Day 37: Daily MCQ Workout - Contact Number: 9667591930

40 Revision MCQs / 8527521718

1 The plane wavefront is incident on a spherical 4 The relation between the fringe width for the red
mirror as shown. The reflected wavefront will be: light and yellow light is: (all other things being the
same.)
1.  βred < βyellow

2.  βred > βyellow

3.  βred = βyellow

4.  βred = 2βyellow

5 In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2

mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two
  wavelengths λ1  = 12000 Å and  λ2  = 10000 Å. At what
minimum distance from the common central bright
fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit, will a bright fringe
1. 2. from one interference pattern coincide with a bright
fringe from the other?
1. 6 mm
2. 4 mm
3. 3 mm
4. 8 mm

3. 4.
2 Which statement is true for interference?
Two independent sources of light can
1.
produce interference pattern.
2. There is no violation of conservation of energy.
3. White light cannot produce interference.
The interference pattern can be obtained even
4.
if coherent sources are widely apart.
6 A diffraction pattern is observed using a beam of
red light. What will happen if the red light is replaced by
the blue light?
1.  No change takes place.
2.  Diffraction bands become narrower.
3.  Diffraction bands become broader.
4.  Diffraction pattern disappears.
7 At the first minimum adjacent to the central
maximum of a single slit diffraction pattern, the phase
difference between the Huygen’s wavelet from the edge
of the slit and the wavelet from the midpoint of the slit
is:
1.   radianπ

4
π
2.   radian2

3 On superposition of two waves 

3. π radian
π
y = 3sin (ωt − kx) and  y = 4sin (ωt − kx +
1 2 )  at 4.   radian
π
8
2

a point, the amplitude of the resulting wave will be:

1.  7 The ratio of resolving powers of an optical
2.  5 8
3.  √7 microscope for two wavelengths 
o o

4.  6.5 λ1 = 4000 A  and λ2 = 6000 A  is:

1. 8:27
2. 9:4
3. 3:2
4. 16:81

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  Day 37: Daily MCQ Workout - Contact Number: 9667591930
40 Revision MCQs / 8527521718

9 The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter 13 The vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene
telescope for a wavelength of 5000 Å is of the order of: are 160 and 60 torr respectively. The mole fraction of
1. 10–4 rad toluene in vapour phase in contact with an equimolar
solution of benzene and toluene is -
2. 10–6 rad
1. 0.50
3. 106 rad 2. 0.6
4. 10–2 rad 3. 0.27
4. 0.73

10 Five identical polaroids are placed coaxially with 

45°   angular separation between pass axes of adjacent 14 The incorrect statement among the following for an
polaroids as shown in the figure. ideal solution is -
(I0: Intensity of unpolarized light) 1. ∆mixH = 0
           2. ∆mixU = 0
3. ΔP = P ‐ P
obs. = 0 
calculated   by   Raoult 's  Law

4. ∆mixG = 0  

15 Heptane and octane form an ideal solution. At 373

The intensity of light, I, emerging out of the 5th polaroid K, the vapour pressures of the two liquid components
is: are 105.2 kPa and 46.8 kPa respectively. The vapour
I0 pressure of a mixture of 26.0 g of heptane and 35 g of
1.   4 octane would be -
I0
2.   8
1. 43.45 kPa
I0 2. 78.96 Pa
3.   16
I0
3. 73.43 kPa 
4.   32
4. 65.72 Pa

11 If the density of lake water is 1.25 g mL–1  and 16 The lowest boiling point, if concentration is fixed at
contains 92 g of Na+  ions per kg of water, then the 0.1 M in aqueous solution, is given by which of the
following solutions?
molality of Na+ ions will be- a. K2SO4
1. 3.24 molal
b. NaCl
2. 4 molal
c. Urea
3. 5 molal
d. Glucose
4. 3.5 molal
1. a, b
2. b, c
3. c, d
12 The partial pressure of ethane over a solution 4. d, a
containing 6.56 × 10–2  g of ethane is 1 bar. If the
solution contains 5.00 × 10–2 g of ethane, the partial
pressure of the gas will be - 17 A solution containing 6.8 g of a non-ionic solute in
1. 0.66 bar 100 g of water was found to freeze at −0.93  oC. The
2. 0.96 bar freezing point depression constant of water is 1.86. The
3. 0.76 bar molecular weight of the solute is-
4. 0.19 bar 1. 13.6 m
2. 34 m
3. 68 m
4. 136 m

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  Day 37: Daily MCQ Workout - Contact Number: 9667591930
40 Revision MCQs / 8527521718

18 An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. Vapour 23 An antibody molecule has an antigen-binding site
pressure of the solution can be increased by located in the:
1. Addition of NaCl 1.  hinge region
2. Addition of Na2SO4 2.  disulfide bonds
3. Addition of 1.00  molal Kl 3.  constant region of the L chains
4. Addition of water
4.  variable regions of the H and L chains

19 A solution containing 3.3 g of a substance in 125 g

of benzene (b.p. 80 °C) boils at 80.66 °C. If Kb for one
24 What type of immunity is provided by the
-1
litre of benzene is 3.28 °C m , the molecular weight of convalescent plasma therapy in Covid-19 patients that is
the substance shall be - in contemporary news?
1. 127.20 g mol-1 1.  Naturally acquired active adaptive immunity
2. 131.20 g mol-1 2.  Artificially acquired active adaptive immunity
3. 137.12 g mol -1 3.  Naturally acquired passive adaptive immunity
4. 142.72 g mol -1 4.  Artificially acquired passive adaptive immunity

20 In which of the following, boiling point will not

increase?
1. Addition of Kl in 1 M glucose solution
2. Addition of Kl in 1 M urea solution
3. Addition of Kl in 1 M H gl  solution
2
4. Addition of Kl in 1 M NaCl solution
21 Consider the given two statements:
I:  The acquired immune response is called "adaptive".
 In acquired immunity, pathogen-specific receptors
II:
are "acquired" during the lifetime of the organism.
1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. I is correct and II is incorrect.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.
25 Identify the incorrect statement regarding HIV:
1.  It is a retrovirus with a single copy of RNA
2.  It can be transmitted through breastfeeding
 It initially uses macrophages as factories for
3.
replication
 Progression of the infection to AIDS can take up to
4.
10 years
26 Cancer is :
1. a disease caused by DNA viruses
2. caused by the multiplicity of virulent infections
3. a genetic disease caused by multiple mutational events
4. a hazard due to the occupation of an individual

27 A tumor that invades surrounding tissues is usually

capable of producing metastases, may recur after
22 Non-specific response to microbes that enter the attempted removal, and is likely to cause death unless
human body involves the response of all the following adequately treated. Such a tumor is called a:
except: 1.  Benign tumor 2.  Malignant tumor
1.  T lymphocyte 2.  Neutrophil 3.  Teratoma 4.  Secondary tumor
3.  Macrophage 4.  Natural Killer cell

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  Day 37: Daily MCQ Workout - Contact Number: 9667591930
40 Revision MCQs / 8527521718

28 Identify the incorrect statement: 32 In the human body, the malaria parasite first
 Leukaemias are diagnosed by blood and bone multiplies in:
1. 1. RBC
marrow tests.
2.  CT scan uses X rays. 2. Hepatocytes
3. Hepatic sinusoids
 MRI uses ionising radiation and strong magnetic
3. 4. Lymphocytes in secondary lymphoid organs
fields.
 Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens can be
4.
used for the detection of certain cancers. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
33
Entamoeba histolytica:
 Cysts of Entamoeba can survive for up to a month in
1.
soil or for up to 45 minutes under fingernails.
29 The receptors for the drug shown below are located
 Invasion of the intestinal lining results in bloody
in: 2.
diarrhea.
 Infection remains confined to the gastrointestinal
3.
tract.
 Infections can sometimes last for years if there is no
4.
treatment.

1. CNS and CVS 2. CVS and GIT 34 B cells:

3. CNS and GIT 4. CNS and PNS  Do not produce antibodies but help T cells produce
1.
them
 Are pathogen specific but do not retain the memory
2.
of previous encounters
30 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as 3.  Lack ability to distinguish between self and non-self
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). 4.   Are involved in humoral immune response
 Smoking causes oxygen deficiency in
Assertion (A):
the body.
 Smoking increases the concentration of
Reason (R):
haembound oxygen. 35 Antibodies present in colostrum protects the
  In the light of the above statements, choose the most newborn from certain diseases which are of:
appropriate answer from the options given below : 1.  Ig G type 2.  Ig A type
1.  Both (A) and (R) are false.
3.  Ig D type 4.  Ig E type
2.  (A) is true but (R) is false.
 Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly
3.
explains (A).
4.
 Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not 36 A drug that would not be helpful in the treatment of
explain (A). allergies is:
1.  Antibiotics 2.  Antihistaminics
3.  Steroids 4.  Adrenaline
31 The clinical test that is used for the diagnosis of
typhoid is:
1.  ELISA 2.  ESR
3.  PCR 4.  Widal

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  Day 37: Daily MCQ Workout - Contact Number: 9667591930
40 Revision MCQs / 8527521718

37 The microenvironment for the development and

maturation of T lymphocytes is provided by: Fill OMR Sheet*
I. Bone marrow
II. Thymus *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
III. Spleen where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there. After
1. Only II 2. Only III filling the OMR, you would get answers and explanations
for the questions in the test.
3. Only I and II 4. I, II and III

38 Opioids bind to specific receptors in CNS and:

1.  GIT 2.  CVS
CLICK HERE to get
3.  Liver 4.  Lungs FREE ACCESS for 2
days of ANY
39 Given below are two statements: NEETprep course
Statement I:
Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense
mechanism recognized its own cells as foreign bodies
Statement II:
Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not
attack self cells
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
2. Both statement I and statement II are correct
3. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

40 Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(a) Cellular barrier (i) Interferons
(b) Cytokine barrier (ii) Mucus
(c) Physical barrier (iii) Neutrophils
(d) Physiological barrier  (iv) HCI in gastric juice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
2. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
3. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
4. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

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