28 June 2022 Shift 2 Memory Based Questions

JEE Main Exam 2022 - Session 1
28 June 2022 - Shift 2 (Memory-Based Questions)
Section A: Physics
Q.1. A 10 kg ladder of length √34 m lean against frictionless wall 3 m away from wall. Find the ratio of normal force by floor and
wall.
A) 10
3
B) 20
3
C) 13
√109
D) 0
Answer: 10
3
Solution:
Applying force balance in vertical direction
N1 = mg = 100 N
Applying torque balance at the bottom contact point,
mg × 32 = N2 × 5 ⇒ N2 = 30 N
N1 10
Therefore,
N2
= 3
Q.2. rd rd
A particle moves along the straight line such that it moves ( 13 ) distance with speed v1, the next ( 13 ) distance with speed
rd
v2 and remaining ( 13 ) distance with speed v3. Then its average speed throughout motion is
A) 2(v1v2+v2v3+v3v1)
v1+v2+v3
Embibe: AI Powered Personalised Adaptive Learning & Outcomes Platform 1

B) (v1+v2+v3)
3
C) v1+v2 v2+v3 v3+v1

2
+ 2
+ 2
D) 3(v1v2v3)
v1v2+v2v3+v3v1
Answer: 3(v1v2v3)
v1v2+v2v3+v3v1
Solution: Let the total distance be d.

rd
Time taken to cover ( 13 ) of total distance is t1 = 3vd .
1
rd
Time taken to cover ( 3 )
1 d
of total distance is t2 = 3v .
2
rd
Time taken to cover ( 13 ) of total distance is t3 = d .
3v3
Average speed= Total distance

Total time
d
vavg = d d d
+ +
3v1 3v2 3v3
3(v1v2v3)
⇒ vavg = v1v2+v2v3+v3v1
Q.3. Half life of radioactive material is 200 days. Find percent of nuclei remaining after 83 days.
A) 75%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 12. 5%
Answer: 75%
Solution: As we know, λ = ln2

t1
2
Also number of nuclei at anytime is given by, N = N0e−λt
−( ln 2
200 ×
) 83
Percentage of nuclei after 83 day will be, =
N
N0
× 100 = e × 100 = e−0.287 × 100 ≈ 75%
Q.4. A 2 kg block has velocity 4 m s−1 enters a rough surface at x = 0.5 m to x = 1.5 m, where f = −kx, ( k = 12 N m−1).
Find speed when it comes out of the surface.
A) 2 m s−1
B) 3 m s−1
C) 4 m s−1
D) 1 m s−1
Answer: 2 m s−1

Solution:
f 12x
Acceleration of the block a = m = − 2 = −6x (Here the block is retarding)
Now, using, a = v dv
dx
⇒ v dv = a dx
on integrating, we get
v 1.5
∫ 4 v d v = −6 ∫ 0.5 x d x
= −6 ( )
v2−42 (1.5) 2−(0.5) 2
⇒ 2 2
⇒ v2 = 16 − 12 ⇒ v = 2 m s−1
Q.5. Water falls at a rate of 600 kg s−1 from a height of 60 m. How many bulbs of capacity 100 W each will glow from the energy
produced at the bottom of the fall? Assume full conversion of energy of falling water.
A) 600
B) 2400
C) 3000
D) 3600
Answer: 3600
Solution: Since 100% efficiency is given, all the energy of the falling water will be used by the bulbs. Therefore,
Δmgh
Δt
= n × P ⇒ 600 × 10 × 60 = 100n ⇒ n = 3600
Q.6. In the circuit shown below, if all the resistances are r = 1 Ω , then the value of a is ______.
A) 24
B) 12
C) 6
D) 3
Answer: 24

Solution:
Each pair on the right side of the circuit is in parallel connection, hence it can be replaced by a resistance of r as shown.
2
Now, r & 2r in each branch on the right side is in series, hence combined resistance value will be, 3r
2
. Upper branch having
resistance 3r
2
is in parallel with another 3r
2
, hence it can be written as 3r
4
.
7r
Further, simplified circuit will have net resistance of 8 .
Therefore,
3 24
I= 7r
= 7
⇒ a = 24
8
Q.7. In a Y DSE, a slab (μ = 1. 5) of thickness xλ is kept in front of one of the slits. If the intensity at the central maxima remains
unchanged, what is the value of x?
A) x=2
B) x=1
C) x = 0.5
D) x = 1.5
Answer: x=2

Solution: Since the intensity at the central maxima remains unchanged, the change in the path difference should be an integral multiple
of the wavelength. Therefore,
n
Δx = (μ − 1)t = nλ⇒ (1. 5 − 1)xλ = nλ⇒ x = 0.5
= 2n
For n = 1
x=2
Q.8. A short-circuit coil is placed in time varying magnetic field. Electrical power is dissipated due to the current induced in the coil.
If the number of turns are halved and the wire radius doubled, then the electrical power dissipated would be
A) Doubled
B) Same
C) Quadruple
D) Half
Answer: Doubled
Solution: 2
Power in the coil is P = VR ,
Induced voltage V in a coil is depends on number of turns N , area of coil A, and time varying magnetic field B.
dϕ d(NBA)
V = dt
= dt
ρl
And R = , where ρ is resistivity, l is length of wire and r is radius of wire.
πr2
So power dissipated power in coil is

2 2
P= ρl
[ dt ]
πr2 d(NBA)
= ρl
[ dt ]
πr2N 2 d(BA)
N 2r2
P∝ l
Now, when N' = N , r' = 2r, l' = l ,

2 2
2 2 2 2
= ( N2 ) ( r21 ) ( l1 ) = ( 12 ) ( 21 ) (2) = 2
P2 N r l
P1 1 2
Power becomes doubled.
Q.9. In the given circuit the capacitor of 5 μF is initially charged to 30 V and the 10 μF capacitor is uncharged. What will be the
charge on the 10 μF capacitor when the key K is closed?
A) 150 μC
B) 100 μC
C) 50 μC
D) 250 μC
Answer: 100 μC

Solution: The initial charge on the 5 μF capacitor will be q = CV = 150 μC . If the charge on the 10 μF capacitor is q after the key is
closed then,
150−q q
5
= 10
⇒ q = 100 μC
Q.10. Two opposite charges are placed at a distance d as shown. Electric filed strength at mid-point is 6. 4 × 104 N C −1. Then the
value of d is,
A) 42. 1 m
B) 94. 86 m
C) 72. 2 m
D) 62. 8 m
Answer: 94.86 m
Solution:
Direction of electric field at mid-point due to both charge will be in same direction, which is towards right.
kq kq
Therefore, E at mid point = 2
+ 2
( d2 ) ( d2 )
⇒ 6. 4 × 104 = 2 × [9 × 109 ×
(8×10−3)
d2
× 4]
⇒ d = 30√10 m ≈ 94. 86 m
Q.11. In an AC circuit, the voltage across the inductor and capacitor is 2 times that of resistance. The supply voltage is
220 V, 50 Hz and resistance is 5 Ω . If the inductance is 1 H, find the value of k.
kπ
A) 8
B) 10
C) 7
D) 5
Answer: 10

Solution: Since the voltage across the inductor and capacitor is same, the circuit is in resonance. Therefore, the current in the circuit will
be,
V 220
i= R
= 5
= 44 A.
The voltage across the inductor is double that across the resistor. Therefore, VL = 2VR = 440 V.
440 1
We know that VL = iXL = i × 2πfL ⇒ L = = H
44×100π 10π
Therefore, k = 10.
Q.12. Consider two particles of equal mass and at separation r. How many times will the force between them become when the
mass of one of the particles becomes three times maintaining the same separation?
A) 9
B) 3
C) 1. 5
D) √3
Answer: 3
Solution: The gravitational force between particles is given by, F =

Gm 1m 2
r2
Gm 2
∵ F1 = r2
and
Gm(3m) 3Gm 2
F2 = r2
= r2
⇒ F2 = 3F1
Q.13. A block of mass m and a pulley of mass m are arranged as shown. The string connecting the block and the pulley does not
slip on the pulley as the block moves down. Find the tension in the string.
A) mg
4
B) mg
2
C) mg
3
D) 2mg
3
Answer: mg
3

Solution:
Torque about centre τ = TR = Iα, where, angular acceleration α = a and I is moment of inertia.
R
2 2
mR α mR a maR ma
⇒ TR = 2
= 2R
= 2
⇒T= 2
Now, using Newton's equation of motion,
mg − T = ma
2g
mg − ma
2
= ma ⇒ a = 3
So, tension in string is T = ma = m [ ] =

2g mg
2 2 3 3
Q.14. g
Time period of simple pendulum of length l when placed in a lift which is accelerating upwards with the acceleration is
6
A)
2π√ 7g
6l
B)
2π√ 6g
7l
C)
2π√ 2g
3l
D)
2π√ 5lg
Answer:
2π√ 7g
6l
Solution: When the lift is accelerating upward with acceleration a the effective acceleration due to gravity can be taken as g ′ = g + a
l
⇒ T = 2π√ g+a ⇒ T = 2π√ l
g
g+ 6
⇒ T = 2π√ 7g
6l
Q.15. de-Broglie wavelength of two identical particles are related as λ1 = 3λ2, then the kinetic energy K 1 and K 2 of the particles
are related as
A) K 2 = 3K 1
B) K 2 = 9K 1
C) K 1 = 3K 2
D) K 1 = 2K 2
Answer: K 2 = 9K 1

Solution: As we know, λ = p =
h h
√2mK
h h
Hence, we can write λ1 = & λ2 =
√2mK1 √2mK2
= √ K2
λ1 K
⇒ λ2 1
⇒ 3 = √ K2
K
1
⇒ K 2 = 9K 1
Q.16. Water is flowing through a frustum like section of a pipe as shown in the diagram. Pressure difference across the ends is
4000 N m−2. Area of cross-section A = √6 m2. Find the volume flow rate through the pipe.
A) 1 m3 s−1
B) 2 m3 s−1
C) 4 m3 s−1
D) 8 m3 s−1
Answer: 4 m3 s−1
Solution:
From the equation of continuity, v2 = 2v1.
Applying the Bernoulli's Theorem,
ρv2 ρ4(v) 2 3ρv2

P1 + 2
= P2 + 2
⇒ P1 − P2 = 2
⇒ 4000 = 3×1000×v2
2
⇒ v = √ 83
Now volume flow rate, Q = Av = √6 × √

8
3
= 4 m3 s−1
Q.17. A drop of water of radius 1 mm is falling through air. Find the terminal speed of the drop knowing that density of air is
negligible as compared to density of water. (ηair = 2 × 10−3 Nsm ,g = 10 ms−2)
−2
A) 2. 2 ms−1
B) 1. 1 ms−1
C) 1. 6 ms−1
D) 2. 8 ms−1
Answer: 1. 1 ms−1

Solution: 2r2(ρ−σ)g
Terminal velocity is given by vT = , where, r is radius of falling body, ρ is density of falling body and σ is density of
9η
fluid.
2×10−6×103×10
⇒ vT =
9×2×10−3
10
⇒ vT = 9
= 1. 1 m s−1
Q.18. The temperature of a sample of gaseous O2 is doubled such that O2 disassociates into O. Find the ratio of new vrms to old
vrms
A) 2
B) √2
C) 4
D) 1
2
Answer: 2
The RMS velocity of a gas is given by, vRMS = √

Solution: 3RT
M
M
When O2 dissociates into O its molecular mass becomes 2 . Therefore,
Ratio of RMS speed, v = √ × ⇒ v2 = √ 2T × M ⇒ v1 = 2

v1 T1 M2 v1 T M/2 v2
2 T2 M1
Q.19. For an amplitude modulated wave given by y (t) = 10 [1 + 0.4 cos (2π × 104t)] cos (2π × 107t). Find the bandwidth.
A) 10 kHz
B) 20 MHz
C) 20 kHz
D) 10 MHz
Answer: 20 kHz
Solution: Expression for modulation is given by,
s (t) = Ac [1 + μ cos (2πfm t)] cos (2πfct), where fm and fc are the frequency of the modulating signal and the carrier signal
respectively.
Comparing it with the given expression in question, we get,
fm = 104 Hz
Now, Bandwidth = 2fm = 20 kHz

Q.20. Two parallel wires carry same magnitude current that is 1 A the distance between two wires is given as d = 4 cm. The force
per unit length experienced by the wires (in 10−7 N m−1) is equal to ______.
A) 50
B) 25
C) 100
D) 75
Answer: 50
Solution:
The force per unit length is given by,

(2×10−7)×1×1
( Fl = )
μ0I1I2
2πd
⇒ F
l
= 0.04
= 50 × 10−7 N m−1

Section B: Chemistry
Q.1. Consider the following oxides of nitrogen:

N2O, N2O2, N2O3, N2O4, N2O5
How many of them consist of N − N bond?
A) Four
B) Five
C) Two
D) One
Answer: Four
Solution: The structures of the given compounds are given below.
Only four of the above have N − N bond. N2O, N2O2, N2O3 and N2O4 have N − N type bond.
Q.2. Using the following standard reduction potential (Eo) :

Eο (Sn4+/Sn2+) = 0.15 V and Eο (Sn2+/Sn) = −0.14 V ; Eο for Sn4+/Sn would be
A) 0.005 V
B) 0.01 V
C) –0.005 V
D) 0.002 V
Answer: 0.005 V
Solution: Eois an intensive thermodynamic property.
Eo ΔGo = nEo F
Sn4+ + 2 e− ⟶ Sn2+ 0.15 V – 0.30 F
Sn2+ + 2 e− ⟶ Sn – 0.14 V + 0.28 F
Adding : Sn4+ + 4 e− ⟶ Sn,
ΔG 0Reaction = Δ G 0Product − Δ G 0Reactant

Δ G ο = − nF E0Cell
Δ G ο = −4 Eο F = −0.02 F
⇒ Eο = 0.005 V
Q.3. Photochemical smog contains

A) N2
B) O3
C) SF4
D) F2
Answer: O3
Solution: Photochemical smog is formed due to photochemical oxidation (due to action of sunlight) of hydrocarbons and nitrogen
oxides. UV light is absorbed by NO2. This highly energised molecule.
The photochemical smog always contains PAN and O3. It is a type of air pollution derived from vehicular emission from
internal combustion engines and industrial fumes.
(NO2) decomposes into nitric oxide and atomic oxygen. Atomic oxygen reacts quickly with oxygen to form ozone.
Hence, the photochemical smog contains O3.
Q.4. 3− 2− 4−
Consider the following complexes [Fe(CN)6] , [Ni(CN)4] and [Fe(CN)6]
How many complex(es) is/are paramagnetic?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
Answer: 1
Solution: 3−
[Fe(CN)6] = Fe(III) = 3d5 ( 1 unpaired electron)
2−
[Ni(CN)4] = Ni(II) = 3d8 (No unpaired electron)
[Fe(CN)6]4− = Fe(II) = 3d6 (No unpaired electron)
Q.5. Which of the following is a basic oxide?
A) Al2 O3
B) SiO2
C) Na2 O
D) NO2
Answer: Na2 O

Solution: Oxides of metals are generally basic in nature but some are amphoteric in nature.
Oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature but some of them are neutral.
NO2 is acidic in nature it reacts with bases.

Al2 O3 is amphoteric in nature as it reacts with both acids and bases.
SiO2 is acidic in nature.
Na2 O is a basic oxide and it reacts with acids readily.
Q.6. X reacts with Br 2 /H2O to give gluconic acid and reacts with HNO3 to give saccharic acid. Name X
A) Maltose
B) Starch
C) Fructose
D) Glucose
Answer: Glucose
Solution: On oxidation with nitric acid, glucose as well as gluconic acid both yield a dicarboxylic acid, saccharic acid. This indicates the
presence of a primary alcoholic (− OH) group in glucose.
Q.7. The isotopes of Hydrogen differ in the following property

A) Electronic configuration
B) Number of protons
C) Atomic number
D) Atomic mass
Answer: Atomic mass
Solution: Isotopes are the atoms of the same element with different mass number. They have the same atomic number. So, number of
protons and electrons are same, Hence their electronic configuration are same, but number of neutrons are different.
Hydrogen has three isotopes: protium, 11H, deuterium, 21H or D and tritium, 31H or T . These isotopes differ from one another in
respect of the presence of neutrons. Ordinary hydrogen, protium, has no neutrons, deuterium (also known as heavy hydrogen)
has one and tritium has two neutrons in the nucleus.

Q.8. Nitration of Aniline in presence of conc. HNO3 and conc.H2 SO4 gives
A) o-nitroaniline as the major product
B) m-nitroaniline as the major product
C) p-nitroaniline as the major product
D) 2, 4-dinitroaniline as the major product
Answer: p-nitroaniline as the major product
Solution: Nitration: Direct nitration of aniline yields tarry oxidation products in addition to the nitro derivatives. Moreover, in the strongly
acidic medium, aniline is protonated to form the anilinium ion which is meta directing. That is why besides the ortho and para
derivatives, significant amount of meta derivative is also formed.
Q.9. FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3

Considering the extraction of copper, SiO2 and FeSiO3 are respectively:
A) Flux and slag
B) Slag and flux
C) Gauge and flux
D) Gauge and slag
Answer: Flux and slag
Solution: During extraction of copper, iron oxide present as impurity is removed by adding SiO2 and converting it into FeSiO3
FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3

Flux Slag
Q.10. The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is:
A) 1-formyl-4-nitrobutanal
B) 4-nitro-3-oxobutanal
C) 4-oxo-3-nitrobutanal
D) 3-oxo-4-nitropropanal

Answer: 4-nitro-3-oxobutanal
Solution:
4-nitro-3-oxobutanal
Aldehyde is the main functional group and ketone group and nitro groups will act as substituent groups. Numbering will be
done from the aldehyde side.
Q.11. In which of the following compounds does sulphur shows two different oxidation states?
A) H2S2O3
B) H2S2O6
C) H2S2O7
D) H2S2O8
Answer: H2S2O3
Solution:
In this molecule both sulphur has different oxidation number one has -2 oxidation number and other has +6 oxidation number.
Average oxidation number of sulphur will be +2.
Q.12. Which of the following set of quantum number is valid?
A) n l m s
1
4 3 0 2
B) n l m s
1
2 1 −2 2
C) n l m s
1
3 3 2 2
D) n l m s
1
1 1 0 2

Answer: n l m s
1
4 3 0 2
Solution: In an atom possible values of l, m and s for a given value of n are
l = 0, .. . . . (n − 1)
m = −l, 0, + l = (2l + 1)
s = + 12 or − 12
The possible values of given quantum number are
n l m s
1
4 3 0 2
Q.13. Find the empirical formula of a compound which contains 74% C, 17.3% N, 8.7% H by mass.
A) C 4H 6N
B) C 5H 7N
C) C 3H 5N
D) C 4H 5N 2
Answer: C 5H 7N
Solution: Elements % by mass Moles Whole number ratio

74
C 74 12
= 6. 17 5
8.7
H 8. 7 1
= 8.7 7
17.3
N 17. 3 14
= 1. 24 1
Q.14. HCHO
−−−→ CN − H3O+
Isobutaldehyde K2 CO3 A −−→ B −−→ P
The product P is:
A)
B)

C)
D)
Answer:
Solution:
Q.15. Consider the following reaction,
1. Cl2 /hv
−−−−−−→
2. KCN
+/Δ
A 3. H3O 4 − bromophenylacetic acid
What is A in the above reaction?

A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer:

Solution:
Q.16. [CH 3 COO−]

The pH of a buffer solution of acetic acid is 4. Find the value of
[CH 3 COOH]
Given Ka of acetic acid is 1. 3 × 10−5.

A) 2. 3
B) 10. 2
C) 0. 13
D) 1. 5
Answer: 0. 13
Solution:
pH = pKa + log ( [CH
[CH 3 COO−]
)
3 COOH]
4 = 5 − log(1. 3) + log (
[CH 3 COO−]
)
[CH 3 COOH]
log (1. 3 × 10−1) = log ( [CH

[CH 3 COO−]
)
3 COOH]
[CH 3 COO−]
= 0. 13
[CH 3 COOH]
Q.17. Nature of colloidal solution of Fe (OH)3 is:
A) Neutral
B) Positive
C) Negative
D) Amphoteric
Answer: Positive
Solution: Nature of colloidal solution of Fe (OH)3 is obtained by hydrolysis of FeCl 3
FeCl 3 → Fe 3+ + 3 Cl−
Fe 3+ + H2O → H+ + Fe (OH)3
Fe (OH)3 + Fe 3+ → Fe (OH)3/ Fe 3+
Fe (OH)3 sol absorbs Fe 3+ ions to become positive colloid.
Q.18. Consider the structure of SF4, the number of lone pair(s), position of lone pair(s) and number of lone pair-bond pair repulsions
respectively are:
A) 1, equatorial position, 4

B) 1, axial position, 4
C) 1, axial position, 3
D) 1, equatorial position, 6
Answer: 1, equatorial position, 4
Solution: The lp is in an equatorial position, and there are two lp—bp repulsions. Hence, arrangement (b) is more stable. The shape
shown in (b) is described as a distorted tetrahedron, a folded square or a see-saw.
Q.19. Position of C atoms to which Cl is attached in the product:
A) 3
B) 2
C) 4
D) 1
Answer: 4
Solution: In presence of sunlight free radical substitution reaction will take place. Among the given positions, the free radical is most
stable at the benzyl position. So, major product will be formed accordingly.
Q.20. The structure of Tagamet (Cimetidine) is:

A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer:

Solution: Cimetidine is a member of the class of guanidines that consists of guanidine carrying a methyl substituent at position 1, a
cyano group at position 2 and a 2 − {[(5 − methyl − 1H − imidazol − 4 − yl) methyl]sulfanyl} ethyl group at position 3.
Q.21. The half-life of a substance is 200 days. Find the % activity of remaining substance after 83 days, if it decays through first
order kinetics.
[Round off to the nearest integer]
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 83%
Answer: 75%
Solution: For first order reaction,
2.303 No
K= t log Nt ... (1)
0.693
Also, K = t ... (2)
1
2
Equating (1) and (2)
2.303 No 0.693
Hence, t log Nt = t1
2
2.303 No 0.693
83
log Nt
= 200
No 4
= 3
Nt
Nt
% N = 0. 75 × 100
0
= 75%
Q.22. V ml of 0. 01 M KMnO4 solution is titrated with 20 ml of 0.05 M Mohr's salt, calculate the value of V2.
A) 10 ml
B) 5 ml
C) 20 ml
D) 15 ml
Answer: 20 ml

Solution: N 1V 1 = N 2V 2
n factor for KMnO4 = 5, n factor for Mohr's salt = 1
V 20
0. 01 × 5 × 1000 = 1 × 0. 05 × 1000
1×0.05×20
V= 0.01×5
= 20 ml
2 KMnO4 + 10 FeSO4 (NH4)2 SO4. 6H2O + 8H2 SO4 → K2 SO4 + 2 MnSO4 + 5 Fe 2 (SO4)3 + 10(NH4)2 SO4 + 68H2O

Section C: Mathematics
Q.1. lim
6 tan ( n→∞ ∑nr=1 tan−1 1
) =
r2+3r+3
A) 3
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Answer: 3
= tan−1 ( 1+(r+1)(r+2) )
Solution: 1 (r+2)−(r+1)
Tr = tan−1
r2+3r+2+1
= tan−1 (r + 2) − tan−1 (r + 1)
T1 = tan−1 3 − tan−1 2
T2 = tan−1 4 − tan−1 3
.
.
Tn = tan−1 (n + 2) − tan−1 (n + 1)
1
⇒ ∑nr=1 tan−1 = tan−1 (n + 2) − tan−1 2
r2+3r+3
lim lim
i.e. 6 tan ( n→∞ ∑r=1 tan−1 ) = 6 tan ( n→∞ ∑nr=1 [tan−1 (n + 2) − tan−1 2])
n 1
r2+3r+3
= 6 tan ( π2 − tan−1 2)
= 6 tan (tan−1 12 ) = 3
Q.2. 11
The term independent of x in the expansion of (1 − x2 + 3x3)( 5 x3 − 1 2 ) is equal to
2 5x
A) 43
− 200
B) 17
100
C) 17
− 200
D) 33
200
Answer: 33
200

Solution: 11
General term of ( 2 x3 − 2 )
5 1
is
5x
11−r r
Tr+1 = 11Cr( 52 x3) (− )
1 r 511−2r
= 11Cr(−1) ⋅ ⋅ x33−5r
5x2 211−r
11 11
The term independent of x in the expansion of (1 − x2 + 3x3)( x3 −
5
2
1
) will be the coefficient of x0 in ( x3 −
5
2
1
) −
5x2 5x2
11 11
coefficient of x−2 in ( x3 − 2 ) + 3× coefficient of x−3 in ( 52 x3 − )
5 1 1
2 5x 5x2
7 5−3 330 33
= −11C7(−1) ⋅ = = 200
24 53⋅24
Q.3. If vertex of parabola is (2, −1) and equation of its directrix is 4x − 3y = 21, then the length of latus rectum is
A) 2
B) 8
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: 8
Solution:
We know that, in any parabola, the length of the latus rectum = 4a and perpendicular distance from vertex to the directrix = a
∣ ∣
8+3−21
So, a = ∣∣ ∣
∣
∣ √42+(−3)2 ∣
⇒ a = ∣∣ 5 ∣∣ = 2
−10
Therefore, the length of the latus rectum 4a = 4 × 2 = 8
The area enclosed by x-axis & the curve y = 3 − |x + 1| − ∣∣x − ∣∣ is

Q.4. 1
2
A) 27
8
B) 23
8
C) 25
8
D) 27
4
Answer: 27
8

Plotting the graph of the function y = 3 − |x + 1| − ∣∣x − ∣∣ and x-axis, we get
Solution: 1
2
1
Now applying the formula of area of trapezium which is
2
× height × (sum of parallel sides) we get,
Required area of Trap (ABCD) =

1
2
× 32 × (3 + 32 ) = 27
8
If cot α = −1, secβ = − , where α ∈ ( , π) and β ∈ (π, ) , then

Q.5. 5 π 3π
3 2 2
tan (α + β) is
A) 1
7
B) − 13
C) 1
3
D) − 17
Answer: 1
7
Solution: cot α = −1 ⇒ tan α = −1 and secβ = − 53 ⇒ tan β = 4

3
tanα+tanβ −1+ 43 1
tan (α + β) = 1−tanα tanβ
= = 7
1+ 43
Q.6. If 30 identical candies are distributed among 4 students S1, S2,S3 and S4 such that S2 can get at least 4 and at most 7, S3
can get at least 2 and at most 6 and no restrictions on S1 and S4, then number of ways in which the candies can be
distributed are
A) 430
B) 520
C) 640
D) 330
Answer: 430

Solution: Given, S1 + S2 + S3 + S4 = 30
Now it has given that 4 ≤ S2 ≤ 7 & 2 ≤ S3 ≤ 6
and S1 & S4 can take any value.
Finding coefficient of x30 in
(x0 + x1+. . . . . . x30) (x4 + x5+. . . . . . x7) (x2+.. .x6) (x0+....x30)
1−x31 2 4 1−x4
=( ) x ( )x2 ( )
1−x5
1−x 1−x 1−x
{Ignoring higher power more than 30}

2
= ( 1−x ) x4 ( 1−x )x2 ( 1−x )
1 1−x4 1−x5
−4 −4
= x6 (1 − x4) (1 − x5)(1 − x) = x6 (1 − x5 − x4 + x9)(1 − x)
−4
= (x6 − x11 − x10 + x15)(1 − x)
4+24−1
Required coefficient = C24 − 4+19−1C19 − 20+4−1C20 + 15+4−1C15
= 27C24 − 22C19 − 23C20 + 18C15 = 430
Q.7. The equation of plane passing through the point (2,−1,0) and perpendicular to planes 2x − 3y + z = 0 and 2x − y − 3z = 0
is
A) 5x + 4y + 2z = 0
B) 2x − y + z = 3
C) 5x + 4y + 2z − 6 = 0
D) 2x + y − z = 3
Answer: 5x + 4y + 2z − 6 = 0
Solution: Let the required equation of the plane be a (x − x1) + b (y − y1) + c (z − z1) = 0
So 2a − 3b + c = 0 and 2a − b − 3c = 0
a b c
i.e.
5
= 4
= 2
Hence, equation of required plane is 5 (x − 2) + 4 (y + 1) + 2 (z − 0) = 0 ⇒ 5x + 4y + 2z − 6 = 0
Q.8. lim
If the x→1 ( ) = −2, then the value of a − b is
sin(3x2−4x+1)−x2+1
2x3−7x2+ax+b
A) 11
B) 21
C) 17
D) 7
Answer: 11

Solution: lim
Given x→1 ( ) = −2 .. .(i)
sin(3x2−4x+1)−x2+1
2x3−7x2+ax+b
Putting x = 1 in limit we get
lim sin 0−1+1 lim

⇒ x→1 ( ) = −2 ⇒ x→1 ( 0
) = −2
2−7+a+b a+b−5
For limit to exist a + b − 5 should be zero
so a + b − 5 = 0 ⇒ a + b = 5 . . . (ii)
Now Using L-Hospital in equation (i) we get
lim cos(3x2−4x+1)(6x−4)−2x
x→1 = −2
6x2−14x+a
Again putting x = 1 we get
lim (cos0)×(6−4)−2
⇒ x→1 = −2
6−14+a
lim 0
⇒ x→1 = −2
a−8
Again for limit to exist a − 8 = 0 ⇒ a = 8
So from equation (ii) we get
8 + b = 5 ⇒ b = −3
So a − b = 8 − (−3) = 11
Q.9. If n arithmetic means are inserted between a and 100, then ratio of first arithmetic mean and n th arithmetic mean is 1 : 7 and
a + n = 33, then the value of n is
A) 21
B) 22
C) 23
D) 24
Answer: 23
Solution: Let the A.P. be a, A1, A2. . . An, 100
100−a
Here, common difference, d =
n+1
1
= 17 . . . (i)
A1 a+d
Given = 7
⇒
An 100−d
Also a + n = 33
90 15
From options, when n = 23, a = 10 and d = =
24 4
15
10+
55 1
from (i) = =
4
100− 154 385 7
Q.10. If two sets be A = {a, b, c, d} & B = {1, 2, 3, 4,5},f : A → B be one-one function, then find the probability when
f (a) + 2 f (b) − f (c) = f (d)
A) 1
20
B) 1
30

C) 1
40
D) 1
50
Answer: 1
20
Solution: Total cases will be 5C4 × 4!
Now favourable cases for 2f (b) = f (c) + f (d) − f (a) will be,
Case (I) if f (b) = 1 then f (c), f (d), f (a) can take the value 3, 4,5 & 4,3,5 respectively
Case (II) if f (b) = 2 then f (c), f (d), f (a) can take value 3,5,4 & 5,3,4 respectively
Case (III) if f (b) = 3 then f (c), f (d), f (a) can take value 2,5,1 & 5,2,1 respectively
So total favourable case will be 6

favourable cases
So probability=
total outcomes
= 6 = 1
20
5×4!
Q.11. Let f (x) be a quadratic expression such that f (−2) + f (3) = 0. If one root of f (x) = 0 is −1, then the sum of the roots of
the quadratic equation f (x) = 0 is
A) 11
3
B) 8
3
C) − 11
3
D) 3
11
Answer: 11
3
Solution: Let f (x) = ax2 + bx + c
Given, f (−2) + f (3) = 0
⇒ 4a − 2b + c + 9a + 3b + c = 0
⇒ 13a + b + 2c = 0 . . . (i)
Since −1 is a root of f (x) = 0. So, f (−1) = 0
⇒ a − b + c = 0 . . . (ii)
On solving equations (i) & (ii), we get
11
11a + 3b = 0 ⇒ − ab = 3
−b
Now, we know that sum of the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 is a .
11
∴ The sum of the roots of f (x) = 0 is 3
.
Q.12. 4k 3k
Let f (x) + f (x + k) = n . If I1 = ∫ 0 f (x)dx and I2 = ∫ −k f (x)dx, then I1 + I2 equals
A) nk
B) 2nk

C) 3nk
D) 4nk
Answer: 4nk
Solution: Given f (x) + f (x + k) = n . . . (i)
4k
I1 = ∫ 0 f (x)dx
3k
Now I2 = ∫ −k f (x)dx
Let x = t − k ⇒ dx = dt
4k
⇒ I2 = ∫ 0 f (t − k)dt
= ∫ 04k (n − f (t))dt {as f (t − k) = n − f (t)}
= ∫ 04k ndt − ∫ 04k f (t)dt
= 4nk − I1
Hence, I1 + I2 = 4nk
Q.13. x−3 y−2 z−1

The image of point P (3, 2, 3) with respect to the line = = is S. If a point Q (α,β,γ) divides PS internally in the
3 4 5
ratio 1 : 3, then (α, β, γ) is
( 33 , 12 , 5 )
A)
10 5 2
( 33 , 5 , 12 )
B)
10 2 5
( 12 , 33 , 5 )
C)
5 10 2
D) (1, 0, 1)
( 33 , 12 , 5 )
Answer:
10 5 2
Solution: x−3 y−2 z−1

Given that the image of point P (3, 2, 3) with respect to the line = = is S.
3 4 5
Let a point on the line be (3λ + 3, 4λ + 2, 5λ + 1)
D.R.'s of perpendicular from P to the line be (3λ, 4λ,5λ − 2)
1
Now 9λ + 16λ + 25λ − 10 = 0 ⇒ λ =
5
∴ Foot of the perpendicular M ≡ ( 18 , 14 , 2)

5 5
Point dividing P and S in ratio 1 : 3 will be mid-point of P & foot of perpendicular (M )
18 14
i.e., ( )
+3 +2
= ( 33 , 12 , 5 )
2+3
5
2
, 5
2
, 2 10 5 2
Q.14.
If 2xye y dx + (y − x2e y )dy = 0, then
x2 x2
A) x2
e y + ln y = c

B) x2 y2
ey + 2
=c
C) x2
x⋅e y +y = c
D) x2
y ⋅ e y − ln y = c
Answer: x2
e y + ln y = c
Solution:
We have, 2xye y dx + (y − x2e y )dy = 0
x2 x2
x2
⇒ e y [2xydx − x2dy] = −ydy
⇒ey [ ]=−y
x2 yd(x2)−x2dy dy
y2
x2
⇒ e y d ( xy ) = − y
2 dy
x2
⇒ e y d ( xy ) +
2 dy
y =0
x2
⇒ ∫ e y d ( xy ) + ∫ 1y dy = ∫ 0dy
2
x2
⇒ e y + ln y = c
Q.15. 2 2
If one of the diameter of the circle (x − √2) + (y − 3√2) = 6 is a chord of another circle
2 2
(x − 2√2) + (y − 2√2) = r2, then the value of r is equal to
A) √10
B) √5
C) 2
D) √8
Answer: √10

Solution: 2 2
Given that, one of the diameter of the circle (x − √2) + (y − 3√2) = 6 is a chord of another circle
2 2
(x − 2√2) + (y − 2√2) = r2.
2 2 2 2
Let, C and C1 be the centres of the circles (x − √2) + (y − 3√2) = 6 and (x − 2√2) + (y − 2√2) = r2
respectively.
So, C ( √2, 3√2) & C1 (2√2, 2√2)
The position of the two circles as shown in figure.
2 2
Now, CC1 = √(2√2 − √2) + (2√2 − 3√2) = √2 + 2 = 2
2
It is clear from the above diagram, ΔACC1 is a right angled triangle. ⇒ r2 = (AC) + (CC1) = (√6) + 22 ⇒ r2 = 10
2 2
⇒ r = √10
Q.16. There are seven students in a class with average score of 62 . A student fails if he gets less than 50. The worst case that
maximum number of students fail in the class if the given variance is 30, will be
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: 1
Solution: ∑ 7i=1 xi
Given, mean x̄ = = 62
7
1 2
and variance =
7
∑7i=1 (x̄ − xi) = 30
7
⇒∑
2
i=1 (62 − xi) = 210
2
When a student scores 49 then (62 − 49) = 169
Since a student fails if he gets less than 50, so at most one student can score less than 50.
Q.17. For the two relations R1 = {(a, b); a, b ∈ N : |a − b| ≤ 13} and R2 = {(a,b);a,b ∈ N : |a − b| ≠ 13}, the transitive relation
is(are)
A) only R1
B) only R2
C) both R1 and R2
1 2
D) neither R1 nor R2
Answer: neither R1 nor R2
Solution: To check if R1 is transitive -
Let a = 16, b = 4, c = 1
Here |a − b| = |16 − 4| ≤ 13 holds true
now |b − c| = |4 − 1| ≤ 13 ⇒ |3| ⩽ 13 also holds true
but |a − c| = |16 − 1| ≰ 13
Hence R1 is not transitive
Similarly, to check transitivity of R2
Let a = 16, b = 4, c = 3
Here |a − b| = |16 − 4| ≠ 13 and |b − c| = |4 − 3| ≠ 13
but |a − c| = |16 − 3| = 13
Hence, R2 is also not transitive.
Q.18. 1+i 1
Let, A = [ ] then the total number of elements in the set {n ∈ {1,2,3,...., 100} : An = A} is
−1 0
A) 25
B) 28
C) 32
D) 35
Answer: 25

Solution: 1+i 1
We have A = [ ]
−i 0
1+i 1 1+i 1 i 1+i

A2 = A ⋅ A = [ ][ ]=[ ]
−i 0 −i 0 −i + 1 −i
i 1+i 1+i 1 0 i
A3 = A2 ⋅ A = [ ][ ]=[ ]
1 − i −i −i 0 1 1−i
0 i 1+i 1 1 0
A4 = A3 ⋅ A = [ ][ ][ ]=I
1 1−i −i 0 0 1
∴ A4 = I
So, A5 = A4 ⋅ A = I ⋅ A = A
A6 = A4 ⋅ A2 = I ⋅ A2 = A2 and so on
∵ A1 = A5 = A9 =. . . . . = A97 = A
Hence, possible values of n , such that An = A
= {1, 5,9, … , 97}

Clearly, above sequence is in A.P. where
a = 1, d = 4 & tn = 97 ⇒ a + (n − 1)d = 97
⇒ 1 + (n − 1)4 = 97 ⇒ n = 25
∴ The number of elements in the given set = 25.
1
Q.19. If Sn represents the sum of infinite terms of a G.P. whose first term and common ratio are n 2 and respectively, then
(n+1) 2
n=0 (Sn + n+1 − n − 1) =

1
the value of
26
+ ∑50 2
A) 41652
B) 41650
C) 46150
D) 46152
Answer: 41652

1
Solution: We have, a = n 2, r =
(n+1) 2
n2 n2(n+1) 2
Sn = 1
=
1− n(n+2)
(n+1)2
n[n(n+2)+1]
= = n2 + n
n+2 n+2
n+2−2 2
= n2 + = n2 + 1 − . . . (i)
n+2 n+2
Now, ∑n=0 (Sn +

50 2
n+1
− n − 1)
From equation (i),
n=0 (n + 1 −
= ∑50 2 2 2
+ − n − 1)
n+2 n+1
n=0 (n − n) + 2 ∑n=0 (
= ∑50 )
2 50 1 1
−
n+1 n+2
n=0 n − ∑n=0 n + 2 [( 1 − 2 ) + ( 2 − 3 ) + ⋯ + ( 51 − 52 )]
= ∑50 2 50 1 1 1 1 1 1
+ 2 [1 − 52 ]
50(51)(101) 50(51) 1
= 6
− 2
= (25) (17) (101) − 25 (51) + 2 ( 51

52
)
= 25 (1717 − 51) + 51
26
= 25 (1666) + 51
26
= 41650 + 51
26
n=0 (Sn +
1
∴ 26
+ ∑50 2
− n − 1) = 41650 + 2 = 41652
n+1

28 June 2022 Shift 2 Memory Based Questions

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28 June 2022 Shift 2 Memory Based Questions

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JEE Main Exam 2022 - Session 1

28 June 2022 - Shift 2 (Memory-Based Questions)

Applying force balance in vertical direction

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C) v1+v2 v2+v3 v3+v1

Solution: Let the total distance be d.

Average speed= Total distance

Solution: As we know, λ = ln2

Also number of nuclei at anytime is given by, N = N0e−λt

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So power dissipated power in coil is

Now, when N' = N , r' = 2r, l' = l ,

Power becomes doubled.

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Solution: The gravitational force between particles is given by, F =

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Now, using Newton's equation of motion,

So, tension in string is T = ma = m [ ] =

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From the equation of continuity, v2 = 2v1.

Applying the Bernoulli's Theorem,

ρv2 ρ4(v) 2 3ρv2

Now volume flow rate, Q = Av = √6 × √

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The RMS velocity of a gas is given by, vRMS = √

Ratio of RMS speed, v = √ × ⇒ v2 = √ 2T × M ⇒ v1 = 2

Solution: Expression for modulation is given by,

Comparing it with the given expression in question, we get,

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The force per unit length is given by,

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Q.1. Consider the following oxides of nitrogen:

Solution: The structures of the given compounds are given below.

Q.2. Using the following standard reduction potential (Eo) :

Solution: Eois an intensive thermodynamic property.

Adding : Sn4+ + 4 e− ⟶ Sn,

ΔG 0Reaction = Δ G 0Product − Δ G 0Reactant

Q.3. Photochemical smog contains

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Hence, the photochemical smog contains O3.

[Fe(CN)6]4− = Fe(II) = 3d6 (No unpaired electron)

Q.5. Which of the following is a basic oxide?

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NO2 is acidic in nature it reacts with bases.

Q.7. The isotopes of Hydrogen differ in the following property

Answer: Atomic mass

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B) m-nitroaniline as the major product

C) p-nitroaniline as the major product

D) 2, 4-dinitroaniline as the major product

Answer: p-nitroaniline as the major product

Q.9. FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3

B) Slag and flux

C) Gauge and flux

D) Gauge and slag

Answer: Flux and slag

FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3

Q.10. The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is:

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Q.12. Which of the following set of quantum number is valid?