/(vr - v)
(D) V/(vr + v)
Correct Answer
View All Answers

(9) Answer: Option C (10) Answer: Option
B (11) Answer: Option C (12) Answer:
Option B (13) Answer: Option C (14)
Hydraulic Machines Objective
Questions with Answers - Set 10
1. The unit speed of the turbine runner is
(A) N/√H
(B) N/H
(C) N/H3/2
(D) N/H²
Correct Answer
2. Motion of a liquid in a volute casing of a centrifugal pump is an

example of
(A) Rotational flow
(B) Radial
(C) Forced spiral vortex flow
(D) Spiral vortex flow
Correct Answer
3. The runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is the speed

(A) At full load
(B) At which there will be no damage to the runner
(C) Corresponding to maximum overload permissible
(D) At which the turbine will run freely without load
Correct Answer
4. High specific speed of a pump implies it is

(B) Mixed flow pump
(C) Axial flow pump
Correct Answer
5. The type of centrifugal pump preferred for a specific speed of 20

r.p.m. is
(A) Slow speed pump with radial flow at outlet
(B) Medium speed pump with radial flow at outlet
(C) High speed pump with radial flow at outlet
(D) High speed pump with axial flow at outlet
Correct Answer
6. Mechanical efficiency of a centrifugal pump is the ratio of

(A) Energy available at the impeller to the energy supplied to the pump
by the prime mover
(B) Actual work-done by the pump to the energy supplied to the pump
by the prime mover
(C) Energy supplied to the pump to the energy available at the impeller
(D) Manometric head to the energy supplied by the impeller per kN of
water
Correct Answer
7. The flow rate in gear pump

(A) Increases with increase in pressure
(B) Decreases with increase in pressure
(C) More or less remains constant with increase in pressure
(D) Unpredictable
Correct Answer
8. The specific speed of a turbine is the speed of an imaginary

turbine, identical with the given turbine, which
(A) Delivers unit discharge under unit head
(B) Delivers unit discharge under unit speed
(C) Develops unit power under unit head
(D) Develops unit power under unit speed
Correct Answer
9. Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbines fall under the category of

(A) Impulse turbines
(B) Reaction turbines
(C) Axial flow turbines
(D) Mixed flow turbines
Correct Answer
10. Which of the following is not a reaction turbine?

(A) Fourneyron turbine
(B) Journal turbine
(C) Thomson's turbine
(D) Pelton wheel
Correct Answer
11. A turbine develops 10000 kW under a head of 25 meters at 135
r.p.m. Its specific speed is
(A) 175.4 r.p.m.
(B) 215.5 r.p.m.
(C) 241.5 r.p.m.
(D) 275.4 r.p.m
Correct Answer
12. According to fan laws, for the fans having constant wheel
diameters, the power demand varies
Correct Answer
13. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) The centrifugal pump is suitable for large discharge and smaller
heads
(B) The centrifugal pump requires less floor area and simple foundation
as compared to reciprocating pump
(C) The efficiency of centrifugal pump is less as compared to
reciprocating pump
Correct Answer
14. According to fan laws, at constant weight of air or gas, the speed,
capacity and pressure vary
Correct Answer
15. In a centrifugal pump, the regulating valve is provided on the

(A) Casing
(B) Delivery pipe
(C) Suction pipe
(D) Impeller
Correct Answer
View All Answers

(1) Answer: Option A (2) Answer: Option D
D (11) Answer: Option C (12) Answer:
Option C (13) Answer: Option D (14)
Hydraulic Machines Objective
Questions with Answers - Set 11
1. The discharge of a double acting reciprocating pump is (where L
= Length of stroke, A = Cross-sectional area of piston, and N =
Speed of crank in r.p.m.)
(A) L.A.N
(B) 2 L.A.N
(C) (L.A.N)/60
(D) (2 L.A.N)/60
Correct Answer
2. The maximum efficiency of jet propulsion of a ship with inlet

orifices at right angles to the direction of motion of ship, is
(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%
Correct Answer
3. A turbine pump is basically a centrifugal pump equipped

additionally with
(A) Adjustable blades
(B) Backward curved blades
(C) Vaned diffusion casing
(D) Inlet guide blades
Correct Answer
4. The impeller of a centrifugal pump may have

(A) Volute casing
(B) Volute casing with guide blades
(C) Vortex casing
(D) Any one of these
Correct Answer
5. The working of which of the following hydraulic units is based on

Pascal's law?
(A) Air lift pump
(B) Jet pump
(C) Hydraulic coupling
(D) Hydraulic press
Correct Answer
6. By fitting an air vessel to the reciprocating pump, there is always

a saving of work done and subsequently saving of power. This
saving in case of a single acting reciprocating pump is
(A) 39.2%
(B) 48.8%
(C) 84.8%
(D) 88.4%
Correct Answer
7. The power developed by a turbine is (where H = Head of water

under which the turbine is working)
(A) Directly proportional to H1/2
(B) Inversely proportional to H1/2
(C) Directly proportional to H3/2
(D) Inversely proportional to H3/2
Correct Answer
8. The force exerted (in Newton) by a jet of water impinging

normally on a fixed plate is (where w = Specific weight of water in
N/m3, a = Cross-sectional area of jet in m², and V = Velocity of jet
in m/s)
(A) waV / 2g
(B) waV / g
(C) waV² / 2g
(D) waV² / g
Correct Answer
9. Indicator diagram of a reciprocating pump is a graph between

(A) Flow vs. swept volume
(B) Pressure in cylinder vs. swept volume
(C) Flow vs. speed
(D) Pressure vs. speed
Correct Answer
10. The ratio of the normal force of jet of water on a plate inclined
at an angle of 30° as compared to that when the plate is normal to
jet, is
(A) 1/√2
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
(D) √2
Correct Answer
11. A hydraulic coupling belongs to the category of

(A) Power absorbing machines
(B) Power developing machines
(C) Energy transfer machines
(D) Energy generating machines
Correct Answer
12. One horsepower is equal to

(A) 102 watts
(B) 75 watts
(C) 550 watts
(D) 735 watts
Correct Answer
13. The hydraulic efficiency of a reaction turbine, is the ratio of

(A) Power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the
turbine
(B) Actual work available at the turbine to energy imparted to the wheel
(C) Work-done on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually
supplied to the turbine
Correct Answer
14. A Francis turbine is used when the available head of water is

(A) 0 to 25 m
(B) 25 m to 250 m
(C) Above 250 m
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
15. For starting an axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be
(A) Closed
(B) Open
(C) Depends on starting condition and flow desired
(D) Could be either open or closed
Correct Answer
View All Answers

B (11) Answer: Option C (12) Answer:
Option D (13) Answer: Option C (14)
Answer: Option B (15) Answer: Option B
Hydraulic Machines and Fluid
Machineries Objective Questions
with Answers
1. Which of the following pump is successfully used for lifting water
from deep wells?
(C) Jet pump
(D) Air lift pump
Correct Answer
2. When a piping system is made up primarily of friction head and

very little of vertical lift, then pump characteristics should be
(A) Horizontal
(B) Nearly horizontal
(C) Steep
(D) First rise and then fall
Correct Answer
3. The overall efficiency for a Pelton wheel lies between

(A) 0.50 to 0.65
(B) 0.65 to 0.75
(C) 0.75 to 0.85
(D) 0.85 to 0.90
Correct Answer
4. The efficiency of a hydraulic press is given by (where W = Weight

lifted by ram, P = Force applied on plunger, A = Area of ram, and a
= Area of plunger)
(A) (W/p) × (A/a)
(B) (p/W) × (a/A)
(C) (W/p) × (a/A)
(D) (p/W) × (A/a)
Correct Answer

(A) Radial
(B) Axial
(C) Centrifugal
(D) Vortex
Correct Answer
6. The unit discharge through the turbine is

(A) Q/√H
(B) Q/H
(C) Q/H3/2
(D) Q/H²
Correct Answer
7. If Hg is the gross or total head and hf is the head lost due to

friction, then net or effective head (H) is given by
(A) H = Hg/hf
(B) H = Hg × hf
(C) H = Hg + hf
(D) H = Hg - hf
Correct Answer
8. Manometric head, in case of a centrifugal pump, is equal to

(A) Suction lift + Loss of head in suction pipe due to friction + Delivery
lift + Loss of head in delivery pipe due to friction + Velocity head in the
delivery pipe
(B) Work-done per kN of water Losses within the impeller
(C) Energy per kN at outlet of impeller Energy per kN at inlet of impeller
Correct Answer
9. In a Francis turbine runner, the numbers of blades are generally

between
(A) 2 to 4
(B) 4 to 8
(C) 8 to 16
(D) 16 to 24
Correct Answer
10. The relation between hydraulic efficiency (ηh), mechanical

efficiency (ηm) and overall efficiency (ηo) is
(A) ηh = ηo × ηm
(B) ηm = ηm × ηh
(C) ηo = ηh × ηm
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
11. The ratio of actual work available at the turbine to the energy
imparted to the wheel is known as ________ efficiency.
(A) Hydraulic
(B) Mechanical
(C) Overall
(D) None of these
Correct Answer
12. The force exerted by a jet of water impinging normally on a

plate which due to the impact of jet, moves in the direction of jet
with a velocity v is
(A) [wa (V - v)]/2g
(B) [wa (V - v)]/g
(C) [wa (V - v)²]/2g
(D) [wa (V - v²)]/g
Correct Answer
13. The number of buckets on the periphery of a Pelton wheel is

given by
(A) (D/2d) + 5
(B) (D/2d) + 10
(C) (D/2d) + 15
(D) (D/2d) + 20
Correct Answer
14. The cavitation in a hydraulic machine

(A) Causes noise and vibration of various parts
(B) Reduces the discharge of a turbine
(C) Causes sudden drop in power output and efficiency
Correct Answer
15. Geometric similarity is said to exist between the model and the
(D) Have identical forces
Correct Answer
View All Answers

(5) Answer: Option D (6) Answer: Option A
C (11) Answer: Option B (12) Answer:
Option D (13) Answer: Option C (14)
Answer: Option D (15) Answer: Option C


d. Unpredictable


d. Unpredictable
a. 1/10 th of
b. 1/3 rd of
c. 10 times
d. 3 times
ANSWER: 1/3 rd of

a. (1) and (2)

b. (2) and (3)
c. (3) and (4)
d. (1) and (4)
ANSWER: (2) and (3)


turbine
turbine
turbine
turbine

load on turbine
7) Consider the following diagram of jet of water striking flat stationary

plate inclined at an angle θ. What will be the phase of workdone on the
plate?
a. negative
b. positive
c. zero
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: zero

Where,
rotor
a. E = ṁ (Vw1 – Vw2) x (u1 – u2)

b. E = ṁ (Vw1 – Vw2) / (u1 – u2)
c. E = ṁ (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2)
d. E = ṁ (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2)2

a. pressure energy
b. kinetic energy

a. (1), (2) and (3)
b. (2), (3) and (4)
c. (1), (3) and (4)
d. (1), (2) and (4)
ANSWER: (1), (2) and (4)
1 2


heat of 'H' m?
a. (Ns) = (√N x P) x (H)(5/4)

b. (Ns) = (2 √N x P) x (H)(5/4)
c. (Ns) = (N √P) x (H)(5/4)
d. (Ns) = (2N √P) x (H)(5/4)
ANSWER: (Ns) = (N √P) x (H)(5/4)

d. All of the above

above atmospheric
a. Turgo
b. Girand
c. Kaplan
ANSWER: Kaplan
1 2
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Q1.The product of force (F) and me (t) is called as________ Manufacturing Technology 4
a) Momentum
b) Work done Manufacturing Technology 3
c) Impulse Manufacturing Technology 2

d) Pressure
Q2.What is the formula for forces exerted by fluid on a body? Workshop Technology 8
a) (Rate of momentum in) x (Rate of momentum out)
b) (Rate of momentum in) – (Rate of momentum out)
c) (Rate of momentum in) + (Rate of momentum out) ALL PAPERS
d) None of the above
Select Category
Q3.The radial force in rot dynamic machine, which is developed
by rate of change of momentum in radial velocity, is taken care
by__________
a) Journal bearing
b) Radial thrust bearing
c) Both a. And b
Q4.Meridonial velocity is the resultant of _____________

components of fluid velocity
a) Radial and tangen al
b) Tangen al and axial
c) Radial and axial
d) Unpredictable
Q5._______________ components of fluid velocity have the

responsibility of the
transporta on of fluid through the machine
c) Radial and axial
d) None of the exis ng
Q6.In which turbine the pressure energy of water is first

converted into kine c energy by means of nozzle kept close to the
runner?
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reac on turbine
c) Both a. And b
Q7.The pressure of water is atmospheric and remains constant

while passing over the runner in __________
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reac on turbine
c) Both a. And b
Q8.The energy of water entering the reac on turbine is _______

a) Fully the kine c energy
b) Fully the pressure energy
c) Partly the pressure energy and partly the kine c energy
d) Unpredictable
Q9.Which of the following is an example of impulse turbine?

b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Pelton wheel
Q10.The runner of __________ turbine always be under pressure

of above atmospheric
a) Turgo
b) Girand
c) Kaplan
Q11.The water from runner in reac on turbine is discharged into

tail race through a dra tube which has ____________ cross
sec onal area
a) Constant
b) Gradually decreasing
c) Gradually increasing
d) None of these
Q12._________ turbines are also called as parallel flow turbine

a) Radial flow
b) Axial flow
c) Both radial flow and axial flow
Q13.In which type of reac on turbine does the water flow in

radial direc on at the outer periphery of runner and leave at the
centre in the direc on parallel to the axis of rota on of runner?
a) Radial flow turbine
b) Axial flow turbine
c) Mixed flow turbine
d) All of the above
Q14.Generally, the value of specific speed of Kaplan turbine is

_____________ that of the Pelton turbine
a) Lower than
b) Higher than
c) Same as
d) Unpredictable
Q15.The passage of uniformly varying cross-sec on in which the

kine c energy of steam increases at the expense of its pressure is
called as__________
a) Steam turbine
b) Steam nozzle
c) Steam area
d) All of the above
Q16.The quality of vapour at the exit of nozzle ___________ due

to nozzle fric on
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Does not change
d) Unpredictable
Q17.Pump transfers the mechanical energy of a motor or of an

engine into _________ of a fluid
a) Pressure energy
b) Kine c energy
c) Either pressure energy or kine c energy
d) Pressure energy, kine c energy or both
Q18.Which of the following is NOT a type of posi ve displacement

pumps?
a) Reciproca ng pump
b) Rotary displacement pump
c) Centrifugal pump
Q19.Rotary displacement pumps are suitable for handling

________
a) Oils
b) Gri y liquids
c) Both oils as well as gri y liquids
Q20.Which of the following is/are example/s of rotary

displacement pumps?
a) Gear pump
b) Vane pump
c) Rotary piston pump
d) All of the above
Q1. Answer: c
Q2. Answer: c
Q3. Answer: a
Q4. Answer: c
Q5. Answer: c
Q6. Answer: a
Q7. Answer: a
Q8. Answer: c
Q9. Answer: d
Q10. Answer: c
Q11. Answer: c
Q12. Answer: b
Q13. Answer: c
Q14. Answer: b
Q15. Answer: b
Q16. Answer: a
Q17. Answer: c
Q18. Answer: c
Q19. Answer: a
Q20. Answer: d
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Q1.Which of the following preferred for supercharging of internal Manufacturing Technology 4

combus on engines?
a) Roots blower Manufacturing Technology 3
b) Axial flow compressor Manufacturing Technology 2

c) Sliding vane type compressor
d) Reciproca ng compressor Manufacturing Technology 1
Workshop Technology 8
Q2.In an axial flow compressor, the pressure rise occurs in
a) Fixed blades only
b) Moving blades only ALL PAPERS
c) Both fixed and moving blades
d) None of the above Select Category
Q3.An axial flow compressor has

a) Larger blades at gas entry and smaller blades at exit
b) Smaller blades at gas entry and larger blades at exit
c) Iden cal blades at exit as well as entry
d) Size of blades remains same only angles changes
Q4.An axial flow compressor is suitable for

a) High volume flow rates with a small pressure rise
b) High volume flow rates with high pressure rise
c) Low volume flow rates with low pressure rise
d) Low volume flow rates with high pressure rise
Q5.In a gas turbine cycle regenerator is used to

a) Heat the gases coming out of combus on chamber
b) Heat fuel supplied to combus on chamber
c) Heat air supplied to combus on chamber
d) Heat exhaust gases released from low pressure turbine
Q6.A regenerator can be used on

a) Open cycle gas turbines only
b) Closed cycle gas turbines only
c) Both open as well as closed cycle gas turbines
Q7.Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle can be improved by

a) Rehea ng between expansion stage
b) Intercooling between compression stages
c) Regenera on
d) Any of the above
Q8.Gas turbine used in aircra is of

a) Open cycle type
b) Closed cycle type with rehea ng
c) Closed cycle type with rehea ng and regenera on and
intercooling
d) Open cycle type with rehea ng, regenera on and intercooling
Q9.A diffuser is used to

a) Increase velocity and decrease pressure
b) Increase velocity as well as pressure
c) Decrease velocity and increase pressure
d) Decrease velocity as well as pressure
Q10.In which of the following heat exchanger, heat is extracted

from air?
a) Regenerator
b) Reheater
c) Intercooler
d) All of the above
Q11.Which component of a gas turbine consumes maximum

power?
a) Starter
b) Regenerator
c) Compressor
d) Combus on chamber
Q12.In which of the following plant inferior quality fuel can be

used?
a) Open cycle gas turbine with regenera on
b) Open cycle gas turbine with intercooling
c) Open cycle gas turbine with rehea ng and regenera on
d) Closed cycle gas turbine
Q13.In a rehea ng gas turbine cycle, rehea ng is done

a) By gases from turbine exhaust
b) By gases from intercooler
c) In separate combus on chamber
d) Any of the above
Q14.In a gas turbine combined cycle plant, a waste heat boiler is

used to
a) Heat air from intercooler
b) Gases from regenerator
c) Recover heat form exhaust gases
Q15.A control volume has an inlet area of 0.1 m^2 and exit area
of 0.05 m^2. The density is 3.89 kg/m^2 and constant. If the inlet
velocity is 30 m/s, the force on the control volume will be
a) 50 N
b) 150 N
c) 250 N
d) 350 N
Q16.Under standard atmospheric condi on, the velocity of air is

a) 236 m/s
b) 336 m/s
c) 436 m/s
d) 536 m/s
Q17.The ra o of actual velocity to the local velocity of sound is

called
a) Velocity ra o
b) Velocity factor
c) Speed ra o
d) Mach number
Q18.In a nozzle, once the cri cal condi ons are achieved at the
throat, than which of the following remains constant:
a) Density of fluid
b) Velocity of fluid
c) Flow rate
d) All of the above
Q19.In a nozzle under choked flow condi ons pressure waves

travel, in the divergent por on, at
a) Subsonic speed
b) Sonic speed
c) Supersonic speed
d) Subsonic to supersonic speed
Q20.In a nozzle if back pressure is equal to inlet pressure

a) No flow occurs
b) Maximum flow occurs
c) Flow is subsonic in diverging sec on
d) Flow is supersonic in converging as well as supersonic sec ons
Q1. Answer: a
Q2. Answer: c
Q3. Answer: a
Q4. Answer: a
Q5. Answer: c
Q6. Answer: c
Q7. Answer: d
Q8. Answer: a
Q9. Answer: c
Q10. Answer: c
Q11. Answer: c
Q12. Answer: d
Q13. Answer: c
Q14. Answer: c
Q15. Answer: d
Q16. Answer: b
Q17. Answer: d
Q18. Answer: d
Q19. Answer: b
Q20. Answer: a
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Q1.The flow on two sides of a normal shock wave is Manufacturing Technology 4

a) Subsonic
b) Sonic Manufacturing Technology 3
c) Supersonic Manufacturing Technology 2

d) Supersonic on one side and subsonic on the other side
Q2.The diverging por on of the nozzle acts as a diffuser for Workshop Technology 8
a) The subsonic flow
b) The supersonic flow
c) Both the subsonic as well as supersonic flow ALL PAPERS
Select Category
Q3.A diffuser
a) Converts kine c energy into thermal energy
b) Converts poten al energy into kine c energy
c) Converts pressure energy into kine c energy
d) Converts thermal energy into kine c energy
Q4.Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciproca ng engines even for

same compression ra o and work output because
a) O o cycle is more efficient
b) Brayton cycle is less efficient
c) Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only
d) Large volume of low pressure gas cannot be efficiently handled
in reciproca ng
engines
Q5.Actual gas turbine cycle is different from ideal cycle because

a) Of internal irreversibility of the process due to fric on,
turbulence, etc
b) Of varia on of specific heats with temperature
c) Of losses due to incomplete combus on
d) All of the above
Q6.The advantage of a gas turbine over a reciproca ng engine is

a) Perfect balancing of rotor
b) Con nuous and uniform power
c) Usually small working pressures
d) All of the above
Q7.Overall efficiency of a gas turbine is

a) Equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
b) Equal to Carnot cycle efficiency
c) Less than Diesel cycle efficiency
d) More than O o or Diesel cycle efficiency
Q8.Air fuel ra o for a gas turbine is closer to

a) 10 ; 1
b) 15 ; 1
c) 20 ; 1
d) 60 ; 1
Q9.Which of the following is a posi ve displacement rotory

compressor?
a) Roots blower
b) Centrifugal compressor
c) Axial flow compressor
d) All of the above
Q10.All of the following are posi ve displacement compressors

EXCEPT
a) Screw compressor
b) Axial flow compressor
c) Roots blower
d) Vane blower
Q11.For efficient opera on of axial flow compressors the blades

are made
a) Straight
b) Slightly curved
c) Aerofoil sec on
d) Forward curved
Q12.Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine is in the range

a) 50 to 60 percent
b) 40 to 50 percent
c) 30 to 40 percent
d) 20 to 30 percent
Q13.The efficiency of a simple open cycle gas turbine depends

upon
a) Pressure ra o
b) Compressor efficiency
c) Turbine inlet temperature
d) All of the above
Q14.Which of the following steam turbine has iden cal fixed and
moving blades?
a) Cur s turbine
b) Rateau turbine
c) Parson’s turbine
Q15.Which of the following is a pressure compounded turbine?

a) Parson’s turbine
b) Cur s turbine
c) Rateau turbine
d) All of the above
Q16.The con nuity equa on in compressible fluids is derived on

the basis of
a) Conserva on of momentum
b) Conserva on of energy
c) Conserva on of mass
d) Conserva on of velocity head
Q17.As there is plenty of me for heat transfer across the walls,

the flow in long pipes at low veloci es a ains
a) Isentropic condi ons
b) Adiaba c condi ons
c) Isothermal condi ons
d) Polytropic condi ons
Q18.In a hot wire anemometer the rate of heat loss from sensing
element is a func on of
a) Pressure
b) Mass rate of flow
c) Velocity of flow
Q19.The normal shock wave in compressible flow is analogous to

a) Surges in open channel
b) Vortex forma on in centrifugal pump
c) Hydraulic bore in dal rivers
d) Hydraulic jump in channel flow
Q20.A roots blower compresses 0.06 cubic metres of air from 1.0
bar to 1.45 bar per revolu on. The compressor efficiency is nearly
a) 99%
b) 87%
c) 75%
d) 63%
Q1. Answer: d
Q2. Answer: a
Q3. Answer: a
Q4. Answer: d
Q5. Answer: d
Q6. Answer: d
Q7. Answer: c
Q8. Answer: d
Q9. Answer: a
Q10. Answer: b
Q11. Answer: c
Q12. Answer: c
Q13. Answer: d
Q14. Answer: c
Q15. Answer: c
Q16. Answer: c
Q17. Answer: c
Q18. Answer: c
Q19. Answer: d
Q20. Answer: b
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1) The product of force (F) and time (t) is called

as________.
a. momentum
b. work done
c. impulse
d. pressure
ANSWER: impulse
Explanation:
2) What is the formula for forces exerted by fluid on a

body?

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ANSWER: (Rate of momentum in) – (Rate of momentum
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out)
Explanation:
3) The radial force in rotodynamic machine, which is

developed by rate of change of momentum in radial
velocity, is taken care by__________.
a. journal bearing
c. both a. and b.
Explanation:
4) Meridonial velocity is the resultant of _____________

components of fluid velocity.

c. radial and axial
d. unpredictable
Explanation:
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5) _______________ components of fluid velocity have the
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responsibility of the transportation of fluid through the
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machine.
a. Radial
Engineering and tangential
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c. Radial and axial
Explanation:
6) In which turbine the pressure energy of water is first

converted into kinetic energy by means of nozzle kept
close to the runner?
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Both a. and b.
Explanation:
7) The pressure of water is atmospheric and remains

constant while passing over the runner in __________ .
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Both a. and b.

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Explanation: Custom Search
8) The energy of water entering the reaction turbine is
_______

d. unpredictable
ANSWER: partly the pressure energy and partly the kinetic

energy
Explanation:
9) Which of the following is an example of impulse

turbine?
b. Francis turbine
c. Kaplan turbine
d. Pelton wheel
Explanation:
10) The runner of __________ turbine always be under

pressure of above atmospheric
a. Turgo
b. Girand ▲
c. Kaplan
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ANSWER: Kaplan
Explanation:
11) The water from runner in reaction turbine is

discharged into tail race through a draft tube which has
____________ cross sectional area.
a. constant
d. uneven
Explanation:
12) __________ turbines are also called as parallel flow

turbine.
a. Radial flow
b. Axial flow
c. Both radial flow and axial flow
ANSWER: Axial flow
Explanation:
13) In which type of reaction turbine does the water flow

▲
in radial direction at the outer periphery of runner and leave
at the centre in the direction parallel to the axis of rotation
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of runner?
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a. Radial
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b. Axial MCA
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c. Mixed flow turbine
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Mixed flow turbine
Explanation:
14) What is the formula to calculate specific speed (Ns) of

a turbine rotating at a speed of 'N' rpm that develops the
power of 'P' kW at the heat of 'H' m?
a. (Ns) = (√N x P) x (H)(5/4)
b. (Ns) = (2 √N x P) x (H)(5/4)
c. (Ns) = (N √P) x (H)(5/4)
d. (Ns) = (2N √P) x (H)(5/4)
ANSWER: (Ns) = (N √P) x (H)(5/4)
Explanation:
15) Generally, the value of specific speed of Kaplan

turbine is _____________ that of the Pelton turbine.
a. lower than
b. higher than
c. same as
d. unpredictable
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ANSWER: higher than
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16) The passage of uniformly varying cross-section in

which the kinetic energy of steam increases at the expense
of its pressure is called as__________
a. steam turbine
b. steam nozzle
c. steam area
d. all of the above
Explanation:
17) How does the change in velocity of the steam in steam

nozzle take place? Select the correct graph in the diagram
below.
a. (1)
▲
b. (2)
c. (3)
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d. (4)
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ANSWER: (3)
Explanation:
18) The nozzle efficiency can be defined as the ratio of

Explanation:

3. Decrease in specific volume
4. Decrease in mass flow rate
a. (1), (2) and (3)

b. (2), (3) and (4)
c. (1), (3) and (4)
d. (1), (2) and (4)
ANSWER: (1), (2) and (4)
Explanation:
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20) The quality of vapour at the exit of nozzle ___________
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due to nozzle friction.
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a. increases
b. decreases
c. does not change
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: increases
Explanation:
21) Pump transfers the mechanical energy of a motor or

of an engine into _________ of a fluid.
a. pressure energy
b. kinetic energy
Explanation:
22) Which of the following is NOT a type of positive

displacement pumps?
c. Centrifugal pump

▲
Explanation:
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23) Rotary Reasoning pumps
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are suitable papers
for handling HR Current affairs
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a. oils
b. gritty liquids
ANSWER: oils
Explanation:
24) Which of the following is/are example/s of rotary

displacement pumps?
a. Gear pump
b. Vane pump
d. All of the above
Explanation:
a. Reciprocating
c. Centrifugal
d. Screw

▲
ANSWER: Centrifugal
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26) The mass flow rate of air compressed in axial flow
compressor is _____________centrifugal compressor.
a. lower than
b. higher than
c. same as
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: higher than
Explanation:
27) Which of the following is NOT a type of rotary

compressor?

b. Steady flow compressor
c. Both a. and b.
Explanation:
28) Which compressors are suitable for large volume flow

rates of above 1200 m3/min
b. Axial flow compressors
▲
c. Both a. and b.
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ANSWER: Axial flow compressors
Explanation:
29) The function of _________ is to convert high kinetic

energy of gases into pressure energy.
a. impeller
b. diffuser
c. casing
ANSWER: diffuser
Explanation:
30) How is the variation of air velocity while passing

through impeller followed by diffuser in centrifugal
compressor?
a. Air velocity goes no increasing in impeller followed by

diffuser
b. Air velocity goes no decreasing in impeller followed by
diffuser
c. Air velocity increases in impeller and then decreases in
diffuser
d. Air velocity decreases in impeller and then increases in
diffuser
ANSWER: Air velocity increases in impeller and then

decreases in diffuser ▲
Explanation:
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31) A Reasoning
pair of fixed blade andEnglish GD in axial
rotor blade Placement
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Engineering MCA is called
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_________. Login
a. step
b. pair
c. stage
d. state
ANSWER: stage
Explanation:
32) An axial flow compressors have _______.

Explanation:
a. Fixed
b. Moving
c. Both fixed and moving
ANSWER: Moving ▲
Explanation:
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34) The Reasoningof operation
basic principle English of
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the centrifugal compressor.
a. same as
ANSWER: same as
Explanation:
a. converging
b. diverging
c. constant
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: diverging
Explanation:
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1) Which component of fluid velocity is responsible for

transmission of power through rotodynamic machine?
a. Radial
b. Axial
c. Tangential
ANSWER: Tangential
Explanation:
2) What is the general energy equation for transfer of

energy between the fluid and machine?
Where,
Vw1 = Tangential component of the velocity of fluid at the
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Vw2 = Tangential component of the velocity of fluid at the
exit of the rotor
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u1 = Peripheral velocityOnline test
of fluid Login
at the entry of the rotor
u2 = Peripheral velocity of fluid at the exit of the rotor
ṁ = Flow rate of fluid
a. E = ṁ (Vw1 – Vw2) x (u1 – u2)

b. E = ṁ (Vw1 – Vw2) / (u1 – u2)
c. E = ṁ (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2)
d. E = ṁ (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2)2
Explanation:
a. compressor
b. turbine
c. pump
d. all of the above
ANSWER: turbine
Explanation:
4) Consider the below diagram of jet of water striking flat

stationary plate normal to jet. What will be the phase of
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a. negative
b. positive
c. zero
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: zero
Explanation:
5) Consider the following diagram of jet of water striking

flat stationary plate inclined at an angle θ. What will be the
phase of workdone on the plate?
a. negative
b. positive
c. zero
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d. unpredictable
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ANSWER: zero
Explanation:
6) What is the head of water available at turbine inlet in

hydro-electric power plant called?
a. head race
b. tail race
c. gross head
d. net head
ANSWER: net head
Explanation:

Explanation:
8) Which of the following hydraulic turbines has a

construction given in diagram below?
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a. Kaplan turbine
b. Francis turbine
c. Pelton turbine
Explanation:
a. maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden

increase in load on turbine
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b. minimum safe speed of the runner due to sudden
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increase in load on turbine
c. maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden

decrease in load on turbine
d. minimum safe speed of the runner due to sudden
ANSWER: maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to

sudden decrease in load on turbine
Explanation:
10) What is the formula for the velocity of water jet at the

inlet of turbine?
Where,
Cv = coefficient of velocity of jet
a. V = Cv √gH
b. V = 2 Cv √gH
c. V = Cv √2gH
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d. V = 2 Cv g √H Custom Search

Engineering MCAV = C
ANSWER: MBA
√2gH Online test Login
v
Explanation:
11) The gates of aerofoil section in between the outer and

inner ring of guide wheel are called as ________.
a. guide gates
b. guide vanes
c. scrolling gates
d. scrolling vanes
ANSWER: guide vanes
Explanation:
12) Which of the following components of reaction turbine

increases the head on the turbine by an amount equal to
the height of runner outlet above the tail race?
a. Scroll casing
b. Guide vanes
c. Moving vanes
d. Draft tube
ANSWER: Draft tube
Explanation:
13) As the reaction turbine works on the principle of
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impulse and reaction, it follows the law of ________.
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a. impulse
Interview momentum
b. angular
Engineering MCA momentum
MBA Online test Login
c. both a. and b.
Explanation:
14) In which type of turbine, the runner needs to be run

full of water?
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Both a. and b.
Explanation:

c. mostly due to change in pressure head and small amount
of work is due to change in kinetic energy
d. mostly due to change in kinetic energy and small amount
of work is due to change in pressure head
ANSWER: mostly due to change in pressure head and

small amount of work is due to change in kinetic energy
Prepare Practice
16) Consider the following (h-S) diagram of steam passing
through a nozzle. Which is the correct path followed by
steam when total friction loss occurs in divergent section.
Where,
a. 1 – 2 – 3
b. 1 – 2 – 3'
c. 1 – 2 – 3''
ANSWER: 1 – 2 – 3''
Explanation:
17) What is the relation between Velocity Coefficient (Cc)

and Nozzle efficiency (ηn)?
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a. Cc = (1/2) (ηn)
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b. Cc = √(ηn)
c. Cc = (ηn)2
d. Cc = (ηn)3
Explanation:
18) The ratio of actual mass flow rate (ṁa) to ideal mass

flow rate (ṁi) is called as________
a. nozzle coefficient
b. coefficient of nozzle friction
c. coefficient of discharge
d. coefficient of mass
ANSWER: coefficient of discharge
Explanation:
19) Which of the following sentences are correct for

steam turbine?
1. Steam turbine requires large floor area

4. Steam turbine has more initial cost and maintenance
cost
a. (1) and (2)

b. (2) and (3)
c. (3) and (4)
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d. (1) and (4)
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ANSWER: (2) and (3)
Explanation:
20) The blade speed ratio of impulse turbine is given as

___________

Explanation:
21) Discharge capacity of the reciprocating pump is

__________ that of the centrifugal pump.
a. higher than
b. lower than
c. same as
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: lower than
Explanation:
22) Which pump is more suitable for an application where

very high pressure is required to be developed at moderate
discharge?
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b. Centrifugal
Interview Aptitude pump
Reasoning English GD Placement papers HR Current affairs
c. Turbine
Explanation:
23) The process of filling the liquid into the suction pipe

and pump casing upto the level of delivery valve is called as
_________.
a. filling
b. pumping
c. priming
d. leveling
ANSWER: priming
Explanation:
24) The volute pumps and vortex volute pumps are

__________ pumps with _________ shaft.

Explanation:
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Interview Aptitudeof the

25) Which Reasoning English GD
following centrifugal Placement
pumps papers
has higher HR Current affairs
Engineering
specificMCA
speed MBA
than theOnline test
others? Login
a. Axial flow
b. Radial flow
c. Mixed flow
d. All have same specific speed
ANSWER: Axial flow
Explanation:
26) Angular momentum of gas in the free vortex of

vaneless diffuser ___________.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
Explanation:


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28) The diffuser blades are kept ______ the number of
impeller blades .
a. 1/10 th of
b. 1/3 rd of
c. 10 times
d. 3 times
ANSWER: 1/3 rd of
Explanation:
29) The ratio of actual whirl velocity to the ideal whirl

velocity in the centrifugal compressor is called as
_________.
a. velocity factor
b. slip factor
c. work factor
ANSWER: slip factor
Explanation:
30) What is the ratio of isentropic work to Euler work in an

centrifugal compressor called?
a. Work coefficient
b. Velocity coefficient
c. Pressure coefficient
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d. Flow coefficient
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ANSWER: Pressure coefficient
Explanation:
31) ___________ can be defined as the ratio of the pressure

rise in rotor blades to the pressure rise in stages in an axial
flow compressor.
c. Pressure ratio
d. Reaction ratio
Explanation:
32) What is the ratio of the actual work absorbed by an

axial flow compressor to the theoretical work called?

b. Workdone factor
c. Both a. and b.
Explanation:
33) What is the effect of increasing number of stages in
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axial flow compressor on the mean work input factor (Ψw)?
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Interview Aptitude
a. Mean Reasoning
work input English
factor (Ψw GD
) decreases Placement papers HR Current affairs
Engineering
b. MeanMCA MBA
work input Online test
factor Login
(Ψw) increases
d. Unpredictable
Explanation:
34) What is the formula for blade loading coefficient (Ψ)

for an axial flow compressor?
Where,
W = Workdone
Cf = Axial flow velocity
Cb = Blade velocity
a. Ψ = W / (Cf)2
b. Ψ = (Cf)2 / W
c. Ψ = W / (Cb)2
d. Ψ = (Cb)2 / W
Explanation:
35) What is the effect of increasing flow coefficient (Φ) in

an axial flow compressor on blade loading coefficient (Ψ)?
a. Blade loading coefficient (Ψ) increases
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b. Blade loading coefficient (Ψ) decreases
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c. Blade loading coefficient (Ψ) remains constant
d. Unpredictable
Engineering
Answer MCA MBA Related
Explanation Online test
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ANSWER: Blade loading coefficient (Ψ) decreases
Explanation:
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1 What is the relation between Velocity Coefficient (Cc) and Nozzle efficiency (ηn)?
A Cc = (1/2) (ηn)
B Cc = √(ηn)
C Cc = (ηn)2
D Cc = (ηn)3
View Answer
Answer: Cc = √(ηn)
2 The ratio of actual mass flow rate (ṁa) to ideal mass flow rate (ṁi) is called as________
A nozzle coefficient
B coefficient of nozzle friction
C coefficient of discharge
D coefficient of mass
View Answer
Answer: coefficient of discharge
3 The blade speed ratio of impulse turbine is given as ___________

A (Blade velocity) / (Steam velocity at inlet)
B (Blade velocity) / (Steam velocity at exit)
C (Steam velocity at inlet) / (Blade velocity)
D (Steam velocity at exit) / (Blade velocity)
View Answer
Answer: (Blade velocity) / (Steam velocity at inlet)
4 Discharge capacity of the reciprocating pump is __________ that of the centrifugal pump.
A higher than
B lower than
C same as
D unpredictable
View Answer
Answer: lower than

5 Which pump is more suitable for an application where very high pressure is required to be
developed at moderate discharge?
A Reciprocating pump
B Centrifugal pump
C Turbine
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: Reciprocating pump
6 The process of filling the liquid into the suction pipe and pump casing upto the level of delivery valve
is called as _________.
A filling
B pumping
C priming
D leveling
View Answer
Answer: priming
7 The volute pumps and vortex volute pumps are __________ pumps with _________ shaft.
A multistage, horizontal
B multistage, vertical
C single stage, horizontal
D single stage, vertical
View Answer
Answer: single stage, horizontal
8 Which of the following centrifugal pumps has higher specific speed than the others?
A Axial flow
B Radial flow
C Mixed flow
D All have same specific speed
View Answer
Answer: Axial flow
9 Angular momentum of gas in the free vortex of vaneless diffuser ___________.

A increases
B decreases
C remains constant
D becomes unpredictable
View Answer
Answer: remains constant
10 Vaneless diffusers are suitable for ___________.

A only low pressure rise
B only high pressure rise
C both low as well as high pressure rise
D None
View Answer
Answer: only low pressure rise
11 The diffuser blades are kept ______ the number of impeller blades .
A 1/10 th of
B 1/3 rd of
C 10 times
D 3 times
View Answer
Answer: 1/3 rd of
12 The ratio of actual whirl velocity to the ideal whirl velocity in the centrifugal compressor is called as
_________.
A velocity factor
B slip factor
C work factor
D none of the above

View Answer
Answer: slip factor
13 What is the ratio of isentropic work to Euler work in an centrifugal compressor called?
A Work coefficient
B Velocity coefficient
C Pressure coefficient
D Flow coefficient
View Answer
Answer: Pressure coefficient
14 ___________ can be defined as the ratio of the pressure rise in rotor blades to the pressure rise in
stages in an axial flow compressor.
A Degree of pressure
B Degree of reaction
C Pressure ratio
D Reaction ratio
View Answer
Answer: Degree of reaction
15 What is the ratio of the actual work absorbed by an axial flow compressor to the theoretical work
called?
A Work input factor
B Workdone factor
C Both a. and b.
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: Both a. and b.
16 What is the effect of increasing number of stages in axial flow compressor on the mean work input
factor (Ψw)?
A Mean work input factor (Ψw) decreases
B Mean work input factor (Ψw) increases
C Mean work input factor (Ψw) remains constant

D Unpredictable
View Answer
Answer: Mean work input factor (Ψw) decreases
17 What is the effect of increasing flow coefficient (Φ) in an axial flow compressor on blade loading
coefficient (Ψ)?
A Blade loading coefficient (Ψ) increases
B Blade loading coefficient (Ψ) decreases
C Blade loading coefficient (Ψ) remains constant
D Unpredictable
View Answer
Answer: Blade loading coefficient (Ψ) decreases
18 What is the formula for blade loading coefficient (Ψ) for an axial flow compressor? Where, W =
Workdone Cf = Axial flow velocity Cb = Blade velocity
A Ψ = W / (Cf)2
B Ψ = (Cf)2 / W
C Ψ = W / (Cb)2
D Ψ = (Cb)2 / W
View Answer
Answer: Ψ = W / (Cb)2
19 In reaction turbine work is done_______________.

A totally due to change in kinetic energy of jet
B totally due to change in pressure head
C mostly due to change in pressure head and small amount of work is due to change in kinetic energy
D mostly due to change in kinetic energy and small amount of work is due to change in pressure head
View Answer
Answer: mostly due to change in pressure head and small amount

of work is due to change in kinetic energy
20 In which type of turbine, the runner needs to be run full of water?

A Impulse turbine
B Reaction turbine
C Both a. and b.
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: Reaction turbine

21 The product of force (F) and time (t) is called as________.
A momentum
B work done
C impulse
D pressure
View Answer
Answer: impulse
22 What is the formula for forces exerted by fluid on a body?

A (Rate of momentum in) x (Rate of momentum out)
B (Rate of momentum in) – (Rate of momentum out)
C (Rate of momentum in) + (Rate of momentum out)
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: (Rate of momentum in) – (Rate of momentum out)
23 The radial force in rotodynamic machine, which is developed by rate of change of momentum in
radial velocity, is taken care by__________.
A journal bearing
B radial thrust bearing
C both a. and b.
D none of the above
View Answer
Answer: journal bearing
24 Meridonial velocity is the resultant of _____________ components of fluid velocity.

A radial and tangential
B tangential and axial
C radial and axial
D unpredictable
View Answer
Answer: radial and axial

25 _______________ components of fluid velocity have the responsibility of the transportation of
fluid through the machine.
A Radial and tangential
B Tangential and axial
C Radial and axial
D None of the existing
View Answer
Answer: Radial and axial
26 In which turbine the pressure energy of water is first converted into kinetic energy by means of
nozzle kept close to the runner?
A Impulse turbine
B Reaction turbine
C Both a. and b.
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: Impulse turbine
27 The pressure of water is atmospheric and remains constant while passing over the runner in
__________ .
A Impulse turbine
B Reaction turbine
C Both a. and b.
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: Impulse turbine
28 The energy of water entering the reaction turbine is _______

A fully the kinetic energy
B fully the pressure energy
C partly the pressure energy and partly the kinetic energy
D unpredictable
View Answer
Answer: partly the pressure energy and partly the kinetic energy
29 Which of the following is an example of impulse turbine?

A Propeller turbine
B Francis turbine
C Kaplan turbine
D Pelton wheel
View Answer
Answer: Pelton wheel
30 The runner of __________ turbine always be under pressure of above atmospheric

A Turgo
B Girand
C Kaplan
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: Kaplan
31 The water from runner in reaction turbine is discharged into tail race through a draft tube which
has ____________ cross sectional area.
A constant
B gradually decreasing
C gradually increasing
D uneven
View Answer
Answer: gradually increasing
32 __________ turbines are also called as parallel flow turbine.

A Radial flow
B Axial flow
C Both radial flow and axial flow
D None of the above

View Answer
Answer: Axial flow
33 In which type of reaction turbine does the water flow in radial direction at the outer periphery of
runner and leave at the centre in the direction parallel to the axis of rotation of runner?
A Radial flow turbine
B Axial flow turbine
C Mixed flow turbine
D All of the above
View Answer
Answer: Mixed flow turbine
34 What is the formula to calculate specific speed (Ns) of a turbine rotating at a speed of 'N' rpm that
develops the power of 'P' kW at the heat of 'H' m?
A (Ns) = (√N x P) x (H)(5/4)
B (Ns) = (2 √N x P) x (H)(5/4)
C (Ns) = (N √P) x (H)(5/4)
D (Ns) = (2N √P) x (H)(5/4)
View Answer
Answer: (Ns) = (N √P) x (H)(5/4)
35 Generally, the value of specific speed of Kaplan turbine is _____________ that of the Pelton
turbine.
A lower than
B higher than
C same as
D unpredictable
View Answer
Answer: higher than
36 The passage of uniformly varying cross-section in which the kinetic energy of steam increases at
the expense of its pressure is called as__________
A steam turbine
B steam nozzle
C steam area
D all of the above
View Answer
Answer: steam nozzle
37 The nozzle efficiency can be defined as the ratio of

A isentropic enthalpy drop to actual enthalpy drop
B actual enthalpy drop to isentropic enthalpy drop
C isothermal enthalpy drop to isentropic enthalpy drop
D isentropic enthalpy drop to isothermal enthalpy drop
View Answer
Answer: actual enthalpy drop to isentropic enthalpy drop
38 The quality of vapour at the exit of nozzle ___________ due to nozzle friction.
A increases
B decreases
C does not change
D unpredictable
View Answer
Answer: increases
39 Pump transfers the mechanical energy of a motor or of an engine into _________ of a fluid.
A pressure energy
B kinetic energy
C either pressure energy or kinetic energy
D pressure energy, kinetic energy or both
View Answer
Answer: pressure energy, kinetic energy or both
40 Which of the following is NOT a type of positive displacement pumps?

A Reciprocating pump
B Rotary displacement pump

C Centrifugal pump
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: Centrifugal pump

41 Rotary displacement pumps are suitable for handling ________.
A oils
B gritty liquids
C both oils as well as gritty liquids
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: oils
42 Which of the following is/are example/s of rotary displacement pumps?

A Gear pump
B Vane pump
C Rotary piston pump
D All of the above
View Answer
Answer: All of the above
43 ___________ pump is also called as velocity pump.

A Reciprocating
B Rotary displacement
C Centrifugal
D Screw
View Answer
Answer: Centrifugal
44 The mass flow rate of air compressed in axial flow compressor is _____________centrifugal
compressor.
A lower than
B higher than
C same as
D unpredictable
View Answer
Answer: higher than

45 Which of the following is NOT a type of rotary compressor?
A Positive displacement type of compressor
B Steady flow compressor
C Both a. and b
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: None of the above
46 Which compressors are suitable for large volume flow rates of above 1200 m3/min
A Centrifugal compressors
B Axial flow compressors
C Both a. and b.
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: Axial flow compressors
47 The function of _________ is to convert high kinetic energy of gases into pressure energy.
A impeller
B diffuser
C casing
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: diffuser
48 How is the variation of air velocity while passing through impeller followed by diffuser in
centrifugal compressor?
A Air velocity goes no increasing in impeller followed by diffuser
B Air velocity goes no decreasing in impeller followed by diffuser
C Air velocity increases in impeller and then decreases in diffuser
D Air velocity decreases in impeller and then increases in diffuser
View Answer
Answer: Air velocity increases in impeller and then decreases in
diffuser
49 A pair of fixed blade and rotor blade in axial flow compressor is called as _________.
A step
B pair
C stage
D state
View Answer
Answer: stage
50 An axial flow compressors have _______.

A a drum type rotor
B a disc type rotor
C a drum type rotor or a disc type rotor
D none of the above
View Answer
Answer: a drum type rotor or a disc type rotor
51 ________ blades are attached to the rotor or spindle.

A Fixed
B Moving
C Both fixed and moving
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: Moving
52 The blade passages in a compressor are ________

A converging
B diverging
C constant
D unpredictable
View Answer
Answer: diverging
53 Which component of fluid velocity is responsible for transmission of power through rotodynamic
machine?
A Radial
B Axial
C Tangential
D None of the above
View Answer
Answer: Tangential
54 If (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2), then machine is called as________.

A compressor
B turbine
C pump
D all of the above
View Answer
Answer: turbine
55 What is the head of water available at turbine inlet in hydro-electric power plant called?
A head race
B tail race
C gross head
D net head
View Answer
Answer: net head
56 Gross head is the difference between __________.

A head race and tail race
B head race and net head
C head race and friction losses
D net head and friction losses

View Answer
Answer: head race and tail race
57 What is runaway speed of the runner of Pelton wheel?

A maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden increase in load on turbine
B minimum safe speed of the runner due to sudden increase in load on turbine
C maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden decrease in load on turbine
D minimum safe speed of the runner due to sudden decrease in load on turbine
View Answer
Answer: maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden

58 The gates of aerofoil section in between the outer and inner ring of guide wheel are called as
________.
A guide gates
B guide vanes
C scrolling gates
D scrolling vanes
View Answer
Answer: guide vanes
59 Which of the following components of reaction turbine increases the head on the turbine by an
amount equal to the height of runner outlet above the tail race?
A Scroll casing
B Guide vanes
C Moving vanes
D Draft tube
View Answer
Answer: Draft tube
60 As the reaction turbine works on the principle of impulse and reaction, it follows the law of
________.
A impulse momentum
B angular momentum
C both a. and b.
D none of the above
View Answer
Answer: angular momentum




a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Both a. and b.


c. Both a. and b.

pumps?
a. Gear pump
b. Vane pump
d. All of the above

pumps?
c. Centrifugal pump

b. Francis turbine
c. Kaplan turbine
d. Pelton wheel

a. momentum
b. work done
c. impulse
d. pressure
ANSWER: impulse
1


b. Francis turbine
c. Kaplan turbine
d. Pelton wheel
2) Consider the below diagram of jet of water striking flat stationary

plate normal to jet. What will be the phase of workdone on the plate?
a. negative
b. positive
c. zero
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: zero


a. (1), (2) and (3)

b. (2), (3) and (4)
c. (1), (3) and (4)
d. (1), (2) and (4)
ANSWER: (1), (2) and (4)

above atmospheric
a. Turgo
b. Girand
c. Kaplan
ANSWER: Kaplan
6) Which of the following centrifugal pumps has higher specific speed

than the others?
a. Axial flow
b. Radial flow
c. Mixed flow
ANSWER: Axial flow


8) The radial force in rotodynamic machine, which is developed by rate

of change of momentum in radial velocity, is taken care by__________.
a. journal bearing
c. both a. and b.
9) A pair of fixed blade and rotor blade in axial flow compressor is

called as _________.
a. step
b. pair
c. stage
d. state
ANSWER: stage


1 2 3 4 56 7


a. Fixed
b. Moving
ANSWER: Moving
12) The basic principle of operation of axial flow compressor is

_______that of the centrifugal compressor.
a. same as
ANSWER: same as

a. converging
b. diverging
c. constant
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: diverging
14) ___________ can be defined as the ratio of the pressure rise in

rotor blades to the pressure rise in stages in an axial flow compressor.
c. Pressure ratio
d. Reaction ratio
15) What is the ratio of the actual work absorbed by an axial flow
compressor to the theoretical work called?

b. Workdone factor
c. Both a. and b.


d. Unpredictable
17) What is the formula for blade loading coefficient (Ψ) for an axial
flow compressor?
Where,
W = Workdone
Cb = Blade velocity
a. Ψ = W / (Cf)2
b. Ψ = (Cf)2 / W
c. Ψ = W / (Cb)2
d. Ψ = (Cb)2 / W

d. Unpredictable
19) The mass flow rate of air compressed in axial flow compressor is
_____________centrifugal compressor.
a. lower than
b. higher than
c. same as
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: higher than


c. Both a. and b.
1 23 45 67


21) Which compressors are suitable for large volume flow rates of
above 1200 m3/min
c. Both a. and b.
22) The function of _________ is to convert high kinetic energy of

gases into pressure energy.
a. impeller
b. diffuser
c. casing
ANSWER: diffuser
23) How is the variation of air velocity while passing through impeller
followed by diffuser in centrifugal compressor?


24) Angular momentum of gas in the free vortex of vaneless diffuser
___________.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant


a. 1/10 th of
b. 1/3 rd of
c. 10 times
d. 3 times
ANSWER: 1/3 rd of
27) The ratio of actual whirl velocity to the ideal whirl velocity in the
centrifugal compressor is called as _________.
a. velocity factor
b. slip factor
c. work factor
ANSWER: slip factor
28) What is the ratio of isentropic work to Euler work in an centrifugal

compressor called?
a. Work coefficient
d. Flow coefficient

a. pressure energy
b. kinetic energy

pumps?
c. Centrifugal pump
1 2 3 4 56 7


a. oils
b. gritty liquids
ANSWER: oils

pumps?
a. Gear pump
b. Vane pump
d. All of the above

a. Reciprocating
c. Centrifugal
d. Screw
ANSWER: Centrifugal
34) Discharge capacity of the reciprocating pump is __________ that of
the centrifugal pump.
a. higher than
b. lower than
c. same as
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: lower than
35) Which pump is more suitable for an application where very high
pressure is required to be developed at moderate discharge?
b. Centrifugal pump
c. Turbine
36) The process of filling the liquid into the suction pipe and pump
casing upto the level of delivery valve is called as _________.
a. filling
b. pumping
c. priming
d. leveling
ANSWER: priming
38) The passage of uniformly varying cross-section in which the kinetic

as__________
a. steam turbine
b. steam nozzle
c. steam area
d. all of the above
39) How does the change in velocity of the steam in steam nozzle take
place? Select the correct graph in the diagram below.
a. (1)
b. (2)
c. (3)
d. (4)
ANSWER: (3)


1 2 3 4 56 7

41) The quality of vapour at the exit of nozzle ___________ due to
nozzle friction.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. does not change
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: increases
42) Consider the following (h-S) diagram of steam passing through a

nozzle. Which is the correct path followed by steam when total friction
loss occurs in divergent section.
Where,
a. 1 – 2 – 3
b. 1 – 2 – 3'
c. 1 – 2 – 3''
ANSWER: 1 – 2 – 3''
43) What is the relation between Velocity Coefficient (C c) and Nozzle

efficiency (ηn)?
a. Cc = (1/2) (ηn)
b. Cc = √(ηn)
c. Cc = (ηn)2
d. Cc = (ηn)3
44) The ratio of actual mass flow rate (ṁa) to ideal mass flow rate (ṁi) is
called as________

a. (1) and (2)
b. (2) and (3)
c. (3) and (4)
d. (1) and (4)
ANSWER: (2) and (3)
46) Generally, the value of specific speed of Kaplan turbine is

_____________ that of the Pelton turbine.
a. lower than
b. higher than
c. same as
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: higher than
47) The water from runner in reaction turbine is discharged into tail
race through a draft tube which has ____________ cross sectional area.
a. constant
d. uneven

a. Radial flow
b. Axial flow
ANSWER: Axial flow

d. All of the above

heat of 'H' m?
a. (Ns) = (√N x P) x (H)(5/4)

b. (Ns) = (2 √N x P) x (H)(5/4)
c. (Ns) = (N √P) x (H)(5/4)
d. (Ns) = (2N √P) x (H)(5/4)
ANSWER: (Ns) = (N √P) x (H)(5/4)
1 2 3 4 56 7


51) The gates of aerofoil section in between the outer and inner ring of
guide wheel are called as ________.
a. guide gates
b. guide vanes
c. scrolling gates
d. scrolling vanes
ANSWER: guide vanes
52) Which of the following components of reaction turbine increases

the head on the turbine by an amount equal to the height of runner
outlet above the tail race?
a. Scroll casing
b. Guide vanes
c. Moving vanes
d. Draft tube
ANSWER: Draft tube
53) As the reaction turbine works on the principle of impulse and

reaction, it follows the law of ________.
a. impulse momentum
b. angular momentum
c. both a. and b.
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Both a. and b.


c. mostly due to change in pressure head and small amount of work is due to
change in kinetic energy
d. mostly due to change in kinetic energy and small amount of work is due to
change in pressure head
ANSWER: mostly due to change in pressure head and small amount of work
is due to change in kinetic energy
56) In which turbine the pressure energy of water is first converted into
kinetic energy by means of nozzle kept close to the runner?
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Both a. and b.
57) The pressure of water is atmospheric and remains constant while

passing over the runner in __________ .
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Both a. and b.


d. unpredictable
59) What is the head of water available at turbine inlet in hydro-electric

power plant called?
a. head race
b. tail race
c. gross head
d. net head
ANSWER: net head
60) Which of the following hydraulic turbines has a construction given

in diagram below?
a. Kaplan turbine
b. Francis turbine
c. Pelton turbine
1 2 3 4 56 7


turbine
turbine
turbine
turbine

load on turbine
62) What is the formula for the velocity of water jet at the inlet of
turbine?
Where,
a. V = Cv √gH
b. V = 2 Cv √gH
c. V = Cv √2gH
d. V = 2 Cv g √H
a. momentum
b. work done
c. impulse
d. pressure
ANSWER: impulse


65) Meridonial velocity is the resultant of _____________ components

of fluid velocity.

c. radial and axial
d. unpredictable
66) _______________ components of fluid velocity have the

responsibility of the transportation of fluid through the machine.

c. Radial and axial
67) Which component of fluid velocity is responsible for transmission

of power through rotodynamic machine?
a. Radial
b. Axial
c. Tangential
ANSWER: Tangential
Where,
rotor
a. E = ṁ (Vw1 – Vw2) x (u1 – u2)

b. E = ṁ (Vw1 – Vw2) / (u1 – u2)
c. E = ṁ (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2)
d. E = ṁ (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2)2

a. compressor
b. turbine
c. pump
d. all of the above
ANSWER: turbine
70) Consider the following diagram of jet of water striking flat

stationary plate inclined at an angle θ. What will be the phase of
a. negative
b. positive
c. zero
d. unpredictable
ANSWER: zero
1 2 3 4 56 7
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Part 6: List for ques ons and answers of Turbo Machines Workshop Technology 8
Q1.Maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air compressor is of

the order of ALL PAPERS
a) 6 KSC
b) 10 KSC Select Category
c) 16 KSC
d) 25 KSC
Q2.Efficiency of gas turbine is increased by

a) Rehea ng
b) Intercooling
c) Adding a regenerator
d) All of the above
Q3Most serious energy loss in reac on steam turbine

a) Steam leakage between diaphragm and sha
b) Leakage over blade ends through radia clearance passages
c) Fric onal resistance between steam and nozzle side
d) Impact loss as steam enters moving blades
Q4.Basic closed cycle for gas turbine is

a) Carnot cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Brayton cycle
Q5.The work ra o of closed cycle gas turbine plant with fixed top
temperature of the cycle and fixed pressure ra o rp
a) Increases with increase in an inlet temperature to compressor
b) Increases with decrease in an inlet temperature to compressor

c) Remain same irrespec ve of inlet temperature to compressor
Q6.Thermal efficiency of closed cycle gas turbine plant increases

by
a) Rehea ng
b) Intercooling
c) Regenerator
d) All of the above
Q7.With increase in pressure ra o, thermal efficiency of a simple

gas turbine plant with fixed turbine inlet temperature
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) First increases and then decreases
Q8.With ideal regenera ve heat exchanger, the thermal efficiency

of gas turbine cycle is
a) Equal to work ra o
b) Is less than work ra o
c) Is more than work ra o
Q9.In a two stage gas turbine plant rehea ng a er first stage

a) Increases thermal efficiency
b) Decreases thermal efficiency
c) Doses not affect thermal efficiency
Q10.In a two stage gas turbine plant, rehea ng a er first stage

a) Increases work ra o
b) Decreases work ra o
c) Does not affect work ra o
Q11.For a jet prepulsion unit, ideally the compressor work and

turbine work are
a) Unequal
b) Equal
c) Not related to each other
Q12.Greater the difference between jet velocity and aeroplane

velocity
a) Greater the propulsive efficiency
b) Lesser the propulsive efficiency
c) Unaffected is the propulsive efficiency

Q13.What is the head of water available at turbine inlet in hydro-

electric power plant called?
a) Head race
b) Tail race
c) Gross head
d) Net head
Q14.Gross head is the difference between _________

a) Head race and tail race
b) Head race and net head
c) Head race and fric on losses
d) Net head and fric on losses
Q15.What is runaway speed of the runner of Pelton wheel?

a) Maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden increase in
load on turbine
b) Minimum safe speed of the runner due to sudden increase in
load on turbine
c) Maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden decrease in
load on turbine
d) Minimum safe speed of the runner due to sudden decrease in
load on turbine
Q16.The gates of aerofoil sec on in between the outer and inner

ring of guide wheel are called as ________
a) Guide gates
b) Guide vanes
c) Scrolling gates
d) Scrolling vanes
Q17.Which of the following components of reac on turbine

increases the head on the turbine by an amount equal to the
height of runner outlet above the tail race?
a) Scroll casing
b) Guide vanes
c) Moving vanes
d) Dra tube
Q18.In which type of turbine, the runner needs to be run full of

water?
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reac on turbine
c) Both a. And b.
Q19.As the reac on turbine works on the principle of impulse and

reac on, it follows the law of _______
a) Impulse momentum
b) Angular momentum
c) Both a. And b.
Q20.Discharge capacity of the reciproca ng pump is __________

that of the centrifugal pump
a) Higher than
b) Lower than
c) Same as
d) Unpredictable
Q1. Answer: c
Q2. Answer: d
Q3. Answer: d
Q4. Answer: c
Q5. Answer: b
Q6. Answer: d
Q7. Answer: c
Q8. Answer: a
Q9. Answer: b
Q10. Answer: a
Q11. Answer: b
Q12. Answer: b
Q13. Answer: d
Q14. Answer: a
Q15. Answer: c
Q16. Answer: b
Q17. Answer: d
Q18. Answer: b
Q19. Answer: b
Q20. Answer: b
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Q1.When working substance is released through nozzles, the

direc on of reac on will be ALL PAPERS
a) Clockwise
b) Counter clockwise Select Category
c) Either of (A) and (B) above
d) Direc on depends on other design features
Q2.In a velocity compounded steam turbine, as steam moves

along moving and guide blades
a) Pressure is low and velocity gradually decreases
b) Pressure gradually increases and velocity is low
c) Both pressure and velocity gradually decrease
d) Both pressure and velocity gradually increase
Q3.The effect of blade fric on in a steam turbine is to

a) Reheat the steam
b) Increase the specific output
c) Reduce exhaust pressure
d) Reduce work done
Q4.If stage efficiency is S, blade efficiency is B and nozzle

efficiency in N, then
a) N = B.S
b) S = B.N
c) B = SN
d) BSN = 1
Q5.Bleeding in steam turbine refers to

a) Leakage of steam through bearings
b) Leakage of steam through packings
c) Purposely withdrawn steam for process applica on
d) Purposely withdrawn for feed water hea ng
Q6.Cri cal pressure for steam is

a) 185.85 kg/cm^2
b) 212.55 kg/cm^2
c) 225.65 kg/cm^2
d) 245.55 kg/cm^2
Q7.An ideal fluid for vapour turbine cycle should have

a) High cri cal temperature with low pressure
b) High cri cal temperature with high pressure
c) Low cri cal temperature with high pressure
d) Low cri cal temperature with low pressure
Q8.Which of the following fluid can be used in binary vapour

cycle?
a) Mercury
b) Diphenyl oxide
c) Aluminium bromide
d) Any of the above
Q9.Which of the following loss in steam turbines is negligible?

a) Residual velocity loss
b) Leakage loss
c) Mechanical fric on loss
d) Radia on loss
Q10.Which of the following is the least efficient method of

governing steam turbines?
a) Nozzle control governing
b) Thro le governing
c) Bypass governing
d) Combined thro le and nozzle governing
Q11.Ljungstrom steam turbine is a

d) Any of the above
Q12.In a modern steam turbine, the steam rte is nearly

a) 1 kg/kwhr
b) 2 kg/kwhr
c) 4 kg/kwhr
d) 8 kg/kwhr
Q13.Which of the following rotary compressor has two sha s?

a) Axial flow compressor
b) Sliding vane compressor
c) Centrifugal compressor
d) Lobe type compressor
Q14.The ra o of outlet whirl velocity to blade velocity in case of

centrifugal compressor is called
a) Slip factor
b) Velocity ra o
c) Blade efficiency
d) Diagram efficiency
Q15.The following property is the most important for material

used for gas turbine blades
a) Fa gue
b) Strength against bending
c) Group
d) Strength against direct force
Q16.Which of the following is the smallest and lighest for

genera ng a given amount of power
a) Steam power plant
b) Petrol engine
c) Diesel engine
d) Gas turbine plant
Q17.Generally, steam turbines in power sta ons operate at

a) 3000 rpm
b) 1500 rpm
c) 1000 rpm
d) 375 rpm
Q18.For gas turbine, compressors used are

a) Reciproca ng type
b) Centrifugal type
c) Axial flow type
d) Lobe type
Q19.De Laval turbine is used for applica ons requiring

a) High power, high speed
b) High power, low speed
c) Low power, high speed
d) Low power, low speed
Q20.As a result of blade fric on, the outlet rela ve velocity of

impulse turbine compared to inlet rela ve velocity is
a) Nearly same
b) 2% less
c) 10% – 15% less
d) 30% less
Q1. Answer: a
Q2. Answer: a
Q3. Answer: d
Q4. Answer: b
Q5. Answer: d
Q6. Answer: c
Q7. Answer: a
Q8. Answer: d
Q9. Answer: d
Q10. Answer: b
Q11. Answer: a
Q12. Answer: c
Q13. Answer: d
Q14. Answer: d
Q15. Answer: c
Q16. Answer: d
Q17. Answer: a
Q18. Answer: c
Q19. Answer: c
Q20. Answer: c
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Q1.Normal standard of compression for rotary compressor is

a) Adiaba c compression ALL PAPERS
b) Polytropic compression
c) Isentropic compression Select Category
d) Constant pressure compression
Q2.Though there is no cyclic varia ons even then rotary

compressors need precise
balancing because
a) It is bulky in size
b) Cooling arrangement does not exist
c) Opera ng speeds are too high
d) It is driven by an electric motor
Q3.In air compressor performance curve a surge line represents

a) Limits of compressor discharge
b) Limit of compressor efficiency
c) Limit of stable opera on
d) Lower cri cal speed of sha
Q4.Cur s turbine is
a) In impulse turbine
b) A velocity compounded turbine
c) A pressure compounded turbine
d) A velocity pressure compounded turbine
Q5.The source of power for driving a turbocharger is

a) Kine c energy of exhaust gases from the engine
b) Chemical energy of exhaust gases

c) Air motor
d) Electric motor
Q6.Maximum delivery pressure in case of rotary compressors is

usually restricted to
a) 2 atmospheres
b) 5 atmospheres
c) 10 atmospheres
d) 20 atmospheres
Q7.Which of the following is a displacement compressors?

a) Reciproca ng air compressor
b) Vane blower
c) Centrifugal blower
d) Axial flow compressors
Q8.Which type of rotary compressor is used in oil fired furnaces?

a) Sliding vane type blower
b) Screw compressor
d) Centrifugal blower
Q9.In rotary compressors, slip factor is the ra o of

a) Stagna on pressure to sta c pressure
b) Isentropic work done to actual work
c) Outlet whirl velocity to the blade velocity
Q10.In rotary compressors, the ra o of isentropic work to Euler’s

work is known as
a) Slip factor
b) Work factor
c) Pressure coefficient
d) Degree of reac on
Q11.Stalling of the blades of axial flow compressor is

a) An unsteady periodic and reversal of flow
b) The fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ra o
c) The reduc on in li force at higher angle of incidence
Q12.Surging is
a) An unsteady, periodic and reversal of flow in the compressor
b) The fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ra o
c) The reduc on in li force at higher angles of incidence
Q13.Choking is
a) Varia on of mass flow rate in propor on to pressure ra o
b) Varia on of mass flow rate in inverse propor on to pressure
ra o
c) Fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ra o
Q14.Gas turbines are taken to

a) The gasoline and diesel engines in its working medium
b) The petrol and diesel engines in its internal combus on
c) The steam turbine in its aspect of steady flow of the working
medium
d) All of the above
Q15.Which gas turbine has lest weight per bhp developed?

a) Simple open cycle gas turbine
b) Open cycle gas turbine with intercooling and rehea ng
c) Open cycle gas turbine with intercooling, rehea ng and
regenera on
Q16.In gas turbines, intercooling results in

a) Decrease in net output as well as thermal efficiency
b) Decrease in net output and increase in thermal efficiency
c) Increase in net output but decrease in thermal efficiency
d) Increase in net output as well as thermal efficiency
Q17.Working medium for closed cycle gas turbine should have

a) High molecular weight
b) Low specific volume
c) Higher adiaba c index
d) Lower specific speed
Q18.The advantage of closed cycle gas turbine over open cycle gas
turbine is
a) No contamina on of working substance with combus on gases
b) Inferior quality fuel can be used
c) Low maintenance costs
d) All of the above
Q19.The range of compression ra o in a gas turbine is

a) 3 to 6
b) 5 to 8
c) 8 to 12
d) 12 to 22
Q20.A constant volume combus on gas turbine operates on

a) Ericsson cycle
b) Brayton cycle
c) Joule cycle
d) Atkinson cycle
Q1. Answer: c
Q2. Answer: c
Q3. Answer: c
Q4. Answer: d
Q5. Answer: a
Q6. Answer:
Q7. Answer: b
Q8. Answer: d
Q9. Answer: c
Q10. Answer: c
Q11. Answer: c
Q12. Answer: a
Q13. Answer: c
Q14. Answer: d
Q15. Answer: a
Q16. Answer: d
Q17. Answer: c
Q18. Answer: d
Q19. Answer: b
Q20. Answer: d
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Mechanical Engineering MCQ Question Papers: DRDO, ISRO, Interview Manufacturing Technology 5
Q1.The flow on two sides of a normal shock wave is
a) Subsonic
b) Sonic Workshop Technology 8
c) Supersonic
d) Supersonic on one side and subsonic on the other side
Q2.The diverging por on of the nozzle acts as a diffuser for
a) The subsonic flow
b) The supersonic flow
c) Both the subsonic as well as supersonic flow
Q3.A diffuser
a) Converts kine c energy into thermal energy
b) Converts poten al energy into kine c energy
c) Converts pressure energy into kine c energy
d) Converts thermal energy into kine c energy
Q4.Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciproca ng engines even for same compression ra o and work
output because ALL PAPERS
a) O o cycle is more efficient
b) Brayton cycle is less efficient Select Category
c) Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only
d) Large volume of low pressure gas cannot be efficiently handled in reciproca ng
engines
Q5.Actual gas turbine cycle is different from ideal cycle because

a) Of internal irreversibility of the process due to fric on, turbulence, etc
b) Of varia on of specific heats with temperature
c) Of losses due to incomplete combus on
d) All of the above
Q6.The advantage of a gas turbine over a reciproca ng engine is

a) Perfect balancing of rotor
b) Con nuous and uniform power
c) Usually small working pressures
d) All of the above
Q7.Overall efficiency of a gas turbine is

a) Equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
b) Equal to Carnot cycle efficiency
c) Less than Diesel cycle efficiency
d) More than O o or Diesel cycle efficiency
Q8.Air fuel ra o for a gas turbine is closer to

a) 10 ; 1
b) 15 ; 1
c) 20 ; 1
d) 60 ; 1
Q9.Which of the following is a posi ve displacement rotory compressor?

a) Roots blower
b) Centrifugal compressor
d) All of the above
Q10.All of the following are posi ve displacement compressors EXCEPT

a) Screw compressor
b) Axial flow compressor
c) Roots blower
d) Vane blower
Q11.For efficient opera on of axial flow compressors the blades are made
a) Straight
b) Slightly curved
c) Aerofoil sec on
d) Forward curved
Q12.Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine is in the range

a) 50 to 60 percent
b) 40 to 50 percent
c) 30 to 40 percent
d) 20 to 30 percent
Q13.The efficiency of a simple open cycle gas turbine depends upon

a) Pressure ra o
b) Compressor efficiency
c) Turbine inlet temperature
d) All of the above
Q14.Which of the following steam turbine has iden cal fixed and moving blades?
a) Cur s turbine
b) Rateau turbine
c) Parson’s turbine
Q15.Which of the following is a pressure compounded turbine?

a) Parson’s turbine
b) Cur s turbine
c) Rateau turbine
d) All of the above
Q16.The con nuity equa on in compressible fluids is derived on the basis of

a) Conserva on of momentum
b) Conserva on of energy
c) Conserva on of mass
d) Conserva on of velocity head
Q17.As there is plenty of me for heat transfer across the walls, the flow in long pipes at low
veloci es a ains
a) Isentropic condi ons
b) Adiaba c condi ons
c) Isothermal condi ons
d) Polytropic condi ons
Q18.In a hot wire anemometer the rate of heat loss from sensing element is a func on of
a) Pressure
b) Mass rate of flow
c) Velocity of flow
Q19.The normal shock wave in compressible flow is analogous to

a) Surges in open channel
b) Vortex forma on in centrifugal pump
c) Hydraulic bore in dal rivers
d) Hydraulic jump in channel flow
Q20.A roots blower compresses 0.06 cubic metres of air from 1.0 bar to 1.45 bar per revolu on. The
compressor efficiency is nearly
a) 99%
b) 87%
c) 75%
d) 63%
Q1. Answer: d
Q2. Answer: a
Q3. Answer: a
Q4. Answer: d
Q5. Answer: d
Q6. Answer: d
Q7. Answer: c
Q8. Answer: d
Q9. Answer: a
Q10. Answer: b
Q11. Answer: c
Q12. Answer: c
Q13. Answer: d
Q14. Answer: c
Q15. Answer: c
Q16. Answer: c
Q17. Answer: c
Q18. Answer: c
Q19. Answer: d
Q20. Answer: b
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Q1.Which of the following preferred for supercharging of internal combus on engines?
a) Roots blower
b) Axial flow compressor Workshop Technology 8
c) Sliding vane type compressor
d) Reciproca ng compressor ALL PAPERS
Q2.In an axial flow compressor, the pressure rise occurs in
a) Fixed blades only Select Category
b) Moving blades only
c) Both fixed and moving blades
Q3.An axial flow compressor has

a) Larger blades at gas entry and smaller blades at exit
b) Smaller blades at gas entry and larger blades at exit
c) Iden cal blades at exit as well as entry
d) Size of blades remains same only angles changes
Q4.An axial flow compressor is suitable for

a) High volume flow rates with a small pressure rise
b) High volume flow rates with high pressure rise
c) Low volume flow rates with low pressure rise
d) Low volume flow rates with high pressure rise
Q5.In a gas turbine cycle regenerator is used to

a) Heat the gases coming out of combus on chamber
b) Heat fuel supplied to combus on chamber
c) Heat air supplied to combus on chamber
d) Heat exhaust gases released from low pressure turbine
Q6.A regenerator can be used on

a) Open cycle gas turbines only
b) Closed cycle gas turbines only
c) Both open as well as closed cycle gas turbines
Q7.Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle can be improved by

a) Rehea ng between expansion stage
b) Intercooling between compression stages
c) Regenera on
d) Any of the above
Q8.Gas turbine used in aircra is of

a) Open cycle type
b) Closed cycle type with rehea ng
c) Closed cycle type with rehea ng and regenera on and intercooling
d) Open cycle type with rehea ng, regenera on and intercooling
Q9.A diffuser is used to

a) Increase velocity and decrease pressure
b) Increase velocity as well as pressure
c) Decrease velocity and increase pressure
d) Decrease velocity as well as pressure
Q10.In which of the following heat exchanger, heat is extracted from air?
a) Regenerator
b) Reheater
c) Intercooler
d) All of the above
Q11.Which component of a gas turbine consumes maximum power?

a) Starter
b) Regenerator
c) Compressor
d) Combus on chamber
Q12.In which of the following plant inferior quality fuel can be used?
a) Open cycle gas turbine with regenera on
b) Open cycle gas turbine with intercooling
c) Open cycle gas turbine with rehea ng and regenera on
Q13.In a rehea ng gas turbine cycle, rehea ng is done

a) By gases from turbine exhaust
b) By gases from intercooler
c) In separate combus on chamber
d) Any of the above
Q14.In a gas turbine combined cycle plant, a waste heat boiler is used to
a) Heat air from intercooler
b) Gases from regenerator
c) Recover heat form exhaust gases
Q15.A control volume has an inlet area of 0.1 m^2 and exit area of 0.05 m^2. The density is 3.89
kg/m^2 and constant. If the inlet velocity is 30 m/s, the force on the control volume will be
a) 50 N
b) 150 N
c) 250 N
d) 350 N
Q16.Under standard atmospheric condi on, the velocity of air is

a) 236 m/s
b) 336 m/s
c) 436 m/s
d) 536 m/s
Q17.The ra o of actual velocity to the local velocity of sound is called

a) Velocity ra o
b) Velocity factor
c) Speed ra o
d) Mach number
Q18.In a nozzle, once the cri cal condi ons are achieved at the throat, than which of the following
remains constant:
a) Density of fluid
b) Velocity of fluid
c) Flow rate
d) All of the above
Q19.In a nozzle under choked flow condi ons pressure waves travel, in the divergent por on, at
a) Subsonic speed
b) Sonic speed
c) Supersonic speed
d) Subsonic to supersonic speed
Q20.In a nozzle if back pressure is equal to inlet pressure

a) No flow occurs
b) Maximum flow occurs
c) Flow is subsonic in diverging sec on
d) Flow is supersonic in converging as well as supersonic sec ons
Q1. Answer: a
Q2. Answer: c
Q3. Answer: a
Q4. Answer: a
Q5. Answer: c
Q6. Answer: c
Q7. Answer: d
Q8. Answer: a
Q9. Answer: c
Q10. Answer: c
Q11. Answer: c
Q12. Answer: d
Q13. Answer: c
Q14. Answer: c
Q15. Answer: d
Q16. Answer: b
Q17. Answer: d
Q18. Answer: d
Q19. Answer: b
Q20. Answer: a
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Turbo Machines 1
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Lets Crack Online Exam Manufacturing Technology 6
Q1.The product of force (F) and me (t) is called as________
a) Momentum
b) Work done Manufacturing Technology 3
c) Impulse
d) Pressure
Q2.What is the formula for forces exerted by fluid on a body?
Workshop Technology 8
a) (Rate of momentum in) x (Rate of momentum out)
b) (Rate of momentum in) – (Rate of momentum out)
c) (Rate of momentum in) + (Rate of momentum out)
Q3.The radial force in rot dynamic machine, which is developed by rate of

change of momentum in radial velocity, is taken care by__________
a) Journal bearing
b) Radial thrust bearing
c) Both a. And b
Q4.Meridonial velocity is the resultant of _____________ components of Ad amazon.in M

fluid velocity
b) Tangen al and axial ALL PAPERS
c) Radial and axial
d) Unpredictable Select Category
Q5._______________ components of fluid velocity have the responsibility

of the
transporta on of fluid through the machine
c) Radial and axial
d) None of the exis ng
Q6.In which turbine the pressure energy of water is first converted into
kine c energy by means of nozzle kept close to the runner?
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reac on turbine
c) Both a. And b
Q7.The pressure of water is atmospheric and remains constant while

passing over the runner in __________
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reac on turbine
c) Both a. And b
Q8.The energy of water entering the reac on turbine is _______

a) Fully the kine c energy
b) Fully the pressure energy
c) Partly the pressure energy and partly the kine c energy
d) Unpredictable
Q9.Which of the following is an example of impulse turbine?

b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Pelton wheel
Q10.The runner of __________ turbine always be under pressure of above

atmospheric
a) Turgo
b) Girand
c) Kaplan
Q11.The water from runner in reac on turbine is discharged into tail race
through a dra tube which has ____________ cross sec onal area
a) Constant
b) Gradually decreasing
c) Gradually increasing
d) None of these
Q12._________ turbines are also called as parallel flow turbine

a) Radial flow
b) Axial flow
c) Both radial flow and axial flow
Q13.In which type of reac on turbine does the water flow in radial
direc on at the outer periphery of runner and leave at the centre in the
direc on parallel to the axis of rota on of runner?
d) All of the above
Q14.Generally, the value of specific speed of Kaplan turbine is

_____________ that of the Pelton turbine
a) Lower than
b) Higher than
c) Same as
d) Unpredictable
Q15.The passage of uniformly varying cross-sec on in which the kine c

as__________
a) Steam turbine
b) Steam nozzle
c) Steam area
d) All of the above
Q16.The quality of vapour at the exit of nozzle ___________ due to nozzle

fric on
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Does not change
d) Unpredictable
Q17.Pump transfers the mechanical energy of a motor or of an engine into

_________ of a fluid
a) Pressure energy
b) Kine c energy
c) Either pressure energy or kine c energy
d) Pressure energy, kine c energy or both
Q18.Which of the following is NOT a type of posi ve displacement pumps?

a) Reciproca ng pump
b) Rotary displacement pump
c) Centrifugal pump
Q19.Rotary displacement pumps are suitable for handling ________

a) Oils
b) Gri y liquids
c) Both oils as well as gri y liquids
Q20.Which of the following is/are example/s of rotary displacement

pumps?
a) Gear pump
b) Vane pump
c) Rotary piston pump
d) All of the above
Q1. Answer: c
Q2. Answer: c
Q3. Answer: a
Q4. Answer: c
Q5. Answer: c
Q6. Answer: a
Q7. Answer: a
Q8. Answer: c
Q9. Answer: d
Q10. Answer: c
Q11. Answer: c
Q12. Answer: b
Q13. Answer: c
Q14. Answer: b
Q15. Answer: b
Q16. Answer: a
Q17. Answer: c
Q18. Answer: c
Q19. Answer: a
Q20. Answer: d
Design of Machine Turbo Machines 2
Elements 12
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practice papers for Competitive Online Exam Preparations of various examinations. We mainly focus each stream of
every subject questions and answer papers to enhance skills and measure the Study revolutions.

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Career ride TMC MCQS

Turbo Machines Test Questions Set - 1

1) The product of force (F) and time (t) is called as________.

2) What is the formula for forces exerted by fluid on a body?

a. (Rate of momentum in) x (Rate of momentum out)

ANSWER: journal bearing

a. radial and tangential

ANSWER: radial and axial

a. Radial and tangential

ANSWER: Radial and axial

ANSWER: Impulse turbine

8) The energy of water entering the reaction turbine is _______

a. fully the kinetic energy

9) Which of the following is an example of impulse turbine?

ANSWER: gradually increasing

12) __________ turbines are also called as parallel flow turbine.

ANSWER: Axial flow

a. Radial flow turbine

ANSWER: Mixed flow turbine

a. (Ns) = (√N x P) x (H)(5/4)

ANSWER: higher than

ANSWER: steam nozzle

18) The nozzle efficiency can be defined as the ratio of

a. isentropic enthalpy drop to actual enthalpy drop

ANSWER: actual enthalpy drop to isentropic enthalpy drop

19) Which of the following are effects of nozzle friction?

1. Enthalpy drop decreases

a. (1), (2) and (3)

ANSWER: pressure energy, kinetic energy or both

22) Which of the following is NOT a type of positive displacement pumps?

23) Rotary displacement pumps are suitable for handling ________.

24) Which of the following is/are example/s of rotary displacement pumps?

25) ___________ pump is also called as velocity pump.

ANSWER: higher than

27) Which of the following is NOT a type of rotary compressor?

a. Positive displacement type of compressor

ANSWER: None of the above

ANSWER: Axial flow compressors

a. Air velocity goes no increasing in impeller followed by diffuser

ANSWER: Air velocity increases in impeller and then decreases in diffuser

32) An axial flow compressors have _______.

a. a drum type rotor

33) ________ blades are attached to the rotor or spindle.

Answer Explanation Related Ques

35) The blade passages in a compressor are ________

Answer Explanation Related Ques

a. E = ṁ (Vw1 – Vw2) x (u1 – u2)

Answer Explanation Related Ques

3) If (Vw1 u1 – Vw2 u2), then machine is called as________.

Answer Explanation Related Ques

Answer Explanation Related Ques

Answer Explanation Related Ques

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: net head

7) Gross head is the difference between __________.

a. head race and tail race

Answer Explanation Related Ques

Answer Explanation Related Ques

9) What is runaway speed of the runner of Pelton wheel?

Answer Explanation Related Ques

Answer Explanation Related Ques

Answer Explanation Related Ques

Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Draft tube