1) Which aeroplane behavior will be corrected by a
yaw damper?
a) Spiral dive
b) Buffeting
c) Dutch roll
d) Tuck Under
2) One disadvantage of the sweptback wing is its
stalling characteristics. At the stall:
a) Wing root stall will occur first, which produces a
rolling moment
b) Tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-
down moment
c) Leading edge stall will occur first, which
produces a nose-down moment
d) Tip stall will occur first, which produces a
pitch-up moment
3) If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect
a) The lift is increased and the drag is decreased
b) The effective angle of attack is decreased
c) The induced angle of attack is increased
d) Drag and lift are reduced
4) Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given
configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker
will be.
a) 1.30 VS
b) 1.12 VS
c) Greater than VS
d) 1.20 VS
5) Which one of the following systems suppresses the
tendency to “dutch roll”?
a) Rudder limiter
b) Yam Damper
c) Roll spoilers
d) Spoiler mixer
6) The high speed buffet is induced by
a) Boundary layer separation due to shock waves
b) Boundary layer control
c) Expansion eaves on the wing upper side
d) A shift of the center of gravity
7) When “spoilers” are used as speed brakes:
a) CLmax of the polar curve is not affected
b) They do not affected wheel braking action
during landing
c) At same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected
d) At same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL
is decreased
8) What factors determine the distance travelled over
the ground of an aeroplane in a glide?
a) The wind and the aeroplane’s mass
b) The wind and CLmax
c) The wind and weight together with power
loading, which is the ratio of power output to
the weight
d) The wind and the lift/drag ratio, which
changes with angle of attack
9) The center of gravity moving aft will:
a) Increase the elevator up effectiveness
b) Decrease the elevator up effectiveness
c) Not affect the elevator up or down
effectiveness
d) Increase or decrease the elevator up
effectiveness, depending on wing location
10) Which of the following statements about stall speed
is correct?
a) Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will
decrease the stall speed
b) Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will
decrease the stall speed
c) Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed
d) Increasing the anhedral of the wing will
decrease the stall speed
11) The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400
kts. The speed of sound is:
a) 500 Kts
b) 320 Kts
c) 480 Kts
d) 600 Kts
12) When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level
flight, the change in pitch moment will be:
a) Nose up
b) Zero
c) Dependent oc c.g. location
d) Nose down
13) Which statement with respect to the climb is
correct?
 a) At constant mach number the IAS increases
b) At constant TAS the mach number decreases
c) At constant IAS the mach number increases
d) At constant IAS the TAS decreases
14) The stalling speed in IAS will change according to
the following factors:
a) Will increase during turn, increased mass and
an aft c.g. location
b) Will decrease with a forward c.g. location, lower
altitude and due to the slip stream from a
propeller on an engine located forward of the
wing
c) Will increase with increased load factor, icing
conditions and more flaps
d) May increase during turbulence and will
always increase when banking in a turn
15) A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a
constant IAS and constant weight. The operational
limit that may be exceeded is:
a) MD
b) MMO
c) VMO
d) VA
16) A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while
maintaining airspeed and holding altitude. In such a
case, the pilot has to:
a) Increase angle of attack and keep thrust
unchanged
b) Increase thrust and angle of attack
c) Increase thrust and keep angle of attack
unchanged
d) Increase thrust and decrease angle of attack
17) After take-off the slats are always retracted later
than the flaps. Why?
a) Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large
decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag
b) Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large
decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag
c) Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better
view form the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED
d) Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more
favorable compared to the FLAPS EXTENDED
situation
18) What increases the stalling angle of attack? Use of:
a) Flaps
b) Spoilers
c) Fuselage mounted speed-brakes
d) Slats
19) The trailing edge flaps when extended:
a) Significantly increase the angle of attack for
maximum lift
b) Significantly lower the drag
c) Worsen the best angle of attack
d) Increase the zero lift angle of attack
20) Ground effect has the following influence on the
landing distance:
a) Decreases
b) Does not change
c) Increases, only if the landing flaps are fully
extended
d) Increases
21) A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150
kts TAS. A more heavy jet aeroplane at the same
bank and the same speed will:
a) Turn at a higher turn rate
b) Turn at the same turn radius
c) Turn at a bigger turn radius
d) Turn at a smaller turn radius
22) A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight
descent at a constant Mach number with constant
weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded
is:
a) VNE
b) VD
c) MMO
d) VMO
23) Why is VMCG determined with the nose wheel
steering disconnected?
a) Because nose wheel steering has no effected on
the value of VMCG
b) Because the value of VMCG must also be
applicable on wet and/or slippery runway
c) Because the nose wheel steering could become
inoperative after an engine has failed
d) Because it must be possible to abort the take-
off even after the nose wheel has already been
lifted off the ground.
24) Climbing at a constant mach number up to FL350
the TAS will:
a) Remain constant
b) Decrease
c) First increase, the decrease
d) Increase
25) Winglets
a) Decrease the induced drag
b) Decrease the static lateral stability
c) Increase the maneuverability
d) Create an elliptical lift distribution
26) The boundary layer of a wing is caused by:
a) A layer on the wing in which the stream
velocity is lower than the free stream velocity,
due to friction
b) The normal shock wave at transonic speeds
c) A turbulent stream pattern around the wing
d) Suction at the upper wing side
27) Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a
positive angle of attack. At which location will the
highest flow velocity occur?
a) In the stagnation point
b) Upper side
c) Lower side
d) In front of the stagnation point
28) The buffet margin:
a) Is always greatest after a step climb has been
executed
b) Decreases during a descent with a constant
mach number
c) Is always positive at mach numbers below
MMO
d) Increases during a descent with a constant IAS
29) Which of the following factors will lead to an
increase of ground distance during a glide?
a) Decrease of aeroplane weight
b) Tailwind
c) Headwind
d) Faster descent speed
30) How does VMCG change with increasing field
elevation and temperature?
a) Increases, because at a lower density a larger
IAS is necessary to generate the rudder force
b) Increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and
VR and those speeds increase if the density
decreases
c) Decreases, because the engine thrust
decreases
d) Decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS
and the IAS decreases with TAS constant and
decreasing density
31) Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the
a) Wing axis
b) Longitudinal axis
c) Vertical axis
d) Lateral axis
32) The difference between IAS and TAS will:
a) Increase at decreasing temperature
b) Increase at increasing air density
c) Decrease at increasing speed
d) Decrease at decreasing altitude
33) Floating due to ground effect during an approach to
land will occur:
a) When a higher than normal angle attack is used
b) At a speed approaching the stall
c) When the height is less than halve of the
length of the wing span above the surface
d) When the height is less than twice the length of
the wing span above the surface
34) At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS)
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Decreases until the tropopause
35) In a twin-engine jet powered aeroplane (engines
mounted below the low wings), the thrust is
suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will
be required to maintain the pitching moment zero?
a) No elevator movement will required because
the thrust line of the engines remains
unchanged
b) It depends on the position of the center of
gravity
c) Down
 d) Up d) Rolling

36) The life force, acting on an aerofoil:
a) Is mainly caused by overpressure at the
underside of the aerofoil
b) Is maximum at an angle of attack of 2 degrees
c) Is mainly caused by suction on the upper side
of the aerofoil
d) Increases, proportional to the angle of attack
until 40 degrees
37) During initiation of a turn with speed brakes
extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler
deflection:
a) Downward on the up going wing and upward
on the down going wing
b) Upward on the up going wing and downward on
the down going wing
c) On the up going wing only
d) On the down going wing only
43) An aircraft maneuvering in an airport’s circuit
receives a series of red flashes from the control
tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
a) Not land for the moment regardless of previous
instructions
b) Not land because the airport is not available
for landing
c) Give away to another aircraft
d) Return to land and that clearance to land will be
communicated in due course
44) Which code shall be used on mode “A” to provide
recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful
interference?
a) Code 7600
b) Code 2000
c) Code 7500
d) Code 7700

38) The stall speed: 45) For the transport of potentially disruptive
a) Does not depend on weight passengers some supplementary safeguards are to
b) Increases with the length of the wingspan be observed such as:
c) Increases with increased weight a) The boarding will be at the pilot in command
d) Decreases with an increased weight discretion
b) The boarding has tone done at the state
39) Increase of wing loading will: discretion
a) Increase the stall speeds c) Boarding prior to all passengers
b) Decrease the minimum gliding angle d) Boarding after to all other passengers
c) Increase CLmax
d) Decrease take off speeds 46) Under which conditions may an aircraft on a
straight – in – VOR approach continue its descend
40) The speed of sound is affected by the: below the OCA?
a) Temperature of the air a) When seems possible to land
b) Density of the air b) When the aircraft is in a visual contact with the
c) Pressure of the air ground and with the runway lights in sight
d) Humidity of the air c) When the aircraft has the control tower in sight
d) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground
41) The bank of angle in a rate-one turn depends on: but not with the runway in sight yet
a) TAS
b) Weight 47) An approaching aircraft may descent below the
c) Load factor MSA if:
d) Wind a) The pilot is following the published approach
procedure
42) Rotation about the lateral axis is called: b) All mentioned answers are correct
a) Yawing c) The pilot has the field and the underlying
b) Slipping terrain in sight and will keep it in sight
c) Pitching d) The aircraft gets radar vectors

48) An aircraft is flying under instrument flight rules in
an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky
is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio
communication. The procedure to be followed is:
a) Adopt a VRF flight level and continue flight onto
destination
b) Continue flight onto destination, complying
with last received clearances then with filed
flight plan
c) Descend to en-route minimum safe altitude and
join closest airfield open to IFR operations
d) Land on the closet appropriate aerodrome,
then advise air traffic service of landing
49) The runway edge lights shall be:
a) White
b) Blue
c) Green
d) Red
50) When a fixed – distance marking has to be provided
this marking shall commence at:
a) 450m from threshold
b) 600m from threshold
c) 300m from threshold
d) 150m from threshold
51) In a standard holding pattern turns are made:
a) To the left
b) In a direction depending on the entry
c) In a direction depending on the wind
d) To the right
52) In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for
arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what
minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a
heavy or a medium aircraft?
a) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft – 2
minutes
b) Medium aircraft other medium aircraft – 2
minutes
c) Light aircraft behind medium aircraft – 3
minutes
d) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft – 3
minutes
53) The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way
communication shall set the transponder to mode A
code:
a) 7700
b) 7600
c) 2000
d) 7500
54) What will be your action if you cannot comply with
a standard holding pattern?
a) Follow the radio communication failure
procedure
b) Inform the ATC immediately and request a
revised clearance
c) A non-standard holding patterns is permitted
d) It is permitted to deviate from the prescribed
holding pattern at pilots discretion
55) Runway threshold lights shall be:
a) Fixed lights showing green or white colors
b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the
direction of approach to the runway
c) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the
direction of approach to the runway
d) Fixed lights green colors
56) ASDA (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
a) The length of the take-off run available plus
the length of stopway (if stopway provided)
b) The length of the runway plus the length of
stopway available (if stopway provided)
c) The length of the take-off run available plus the
length of stopway and clearway (if provided)
d) The length of the take-off run available plus the
length of the clearway
57) For a category I precision approach, the decision
height cannot be lower than:
a) 150ft
b) 100ft
c) 200ft
d) 250ft
58) Which procedure do you follow if during an IFR
flight in VMC you have two way communication
failure?
a) Return to the aerodrome of departure
b) Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land
as soon as practicable
 c) Continue the flight at the assigned level and
route ; start approach at yours ETA
d) Maintain your assigned level and route and land
at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC
conditions
59) Taxiway center line lights other than an exit taxiway
shall be:
a) Fixed lights showing blue
b) Fixed lights showing yellow
c) Fixed lights showing white
d) Fixed lights showing green
60) While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which
causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What
action must be taken?
a) Squawk 7700
b) The appropriate ATC until shall be notified of
the action taken as soon as circumstances
permit
c) Request an amended clearance or cancel the
IFR flight plan
d) Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
61) TODA (Take-off Distance Available) is:
a) The length of the take-off run available plus
the length of clearway available (if provided)
b) The length of the runway available plus the
length of clearway available (if provided)
c) The length of the take-off run available plus the
length of the stopway and (if provided)
d) The length of the take-off run available plus the
length of the stopway
62) Above flight level FL290 in non-RVSM airspace, the
vertical flight separation between aircraft on the
same direction is:
a) 3000ft
b) 1500ft
c) 4000ft
d) 2000ft
63) A circling approach is:
a) A flight maneuver to be performed only under
radar vectoring
b) A contact flight maneuver
c) A visual maneuver keeping the runway in sight
d) A visual maneuver to be conducted only in IMC
64) A precision approach runway CAT II is an
instrument runway served by ILS and visual aids
intend for operations down to:
a) A RVR of 250 meters and DH of not less than
200ft
b) A RVR of 500 meters and a DH of not less than
200ft
c) A RVR of 500 meters and a DH of not less than
100ft
d) A RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less
than 100ft
65) What is a “barrete”?
a) A CAT II or III holding position
b) A frangible structure on which approach lights
are fixed
c) Three or more ground lights closely spaced
together to appear as a bar of lights
d) A heighted obstacle near the runway and/or
taxi
66) During a circling approach, what action should be
taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the
down wind leg?
a) Request an amended clearance
b) Initiate a missed approach
c) Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the
visibility is better at a lower altitude
d) Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards
the aerodrome
67) Where state has not established minimum IFR
altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above
the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in
mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
a) At least 2000ft within 8km of the estimated
position
b) At least 1000ft within 5km of the estimated
position
c) At least 1000ft within 8km of the estimated
position
d) At least 2000ft within 5km of the estimated
position
68) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern
above FL140?
a) 2min30sec
b) 1min30sec
c) 1min
 d) 2min 75) In the event of a delay of controlled flight, the
submitted flight should be amended or cancelled
69) What does the abbreviation DER mean? and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
a) Distance end of route a) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off
b) Departure end of route blocks
c) Distance end of runway b) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of
d) Departure end of runway departure
c) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off
70) Taxiway edge lights shall be: blocks
a) Fixed showing blue d) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of
b) Fixed showing green departure
c) Fixed showing yellow
d) Flashing showing blue 76) Which of the following correctly lists special
71) The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction
ground at the end of take-off run available prepared with secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?
as a suitable area where: a) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communication
a) An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped failure 7500
b) An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an b) Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication
abandoned take-off failure 7600
c) A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming c) Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication
the end of runway failure 7700
d) A landing aircraft can be stopped only in d) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication
emergency failure 7600

72) In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance
surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally
deviate from the centerline, after being established
on track, more than:
a) Half a scale deflection
b) One scale deflection
c) A quarter of scale deflection
d) One and a half of scale
77) The air traffic control unit has reported “radar
contact”, what does that mean to the pilot?
a) The radar identity of the aircraft has been
established
b) The pilot does not have to follow up position of
the aircraft
c) The aircraft is subject to positive control
d) Position reports may be omitted

73) Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar
controller have to be executed as:
a) The weather permits
b) Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed
by ATC
c) Decided on pilot’s discretion
d) Prescribed by the aircraft operations
78) Which of the following flights has the greatest
priority to land?
a) VIP (head of state) aircraft
b) Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person
needing immediate medical attention
c) Emergency aircraft
d) Military aircraft

74) Normally missed approach procedures are based on 79) The radar separation minimum may be reduced but
a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: not below:
a) 0.8% a) 3.0nm
b) 3.3% b) 5.0nm
c) 5% c) 2.0nm
d) 2.5% d) 1.5nm
80) You have received holding instructions for a radio
fix. The published procedure is: all turns to the
right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC track 052º.
You are approaching the fix on inbound magnetic
track 232º. Select the available entry procedure.
a) Either “offset” or “parallel”
b) Off set
c) Parallel
d) Direct
81) Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled
airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
a) When QNH is higher than the standard pressure
1013hpa
b) Only in airspace class A
c) If the obstacle clearance is more than 2000ft
d) Above the transition altitude when applicable
82) Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe
in respect to terrain clearance?
a) The ATC
b) The air traffic service reporting office when
accepting the flight plan
c) The pilot in command
d) The aircraft operator
83) An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall
immediately attempt to established radio
communication with the intercepting aircraft on the
following frequencies:
a) 121.5mhz – 125.5mhz
b) 121.5mhz – 282.8mhz
c) 243mhz – 125.5mhz
d) 121.5mhz – 243mhz
84) Which maneuver shall be expected by an aircraft
intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to
communicate to the intercepted aircraft “YOU MAY
PROCEED”?
a) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise
pattern
b) Rocking the wings and flashing the navigation
lights
c) Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or
move without crossing the line of flight of the
intercepted aircraft
d) Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the
aircraft
85) “Clearway” is defined rectangular area established
to:
a) Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running
off a runway
b) Protect aircraft during take-off or landing
operations
c) Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off
d) Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial
climb to a specific height
86) Runway threshold identification lights, when
provided, should be:
a) Flashing white
b) Fixed green
c) Flashing green
d) Fixed white
87) In an instrument approach procedure, the segment
in which alignment and descend for landing are
made is called:
a) Initial approach segment
b) Intermediate approach segment
c) Arrival segment
d) Final Approach Segment
88) In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a:
a) Maximum bank of 25º
b) Rate of 3º per second or at bank of angle of 20º,
which ever requires the lesser bank
c) Rate of 3º per second or at a bank angle of 25º,
which ever requires the lesser bank
d) Rate of 3º per second
89) If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in
command of an aircraft:
a) The pilot should propose another clearance to
the ATC concerned
b) He may request and, if practicable, obtain an
amended clearance
c) He may request another clearance and the ATC
concerned has to accepted the pilot request
d) The pilot has to accepted ATC clearance
because it has been based on the flight plan
filed with ATC
90) If an instrument departure procedure the track to
be followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot
is expected:
 a) To request from ATC different heading for wind
correction 95) During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace
b) To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading you experience a two-way radio communication
equal to the track failure. You will
c) To request clearance from ATC for applying a a) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
wind correction maintaining VMC and inform ATC
d) To correct for know wind to remain within the b) Select A7600 and continue according current
protected airspace flight plan to destination
c) Descend to the flight level submitted for that
91) An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its portion of flight
assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived d) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and
level information indicated that it is within: inform ATC
a) +/- 250ft of the assigned level
b) +/- 500ft of the assigned level 96) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up
c) +/- 300ft of the assigned level to FL140?
d) +/- 200ft of the assigned level a) 2min
b) 1.5min
92) ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and c) 30sec
arrival information should include cloud cover, d) 1min
when the clouds are:
a) Below 900m (3000ft) or below the highest 97) During an instrument approach followed by a
minimum sector altitude, whichever is the missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance
greater (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed
b) Below 2000m (600ft) or below the highest approach is:
minimum sector altitude, whichever is the a) 12m (384ft)
greater b) 30m (98ft)
c) Cumulonimbus c) 50m (164ft)
d) Below 1500m (5000ft) below the highest d) 90m (295ft)
minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
greater 98) The person who has final authority as to the
disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:
93) The MSA, which must be established around a a) The aircraft owner
navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector b) The airplane operator
of: c) The commander
a) 15nm d) The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a
b) 30nm controlled
c) 25nm
d) 10nm 99) If visual reference is lost while circling to land from
an instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot
94) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
brakes by the following signals: a) Landing runway
a) Arm down, palms facing inwards, moving arms b) MAP
from extended position inwards c) FAF
b) Crossing arms extended above his head d) Final missed approach track
c) Horizontally moving his hands, fingers
extended, palms toward ground 100) Standard airway holding pattern below
d) Raise arm and hand, with fingers are extended, 14000ft?
horizontally in front of body, then the clench a) Right hand turns / 1min outbound
fist b) Right hand turns / 1.5min outbound
 c) Left hand turns / 1min outbound c) 5000ft
d) Left hand turns / 1.5min outbound d) 1500ft

101) The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR 106) During the formation of rime ice in flight, water
shall change the altimeter setting form QNH to droplets freeze
standard setting 1013.15hpa when passing: a) Slowly and do not spread out
a) Transition level b) Slowly and spread out
b) The level specified by ATC c) Rapidly and spread out
c) Transition altitude d) Rapidly and do not spread out
d) Transition layer
107) The QNH is equal to the QFE if
102) Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice- a) The elevation = 0
versa is done: b) T actual = T standard
a) At transition level during climb and transition c) T actual > T standard
altitude during descent d) T actual < T standard
b) Only at transition altitude
c) Only at transition level 108) Freezing rain occurs when
d) At transition altitude climb and transition level a) Snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air
during descent b) Rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures
below 0ºC
103) Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the c) Ice pellets melt
controller advises you that you are on the airway d) Water vapor first turns into water droplets
and to “resume owe navigation”. This phrase means
that: 109) An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the
a) You are to contact the center at the next temperature
reporting point a) Decreases with height at a constant rate
b) You are to assume responsibility for your own b) Increases with height at a constant rate
navigation c) Remains constant with height
c) You are still in radar contact, but must make d) Increases with height
position reports
d) Radar services are terminated and you will be 110) What is the boundary layer between
responsible for positions reports troposphere and stratosphere called?
a) Tropopause
104) During flight through the transition layer the b) Ionosphere
vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed c) Stratosphere
as: d) Atmosphere
a) Altitude above mean sea level during climb 111) What is the approximate speed of a 40kts wind,
b) Flight level during descent expressed in m/sec?
c) Either altitude above mean sea level or flight a) 20 m/sec
level during climb b) 15 m/sec
d) Altitude above mean sea level during descent c) 25 m/sec
d) 30 m/sec
105) Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. LSZH
061019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080 112) The most dangerous form of airframe icing is
TEMPO 23012KT 6000 DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG a) Clear ice
1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC10 = The lowest b) Hoar frost
cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is: c) Dry ice
a) 1000ft d) Rime ice
b) 1500m
113) The temperature at FL 80 is +6ºC. What will the b) 1200ft
temperature be at FL130 if the ICAO standard lapse c) 1105ft
rate is applied? d) 1280ft
a) +2ºC
b) -4ºC 120) How does the temperature vary with increasing
c) -6ºC altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below the
d) 0ºC tropopause?
a) Increases
114) From what type of cloud does drizzle fall? b) At first it increases and higher up it decreases
a) Altostratus c) Remains constant
b) Cumulus d) Decreases
c) Cirrostratus
d) Stratus 121) For a given airfield the QFE is 980hpa and the
QNH is 1000hpa, the approximate elevation of the
115) Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport. airfield is
FCFR31281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA a) 100m
BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA b) 160m
BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight Lisbon to c) 600m
Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is d) 540m
the lowest quoted visibility forecast?
a) 10 or more km 122) What type of front / occlusion usually moves
b) 8km the fastest?
c) 8nm a) Warm occlusion
d) 10nm b) Cold front
c) Warm front
116) How does freezing rain develop? d) Cold occlusion
a) Rain falls through a layer where temperatures
are below 0ºC 123) Which of the following statements is true of the
b) Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes dew point of an air mass?
c) Through melting of sleet grains a) It can only be equal to, or lower, than the
d) Through melting of ice crystals temperature of the air mass
b) It can be higher than the temperature of the air
117) Altostratus clouds are classified as: mass
a) High level clouds c) It can be used together with the air pressure to
b) Convective clouds estimate the air mass´s relative humidity
c) Medium level clouds d) It can be used to estimate the air mass´s
d) Low level clouds relative humidity even if the air temperature is
118) Which of the following phenomena should be unknown
described as precipitation at the time they are
observed? 124) The tropopause is a level at which
a) SA a) Water vapor content is greatest
b) TS b) Pressure remains constant
c) FU c) Vertical currents are strongest
d) DZ d) Temperature ceases to fall with increasing
height
119) An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation
1240ft, QNH 1008hpa). The altimeter is set to 125) Dew point is defined as
1013hpa. The altimeter will indicate:
a) 1375ft
 a) The temperature below which the change of 131) Under what condition does pressure altitude
state in a given volume of air will result in the have the same value as density altitude?
absorption of latent heat a) At sea level when the temperature is 0ºC
b) The temperature to which moist air must be b) When the altimeter has no position error
cooled to become saturated at a given c) When the altimeter setting is 1013.2hpa
pressure d) At standard temperature
c) The lowest temperature at which evaporation
will occur for a given pressure 132) Which of the following weather reports is a
d) The lowest temperature to which air must be warning of conditions that could be potentially
cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity hazardous to aircraft in flight?
a) SIGMET
126) What surface weather is associated with a b) ATIS
stationary high-pressure region over land in the c) SPECI
winter? d) TAF
a) NS with continuous rain
b) The possibility of snow showers 133) The lowest assumed temperature in the
c) A tendency for fog and low ST International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is:
d) Thunderstorms a) -273ºC
b) -44.7ºC
127) Which of the following cloud types can project c) -100ºC
up into the stratosphere? d) -56.5ºC
a) Cumulonimbus
b) Cirrostratus 134) Which of the following weather reports could
c) Altocumulus be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated
d) Altostratus to CAVOK?
a) 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018
128) In which environment is aircraft structural ice NOSIG =
most likely to have the highest rate of accretion? b) 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG
a) Stratus clouds =
b) Snow c) 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029
c) Freezing rain BECMG 1600 =
d) Cirrus clouds d) 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG
0500 =
129) What is the relationship, if any, between QFE
and QNH at an airport situated 50ft below sea 135) How do air masses move at a warm front?
level? a) Cold air overrides a warm air mass
a) QFE equals QNH b) Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
b) No clear relationship exists c) Warm air undercuts a cold air mass
c) QFE is greater than QNH d) Warm air overrides a cold air mass
d) QFE is smaller than QNH
136) At FL180, the air temperature is -35ºC. The air
130) Which of the following conditions is most likely density at this level is:
to cause airframe icing? a) Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at
a) SHSN FL180
b) PE b) Unable to be determined without knowing the
c) +FZRA QNH
d) GR c) Greater than the density of the ISA
atmosphere at FL180
 d) Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at
FL180
137) Refer to the following TAF extract; BECMG 1821
2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
what does the abbreviation “PROB30” mean?
a) Change expected in less than 30 minutes
b) Probability of 30%
c) Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes
d) The could ceiling should lift to 3000ft
138) EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 –RA SCT024
BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO
1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301
25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = ETA 2100 UTC at
EHAM. What surface wind is forecast?
a) 120º / 15kt gusts 25kt
b) 140º / 10kt
c) 300º / 15kt maximum wind 25kt
d) 250º / 20kt
139) How does moderate turbulence affect an
aircraft?
a) Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude
occur but the aircraft may only be out of control
momentarily
b) Continued flight in this environment will result
is structural damage
c) Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the
aircraft remains in positive control at all times
d) Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is
experienced without appreciable changes in
altitude or attitude
140) In which of these cloud types can icing be
virtually ruled out?
a) NS
b) CU
c) CI
d) SC
141) An aircraft is flying at FL80. The local QNH is
1000hps. After the second altimeter has been
adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be
approximately
a) 8350ft
b) 8000ft
c) 7650ft
d) 8600ft
142) With what type of cloud is DZ precipitation
most commonly associated?
a) CU
b) ST
c) CB
d) CC
143) In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest
CAT to be expected?
a) The warm air side of the core
b) Exactly in the center of the core
c) About 12000ft above the core
d) The cold air side of the core
144) Which of the following statements is an
interpretation of the SIGMET? SIGMET VALID
121420/121820 embed ts obs and fcst in w part of
athinai fir / mov e / intst nc =
a) Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms.
The thunderstorm zone should be east of
Athens by 1820 UTC
b) The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are
increasing in intensity, but are stationary above
the western part of the Athens FIR
c) Thunderstorms must be expected in the
western part of the Athens FIR. The
thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity in
constant
d) Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part
of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving west
145) Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. LSZH
261019 20018G30KT 9999 –RA SCT050 BKN080
TEMPO 23012KT 6000 –DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG
1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010 = The lowest
visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:
a) 6km
b) 6nm
c) 4km
d) 10km
146) Refer to the following TAF. EGBB 261812
28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822
29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30
TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124
26010KT From the TAF above you can assume that
visibility at 2055Z at (EGBB) will be:
a) More than 10km
 b) Not less than 1.5km but could be in excess of b) Light drizzle and fog
10km c) Moderate snow showers
c) A maximum 5km d) Heavy rain showers
d) A minimum of 1.5km and a maximum of 5km
154) What does the term SIGMET signify?
147) Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of a) A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to
a) A high risk of thunderstorms the actual weather report
b) Turbulence at and below the cloud level b) A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an
c) Poor visibility at surface aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly
d) Smooth flying conditions below the cloud level intervals
c) A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous
148) What does the abbreviation “nosig” mean? meteorological conditions
a) Not signed by the meteorologist d) A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the
b) No significant changes meteorological station several times daily
c) No report received
d) No weather related 155) Which statement is correct regarding the
international standard atmosphere?
149) What is the meaning of the abbreviation “SCT”? a) At MSL temperature is 15ºC and the decrease in
a) 5 – 7 oktas temperature with height is 1ºC per 100m
b) 1 – 4 oktas b) At MSL temperature is 10ºC and the decrease in
c) 3 – 4 oktas temperature with heights is 1ºC per 100m
d) 1 – 2 oktas c) At MSL pressure is 1013.25hpa and the
decrease of temperature with heights is 1ºC per
150) Relative humidity depends on 100m
a) Moisture content of the air only d) At MSL temperature is 15ºC and pressure is
b) Temperature of the air only 1013.25hpa
c) Moisture content and temperature of the air
d) Moisture content and pressure of the air 156) What type of cloud can produce hail showers?
a) CS
151) During climb after take-off, the altimeter setting b) AC
is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local c) CB
QNH is 1023hpa, what will happen to the altimeter d) NS
reading during the resetting procedure?
a) It is not possible to give a definitive answer 157) In which of the following METAR reports, is the
b) It will decrease probability of fog formation in the coming night the
c) It will increase highest?
d) It will remain the same a) 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028
152) With what type of clouds are showers most NOSIG =
likely associated b) 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024
a) Cumulonimbus NOSIG =
b) Stratocumulus c) 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10
c) Nimbostratus Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =
d) Stratus d) 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032
BECMG 1600 =
153) LFBD 1524 16015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO
1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 158) How are high level condensation trails formed
TSRA = ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is that are to be found occasionally behind jet
forecast on the approach to LFBD? aircraft?
a) Continuous moderate rain
 a) Through water vapor released during fuel
combustion
b) Through a decrease in pressure, and the
associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the
wing tips while flying through relatively warm
but humid air
c) Only through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases
d) In conditions of low humidity, through the
particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases
159) TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001
BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT
2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 = Which of
these statements best describes the weather that
can be expected at 1200 UTC
a) Meteorological visibility 6 kilometers, cloud
base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots
b) Meteorological visibility 2,5 kilometers, cloud
base 500 feet, wind speed 5 ktnots
c) Meteorological visibility 800 meters, wind from
230º, cloud base 500 feet
d) Meteorological visibility 800 meters, vertical
visibility 200 feet, calm
160) The maximum amount of water vapor that the
air contain depends on the
a) Air temperature
b) Relative humidity
c) Stability of the air
d) Dewpoint
161) Which of the following statements is an
interpretation of the SIGMET? LSAW SWITZERLAND
0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to
sev cat fcst north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / stnr
/ intsf =
a) Severe turbulence observed below FL260 north
of the alps. Pilots advised to cross this area
above FL380
b) Moderate to strong clear air turbulence of
constant intensity to be expected north of the
alps
c) Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be
expected north of the alps. Intensity
increasing. Danger zone between FL260 and
FL380
d) Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving
towards the area north of the alps. Intensity
increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area
above FL260
162) Which of the following changes of state is
known as sublimation?
a) Solid direct to liquid
b) Liquid direct to solid
c) Liquid direct to vapor
d) Solid direct to vapor
163) What does the term METAR signify?
a) A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the
meteorological station several times daily
b) A METAR is a landing forecast added to the
actual weather reports as a brief prognostic
report
c) A METAR signify the actual weather report at
an aerodrome and is generally issued in half
hourly intervals
d) A METAR is a warning of dangerous
meteorological conditions within a FIR
164) Which of the following weather reports could
be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated
to “CAVOK”? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT,
LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
a) LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA
NOSIG =
b) LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022
NOSIG =
c) LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA
NOSIG =
d) LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012
BECMG 5000 =
165) What is the main composition of clouds
classified as “high level clouds”?
a) Super cooled water droplets
b) Water droplets
c) Water vapor
d) Ice crystals
166) What is the meaning of the abbreviation
“BKN”?
a) 3 – 4 oktas
b) 6 – 8 oktas
c) 8 oktas
d) 5 – 7 oktas
167) Appended to a METAR you get the following b) In summer during the day only
runway report: 01650427 What must you consider c) In mid-latitudes only
when making performance calculations? d) In unstable atmosphere
a) The braking action will be medium to good
b) The runway will be wet 174) The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an
c) Aquaplaning conditions indication of the
d) The friction coefficient is 0.28 a) Development of thermal lows
b) Presence of valley winds
168) Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when: c) Presence of mountain waves
a) Water vapor condenses d) Risk of orographic thunderstorms
b) Water vapor is present
c) Relative humidity reaches 98% 175) EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 –RA SCT025
d) Temperature and dew point are nearly equal BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO
1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301
169) If you are flying at FL120 and the outside 25020KT 8000NSW BKN020 = ETA 2100 UTC at
temperature is -2ºC, at what altitude will the EHAM What is the lowest cloud base forecast for
“freezing level” be? arrival?
a) FL150 a) 250ft
b) FL090 b) 500m
c) FL110 c) 800ft
d) FL130 d) 500ft

170) What is the approximate speed of a 90km/h 176) The temperature at 10000ft in the international
wind, expressed in knots? standard atmosphere is:
a) 55kt a) -20ºC
b) 60kt b) -35ºC
c) 70kt c) -5ºC
d) 50kt d) 0ºC

171) The diameter and the life time of a typical
microburst are in the order of
a) 8km and 5-15 minutes
b) 12km and 5-10minutes
c) 4km and 1-5 minutes
d) 4km and 30-40 minutes
172) Which of these four METAR reports suggests
that a thunderstorm is likely in the next few hours?
a) 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/m02
Q1008 NOSIG =
b) 1350Z 35003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04
Q1014 NOSIG =
c) 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022
BEMCG 5000 =
d) 1350 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18
Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS =
173) Convective clouds are formed
a) In stable atmosphere
177) Which of the following meteorological
phenomena can rapidly change the braking action
of a runway?
a) HZ
b) +FZRA
c) MIFG
d) FG
178) Fallstreaks or virga are
a) Strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas
and accompanied by heavy precipitation
b) Water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that
evaporates before reaching the ground
c) Strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream,
associated with jet streaks
d) Gusts associated with a well-developed Bora
179) TAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012
BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720
4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT
 T1815Z T1618Z = Which of these statements best
describes the weather most likely to be
experienced at 1500 UTC?
a) Meteorological visibility 10 kilometers or
more, main cloud base 3000 feet, wind 250º,
temperature 18ºC
b) Meteorological visibility 4000 meters, gusts up
to 25 knots, temperature 18ºC
c) Meteorological visibility 10 kilometers or more,
main cloud base 1200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots
d) Severe rain showers, meteorological visibility
4000 meters
180) What pressure is defined as QFE?
a) The pressure reduced to sea level using actual
temperatures
b) The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA
temperatures
c) The pressure at field elevation
d) The pressure of the altimeter
181) Which of the following statements is an
interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200
R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03
Q1022 BECMG 0800 =
a) Meteorological visibility 200 meters, RVR for
runway 16 1500 meters, temperature -3ºC,
vertical visibility 100 meters
b) Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for
runway 16 more than 1500 meters, vertical
visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost
c) Meteorological visibility for runway 14800
meters, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16
more than 1500 meters
d) RVR for runway 14800 meters, vertical
visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological
visibility improving to 800 meters in the next 2
hours.
182) During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which
stage is characterized predominantly by
downdrafts?
a) Anvil stage
b) Dissipating stage
c) Cumulus stage
d) Mature stage
183) In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR
reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the
coming night, the highest?
a) 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG =
b) VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG
3000 =
c) 22004KT 6000 –RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14
Q1009 NOSIG =
d) VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG =
184) How long from the time of observation is a
TREND in a METAR valid?
a) 1 hour
b) 30 minutes
c) 2 hours
d) 9hours
185) An altimeter adjusted to 1013hpa indicates an
altitude of 3600ft. Should this altimeter be adjusted
to the local QNH value of 991hpa, the altitude
indicated would be
a) 4278ft
b) 4194ft
c) 3006ft
d) 2922ft
186) What is the approximate composition of the dry
air by volume in the troposphere?
a) 50% oxygen, 40% nitrogen, and the rest other
gasses
b) 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, and the rest other
gasses
c) 10% oxygen, 89% nitrogen, and the rest other
gasses
d) 88% oxygen, 9% nitrogen, and the rest other
gasses
187) The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the
a) Highest value of the A-, B- and C- position
b) Lowest value of the A-, B- and C- position
c) Value representative of the touchdown zone
d) Average value of the A-, B- and C- position
188) In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the
time of your landing you note: TEMPO TS What is
the maximum time this deterioration in weather
can last in anyone instance?
a) 60 minutes
b) 120 minutes
 c) 10 minutes
d) 20 minutes
189) Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821
2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the abbreviation “VV001” mean?
a) Vertical visibility 100m
b) Vertical visibility 100ft
c) RVR less than 100m
d) RVR greater than 100m
190) You are flying at FL130, and your true altitude is
12000ft. What is the temperature deviation from
that of the standard atmosphere at FL130 (QNH
1013,2hpa)?
a) ISA -20ºC
b) ISA +/-0ºC
c) ISA +20ºC
d) ISA +12ºC
191) In order to calculate QFE form QNH, which of
the following must be know?
a) Elevation and the temperature at the airfield
b) Elevation of the airfield
c) Temperature at the airfield
d) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at
MSL
195) One of the main characteristics of windshear is
that it:
a) Occurs only a low altitude (2000ft) and never in
the horizontal plane
b) Can occur at any altitude and only in the
horizontal plane
c) Can occur at any altitude in both vertical and
horizontal planes
d) Occurs only at a low altitude (2000ft) and never
in the vertical plane
196) The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends
primarily on the:
a) Depth of the standing water on the runway
b) Aircraft`s weight
c) Strength of the headwind
d) Amount of the lift off speed
197) If airworthiness documents do not shown any
additional correction factor for landing performance
determination on a wet runway, the landing
distance shall be increased by:
a) 10%
b) 5%
c) 15%
d) 20%

192) What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot 198) Without wind, the tip vortices created by an
wind, expressed in kilometers per hour? airplane at take-off:
a) 45km/h a) Separate to the left side
b) 35km/h b) Separate on each side of the runway
c) 55km/h c) Stagnate on the runway
d) 60km/h d) Separate to the right side
193) The following weather report EDDM 241322
VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 199) Flight crew members on the flight deck shall
050 FG VV001 is a: keep their safety belt fastened
a) 24 hour TAF a) From take off to landing
b) SPECI b) While at their station
c) METAR c) Only during take off and landing
d) 9 hour TAF d) Only during take off and landing and whenever
necessary by the commander in the interest of
194) Which one of the following magnitudes will be safety
the first to change its value when penetrating a
windshear? 200) For the purpose of wake turbulence separation,
a) Pitch angle what is the ICAO minimum radar separation
b) Vertical speed distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly
c) Ground speed behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to
d) Indicated airspeed the same runway?
 a) 3.7km (2nm) c) Good
b) 7.4km (4nm) d) Poor
c) 9.3km (5nm)
d) 11.1km (6nm) 206) Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if
an aeroplane’ s main wheel tyre pressure is 225psi,
201) Tip vortices which are responsible for wake the approximate speed above which dynamic
turbulence appear as soon as the following is hydroplaning may occur in the event of applying
stablished: brakes is:
a) Spin up a) 114kt
b) Lift destruction b) 100kt
c) Lift c) 80kt
d) Drag d) 135kt

202) An aeroplane suffers an explosive 207) A category I precision approach (CAT I) has
decompression at an altitude of 31000ft. What is a) A decision height equal to at least 100ft
the initial action by the operating crew? b) A decision height equal to at least 50ft
a) Transmit a MAYDAY message c) No decision height
b) Place the seat belts sign to ON d) A decision height equal to at least 200ft
c) To put on oxygen masks
d) Disconnect the autopilot 208) DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake
turbulence separation minima shall be based on a
203) When the weather conditions require an grouping of aircraft types into three categories
alternate aerodrome to be available on take off, the according to the maximum certificated take-off
latter shall be located, for a twin-engine aircraft, at mass. Heavy (H) category, are all aircraft types of:
an equivalent distance not exceeding: a) 136000kg or more
a) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two b) 126000kg or more
engines c) Less than 136000kg but more than 126000kg
b) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single d) 146000kg or more
engine
c) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two 209) During a night flight, an observer located in the
engines cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front
d) 1 hour to flight at cruising speed with a single right, will first see the:
engine a) Green flashing light
b) Red steady light
204) Wake turbulence risk is highest: c) Green steady light
a) When a preceding aircraft has briefly applied d) White steady light
take off thrust just prior to take off
b) When a heavy aircraft has just performed a take 210) The criteria taken into consideration for
off a closely situated parallel runway with a light classification of aeroplanes by categories is
crosswind indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat).
c) If, just before landing a much lighter aircraft Corresponding aeroplane category when Vat is from
has landed at the same runway with heavy 141kt to 165kt is:
crosswind a) C
d) Following a preceding aircraft at high speed b) E
c) D
205) A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on d) B
a SNOWTAM is:
a) Unreliable
b) Medium
211) The time of useful consciousness in case of an
explosive decompression at an altitude of 40000ft 217) When setting up a minimum noise climb, the
is: minimum height at which a power reduction shall
a) 1 minute be allowed is:
b) 5 minutes a) 600m (2000ft)
c) 12 seconds b) 300m (1000ft)
d) 30 seconds c) 450m (1500ft)
212) For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation d) 150m (500ft)
stage, landing distance at the scheduled destination
aerodrome shall be less than available landing 218) The time needed for the dissipation of a
distance multiplied by a factor of: turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft
a) 0.5 (2x the actual landing distance) during take-off is about:
b) 0.8 (1.25x the actual landing distance) a) 10 minutes
c) 0.6 (1.67x the actual landing distance) b) 3 minutes
d) 0.7 (1.42x the actual landing distance) c) 30 seconds
d) 1 minute
213) An airplane creates a wake turbulence when:
a) Generating lift 219) During an ILS procedure, if the information
b) Flying at high speed transmitted by the appropriate services and
c) Using a high engine RPM received by the crew contains parameters below
d) Flying with its gear and flaps extended the crew’s operational minimums, the point beyond
which the approach must not be continued is:
214) If the EPR probes becomes covered with ice, a) The middle marker
EPR indications will be: b) The start final descent point (glide slope
a) Less than the actual intersection)
b) Equal to the actual c) The outer marker (OM)
c) Dependent on the temperature d) The FAF
d) Greater than the actual
220) The term decision height (DH) is used for:
215) For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, a) A conventional approach
what is the minimum separation time that is b) A conventional approach
permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a c) A conventional approach followed by a visual
heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the maneuver
same runway? d) A precision approach
a) 3 minutes
b) 4 minutes 221) The wake turbulence is greater when the
c) 5 minutes aircraft has a
d) 2 minutes a) High height and low speed
b) High weight and high speed
216) Using an oxygen diluter demand system, the c) Low weight and low speed
regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed d) Low weight and high speed
with pure oxygen when the selectors is at the
“normal” position. At what approximate altitude 222) The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft
will the regulator supply to the mask become pure in flight induces an increase in the:
oxygen only? a) Roll rate
a) 32000ft b) Stalling speed
b) 25000ft c) Value of the stall angle of attack
c) 25000ft d) Tuck under
d) 8000ft
223) The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off
and reduce considerably the protection time:
a) During strong winds or as a result of the other
aircraft engines jet wash
b) When the outside temperature is close to 0ºC
c) When the temperature of the airplane skin is
close to 0ºC
d) When the airplane is into the wind
224) If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the
differential pressure:
a) Increases
b) Remains constant
c) Attains its maximum permitted operating limit
d) Decreases
225) To use passengers oxygen in case of severe
cabin smoke is:
a) Useless because breathing oxygen would
explode under smoke conditions
b) Possible and recommended
c) Useless because the toxic cabin smoke is
mixed with the breathing oxygen
d) Useless because the oxygen units do not
operate under smoke conditions
226) During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:
a) The anti-icing fluid is applied without heating
and the de-icing fluid is applied hot
b) The anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot
c) The anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied
cold
d) The de-icing fluid is applied without heating and
the anti-icing fluid is applied hot
227) A piece of equipment on your public transport
airplane fails while you are still parked. The
reference document you use to decide on the
procedure to follow is:
a) The JAR OPS
b) The flight manual
c) The minimum equipment list
d) The operation manual’s chapter “abnormal and
emergency procedures”
228) A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an
approach which may be carried out with a runway
visual range of at least:
a) 500m
b) 550m
c) 350m
d) 800m
229) Wind shear is
a) A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or
wind direction over a large distance
b) A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or
wind direction over a short distance
c) A horizontal wind velocity variation over a short
distance
d) A vertical wind velocity variation over a short
distance
230) On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a
turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a
minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient
for flying during:
a) 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
b) 2 hours with normal cruising consumption
c) 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500ft
d) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500ft
231) When flying in straight and level flight at FL290
for some considerable time a small leak develops in
the cabin which causes a slow depressurization, this
can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator
which will indicate:
a) A rate of descent dependent upon the cabin
differential pressure
b) A rate of climb
c) A rate of descent of approximately 300fpm
d) Zero
232) For a given ambient temperature and type of
de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following
types of weather condition will the holdover
(protection) time be shortest?
a) Freezing rain
b) Steady snow
c) Freezing fog
d) Frost
233) The greatest possibility of ice build-up, while
flying under icing conditions, occurs on:
a) The aircraft front areas
b) The upper and lower wing surfaces
c) The upper and lower rudder surfaces
d) Only the pilot and static probes

234) A piece of equipment on your public transport
airplane fails while taxing to the holding point. The
reference document you use in the first place to
decide on the procedure to follow is:
a) The minimum equipment list
b) The JAR OPS
c) The flight record
d) The operation manual’s chapter “abnormal
and emergency procedures”
235) In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp
when:
a) Surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance
b) It is covered with a film of water of less than
3mm
c) It is covered with a film of water of less than
1mm
d) Its surface is not dry, and when surface
moisture does not give it a shiny appearance
236) The correct statement about extinguishing
agents on board aeroplane is:
a) A powder extinguisher is suitable for
extinguishing a cockpit fire
b) Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually
extinguished by using carbon dioxide
c) Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for
use in aeroplanes
d) Water may only be used for minor fires
237) In case of a serious threat based on the
presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft
and disregarding any fuel considerations:
a) You climb to the maximum flight level which
does not need the use of pressurization
b) You go down to the level corresponding to the
indicated cabin altitude and keep the airplane in
a clean configuration until the final approach
c) You descend to the flight level corresponding
to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety
altitude if higher and take preventive steps by
putting yourself in a landing approach
configuration
d) You carry out an emergency descent to reach
the safety altitude
238) During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried
out in two stages, the hold over time starts:
a) At the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage)
b) At the end of the first stage (de-icing stage)
c) At the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing
stage)
d) At the beginning of the first stage (de-icing
stage)
239) During an explosive decompression at flight
level 370 (FL370), your first action will be:
a) To warn the ATC
b) To comfort your passengers
c) To put on the oxygen mask
d) To set the transponder to 7700
240) The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the
generating aircraft is:
a) Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps
configuration
b) Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration
c) Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps
configuration
d) Large, heavy, at low speed in clean
configuration
241) In public transport, prior to take-off in icing
conditions, the captain must check that:
a) Possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed
weight and balance limits
b) External surfaces are free from any ice
accretion which may impede the airplane
performance and maneuverability, except
within the limits specified by the flight manual
c) External surfaces are free from any ice accretion
greater than 5mm
d) External surfaces are still covered with anti-icing
fluid
242) An aircraft which experiences a headwind of
40kt while making its way towards the center of a
microburst may expect, when crossing the
microburst, to face a windshear of:
a) 80kt
b) 40kt
c) 60kt
d) 20kt
243) For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of
more than 44 passengers, it must be shown by
actual demonstration that the maximum seating
 capacity, including the required number of crew a) Continue to display the reading at which the
members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to blockage occurred
the ground in: b) Gradually indicate zero
a) 60 seconds c) Under-read
b) 90 seconds d) Indicate a height equivalent to the setting on
c) 132 seconds the millibar subscale
d) 120 seconds
250) Alarms are standardized and follow a code of
244) The velocity of sound at the sea level in a colors. Those requiring action but no immediately,
standard atmosphere is: are signaled by the color:
a) 644kt a) Red
b) 323kt b) Green
c) 661kt c) Flashing red
d) 1059kt d) Amber

245) In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic 251) A stall warning system is based on a measure of
Collision Avoidance System) will give information a) Airspeed
such as: b) Attitude
a) Turn left / turno right c) Groundspeed
b) Too low terrain d) Aerodynamic incidence
c) Glide slope
d) Climb/descent 252) The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying
at a true airspeed of 100kt, in descent with a slope
246) The error in altimeter reading caused by the of 3 degrees indicates:
variation of the static pressure near the source is a) 250ft/min
know as: b) 500ft/min
a) Position pressure error c) 300ft/min
b) Barometric error d) 150ft/min
c) Instrument error
d) Hysteresis effect 253) If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI)
becomes blocked during a descent the instrument
247) The decision height (DH) warning light comes will:
on when an aircraft: a) Continue to indicate the speed applicable to
a) Descends below a pre-set barometric altitude that at the time of the blockage
b) Passes over the ILS inner marker b) Under-read
c) Descends below a pre-set radio altitude c) Over-read
d) Passes over the outer marker d) Read zero

248) The ground proximity warning system (GPWS) is 254) A “resolution advisory” (RA) is represented on
a system working according to a height span ranging the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision
from: Avoidance System) by a:
a) The ground to 500ft a) Amber full circle
b) 50ft to 2500ft b) Red full square
c) The ground to 1000ft c) Blue or white full lozenge
d) 30ft to 5000ft d) Blue or white empty lozenge

249) If the static source of an altimeter becomes 255) The mach number is the:
blocked during a descent the instrument will: a) Corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local
speed of sound
 b) Indicated airspeed (IAS) divided by the local
speed of sound
c) Equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local
speed of sound
d) True airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed
of sound
256) The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision
Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of:
a) Air traffic control radar systems
b) Transponders fitted in the aircraft
c) Airborne weather radar system
d) FMS (Flight management system)
257) When flying from a sector of warm air into one
of colder air, the altimeter will:
a) Under read
b) Be just as correct as before
c) Show the actual height above ground
d) Over read
b) Before the airplane is able to move by under
its own power
c) When taking-off
d) When the landing gear is retracted
262) An “traffic advisory” (TA) is represented on the
display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision
Avoidance System) by displaying:
a) A yellow full circle
b) A blue or white empty lozenge
c) A blue or white full lozenge
d) A red full square
263) A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and
the drain hole with the static port open causes the
airspeed indicator to:
a) Freeze at zero
b) React like an altimeter
c) Read a little high
d) Read a little low

258) During the approach, a crew reads on the radio 264) TCAS uses for its operation:
altimeter the value of 650ft. This is an indication of a) The replies from the transponders of other
the true: aircraft
a) Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway b) The echoes from the ground air traffic control
b) Altitude of the aircraft radar system
c) Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the c) The echoes of collision avoidance radar system
ground at any time especially installed on board
d) Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway d) Both the replies from the transponders of the
aircraft and the ground based radar echoes
259) VLO is the maximum: 265) The primary flight display (PFD) displays
a) Flight speed with slats extended information dedicated to:
b) Speed with flaps extended in a given position a) Systems
c) Cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still b) Piloting
air with caution c) Weather situation
d) Speed at which the landing gear can be d) Engines and alarms
operated with full safety
266) The rate-of-turn is the:
260) Sound propagates through the air at a speed a) Aircraft speed in a turn
which only depends on: b) Pitch rate in a turn
a) Pressure c) Change-of-reading rate of the aircraft
b) Density d) Yaw rate in a turn
c) Temperature
d) Temperature and the pressure 267) When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a
serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic
261) The flight data recorder must start data Collision Avoidance System) generates a:
recording automatically: a) “traffic advisory” and horizontal “resolution
a) When lining up advisory”
b) “traffic advisory” only
 c) “traffic advisory”, vertical and horizontal
“resolution advisory”
d) “traffic advisory” and vertical “resolution
advisory”
268) A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the
ram air inlet will affect the following instrument (s):
a) Airspeed indicator
b) Altimeter only
c) Vertical speed indicator only
d) Airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed
indicator
269) During a category II automatic approach, the
height information is supplied by the:
a) Encording altimeter
b) Altimeter
c) Radio altimeter
d) GPS (Global Positioning System)
270) With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up
the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in
descent a:
a) Decreasing speed
b) Constant speed
c) Increasing speed
d) Fluctuating speed
271) The static air temperature (SAT) is:
a) A relative temperature expressed in degrees
Kelvin
b) An absolute temperature expressed in degrees
Celsius
c) A differential temperature expressed in degrees
Kelvin
d) A relative temperature expressed in degrees
Celsius
272) VNE is the maximum speed
a) With flaps extended in landing position
b) Which must never be exceeded
c) Not to be exceeded except in still air and with
caution
d) At which the flight controls can be fully
deflected
273) If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning
System) activates, and alerts the pilot with an aural
warning “DON’T SINK” (twice times), it is because:
a) During take-off or missed approach maneuver,
the aircraft has started to loose altitude
b) The aircraft experiences an unexpected
proximity to the terrain, with landing gear
retracted
c) At too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive
rate of descent
d) The aircraft experiences an unexpected
proximity to terrain, without landing-flap
selected
274) The total air temperature (TAT) is always:
a) Lower than static air temperature (SAT)
depending on the altitude
b) Higher than static air temperature (SAT)
depending on the calibrated air speed (CAS)
c) Higher or lower than static air temperature
(SAT) depending on the calibrated air speed
(CAS)
d) Higher than static air temperature (SAT)
depending on the altitude
275) In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level,
the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:
a) Independent of the true airspeed (TAS)
b) Higher than the true airspeed (TAS)
c) Lower than the true airspeed (TAS)
d) Equal to the true airspeed (TAS)
276) A stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude
indicator:
a) Only works if there is a complete electrical
failure
b) Contains its own separate gyro
c) Is automatically connected to the primary
vertical gyro if the generator fails
d) Is fully independent of external energy
resources in an
277) During a climb after take-off from a
contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of
the airspeed indicator is blocked the pitot finds that
indicated airspeed:
a) Increases steadily
b) Increases abruptly towards VNE
c) Decreases steadily
d) Decreases abruptly towards zero
278) When climbing at a constant Mach number
below the tropopause, in ISA conditions, the
calibrated airspeed (CAS) will:
a) Increase at an exponential rate
b) Decrease
c) Increase at a linear rate
d) Remain constant
279) A radio altimeter can be defined as a:
a) Self-contained on-board aid used to measure
the true altitude of the aircraft
b) Ground radio aid used to measure the true
height of the aircraft
c) Ground radio aid used to measure the true
altitude of the aircraft
d) Self-contained on-board aid used to measure
the true height of the aircraft
280) If the static source to an altimeter becomes
blocked during a climb, the instrument will:
a) Gradually return to zero
b) Continue to indicate the reading at which the
blockage occurred
c) Under-read by an amount equivalent to the
reading at the time that the instrument became
blocked
d) Over-read
281) After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic
cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe
inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a
stabilized descent and finds that the indicated
airspeed:
a) Increases abruptly towards VNE
b) Increases steadily
c) Decreases abruptly towards zero
d) Decreases steadily
282) The purpose of compass swinging is to
determine the deviation of a magnetic compass:
a) On only one heading
b) At any latitude
c) At a given latitude
d) On any heading
283) Considering the maximum operational Mach
number (MMO) and the maximum operational
speed (VMO), for a maximum groundspeed descent
from a high flight level, you will be limited:
a) Initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a
certain flight level
b) By the MMO
c) By the VMO in still air
d) Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below
a certain flight level
284) VFE is the maximum speed:
a) With the flaps extended in take-off position
b) With the flaps extended in a given position
c) With the flaps extended in landing position
d) At which the flaps can be operated
285) The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be
highest when it is loaded with a:
a) Low gross mass and forward center of gravity
b) Low gross mass and after center of gravity
c) High gross mass and after center of gravity
d) High gross mass and forward center of gravity
286) The actual “zero fuel mass” is equal to the:
a) Basic empty mass plus the fuel loaded
b) Actual landing mass plus trip fuel
c) Dry operating mass plus the traffic load
d) Operating mass plus all the traffic load
287) The actual “take-off” mass is equivalent to:
a) Actual zero fuel mass plus traffic load
b) Dry operating mass plus the take-off fuel
c) Actual landing mass plus the take-off fuel
d) Dry operating mass plus the take-off fuel and
the traffic load
288) If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than
anticipated, for a given airspeed the of attack will:
a) Remain constant, drag will decrease and
endurance will decrease
b) Remain constant, drag will increase and
endurance will increase
c) Be greater, drag will increase and endurance
will decrease
d) Be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance
will increase
289) With the center of gravity on the forward limit
which of the following is to be expected?
a) A decrease in the landing speed
b) A decrease of the stalling speed
c) A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off
 d) A decrease in range
290) If the center of gravity is near the forward limit
the aeroplane will:
a) Require elevator trim which will result in an
increase in fuel consumption
b) Benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease
in angle of attack
c) Require less power for a given airspeed
d) Tend to over rotate during take-off
291) During take-off you notice that, for a given
elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more
rapidly than expected. This is an indication that:
a) The center of pressure is after of the center of
gravity
b) The center of gravity may be towards the after
limit
c) The aeroplane is overloaded
d) The center of gravity is too far forward
292) Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed
remain unchanged, movement of the center of
gravity from the forward to the after limit will
cause:
a) Higher stall speed
b) Lower optimum cruising speed
c) Reduced maximum cruise range
d) Increased cruise range
293) If the center of gravity of an aeroplane moves
forward during flight the elevator control will:
a) Become heavier making the aeroplane more
difficult to maneuver in pitch
b) Become lighter making the aeroplane more
difficult to maneuver in pitch
c) Become heavier making the aeroplane more
easy to maneuver in pitch
d) Become lighter making the aeroplane more
easy to maneuver in pitch
294) When considering the effect of increased mass
on an aeroplane, which of the following is true?
a) Stalling speeds will be higher
b) Stalling speeds will be lower
c) Gradient of climbs for a given power setting will
be higher
d) Flight endurance will be increased
295) A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which
was not forecast. On arrival at destination a straight
in approach and immediate landing clearance is
given. The landing mass will be higher than planned
and
a) The landing distance will unaffected
b) The approach path will be steeper
c) The approach path will be steeper and
threshold speed higher
d) The landing distance required will be longer
296) The dry operating mass of an aeroplane
includes:
a) Fuel and passengers baggage and cargo
b) Passengers baggage and cargo
c) Crew and crew baggage, catering, removable
passengers service equipment, portable water
and lavatory chemicals
d) Unusable fuel and reverse fuel.
297) The maximum certificated take-off mass is:
a) A take-off limiting mass which is governed by
the gradient of climb after reaching V2
b) Limited by the runway take-off distance
available. It is tabulated in the flight manual
c) A structural limit which may not exceeded for
any take-off
d) A take-off limiting mass which is affected by the
aerodrome altitude and temperature
298) The center of gravity location of the aeroplane
is normally computed along the:
a) Horizontal axis
b) Longitudinal axis
c) Lateral axis
d) Vertical axis
299) The center of gravity of a body is that point
a) Through which the sum of the forces of all
masses of the body is considered to act
b) Where the sum of the moments from the
external forces acting on the body is equal to
zero
c) Where the sum of the external forces is equal to
zero
d) Which is always used as datum when
computing moments
300) The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117000kg.
Comprising a traffic load of 18000kg and fuel of
46000kg. What is the dry operating mass?
a) 71000kg
b) 99000kg
c) 53000kg
d) 64000kg
301) Maximum and minimum values of V1 are
limited by:
a) VR and VMCG
b) V2 and VMCA
c) VR and VMCA
d) V2 and VMCG
302) With regard to a take-off from a wet runway,
which of the following statements is correct?
a) Screen height cannot be reduced
b) The screen height can be lowered to reduce
the mass penalties
c) When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is
sufficient to maintain the same margins in the
runway length.
d) In case of reverser inoperative the wet runway
performance information can still be used.
303) The first segments of the take-off flight path
ends
a) At completion of gear retraction
b) At completion of flap retraction
c) At reacting V2
d) At 35ft above the runway
304) Balanced V1 is selected
a) For a runway length limited take-off with a
clearway to give the highest mass
b) If it is equal to V2
c) If the accelerate stop distance is equal to the
one engine out take-off distance
d) For a runway length limited take-off with a
stopway to give the
305) A class B fire is a fire of:
a) Electrical source fire
b) Special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
c) Liquid or liquefiable solid
d) Solid material usually of organic nature
306) ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight
conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is
within an area of
a) 75 minutes flying time at the approved one
engine out cruise speed
b) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the
approved one engine out cruise speed
c) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal
cruising speed
d) 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising
speed
307) How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20º is chosen
instead of T/O flaps 10º?
a) V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which
the flaps are set
b) V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it
is a function of runway length only
c) V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA
d) V2 has the same value in both cases
308) The danger associated with low speed and/or
high speed buffet
a) Limits the maneuvering load factor at high
altitudes
b) Can be reduced by increasing the load factor
c) Exists only above MMO
d) Has to be considered at take-off and landing
309) If the climb speed schedule is changed from
280/ .80 to 290/ .80 the new crossover altitude is
a) Unchanged
b) Only affected by the aeroplane gross mass
c) Lower
d) Higher
310) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be
used when:
a) It is dark
b) The runway is wet
c) Obstacles are present close to the end of the
runway
d) The runway is contaminated
311) The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as
a) Take-off climb speed or speed at 35ft
b) Lift off speed
c) Take-off decision speed
d) Critical engine failure speed

312) What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off
speeds? The slope
a) Has no effect on the take-off speed V1
b) Decreases the take-off speed V1
c) Decreases the TAS for take-off
d) Increases the IAS for take-off
313) If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of
the following statements is true?
a) It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance
b) Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not
permitted
c) The accelerate stop distance increases
d) The accelerate stop distance decreases
314) Which of the following represents the
maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed
and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
a) VREF
b) VR
c) VMCA
d) V2
315) A “balanced field length” is said to exist where:
a) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the
take-off distance available
b) The clearway does not equal the stopway
c) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all
engine take-off distance
d) The one engine out take-off distance is equal to
the all engine take-off distance
316) The speed V2:
a) That speed at which the PIC should decide to
continue or not the take-off in the case of an
engine failure.
b) The lowest airspeed required to retract flaps
without stall problems
c) The lowest safety airspeed at which the
aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic
surfaces in the case of an engine failure.
d) The take-off safety speed
317) The speed VS is defined as
a) Speed for best specific range
b) Stalling or minimum steady flight speed at
which the aeroplane is controllable
c) Safety speed for take-off in case of a
contaminated runway
d) Design stress speed
318) A higher outside air temperature
a) Does not have any noticeable effect on climb
performance
b) Reduces the angle of climb but increases the
rate of climb
c) Reduces the angle and the rate of climb
d) Increases the angle of climb but decreases the
rate of climb
319) During the flight preparation, a pilot makes a
mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that
required. Which problem will occur when the
engine fails at a speed immediately above the
correct value of V1?
a) The stop distance required will exceed the stop
distance available
b) The one engine out take-off distance required
may exceed the take-off distance available
c) V2 may be too high so that climb performance
decreases
d) It may lead to over rotation
320) What is the effect of a head wind component,
compared to still air, on the maximum range speed
(IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle
respectively?
a) Maximum range speed decreases and
maximum climb angle speed decreases
b) Maximum range speed increases and maximum
climb angle speed increases
c) Maximum range speed increases and
maximum climb angle speed stays constant
d) Maximum range speed decreases and
maximum climb angle speed increases
321) The optimum cruise altitude increases
a) If the aeroplane mass is decreased
b) If the temperature (OAT) is increased
c) If the tailwind component is decreased
d) If the aeroplane mass is increased
322) What will be the influence on the aeroplane
performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is
increased
a) It will increase the take-off distance
 b) It will decrease the take-off distance
c) It will increase the take-off distance available
d) It will increase the accelerate stop distance
available
323) Moving the center of gravity from the forward
to the after limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed
remain unchanged)
a) Increases the power required
b) Affects neither drag or power required
c) Increases the induced drag
d) Decreases the induced drag and reduces the
power required
324) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be
used when:
a) It is dark
b) The runway is dry
c) The runway is wet
d) Windshear is reported on the take-off path
325) Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
a) V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG
b) When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only
allowed to be taken into account on the
remaining symmetric engines
c) The V1 correction for up-slope is negative
d) V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR
326) In relation to the net take-off flight path, the
required 35ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles
is
a) Based on pressure altitudes
b) The height by which acceleration and flap
retraction should be completed
c) The height at which power is reduced to
maximum climb thrust
d) The minimum vertical distance between the
lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles
within the obstacle corridor
327) The stopway is an area which allows an increase
only in:
a) The accelerate-stop distance available
b) The take-off run available
c) The take-off distance available
d) The landing distance available
328) The drift down requirements are based on:
a) The actual engine thrust output at the altitude
of engine failure
b) The minimum flight path gradient during the
descent
c) The landing mass limit at the alternate
d) The obstacle clearance during a descent to the
new cruising altitude if an engine has failed
329) After engine failure, the aeroplane is unable to
maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure
which should be applied?
a) Emergency descent procedure
b) ETOPS
c) Long range cruise descent
d) Drift down procedure
330) Which of the following statements with regard
to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of
the 3rd climb segment is correct?
a) The minimum value according to regulations is
1000ft
b) There is no legal minimum value, because this
will be determined from case to case during the
calculation of the net flight path
c) The minimum value according to regulations is
400ft
d) A lower height than 400ft is allowed in special
circumstances e.g. noise abatement
331) Which of the following statements is correct?
a) VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the
nose wheel comes off the runway
b) VR is the speed at which the pilot should start
to rotate the aeroplane
c) VR should not be higher than V1
d) VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG
332) The density altitude
a) Is used to calculate the FL above the transition
altitude
b) Is used to determine the aeroplane
performance
c) Is equal to the pressure altitude
d) Is used to establish minimum clearance of
2000ft over mountains
333) The second segment begins
a) When landing gear is fully retracted
 b) When flap retraction beings
c) When flaps are selected up
d) When acceleration starts from V2 to the speed
for flap retraction
334) The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight
speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in
landing configuration is abbreviated as
a) VS1
b) VS
c) VMC
d) VSO
335) In case of an engine failure which is recognized
at or above V1
a) The take-off should be rejected if the speed is
still below VR
b) The take-off must be continued
c) The take-off must be rejected if the speed is still
below VLOF
d) A height of 50ft must be reached within the
take-off distance
336) The approach climb requirement has been
established so that the aeroplane will achieve:
a) Maneuverability during approach with full flaps
and gear down, all engines operating
b) Minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-
around with one engine inoperative
c) Obstacle clearance in the approach area
d) Maneuverability in the event of landing with
one engine inoperative
337) Density altitude is the
a) Altitude read directly form the altimeter
b) Height above the surface
c) Pressure altitude corrected for “nonstandard”
temperature
d) Altitude reference to the standard datum plane
338) An increase in atmospheric pressure has,
among other things, the following consequences on
landing performance:
a) A reduced landing distance and degraded go
around performance
b) A reduced landing distance and improved go-
around performance
c) An increased landing distance and degraded
go-around performance
d) An increased landing distance improved go-
around performance
339) A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the
minimum control speed (VMCA). Which
parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine
failure?
a) Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of
100ft/min
b) Altitude
c) Straight flight
d) Straight flight and altitude
340) The length of a clearway may be included in:
a) The accelerate-stop distance available
b) The take-off run available
c) The distance to reach V1
d) The take-off distance available
341) How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure
altitude?
a) VMCA decreases with increasing pressure
altitude
b) VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher
than 4000ft
c) VMCA increases with increasing pressure
altitude
d) VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude
342) During take-off the third segment begins
a) When acceleration to flap retraction speed is
started
b) When landing gear is fully retracted
c) When acceleration starts from VLOF to V2
d) When flap retraction is completed
343) The climb limited take-off mass can be
increased by
a) Selecting a lower VR
b) A lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a
higher V2
c) Selecting a lower V1
d) Selecting a lower V2
344) The maximum mass for landing could be limited
by
a) The climb requirements with all engines in the
landing configuration but with gear up
b) The climb requirements with one engine
inoperative in the approach configuration
 c) The climb requirements with one engine
inoperative in the landing configuration
d) The climb requirements with all engines in the
approach configuration
345) The speed range between low speed buffet and
high speed buffet
a) Decreases with increasing mass and is
independent of altitude
b) Is only limiting at low altitudes
c) Increases with increasing mass
d) Narrow with increasing mass and increasing
altitude
346) The landing field length required for jet
aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the
demonstrated landing distance plus
a) 92%
b) 43%
c) 70%
d) 67%
d) Increased take-off mass
351) Reduced take-off thrust
a) Can be used if the headwind component during
take-off is at least 10kt
b) Has the benefit of improving engine life
c) Can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher
than the performance limited take-off mass
d) Is not recommended very low temperature
(OAT)
352) Below the optimum cruise altitude
a) The Mach number for long range cruise
decreases continuously with decreasing
altitude
b) The IAS for long range cruise increases
continuously with decreasing altitude
c) The TAS for long range cruise increases
continuously with decreasing altitude
d) The Mach number for long range cruise
increases continuously with decreasing altitude

347) A jet aeroplane descends with constant mach 353) Which of the following is true with regard to
number. Which of the following speed limits is most VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
likely to be exceeded first? a) The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA
a) Maximum operational mach number b) The aeroplane will not gather the minimum
b) Maximum operational speed required climbs gradient
c) Never exceed speed c) VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes
d) High speed buffet limit d) Straight flight cannot be maintained below
VMCA, when the critical engine has failed
348) Due to standing water on the runway the filed
length limited take-off mass will be
a) Only higher for three and four engine 354) Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is
aeroplanes based on directional control being maintained by:
b) Lower a) Nosewheel steering only
c) Higher b) Primary aerodynamic control only
d) Unaffected c) Primary aerodynamic control and Nosewheel
d) Primary aerodynamic control, Nosewheel
349) Which is the corrected sequence of speeds steering and differential braking
during take-off?
a) V1, VR, V2, VMCA 355) Which statement about reduced thrust is
b) VMCG, V1, VR, V2 correct?
c) V1, VMCG, VR, V2 a) In case of reduced thrust V1 should be
d) V1, VR, VMCG, V2 decreased
b) Reduced thrust can be used when the actual
350) Which of the following will decrease V1? take-off mass is less than the field length
a) Inoperative flight management system limited take-off mass
b) Increased outside air temperature c) Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement
c) Inoperative anti-skid procedure
 d) Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel b) Four modes, each 1024 codes
c) Four modes, each 4096 codes
356) Before take-off the temperature of the wheel d) Two modes, each 1024 codes
brakes should be checked. For what reason?
a) To ensure that the wheels have warmed up 362) Given: course deviation indicator (CDI) for a
evenly VOR is selected to 090º, Form/to indicator indicates
b) To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are “TO”. CDI needle is deflected hallway to the right.
not melted On what radial is the aircraft?
c) Because overheated brakes will not perform a) 095
adequately in the event of a rejected take-off b) 275
d) To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive c) 085
d) 265
357) Which of the following set of factors could lead
to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA? 363) The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200º.
a) High take-off mass, low flap setting and high Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer
field elevation needle will be:
b) Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low a) Centered
field elevation b) Left of center
c) Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field c) Right of center
elevation d) Centered with the “fail” flag showing
d) High take-off mass, high flaps setting and low
field elevation 364) What approximate rate of is required in order
to maintain a 3º glide path at a groundspeed of
358) The take-off distance required increases 120kt?
a) Due to slush on the runway a) 950ft/min
b) Due to downhill slope because of the smaller b) 600ft/min
angle of attack c) 550ft/min
c) Due to head wind because of the drag d) 800ft/min
augmentation
d) Due to lower gross mass at take-off 365) What is the minimum number of satellites
required by a GPS in order to obtain a three-
359) Which of the following will give the most dimensional fix?
accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed? a) 3
a) A DME station sited on the flight route b) 5
b) An ADF sited on the flight route c) 6
c) A VOR station sited on the flight route d) 4
d) DME station sited across the flight route
366) Every 10kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3º ILS
360) When mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR glide path, will require an approximate:
transponder the additional information transmitted a) Increase in the aircraft’s rate of descent of
is: 50ft/min
a) Altitude based on regional QNH b) Decrease in the aircraft’s rate of descent of
b) Aircraft height based on sub-scale setting 100ft/min
c) Height based on QFE c) Increase in the aircraft’s rate of descent of
d) Flight level based on 1013.25hpa 100ft/min
d) Decrease in the aircraft’s rate of descent of
361) The ATC transponder system, excluding mode S, 50ft/min
contains:
a) Two modes, each of 4096 codes
367) The two main design functions of secondary c) DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance
surveillance radar (SSR) mode S are: information is sufficient proof of correct
a) Air to ground and ground to air data link operation
communications and improved ATC aircraft d) DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch
surveillance capability that was broadcast several times
b) Collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved
long range (HF) communication capability 372) Which of the following cloud types is most
c) Continuous automatic position reporting using readily detected by airborne weather radar when
Global Position System (GPS) satellites and using the “weather beam”?
collision avoidance using TCAS II a) Altostratus
d) The elimination of ground to air b) Cumulus
communications and the introduction of c) Cirrocumulus
automatic separation between aircraft using d) Stratus
TCAS II
373) The semicircular canals form part of the
368) The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR a) Inner ear
transponder indicates: b) Middle ear
a) Entry into airspace from an area where SSR c) Ear drum
operation has not been required d) External ear
b) Unlawful interference with the planned 374) The rate and depth of breathing is primary
operation of the flight regulated by the concentration of
c) An emergency a) Water vapor in the alveoli
d) Transponder malfunction b) Oxygen in the cells
c) Carbon in the cells
369) Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station d) Carbon dioxide in the blood
to civil aviation? e) Nitrogen in the air
a) It can provide a DME distance and magnetic
bearing 375) Which component(s) is/are transporting the
b) It can provide a magnetic bearing oxygen in the blood?
c) It can provide DME distance a) Hemoglobin in the red blood cells
d) It is of no use to civil aviation b) White blood cells
c) Plasma
370) A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing d) Blood fat
vertically above the station at flight level FL360 will
obtain a DME range of approximately: 376) Having a serious cold, you are going to fly.
a) 7nm What can you expect:
b) 11nm a) Bends
c) 8nm b) Chokes
d) 6nm c) Hypoxia
d) Pain in the sinuses
371) A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to
identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having 377) What are the main effects of a lack of sleep loss
heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the: on performance?
a) VOR and DME callsigns were the same and a) It causes muscular spasms
broadcast with the same pitch b) It reduces concentration and fatigue only with
b) DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch sleep loss greater than 48 hours
that was broadcast only once c) It increases fatigue, concentration and
attention difficulties, the risk of sensory
illusions and mood disorders
 d) It increases fatigue and concentration
difficulties, but facilitates stress managemet by
muscular relaxation
378) Which of the following symptoms can mark a
beginning hyperventilation?
a) Slow heart beat
b) Slow rate of breathing
c) Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails)
d) Dizzy feeling
379) Which statement is correct?
a) There is no relation between inadequate
communication and incidents or accidents
b) Inconsistent communication behavior improves
flight safety
c) Problems in the personal relation between crew
members hardly hamper their communications
process
d) Problems in the personal relation between
crew members very likely hamper their
communication process
380) Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs,
following a decompression are called:
a) Creeps
b) Leans
c) Chokes
d) Bends
381) The cabin pressure in airline operation is:
a) Normally not exceeding 6000 to 8000 ft
b) Normally not exceeding 2000 to 3000 ft
c) Normally not exceeding 4000 to 5000 ft
d) Always equivalent to sea level
382) After SCUBA diving (more than 30ft of depth)
you have to wait a period of time before flying
again. This period is at least:
a) 24 hours
b) 6 hours
c) 18 hours
d) 12 hours
383) In the following list, you find some symptoms
for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please
mark those indicating hypoxia:
a) Dull headache and bends
b) Dizziness, hypothermia
c) Visual disturbances, lack of concentration,
euphoria
d) Nausea and barotitis
384) The time between inadequate oxygen supply
and incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful
Consciousness). It
a) Varies individually and depends on cabin
pressure altitude
b) Is the same amount of time for every person
c) Is not dependents on physical or psychological
pressure
d) Varies individually and does not depend on
altitude
385) What is VMCA?
a) Minimum control speed flight at which the
aircraft can be controlled with a maximum
bank of 5 degrees, if one engine fails, the other
engine remaining at take-off power (take-off
flap setting, gear retracted)
b) Minimum speed, on the ground during take-off,
at which the aircraft can be controlled by the
use of primary flight controls only, after a
sudden failure of the critical engine, the other
engine remaining at take-off power
c) Minimum control speed in flight at which the
aircraft can be controlled with a maximum bank
of 5 degrees, if two engines fail on the same
side, the other engines remaining at take-off
power (approach flap setting)
d) None of the above
386) What is VMCG?
a) Minimum control speed in flight at which the
aircraft can be controlled with a maximum bank
of 5 degrees, if one engine fails, the other
engine remaining at take-off power (takeoff flap
setting, gear retracted)
b) Minimum speed, on the ground during take-
off, at which the aircraft can be controlled by
use of primary flight controls only, after a
sudden failure of the critical engine, the other
engine remaining at take-off power
c) Minimum control speed in flight at which the
aircraft can be controlled with a maximum bank
of 5 degrees, if two engines fail on the same
side, the other engines remaining at take-off
power (approach flap setting)
 d) None of the above
387) Accelerated Stop Distance Available (ASDA) is?
a) The length of runway declared available and
suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane
taking off
b) The length of the take-off run available plus the
length of the clearway, if provided
c) The length of take-off run available plus the
length of the stop way, if provided
d) The length of an unprepared surface at the end
of the runway in the direction of the take-off
that is capable of supporting an aircraft if the
aircraft has to be stopped during a take-off run
388) Take-off Distance Available (TODA) is?
a) The length of runway declared available and
suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane
taking off
b) The length of the take-off run available plus
the length of the clearway, if provided
c) The length of the take-off run available plus the
length of the stop way, id provided
d) The length of an unprepared surface at the end
of the runway in the direction of the take-off
that is capable of supporting an aircraft if the
aircraft has to be stopped during a takeoff run
389) Take-off Run Available (TORA) is?
a) The length of runway declared available and
suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane
taking off
b) The length of the take-off run available plus the
length of the clearway, if provided
c) The length of the take-off run available plus the
length of the stop way, if provided
d) The length of an unprepared surface at the end
of the runway in the direction of the take-off
that is capable of supporting an aircraft if the
aircraft has to be stopped during a takeoff run
390) Definition of stopway is?
a) The length of runway declared available and
suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane
taking off
b) The length of the take-off run available plus the
length of the clearway, if provided
c) The length of the take-off run available plus the
length of the stopway, if provided
d) The length of an unprepared surface at the end
of the runway in the direction of the take-off
that is capable of supporting an aircraft if the
aircraft has to be stopped during a take-off run
391) What does the abbreviation DER means?
a) Designated engineering representative
b) Departure end of runway
c) Departure extended runway
d) None of the above
392) The segments on a take-off are?
a) First and second segments
b) Ground roll, first and second segment
c) First, second, third and fourth segment
d) None of the above
393) First segment stops at?
a) Landing gear is fully retracted with flaps in the
take-off setting. Climb gradient 2 engine a/c
2.4%.
b) Landing gear is fully retracted with flaps in the
take-off setting
c) Landing gear is fully retracted with flaps in the
take-off setting. Climb gradient 2 engine a/c
4.4%
d) None of the above
394) When does the second segment begins?
a) Begins at the end of first segment and is
continued to not less than 200ft above the
airport elevation. The climb requirement in
second segment is 2.4% gradient for two engine
aircraft and 2.7% for three engine aircraft
b) Begins at the end of first segment and is
continued to not less than 400ft above the
airport elevation. The climb requirement in
second segment is 1.2% gradient for two engine
aircraft and 3.7% for three engine aircraft
c) Begins at the end of first segment and is
continued to not less than 200ft above the
airport elevation. The climb requirement in
second segment is 1.2% gradient for two engine
aircraft and 3.7% for three engine aircraft
d) Begins at the end of first segment and is
continued to not less than 400ft above the
airport elevation. The climb requirement in
second segment is 2.4% gradient for two
 engine aircraft and 2.7% for three engine a) VMCG has to be equal to or less than V1, thus
aircraft ensuring that the aircraft can maintain
directional control with an off-center engine
395) Name the Holding Entries? failure at or above V1.
a) Reverse, cross and teardrop entries b) VMCG has to be equal to or greater than V1,
b) Direct, parallel and teardrop entries thus ensuring that the aircraft can maintain
c) Direct, parallel and reverse entries directional control with an off-center engine
d) All of the above failure at or above V1
c) VMCG has to be equal to or less than V2, thus
396) Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet ensuring that the aircraft can maintain
aircraft which will be the maximum speed? directional control with an off-center engine
a) 230kt TAS failure at or above V2
b) 240kt IAS d) VMCG has to be equal to or greater than V2,
c) 230kt IAS thus ensuring that the aircraft can maintain
d) 240kt TAS directional control with an off-center engine
397) Runway edge lights turning Amber, how many failure at or above V2
feet´s remaining of the runway?
a) 2000ft 402) What happens if you move CG from fwd to aft
b) 2200ft position?
c) 1800ft a) Increased stability with increased elevator trim
d) 2400ft b) It will be tail heavy, and the horizontal
tailplane will have a short memento arm that
398) For a light aircraft following a medium what is will result in the aircraft is longitudinally
the minimum time for wake turbulence separation unstable because it is too tail heavy for the
(assuming take-off from the same point)? horizontal tailplane. Light stick forces for pitch
a) 3min is required. A decreased wing angle of attack
b) 2min which results in lower induced drag. It will also
c) 1min increase aircraft range
d) 5min c) Become heavier making the aeroplane more
difficult to maneuver in pitch
399) For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, d) None of the above
what is the ICAO minimum radar separation
distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly 403) Which moments or motions interact in a Dutch
behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to roll?
the same runway? a) Pitching and adverse yaw
a) 9.3km (5nm) b) Pitching an rolling
b) 7.4km (4nm) c) Rolling and yawing
c) 11.1km (4nm) d) Pitching and yawing
d) 3.7km (2nm)
404) How many % to be considered a contaminated
400) METAR / TAF / are listed as true or magnetic? runway?
a) Magnetic a) 25%
b) FAA & JAA METAR/TAF WIND is reported as b) 18%
the 3 digit true direction to the nearest 10 c) 20%
degrees d) 22%
c) Both A and B is correct
d) None of the above 405) Stopway icreases?
a) ASDA
401) Is VMCG higher or lower than VR? b) TORA
 c) TODA b) 1750
d) Both A and C is correct c) 1650
d) 1680
406) DME range at FL350 is approximately?
a) 229nm 411) An aircraft is at FL40. What is its true altitude if
b) 250nm QNH is 998mb? (Assume 27ft = 1hpa)
c) 331nm a) 3510ft
d) 196nm b) 3900ft
c) 3595ft
407) Definition of QFE: d) 4095ft
a) Barometric pressure adjusted to sea level
b) It is the MSL pressure derived from local 412) An aircraft is flying at FL150, with an outside air
meteorological station conditions in accordance temperature of -30, above an airport where the
with meteorological practice elevation is 1660ft and the QNH is 993hpa.
c) QFE is a reading of station pressure taken on Calculate the true altitude (Assume 30ft = 1hpa)
an accurate barometer and adjusted for any a) 10000ft
difference in height between the barometer b) 14536ft
and the field elevation. If QFE is set, altimeters c) 12348ft
should read zero on the ground at the airfield d) 13536ft
d) None of the above
413) Flying at FL135 above the sea, the radio
408) Definition of QNH altimeter indicates a true altitude of 13500ft. The
a) The airfield barometric pressure local QNH is 1019hpa hence the crossed air mass is
b) The setting that will give zero indication on the on average,
airfield a) At ISA standard atmosphere
c) The equivalent sea level pressure at the b) Colder than ISA
airfield c) Warmer than ISA
d) The setting that will indicate airfield height d) There is insufficient information

414) Airport QNH is 1008hpa, you land with 1013hpa

set in altimeter, what altitude will your altimeter
409) What is pressure altitude? indicate? (Assume 27ft=1hpa) Airport elevation:
a) Pressure altitude is the altitude corrected to 1240ft
standard pressure – if you set your altimeter to a) 1375ft
29.92”, you will be reading pressure altitude b) 1370ft
b) Is the altitude relative to the standard c) 1470ft
atmosphere conditions (ISA) at which the air d) 1475ft
density would be equal to the indicated air
density at the place of observation. In other
words, density altitude is air density given as a 415) Local QNH is 1023, when you pass and set QNE,
height above mean sea level your altitude will?
c) Both A and B is correct a) Increase
d) The amount of water vapor present in air b) Decrease
expressed as a percentage of the amount c) Remain constant
needed for saturation at the same temperature d) None of the above

410) Calculate pressure altitude: QNH 1034 airport 416) An aircraft departs point A at an altitude of
elevation 2,340ft amsl 1500m with the QNH set at 1010mb. It arrives over
a) 1710 point B where the QNH is 990mb, and there is an
 obstacle 1000m high. Assuming 8m/mb what will be d) None of the above
the obstacle clearance over B?
a) 320m 423) Static variation in pitot tube causes an error
b) 360m called?
c) 320m a) Instrument, barometric and pressure error
d) 340m b) Density error
c) Both A and B is correct
417) QFE 980hpa at an airfield of 200m AMSL: What d) None of the above
will the approximate QNH be?
a) 1015hpa 424) At FL100 temp is 15ºC. What´s the ground
b) 1010hpa temp?
c) 1004hpa a) 33ºC
d) 1000hpa b) 25ºC
c) 35ºC
418) Passing through transition level FL080 you set d) 10ºC
QNH 1000. What is the true altitude? (Assume 27ft
= 1hpa) 425) During climb out when would you switch the
a) 7645ft altimeter setting to standard?
b) 7649ft a) Pressure altitude
c) 6789ft b) Transition altitude
d) 7654ft c) Density altitude
d) None of the above
419) What is ISA temperature at FL100?
a) -5ºC 426) What happens to your indicated airspeed if the
b) +5ºC pitot tube is blocked at the start of a descent?
c) -2ºC a) Indicated airspeed will remain constant
d) +2ºC b) Indicated airspeed will increase
c) Indicated airspeed will decrease
420) The temperature at FL110 is -5º Celsius. What d) None of the above
will the temperature be at FL050 if the ICAO
standard lapse rate is applied? 427) If a pitot source is blocked in an Air Speed
a) -5ºC Indicator, and the drain hole is blocked, but the
b) +7ºC static source is open. What will happen during a
c) -2ºC climb?
d) +2ºC a) Airspeed Indicator (ASI) will remain constant
b) Airspeed Indicator (ASI) will show a decrease
421) What is ISA standard? c) Airspeed Indicator (ASI) will show an increase
a) 12.5ºC and 1012hpa d) Both A and C is correct
b) 15ºC and 1013hpa
c) 12.5ºC and 1013hpa 428) If a pitot source is blocked in an Air Speed
d) 15ºC and 1010hpa Indicator, and the drain hole is open, and static
source is open. What will happen during a descent
422) When an altimeter indicates a higher flight level or climb?
than actually flown: a) Airspeed indicator will remain constant
a) The air temperature is warmer than standard b) Airspeed indicator will read zero
b) The aircraft is flying from an area of high c) Airspeed indicator will increase in a climb and
pressure to low pressure decrease in a descent
c) The sub scale has been decreased from QNE to d) Airspeed indicator will decrease in a climb and
QNH increase in a descent

429) What happens to your indicated airspeed if the
static vent is blocked at the start of a climb?
a) IAS will increase at the beginning and remain
constant
b) IAS will increase
c) IAS will decrease
d) IAS will remain constant
430) An aircraft is climbing at constant Mach
number, what will happen with TAS?
a) TAS will decrease
b) TAS will remain constant
c) TAS will increase
d) TAS will decrease at the beginning and increase
at higher altitude
431) An aircraft is descending at constant RAS, what
will happen to MN and TAS?
a) TAS will increase and MN will increase
b) TAS will increase and MN will decrease
c) TAS will decrease and MN will decrease
d) TAS will decrease and MN will increase
432) What happens to your Indicated Airspeed (IAS)
if you descent at a constant True Air Speed (TAS)?
a) IAS will decrease
b) IAS will remain constant
c) IAS will increase
d) Decrease at the start of the descent and then
remain constant
433) What happens to your TAS if you climb at a
constant Indicated Airspeed?
a) TAS will increase
b) TAS will decrease
c) TAS will remain constant
d) Decrease at the beginning of the climb and then
remain constant
434) What happens to your Mach Number (MN) if
you climb at a constant calibrated airspeed or
Indicated Airspeed?
a) MN will decrease at the beginning of the climb
and increase at higher altitude
b) MN will remain constant
c) MN will decrease
d) MN will increase
435) An aircraft climbs at constant TAS through an
inversion, will the RAS and Mach number (MN)
increase, decrease or stay the same?
a) MN will decrease, RAS will decrease
b) MN will increase, RAS will decrease
c) MN will decrease, RAS will increase
d) MN will increase, RAS will increase
436) What happens to your indicated airspeed and
TAS if you fly at a constant IAS into a warmer area?
a) TAS increase, IAS increase
b) TAS increase, IAS decrease
c) TAS decrease, IAS constant
d) TAS increase, IAS constant
437) What happens to MN or IAS when climbing
through an isothermal layer at constant true
airspeed?
a) MN increase, IAS decrease
b) MN remain constant, IAS decrease
c) MN remains constant, IAS increase
d) MN remains constant, IAS constant
438) An aircraft descends through an isothermal
layer with constant TAS, what will happen to the
RAS or Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and Mach
number?
a) RAS or CAS will increase, MN increase
b) RAS or CAS will decrease, MN constant
c) RAS or CAS will remain constant, MN will
increase
d) RAS or CAS will increase, MN constant
439) What happens to the indicated Mach number
(MN) in a long range cruise as weight decreases at
the same flight level?
a) It decreases
b) It increase
c) It will remain constant
d) None of the above
440) You descend with constant Mach number,
which speed limit will be exceeded?
a) VMO
b) MMO
c) VNE
d) VS
441) Mach number is influenced by?
 a) Temperature 448) Non standard holding patterns are?
b) Density altitude a) To the left
c) Both A and B b) To the right
d) None of the above c) Both A and B
d) None of the above

442) What is Mach number?

a) TAS x LSS
b) TAS / LSS 449) What is critical Mach number (Mcrit)?
c) TAS + LSS a) Is the aircraft’s Mach speed at which the
d) TAS – LSS airflow over a wing becomes sonic-critical
Mach number
443) VNE is: b) The critical Mach number of an aircraft is the
a) Never exceed speed highest Mach number at which the airflow over
b) Stalling speed the aircraft exceeds speed of sound
c) Maneuvering speed c) Both A and B is correct
d) None of the above d) None of the above

444) VLO is: 450) What happens to local speed of sound (LSS) or
a) Never exceed speed TAS if one increases or the other decreases?
b) Maximum speed at which the landing gear a) This will affect the Mach number
may be operated b) It will not have any influence on Mach number
c) Maximum speed at which the landing gear may c) Only TAS is affected
be extended d) None of the above
d) Both B and C
451) What is rime ice?
445) What effect has an increase in temp and a) Rime ice is similar to clear ice
altitude (airport) to VMCG? b) A greyish-white crystalline deposit of frozen
a) VMCG decrease because engine thrust decrease water vapor formed in clear still weather on
b) VMCG increases because engine thrust vegetation, fences
decrease c) Rime ice is formed when small super cooled
c) VMCG remain constant because engine thrust water droplets freeze on contact with a surface
decrease which is at a sub-zero centigrade (Celsius)
d) None of the above temperature
d) None of the above
446) If you lose 10kts GS during approach, what will
happen to your VS? 452) Effect on rime ice accumulation on airframe?
a) Decrease by 30ft a) Accumulates slow
b) Decrease by 50ft b) Accumulates fast
c) Decrease by 500ft c) Accumulates slow and will spread out as a
d) Decrease by 300ft slower rate
d) None of the above
447) When do you use Anti-ice?
a) Temperature below 0ºC 453) Which one give the likely shortest holding time?
b) Temperature at or below 12ºC and haze a) Rain
c) Visible moisture and temperature close to or b) Snow
below freezing point c) Freezing rain
d) None of the above d) Both A and C
454) In what type of cloud can icing virtually ruled c) RWY 030
out? d) None of the above
a) Cirrus
b) Cumulonimbus 462) Relative humidity?
c) Stratus a) Does not change when water vapor is added
d) Nimbostratus provided the temperature of the air remains
constant
455) Which cloud type is most easily detected by the b) Changes when water vapor is added, even
weather radar? though the temperature remains constant
a) Cirrus c) Is not affected when air is ascending or
b) Cumulus descending
c) Cirrostratus d) Is not affected by temperature changes of the
d) Both A and C air
463) What is dewpoint:
456) What is the temperature at troposphere (Poles, a) The temperature at which the relative humidity
equator)? and saturation vapor pressure are the same
a) Poles -15ºC and equator -70ºC b) The temperature at which ice melts
b) Poles -40ºC and equator -75ºC c) The freezing level (danger of icing)
c) Poles -35ºC and equator -70ºC d) The temperature to which a mass of air must
d) Poles -45ºC and equator -75ºC be cooled in order to reach saturation

457) Altocumulus Castellanos are indication of? 464) Windshear is:

a) Mid-atmospheric instability a) A variation only in vertical wind velocity over a
b) High-atmospheric instability short distance
c) Mid-atmospheric stability b) A variation only in horizontal wind velocity over
d) High-atmospheric stability a short distance
c) A large variation in vertical or horizontal wind
458) Where is hail most encountered? velocity and/or wind direction over a short
a) Cumulonimbus clouds distance
b) Altocumulus clouds d) A variation in vertical or horizontal wind
c) Cirrus clouds velocity and/or wind direction over a large
d) None of the above distance

459) Which cloud type is classified as medium level 465) Sequence of speeds on take-off?
cloud? a) V1, VMCA, VR, V2
a) Altostratus b) V1, VMCA, VMCG, V2
b) Cirrus c) V1, VMCA, V2, VR
c) Stratus d) None of the above
d) Lenticular clouds
466) Correct order of the following speeds V2, V1,
460) What type of cloud can be expected with virga? VMCG, VR, VMCA are?
a) Cirrus a) V1, VMCG, VMCA, VR, V2
b) Nimbostratus and altocumulus b) VMCG, V1, VMCA, VR, V2
c) Cumulus c) VMCG, VR, VMCA, V1, V2
d) Stratus d) None of the above

461) What does the meaning PROB30 means? 467) What is squawk code for hijacking?
a) Probability 30% a) 7700
b) 30 minutes b) 7600
 c) 7500 b) Certification purposes, aircraft needs to be
d) 1200 evacuated in less than 120 sec through half of
the available exits
468) Failure on IFR flight while in VMC, what is your c) Certification purposes, aircraft needs to be
action? evacuated in less than 60 sec through half of
a) Squawk 7600, proceed in VMC to an the available exits
appropriate airfield and inform ATC ASAP d) Certification purposes, aircraft needs to be
b) Squawk 7700, proceed in VMC to an evacuated in less than 140 sec through half of
appropriate airfield and inform ATC ASAP the available exits
c) Squawk 7600, land on an airfield
d) None of the above 475) The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of:
a) 0.5ºC 100m
469) Emergency descent first action? b) 2ºC 1000ft
a) Oxygen mask on c) 0.65ºC 100m
b) Seat belt on d) 3ºC 1000ft
c) Squawk 7700
d) Both A and C 476) What is climb gradient?
a) Is an aircraft´s vertical speed – the rate of
altitude change with respect to time. In most
470) Rapid decompression first action? ICAO members countries (even in otherwise
a) Oxygen mask on metric countries), this is usually expressed if
b) Seat belt on feet per minute (ft/min)
c) Squawk 7700 b) The rate, expressed as a percentage, of the
d) Both A and C change in geometric height divided by the
horizontal distance traveled in a given time
471) Time of useful consciousness at FL440? c) Both A and B is correct
a) 20sec d) None of the above
b) 10sec
c) 14sec 477) What is your rate of descent on a 3 degrees ILS
d) 12sec when your GS reads 100kt?
a) 1500ft/min
472) If you encounter engine failure during cruise b) 500ft/min
flight what procedure do you use: c) 1000ft/min
a) Driftdown d) 700ft/min
b) Emergency descent
c) Descent 3000ft 478) What does “radar contact” mean in ATC calls?
d) None of the above a) Used by ATC to inform an aircraft that is
identified on the radar display and radar flight
473) When do you use driftdown? following will be provided until radar
a) During engine failure identification is terminated
b) Rapid descent b) Conflicting aircraft ahead
c) During normal cruise c) To help a controller identify an aircraft´s
d) None of the above secondary radar (transponder) return
d) None of the above
474) How long to evacuate an airplane with more
than 44 sits? 479) ILS CAT I Minimums:
a) Certification purposes, aircraft needs to be a) 200ft DH and 2400 RVR
evacuated in less than 90 sec through half of b) 400ft DH and 2400 RVR
the available exits c) 200ft DH and 3400 RVR
 d) 400ft DH and 1400 RVR 484) How does an up-slope affects V1 Speed?
a) Increase V1
480) Definition of wet runway? b) Decrease V1
a) A runway surface is considered wet when more c) V1 remain constant
than 25% of the runway surface area is covered d) None of the above
with standing water
b) A runway is considered “wet” when there is 485) Effect of forward CG?
sufficient moisture on the surface to appear a) Longitudinal stability is increased
reflective, but without significant areas of b) Longitudinal stability is decreased
standing water. A runway surface that appears c) Longitudinal stability remains constant
darkened by residual moisture (damp runway) d) None of the above
shall not be considered wet or contaminated
except as outlined below 486) Lift formula is:
c) A runway is considered wet runway whenever a) L = (1/2)d v6 s CL
standing water, ice, snow, slush, frost in any b) L = (1/2)d v4 s CL
form, heavy rubber, or other substances are c) L = (1/2) d v2 s CL
present d) None of the above
d) None of the above
487) Which device increase the stalling AoA?
481) How does a wet runway affect distance and V1? a) Slats
a) It will decrease the distance b) Flaps
b) It will have no effect c) Speedbrakes
c) It will increase the take-off and landing d) Ailerons
distance
d) It will decrease take-off distance and increase 488) How is gliding distance affected by the weight
landing distance of the aircraft?
a) Increasing the gliding distance
482) If the aircraft takes off at the wet V1 instead of b) Decreasing the gliding distance
the dry V1, what is the effect on (i) TODR (ii) climb c) Not affected by weight
performance? d) None of the above
a) (i) TODR increases; (ii) Climb performance
constant 489) If you are climbing at 270/.80 and then you
b) (i) TODR increases (ii) Climb performance increase your speed to 290/.80 are you going to
improved reach the .90m earlier or later?
c) (i) TODR decreases (ii) Climb performance a) Earlier
degraded b) Later
d) (i) TODR decreases (ii) Climb performance c) Has no effect
Improved d) None of the above

483) How does screen height change with a wet V1? 490) A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which
a) Screen height is reduced for a jet aircraft using a) No velocity components exist, normal to the
a wet V1 surface
b) Screen height is increased for a jet aircraft using b) The vortices are weak
a wet V1 c) The velocity is constant
c) Screen height is increased for a turboprop using d) The temperature varies constantly
a wet V1
d) Screen height will remain constant for both jet 491) Roll is the movement of an aircraft along the:
and turboprop aircraft a) Lateral axis
b) Horizontal axis
 c) Longitudinal axis d) One of the above
d) None of the above
498) The Dry Operating Mass includes:
492) Spoilers deployed have the following influence: a) Fuel and passengers baggage and cargo
a) CL max decreases and drag coefficient b) Unusable fuel and reverse fuel
decreases c) Crew and crew baggage, catering, removable
b) CL max increase and drag coefficient decreases passenger service equipment, portable water
c) CL max increase and drag coefficient increase and lavatory chemicals
d) CL max decreases and drag coefficient d) Passengers baggage and cargo
increases
499) Alert messages (lights) that require crew
493) What is the minimum obstruction clearance for attention but not immediate action are what color?
IFR flights in mountainous regions? a) Green
a) Within 4km of the estimated position of the b) Blue
aircraft 1000ft above the highest obstacle c) Amber
b) Within 8km of the estimated position of the d) Red
aircraft 2000ft above the highest obstacle
c) Within 6km of the estimated position of the 500) TCAS is based upon:
aircraft 1000ft above the highest obstacle a) Transponder
d) Within 8km of the estimated position of the b) Navigation lights
aircraft 1000ft above the highest obstacle c) GPS
d) None of the above
494) Definition of VR:
a) Rotation speed 501) The fix distance markings on a RWY are at what
b) Decision speed distance?
c) Take-off safety speed a) 400m
d) None of the above b) 300m (990ft)
c) 600m
495) GPWS alerts with “DON´T SINK, DON´T SINK.”: d) None of the above
a) Excessive altitude loss after takeoff or go-
around 502) When does the hold over time starts?
b) Above glide slope a) At the beginning of the last step in the de-
c) Execute missed approach ice/anti-ice process
d) None of the above b) At the end of the last step in the de-ice/anti-ice
process
496) What happens to the stall speed Vs if weight of c) Holdover time begins at the start of the anti-
the aircraft is decreased? icing operation
a) Increased d) None of the above
b) Decreased
c) Weight has no influence on Vs 503) A class B fire is a fire of:
d) None of the above a) Liquid or liquefiable solid
497) The actual take-off mass (TOM) is: b) Solid material usually of organic nature
a) The take-off mass is the mass of the aircraft at c) Electrical source fire
the start of the take-off run d) Special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
b) Is the maximum aircraft gross weight due to
design or operational limitations at which an 504) Hyperventilation causes:
aircraft is permitted to land a) An excess of carbon dioxide in the blood
c) Maximum mass at which the aircraft is certified b) A reduction of carbon dioxide in the blood
for take-off due to structural or other limits c) Acidosis
 d) Hypochondria c) VR and VMCA
d) V2 and VMCG
505) Which of the following symptoms can mark a
beginning hyperventilation? 512) A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing
a) Slow heart beat vertically above the station at flight level FL360 will
b) Slow rate of breathing obtain a DME range of approximately:
c) Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails) a) 4nm
d) Dizzy feeling b) 8nm
c) 6nm
506) What are the consequences of fatigue and d) 5nm
sleeplessness?
a) Dizziness 513) The presence of ice pellets at the surface is
b) Reduced performance evidence that:
c) Both A and B a) Freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude
d) None of the above b) Snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air
c) Rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures
507) What is BENDS? below 0ºC
a) Chokes d) None of the above
b) Creeps
c) Sickness due to pressurization 514) Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given
d) None of the above configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker
will be triggered is?
508) 90 knots is equal to how many km/h: a) At Vs
a) 166km/h b) Greater than Vs (Approx. 10% above stall
b) 176km/h speed)
c) 156km/h c) Less than Vs (Approx. 10% below stall speed)
d) 186km/h d) None of the above

509) What is the lowest visibility forecast at ETA 515) The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an
Zurich 1430 UTC? LSZH 260900Z 261019 indication of?
20018G30KT 9999 RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 1215 a) Development of thermal lows
23012KT 6000 DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 b) Presence of valley winds
23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= c) Presence of mountain waves
a) 4km d) Risk of orographic thunderstorms
b) 6km
c) 2km 516) Mod C 2000 means:
d) 10km a) Flying over areas without transponder
requirement
510) During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes b) Hijack
extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler c) Communication failure
deflection: d) Engine failure
a) On the down going wing only
b) On the up going wing only 517) You have been intercepted, the frequency for
c) Both A and B is correct communication is:
d) None of the above a) 122 or 243mhz
511) Maximum and minimum values of V1 are b) 121.5 or 243mhz
limited by: c) 120.5 or 243mhz
a) VR and VMCG d) Both B and C
b) V2 and VMCA
518) A traffic is approaching your aircraft from right d) 140 degrees
side. Which light do you see?
a) Fixed red
b) Fixed green 525) Conversion formula from Celsius to Fahrenheit
c) Fixed blue is:
d) Fixed yellow a) F = 9 / 5C + 32
b) F = 10 / 5 C + 32
519) Ground speed is 120kts, your approach angle is c) F = 9 / 3 C + 32
3 degrees. What is your fpm? d) F=9/5C+0
a) 800fpm
b) 600fpm 526) On take-off and high speed you realize your
c) 400fpm tires are deflated. What do you do and how does it
d) 200fpm affect the braking performance?
a) Continue the take-off. It will increase breaking
520) With higher pressure what happens to performance
performance and landing distance? b) Abort the take-off before V1. It will reduce
a) Performance decrease and landing distance breaking performance
decrease c) Abort the take-off before V1. It will have no
b) Performance increase and landing distance effect on breaking performance
increase d) None of the above
c) Performance decrease and landing distance
increase 527) If you scuba dive greater than 30ft, how long
d) None of the above should you wait before flying?
a) 24hrs
521) Induced drag is produced by: b) 36hrs
a) Lift c) 12hrs
b) Profile drag d) 48hrs
c) Form drag
d) Both B and C 528) Heading rose is frozen on 200 deg and you are
lined up on the ILS 25. Your localizer needle will be?
522) The ground proximity warning system (GPWS) is a) Centered
a system working according to a height span ranging b) To the right
from? c) To the left
a) 50ft to 2000ft d) None of the above
b) 100ft to 2500ft
c) 60ft to 2000ft 529) Minimum temperature in standard
d) 50ft to 2500ft atmosphere?
a) -45.5 degrees Celsius
523) Noise minimum climb thrust change altitude is: b) -46.5 degrees Celsius
a) 1200ft AGL c) -54.5 degrees Celsius
b) 600ft AGL d) -56.5 degrees Celsius
c) 800ft AGL
d) 1000ft AGL 530) Two aircraft travelling at same true airspeed,
one big and one small. Which has the smaller radius
524) The navigation lights must be capable of being of turn?
seen within how many degrees? a) The smaller one
a) 100 degrees b) The same radius of turn
b) 110 degrees c) The larger one
c) 120 degrees d) None of the above
 c) 20nm from holding facility, provides 300m
531) With high temperature, which of the following (1000ft) or 2000ft in mountains vertical
is affected: Rate of climb or angle of climb? clearance
a) Rate of climb improves with higher temperature d) 25nm from homing facility, provides 300m
b) Rate of climb only (1000ft) or 2000ft in mountains vertical
c) Angle of climb only clearance
d) Both rate of climb and angle of climb
532) What are conditions necessary for formation of 537) Why is the secondary radar not used for
fog? meteorological reasons?
a) Fog is formed (1) when temperature is reduced a) The range is too short
below the dew point temperature or (2) when b) The range is to long
moisture is added to air until condensation c) Because it’s a transponder
takes place d) None of the above
b) Fog is formed (1) when the temperature is
reduced below the dew point temperature or 538) If your altimeter indicates 13000 but the RA
(2) when stable air is added until condensation 12000, what is happening?
takes place a) ISA -20
c) Both A and B b) ISA -10
d) None of the above c) ISA +15
d) ISA +5
533) If you are flying below your optimum altitude,
how is long range speed affected? 539) What’s the separation in NON RVSM for aircraft
a) Remains constant flying the same direction?
b) Reduced a) 2000ft
c) Increased b) 1000ft
d) None of the above c) 4000ft
d) 5000ft
534) Which of the following changes of state is know
as sublimation? 540) When is QFE and QNH the same?
a) Solid direct to liquid a) When field elevation is 0ft
b) Liquid direct to solid b) When field elevation is 150ft
c) Liquid direct to vapor c) When field elevation is 500ft
d) Solid direct to vapor d) None of the above

535) What happens to CL (Lift coefficient) when you 541) How does the front wheel affect VMCG:
extend speedbrakes during flight? a) It will reduce VMCG
a) Lift decreases and drag increases b) It will increase VMCG
b) Lift decreases and drag decreases c) It’s not taken into account for calculation
c) Lift increases and drag increases d) None of the above
d) None of the above
542) Which is TCASII main advantage?
536) Distance covered by MSA? (minimum sector a) Collision avoidance and GPS position report
altitude) b) Collision avoidance and ILS guidance
a) 50nm from homing facility provides 300m c) Collision avoidance and navigation guidance
(1000ft) or 2000ft in mountains vertical d) None of the above
clearance
b) 15nm from homing facility, provides 300m 543) How long does a TREND last?
(1000ft) or 2000ft in mountains vertical a) 4 hours
clearance b) 2 hours
 c) 1 hours b) Minimum climb gradient in case of a go-
d) 30 min around with one engine inoperative
c) Maximum climb gradient in case of a go-around
544) What is the civil use of a TACAN? with one engine inoperative
a) Reporting position d) Maximum climb gradient in case of a go-around
b) GPS navigation with two engine inoperative
c) DME
d) Both A and B 551) What is CAT II/III approach climb gradient?
a) 2.0%
545) How will ground personal inform you to put the b) 2.5%
parking brakes on? c) 1.5%
a) Arms raised and clench fist d) 3.0%
b) Raising left arm
c) Raising right arm 552) During takeoff in with no wind the wake
d) None of the above turbulence will?
a) Stay on the runway
546) NDB fading is caused by what? b) Move to the runway edges
a) Instrument errors c) Move to the left
b) Pressure difference d) Move to the right
c) Night effect
d) Both A and B is correct 553) If VMCG is higher than V1 is take off allowed
and hoe does it affect balanced field length?
547) When are NDB’s most susceptible to errors? a) No, V1 can’t be lower than VMCG
a) At noon b) No, V1 must be higher than VMCG
b) At midnight c) Yes, V1 can’t be lower than VMCG
c) Dawn and dusk d) None of the above
d) None of the above
554) Time limit to delay or change your flight plan is:
548) How is freezing rain produced? a) 1 hour
a) The raindrops become supercooled while b) 30 min
passing through a sub-freezing layer of air c) 2 hours
many hundreds of feet above the earth, and d) 45 min
then freeze upon impact with any surface they
encounter 555) How will you avoid wake turbulence behind a
b) The raindrops become supercooled while heavy aircraft if you have a crosswind from left?
impacting with freezing surface a) Rotate at the same point
c) Both A and B is correct b) Rotate prior to that point
d) None of the above c) Will not have any influence where you rotate
d) None of the above
549) Class A fire is what?
a) Plastic and glass 556) At what point you are not allowed to continue
b) Tire and glass an approach if weather is below minimums?
c) Wires and wood a) At initial approach fix
d) Paper and wood b) You must not continue past the OM or FAF if
RVR is below minima
550) The approach climb requirement has been c) Both A and B is correct
established to ensure? d) None of the above
a) Minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around
with two engine inoperative
557) Which drag increases beyond critical Mach 563) Minimum separation in MNPS using Mach
number? Number?
a) Wave drag a) 15 minutes
b) Induced drag b) 5 minutes
c) Form drag c) 10 minutes
d) None of the above d) 20 minutes

558) Assuming zero wind, what distance will be 564) What is the approximate angular coverage of
covered by an aircraft descending 15000ft with a reliable navigation information for a 3º ILS glide
TAS of 320kt and maintaining a rate of descent of path out to a distance of 10nm?
3000ft/min a) 3º above and below the glide path and 10º each
a) 25.7nm side of the localizer center line
b) 24.5nm b) 1.35º above the horizontal to 5.25º above the
c) 26.7nm horizontal and 8º each side of the localizer
d) 24.7nm center line
c) 0.45º above the horizontal to 1.75º above the
559) You are flying at FL350, you are instructed by glide path and 8º each side of the localizer
ATC to cross XBC VOR at FL250. Your TAS is 400kts center line
(assuming no winds) and your V/S has to be 500 d) 0.7º above and below the glide path and 2.5º
fpm. When do you start your descend in NM? each side of the localizer center line
a) 150nm
b) 130nm 565) How many O2 masks must be installed in a PAX
c) 144nm aircraft certified above FL320?
d) 133nm a) Number of pax seat plus 20%
b) Number of pax seat plus 10%
560) Dry operating mass = 29800kg maximum take- c) Number of pax seat plus 5%
off mass = 52400kg maximum zero fuel mass = d) None of the above
43100kg maximum landing mass = 46700kg trip fuel
= 4000kg fuel quantity at brakes release = 8000kg. 566) What cruise speed is inserted in the ICAO flight
The maximum traffic load is: plan form?
a) 14500kgs a) IAS
b) 12500kgs b) MN
c) 12900kgs c) CAS
d) 20000kgs d) TAS

561) What do you use to extinguish a fire in a wheel 567) For a heavy smoker, breathing is like being at
tire? what altitude?
a) Water a) 8450ft
b) CO2 b) 10000ft
c) Foam c) 25000ft
d) BCF d) 12000ft

562) What kind of altitude do you use when flying on 568) Precipitation phenomenon SA/TS/FU/DZ in
a GPS / RNAV route? METAR stands for?
a) Barometric a) TS: thunderstorm, SA: Freezing rain, FU: smoke,
b) Pressure altitude DZ: drizzle
c) Density altitude b) TS: thunderstorm, SA: sand, FU: smoke, DZ:
d) None of the above drizzle
c) TS: hail, SA: freezing rain, FU: smoke, DZ: drizzle
 d) TS: thunderstorm, SA: sand, FU: smoke, DZ:
haze
569) What is the relationship between V1 and
VMCG?
a) VMCG > or = a V1
b) VMCG < or = a V1
c) VMCG > or = a V2
d) None of the above
570) An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to
cross a DME facility at FL80. Maximum rate of
descent is 1800ft/min and mean GS for descent is
276kt. The minimum range from the DME at which
descent should start is:
a) 49nm
b) 59nm
c) 69nm
d) 79nm
571) The maximum theoretical range at which a UHF
transmission can be received by an aircraft flying at
FL200, assuming the UHF station is at a height of
860ft AMSL is:
a) 213nm
b) 144nm
c) 180nm
d) 170nm
572) ATC require a descent from FL270 to FL160 to
be level 6nm before a VOR. If rate of descent is
800ft per minute, mean groundspeed is 256kts,
how far out from the VOR must descent be started?
a) 59nm
b) 65nm
c) 144nm
d) 150nm
573) What is characterized by a Laissez-faire cockpit?
a) A passive approach by the captain allows
decisions, choices and actions by other crew
members
b) The captain’s authority rules all the actions or
decisions associated with the situation
c) The high level of independence granted to each
member by the captain quickly leads to tension
between the various crew members
d) Each member carries out actions and makes
choices without explicitly informing the other
members about them
574) Emergency oxygen is provided by:
a) Two systems each capable of supplying the
flight deck and cabin
b) Two independent systems, one for flight deck,
one for cabin
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
575) The final reverse fuel for aeroplanes with
turbine engine is:
a) Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at
1500ft (450m) above aerodrome elevation in
standard conditions
b) Fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at
1500ft (450m) above aerodrome elevation in
standard conditions
c) Fuel to fly for 25 minutes at holding speed at
1500ft (450m) above aerodrome elevation in
standard conditions
d) None of the above
576) In the ATS flight plan item 13, in a flight plan
submitted before departure, the departure time
entered is the:
a) Estimated off-block time
b) Estimated time over the first point enroute
c) Estimated take-off time
d) Allocated slot time
577) In the appropriate box of a flight plan, for
endurance, one must indicate the time
corresponding to:
a) The total usable fuel on board the required
fuel for the flight?
b) The required fuel for the flight plus the
alternate and 45 minutes
c) The total usable fuel onboard minus reserve
fuel
d) None of the above
578) Why do the lower layers contain the greater
proportion of the whole mass of the atmosphere:
a) Because air is very viscous
b) Because air is compressible
 c) Because of greater levels of humidity at low
altitude
d) Because air has very little mass
579) What flight condition should be expected when
an aircraft leaves ground effect:
a) A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower
angle of attack
b) An increase in induced drag and a requirement
for a higher angle of attack
c) An increase in dynamic stability
d) A decrease in induced drag requiring a smaller
angle of attack
580) An aerofoil section is designed to produced lift
resulting from a difference in the:
a) Negative air pressure below and a vacuum
above the surface
b) Vacuum below the surface and greater air
pressure above the surface
c) Higher air pressure below the surface and
lower air pressure above the surface
d) Higher air pressure at the leading edge than at
the trailing edge
583) During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled
airspace you experience a two-way radio
communication failure. You will:
a) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
maintaining VMC and inform ATC
b) Select A7600 and continue according current
flight plan to destination
c) Descend to the flight level submitted for that
portion of flight
d) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and
inform ATC
584) Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the
controller advises you that you are on the airway
and to “resume own navigation”. This phrase means
that:
a) You are to contact the center at the next
reporting point
b) You are to assume responsibility for your own
navigation
c) You are still in radar contact, but must make
position reports
d) Radar services are terminated and you will be
responsible for position reports

581) The approach climb requirement has been 585) The radar separation minimum may be reduced
established to ensure: but not below:
a) Minimum climb gradient in case of a go- a) 3.0nm
around with one engine inoperative b) 5.0nm
b) Obstacle clearance in the approach area c) 2.0nm
c) Maneuverability in case of landing with one d) 1.5nm
engine inoperative
d) Maneuverability during approach with full flaps 586) The runway edge lights shall be:
and gear down, all engines operating a) White
b) Blue
582) Which procedure you follow if during an IFR c) Green
flight in VMC you have two way communication d) Red
failure?
a) Return to the aerodrome of departure 587) Runway threshold identification lights, when
b) Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land provided, should be:
as soon as practicable a) Flashing white
c) Continue the flight at the assigned level and b) Fixed green
route; start approach at your ETA c) Flashing green
d) Maintain your assigned level and route and land d) Fixed white
at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC
conditions 588) Which of the following set of factors could lead
to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA?
a) High take-off mass, low flap setting and high
field elevation
 b) Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low
field elevation
c) Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field
elevation
d) High take-off mass, high flap setting and low
field elevation
589) The climb limited take-off mass can be
increased by:
a) Selecting a lower VR
b) A lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a
higher V2
c) Selecting a lower V1
d) Selecting a lower V2
590) The climb limited take-off mass can be
increased by:
a) Selecting a lower VR
b) A lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a
higher V2
c) Selecting a lower V1
d) Selecting a lower V2
591) The empty mass of an aeroplane is recorded in:
a) The weighing schedule and is amended to take
account of changes due to modifications of the
aeroplane
b) The weighing schedule
c) If changes occur, due to modifications, the
aeroplane must be re-weighed always
d) The loading manifest. It differs from the zero
fuel mass by the value of the “traffic load”
592) Prior to departure an aeroplane is loaded with
16500 liters of fuel at a fuel density of 780 kg/m3.
This is entered into the load sheet as 16500kg and
calculations are carried out accordingly. As a result
of this error, the aeroplane is:
a) Lighter than anticipated and the calculated
safety speeds will be too high
b) Lighter than anticipated and the calculated
safety speeds will be too low
c) Heavier than anticipated and the calculated
safety speeds will be too high
d) Heavier than anticipated and the calculated
safety speeds will be too low
593) According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR
flight with no alternate airfield can be undertaken
only if the minimum weather conditions stipulated
in the regulations are effective for at least:
a) 3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the
expected time of arrival
b) 3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the
expected time of arrival
c) 1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the
expected time of arrival
d) 2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the
expected time of arrival
594) In the area where the MNPS is applicable, the
vertical separation that can be applied between
FL290 and FL410 inclusive is:
a) 2000ft
b) 1500ft
c) 1000ft
d) 500ft
595) An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing
procedure and having exceeded the protection time
of the anti-icing fluid:
a) Must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure
for take-off
b) Need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure
for take-off
c) Must only undergo a de-icing procedure for
take-off
d) Must undergo a de-icing procedure before a
new application of anti-icing fluid for take-off
596) In the MNPS (minimum navigation performance
specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the
following action in the event of a failure of the last
inertial navigation system:
a) Request authorization from control to track
another aircraft
b) Set a different heading approximately 45º from
the previous one
c) Immediately climb or descent 1000ft
d) Notify control and wait for a reply within a
reasonable time
597) On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a
turbojet engine aircraft must mandatorily have a
minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient
for flying during:
a) 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
b) 2 hours with normal cruising consumption
 c) 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500ft
d) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500ft
598) On a modern large pressurized transport
aircraft, the maximum cabin differential pressure is
approximately:
a) 13 – 15 psi
b) 22 psi
c) 7 – 9 psi
d) 3 – 5 psi
599) Modern pressurized transport airplanes are
equipped with:
a) Two oxygen system both supplying the cockpit
and the cabin
b) Only portable oxygen bottles
c) Two independent oxygen systems, one
supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin
d) Only one oxygen system supplying the whole
aircraft
600) Refer to the following TAF extract; BECMG 1821
2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the abbreviation “PROB30” mean?
a) Change expected in less than 30 minutes
b) Probability of 30%
c) Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes
d) The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000ft
601) The following weather report EDDM 241322
VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT
0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 is a:
a) 24 hour TAF
b) SPECI
c) METAR
d) 9 hour TAF
602) On which coast of North America, is the danger
of tropical revolving storms the greatest?
a) SE coast
b) W coast
c) N coast
d) NE coast
603) With a pilot probe blocked due to ice build up,
the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in
descent a:
a) Decreasing speed
b) Constant speed
c) Increasing speed
d) Fluctuating speed
604) In a Satellite-assisted navigation system (GNSS /
GPS), a fix is obtained by:
a) The aircraft’s receiver measuring the phase
angle of signals received from a number of
satellites in know positions
b) Measuring the time taken for an aircraft’s
transmissions to travel to a number of satellites,
in know positions, and return to the aircraft’s
receiver
c) Measuring the pulse lengths of signals received
from a minimum number of satellites received
in a specific sequential order
d) Measuring the time taken for a minimum
number of satellites transmissions, in know
positions, to reach the aircraft’s receiver
605) What is the minimum number of satellites
required by a GPS in order to obtain a three
dimensional fix?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 6
d) 4
606) What is characterized by a “laissez-faire”
cockpit?
a) The high level of independence granted to each
member by the captain quickly leads to tension
between the various crew members
b) A passive approach by the captain allows
decisions, choices and actions by other crew
members
c) Each member carries out actions and makes
choices without explicitly informing the other
members about them
d) The captain’s authority rules all the actions or
decisions associated with the situation
607) During a final approach under bad weather
conditions, you feel dizzy, get tingling sensations in
your hands and a rapid heart rate. These symptoms
could indicate:
a) Hyperventilation
b) Disorientation
c) Hypoxia
d) Carbon monoxide poisoning

608) The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way
communications shall the transponder to Mode A
code:
a) 7700
b) 7600
c) 2000
d) 7500
609) The result of a higher flap setting up to the
optimum at take-off is
a) A higher V1
b) A longer take-off run
c) A shorter ground roll
d) An increased acceleration
610) Which of the following statements is applicable
to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd
climb segment?
a) The minimum legally allowed acceleration
height is at 1500ft
b) There is no requirement for minimum climb
performance when flying at the acceleration
height
c) The minimum one engine out acceleration
height must be maintained in case of all engines
operating
d) The maximum acceleration height depends on
the maximum time take-off thrust may be
applied
611) Take of run is:
a) The horizontal distance along the take-off path
from the start of the take-off to a point
equidistant between the point at which VLOF
is reached and the point at which the
aeroplane is 35ft above the take-off surface
b) 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake
release to a point equidistant between the
point at which VLOF is reached and the point at
which the aeroplane attains a height of 35ft
above the runway with all engines operative
c) 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake
release to the point at which VLOF is reached
assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1
d) The distance of the point of brake release to a
point equidistant between the point at which
VLOF is reached and the point at which the
aeroplane attains a height of 50ft above the
runway assuming a failure of the critical engine
at V1.
612) Which statement is correct?
a) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not
less than 1.1 V1
b) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not
less than V1
c) VR must not be less than VMCA and not less
than 1.05 V1
d) VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less
than V1
613) Which speed provides maximum obstacle
clearance during climb?
a) The speed for which the ratio between rate of
climb and forward speed is maximum
b) V2 + 10kt
c) The speed for maximum rate of climb
d) V2
614) The take-off distance available is:
a) The total runway length, without clearway even
if this one exists
b) The length of the take-off run available plus
the length of the clearway available
c) The runway length minus stopway
d) The runway length plus half of the clearway
615) Field length is balanced when:
a) One engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus
flare distance between VLOF and 35ft are equal
b) Take-off distance equals accelerate stop
distance
c) Calculated V2 is less than 10% VMCA and V1,
VR, VMCG D. all engine acceleration to V1 and
braking distance for
d) Rejected take-off are equal
616) Which of the following answers is true?
a) V1 > VR
b) V1 < VMCG
c) V1 <= VR
d) V1 > VLOF
617) What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in
the event of a climb limited take-off?
a) The safety margin with respect to the runway
length is greatest
 b) The take-off distance required with one engine
out at V1 is the shortest
c) The accelerate stop distance required is the
shortest
d) The climb limited take-off mass is the highest
618) For take-off obstacle clearance calculations,
obstacles in the first segment may be avoided
a) By banking not more than 15º between 50ft
and 400ft above the runway elevation
b) By banking as much as needed if aeroplane is
more than 50ft above runway elevation
c) Only by using standard turns
d) By standard turns – but only after passing
1500ft
619) A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach
number below the tropopause. Which of the
following statements is correct?
a) IAS decreases and TAS decreases
b) IAS increases and TAS increases
c) IAS decreases and TAS increases
d) IAS increases and TAS decreases
620) The speed VR
a) Must be higher than VLOF
b) Must be equal to or lower than V1
c) Is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off
angle of attack is initiated
d) Must be higher than V2
621) The second segments begins
a) When landing gear is fully retracted
b) When flap retraction begins
c) When flaps are selected up when acceleration
starts from V2 to the speed for flap
d) Retraction
622) VR cannot be lower than:
a) 105% of V1 and VMCA
b) 1.2 VS for twin and three engine jet aeroplane
c) 1.15 VS for turbo-prop with three or more
engines
d) V1 and 105% of VMCA
623) Given: VS = Stalling speed VMCA = Air minimum
control speed VMU = Minimum unstick speed
(disregarding engine failure) V1 = take-off decision
speed VR = Rotation speed V2 min = Minimum take-
off safety VLOF: Lift-off speed. The correct formula
is:
a) VR < VMCA < VLOF
b) VMU < = VMCA < V1
c) V2min < VMCA > VMU
d) VS < VMCA < V2min
624) A higher outside air temperature (OAT)
a) Decreases the brake energy limited take-off
mass
b) Increases the field length limited take-off mass
c) Increases the climb limited take-off mass
d) Decreases the take-off distance
625) In which of the following distances can the
length of a stopway be included?
a) In the accelerate stop distance available. ASDA
b) In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance
c) In the all-engine take-off distance
d) In the take-off run available
626) At which minimum height will the second climb
segment end?
a) 1500ft above field elevation
b) 400ft above field elevation
c) 35ft above ground
d) When gear retraction is completed
627) Which of the following sequences of speed for a
jet aeroplane is correct? (from low to high speeds)
a) Maximum endurance speed, maximum range
speed, maximum angle of climb speed
b) Maximum endurance speed, long range speed,
maximum range speed
c) Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum
range speed
d) Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle
climb speed
628) When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet
runway the one engine out obstacle clearance /
climb performance:
a) Increases / increases
b) Remains constant / remains constant
c) Decreases / decreases
d) Decreases / remains constant
629) In the event of engine failure below V1, the first d) Equal to or higher than V2
action to be taken by the pilot in order to
decelerate the aeroplane is to: 635) Take-off run is defined as the
a) Apply wheel brakes a) Distance from brake release to V2 B. horizontal
b) Deploy airbrakes or spoilers distance along the take-off path from the start
c) Reduce the engine thrust of
d) Reverse engine thrust b) The take-off to a point equidistant between
the point at which VLOF is reached and the
630) What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a point at which the aeroplane is 35ft above the
constant Mach number take-off surface
a) IAS stays constant so there will be no problems c) Distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine
The “1.3G” altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet failure at V1
will start d) Distance to 35ft with an engine failure at V1 or
b) Immediately 115% all engine distance to 35ft
c) The lift coefficient increases
d) The TAS continues to increase, which may lead 636) The center of gravity near, but still within, the
to structural problems aft limit
a) Increases the stalling speed
631) By what factor must the landing distance b) Improves the longitudinal stability
available (dry runway) for a turbojet powered c) Decreases the maximum range
aeroplane be multiplied to find the landing distance d) Improves the maximum range
required? (planning phase for destination).
a) 115/100 637) What is the advantage of a balanced field length
b) 1.67 condition?
c) 60/115 a) For a balanced field length the required take-off
d) 0.60 runway length always equals the available
runway length
632) With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle b) A balanced field length provides the greatest
can be flown at approximately: margin between “net” and “gross” take-off
a) 1.2 Vs flight paths
b) 1.1 Vs c) A balanced field length gives the minimum
c) The highest CL/CD ratio required field length in the event of an engine
d) The highest CL/CD2 ratio failure
d) A balanced take-off provides the lowest
633) Can the length of a stopway be added to the elevator input force requirement for rotation
runway length to determine the take-off distance
available? 638) Which of the following distances will increase if
a) Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the you increase V1?
weight of the aeroplane a) All engine take-off distance
b) Yes, but the stopway must have the same width b) Take-of run
as the runway c) Accelerate stop distance
c) No d) Take-off distance
d) No, unless its centerline is on the extended
centerline of the runway 639) V2 has to be equal to or higher than
a) 1.1 VMCA
634) V1 has to be b) 1.15 VMCG
a) Equal to or higher than VMCG c) 1.1 VSO
b) Equal to or higher than VMCA d) 1.15 VR
c) Higher than VR
640) Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
a) When determining V1, reverse thrust may only
be used on the remaining symmetric engines
b) The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1
is negative
c) VR may not be lower than V1
d) V1 may not be higher than VMCG
641) A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS.
Which operational speed limit is most likely to be
reached?
a) The stalling speed
b) The minimum control speed air
c) The Mach limit for the Mach trim system
d) The Maximum operating Mach number
642) The landing field length required for turbojet
aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the
demonstrated landing distance plus
a) 67%
b) 70%
c) 43%
d) 92%
643) The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will
result in:
a) The maximum endurance for a propeller driven
aeroplane
b) The maximum angle of climb for a propeller
driven aeroplane
c) The maximum range for a propeller driven
aeroplane
d) The maximum range for a jet aeroplane
644) In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle
limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn,
the bank angle should not exceed
a) 10 degrees up to a height of 400ft
b) 20 degrees up to a height of 400ft
c) 25 degrees up to a height of 400ft
d) 15 degrees up to a height of 400ft
645) The one engine out take-off run is the distance
between the brake release point and:
a) The point half way between V1 and V2
b) The middle of the segment between VLOF
point and 35ft point
c) The lift-off point
d) The point where V2 is reached
646) Which take-off speed is affected by the
presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway?
a) V2
b) VMCG
c) VMCA
d) V1
647) The take-off mass could be limited by
a) The take-off distance available (TODA), the
maximum brake energy and the climb gradient
with one engine inoperative
b) The maximum brake energy only
c) The climb gradient with one engine inoperative
only
d) The take-off distance available (TODA) only
648) A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among
other things, the following consequences on take-
off performance:
a) A reduced take-off distance and degraded initial
climb performance
b) An increased take-off distance and degraded
initial climb performance
c) A reduced take-off distance and improved initial
climb performance
d) An increased take-off distance and improved
initial climb performance
649) The requirements with regard to take-off flight
path and the climb segments are only specified for:
a) The failure of two engines on a multi-engines
aeroplane
b) The failure of the critical engine on a multi-
engines aeroplane
c) The failure of any engine on a multi-engine
aeroplane
d) 2 engines aeroplane
650) Which statement is correct?
a) VR is the speed at which rotation should be
initiated
b) VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure
c) In case of engine failure below VR the take-off
should be aborted
d) VR is the lowest speed for directional control in
case of engine failure
651) If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be
lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct?
a) The ASDR will become greater than the one
engine out take-off distance
b) The take-off is not permitted
c) The one engine out take-off distance will
become greater than the ASDR
d) The VMCG will be lowered to V1
652) The take-off decision speed V1 is:
a) A chosen limit. If an engine failure is
recognized before reaching V1 the take-off
must be aborted
b) Not less than V2min, the minimum take-off
safety speed
c) A chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized
after reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted
d) Sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
653) The speed VLO is defined as
a) Lift off speed
b) Landing gear operating speed
c) Design low operating speed
d) Long distance operating speed
654) The take-off performance requirements for
transport category aeroplanes are based upon:
a) Failure of critical engine
b) Failure of critical engine or all engines
operating which ever gives the largest take-off
distance
c) All engines operating
d) Only one engine operating
655) May anti-skid be considered to determine the
take-off and landing data?
a) Only for take-off
b) Only for landing
c) Yes
d) No
656) For jet aeroplanes which of the following
statements is correct?
a) When determining the maximum allowable
landing mass at destination, 60% of the
available distance is taken into account, if the
runway is expected to be dry
b) In any case runway slope is one of the factors
taken into account when determining the
required landing field length
c) An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect
on the required landing field length
d) The required landing field length is the distance
from 35ft to the full stop point
657) Which of the following statements is correct?
a) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift off
point must be attainable at least at the end of
the permanent runway surface
b) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off
runway, able to support the aeroplane during
an aborted take-off
c) An underrun is an area beyond the runway end
which can be used for an aborted take-off
d) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which
can be used for an aborted take-off
658) Which of the following is true according to JAA
regulations for turbopropeller-powered aeroplanes
not performing a steep approach?
a) Maximum take-off run is 0.5 x runway
b) Maximum use of clearway is 1.5 x runway
c) Maximum landing distance at the destination
aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is
0.7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available)
d) Maximum landing distance at destination is
0.95 x LDA (Landing distance available)
659) An airport has a 3000 meters long runway, and
a 2000 meters clearway at each end of that runway.
For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-
off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be
greater than:
a) 6000m
b) 4000m
c) 5000m
d) 4500m
660) Can the length of a stopway be added to the
runway length to determine the take-off distance
available?
a) Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the
weight of the aeroplane
b) Yes, but the stopway must have the same width
as the runway
c) No
d) No, unless its centerline is on the extended
centerline of the runway
661) The “climb gradient” is defined as the ratio of d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
a) True airspeed to rate of climb
b) Rate of climb to true airspeed 667) A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below
c) The increase of altitude to horizontal air is:
distance expressed as a percentage a) Good
d) The increase of altitude to distance over ground b) Medium / poor
expressed as a percentage c) Medium
d) Poor
662) On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated
indicated as “h” for “heavy” 668) Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a
a) Has a certified landing mass greater than or displaced threshold shall be:
equal to 136000kg a) Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow
b) Has a certified take-off mass greater than or b) Flashing white
equal to 140000kg c) Fixed lights showing variable white
c) Requires a runway length of at least 2000m at d) Fixed lights, white or yellow color
maximum certified
d) Is of the highest wake turbulence category 669) In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach
segment begins at the:
663) The maximum permissible take-off mass of an a) IF
aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on a b) FAP
flight plan is: c) FAF
a) 7000kg d) MAP
b) 2700kg
c) 5700kg 670) In a straight departure, the initial departure
d) 10000kg track is of the alignment of the runway center line
within:
664) From which of the following would you a) 45º
expected to find the dates and times when b) 12,5º
temporary danger areas are active c) 15º
a) SIGMET d) 30º
b) RAD/NAV charts
c) NOTAM and AIP (Air information publication) 671) What is meant when departure control instruct
d) Only AIP (Air information publication) you to “resume own navigation” after you have
been vectored to an airway?
665) On an instrument approach chart, a minimum a) Radar service is terminated
sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a b) Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC
radionavigation facility. Without any particular c) You are still in radar contact, but must make
specification on distance this altitude is valid to: position reports
a) 10nm d) You should maintain that airway by use of
b) 25nm your navigation equipment
c) 20nm
d) 15nm 672) Independent parallel approaches may be
conducted to parallel runways provided that a no
666) Early symptoms of hypoxia could be: 1 – transgression zone (NTZ) of at least:
euphoria 2 – decreased rate and depth of breathing a) 500m is established between extended runway
3 – lack of concentration 4 – visual disturbances center lines and as is depicted on the radar
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct display
b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
 b) 710m is established between extended runway
center lines and as is depicted on the radar
display
c) 600m is established between extended runway
center lines and as is depicted on the radar
display
d) 610m is established between extended runway
center lines and as is depicted on the radar
display
673) The vertical IFR separation minimum being
applied by ATC within a controlled airspace above
FL290 is:
a) 500ft (150m)
b) 4000ft (1200m)
c) 2000ft (600m)
d) 1000ft (300m)
674) Runway end lights shall be:
a) Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the
direction of the runway
b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the
direction of the runway
c) Fixed lights showing variable red
d) Fixed lights showing variable white
675) The center of gravity is the:
a) Center of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in
relation to a datum line
b) Focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a
datum line
c) Neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in
relation to a datum line
d) Point where all the aircraft mass is considered
to be concentrated
676) In cruise flight, an aft center of gravity location
will:
a) Decrease longitudinal static stability
b) Increase longitudinal static stability
c) Does not influence longitudinal static stability
d) Not change the static curve of stability
677) Which of the following statements is correct?
a) The maximum take-off mass is equal to the
maximum mass when leaving the ramp
b) The basic empty mass is equal to the mass of
the aeroplane excluding traffic load and useable
fuel but including the crew
c) The maximum landing mass of an aeroplane is
restricted by structural limitations,
performance limitations and the strength of
the runway
d) The maximum zero fuel mass ensures that the
center of gravity remains within limits after the
uplift of fuel
678) What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate?
a) 2,0ºC / 1000ft
b) 3,0ºC / 1000ft
c) 1,5ºC / 1000ft
d) 3,5ºC / 1000ft
679) Which jet stream is connected with a surface
front system?
a) The easterly jet stream
b) The subtropical jet stream
c) The polar front jet stream
d) The equatorial jet stream
680) Which of the following processes within a layer
of air may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds?
a) Convection
b) Subsidence
c) Radiation
d) Frontal lifting within stable layers
681) Departure procedure – design the main
factor(s) that dictate(s) in general the design of an
instrument departure procedure is/are:
a) ATC availability and requirements
b) Availability of navigation aids
c) The terrain surrounding the aerodrome
d) Airspace restrictions applicable and in force
682) The standards contained in the Annexes to the
Chicago convention are to be considered:
a) Binding for the member states that have not
notified ICAO about a national difference
b) Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation
within the member states
c) Binding for all member states
d) Binding for all air line companies with
international traffic
683) Which one of the following statements about
Bernoulli´s theorem is correct?
 a) The dynamic pressure decreases as static
pressure decreases
b) The total pressure is zero when the velocity of
the stream is zero
c) The dynamic pressure is maximum in the
stagnation point
d) The dynamic pressure increases as static
pressure decreases

684) On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the

“pitch up” phenomenon:
a) Nevers occurs, since a swept wing is a “remedy”
to pitch up
b) Is caused by extension of trailing edge lift
augmentation devices
c) Is caused by wingtip stall
d) Is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on
the wings

685) Total pressure is:

a) Static pressure minus dynamic pressure
b) ½ rho V2
c) Measured at a small hole in a surface, parallel
to the local stream
d) Static pressure plus dynamic pressure

686) A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:

a) Execute the Valsalva maneuver
b) Close the eyes and relax
c) Talk oneself through the relevant procedure
aloud to emotionally clam down and reduce
the rate of breathing simultaneously
d) Don an oxygen mask

687) Hyperventilation is:

a) An accelerated heart frequency caused by a
decreasing blood-pressure
b) A reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the
brain
c) A normal compensatory physiological reaction
to a drop in partial oxygen pressure (i.e. when
climbing a high mountain)
d) An accelerated heart frequency caused by an
increasing blood pressure

688)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
c d a c b a d d a a c c d c d d d a b c
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
a c d b b b d c d c c a d a a b b c d
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230
b d b b a a b d b c a b a d c a c b b b
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
b d c a c c a c a b a a d d c c c c d
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250
a c b c c b b d a c b a b c d a c b a d
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260
d a b b b a c b d b d b c b d b d c d c
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270
a c d c b a b d a b a b a b c d a c a
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280
b a b d a d a c a a b b a b d b a b d b
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290
d c d c d a d c d d d d b d c d c d a
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
c d c d a d b c a a b d a a d c c b a c
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310
c d b d d d a b c a a b a c c b c a c d
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320
a a b d b a c d a d a b c b a d b c a c
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330
b b a d b c a c c c a a d d d d a d d c
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340
d a d b d c a c c b b a d b b c c c d
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350
c b d c a b b b c c c a b b d a b b b c
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360
b a d c d c d a b a b a d b b c b a a d
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370
c d c d d d d a c d a b a b d d a a c d
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380
c d d c d c b b a c b b a d a d c d d c
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390
d b b c b c a b a a a c a a b c b a d
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400
b a d d c a c b b b b c b d b c a b b b
401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609 610
a b c a a a c c a a d a a d d b a b c d
411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 611 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620
c d c a b d c b a b a b a b b c a a c c
421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 621 622 623 624 625 626 627 628 629 630
b b a c b c c b c a a d d a a b c d c c
431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 631 632 633 634 635 636 637 638 639 640
c c a d a d b d a a d c c a b d c c a c
441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 641 642 643 644 645 646 647 648 649 650
c b a b b c a a a d d c d b d a b b a
451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 651 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660
c c c a b d a a a b b a b b c a b c d c
461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670
a b d c a b c a a a c d a c b b d c b c
471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 671 672 673 674 675 676 677 678 679 680
d a a a d b b a a b d d c a d a c b c a
481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 681 682 683 684 685 686 687
c a a a a c a c a a c a d c d c
491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500
c d b a a b a c c a
501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510
b c a b d b c a b a
511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520
a c a b c a b a b c
521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530
a d c b a b a a d b
531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540
b a b d a d c a c a
541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550
c a b c a c c a d b
551 552 553 554 555 556 557 558 559 560
b b a b b b a c d c
561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570
c a c b b d a b b c
571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580
a b a b a a a b b c
581 582 583 584 585 586 587 588 589 590
a b a b a a a b b b
591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600
a c c d d b c c b