USMLE Step 1 Physiology and anatomy
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what would an arteriovenous shunt do
where does angiotensinogen come from, and where does ACE
come from
what two chemical slow down the heart
what cause s3 and what accentuates the sound
MEN 2A
Where is the thymus developed from
what present as "clasp-knife" spasticity, with pure contralateral
motor weakness
caudate nucleus (basal ganglia)
globus pallidus (basal ganglia)
putamen (basal ganglia)
1 / 12
it would decrease afterload, and increase preload since more
volume is returning.
Liver and endothelium of lung vessels
adenosine and acetylcholine. could also mention beta blockers.
normal in young adults. represents rapid filling in diastole. seen in
left ventricular systolic failure or restrictive cardiomyopathy. sup-
posedly also seen in mitral or tricuspid regurgitation. So anything
that accentuates the volume, like left lateral decubitus position or
full exhalation (less pressure will allow more volume to come in)
which accentuate the S3 sound.
mutation of germline RET (neural crest cells)
pheochromocytoma
parathyroid tumor which is derived from 3rd [superior]/4th [inferior]
pharyngeal pouch.
medullary thyroid cancer which is derived from parafollicular cells
from the 4th pharyngeal pouch
3rd branchial pouch, not the arch.
internal capsule defect
defect is Huntington's disease. Lesions lead to extra pyramidal
symptoms such as chorea and athetosis.
Has an external and internal segment. The EXternal segment al-
lows you to EXercise so damage results in decreased movement.
INternal segment is INhibitory, so defect would result in excess
movement
Important for initiating movement, so would have bradykinesia if
there is a defect.
 USMLE Step 1 Physiology and anatomy
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how does Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery manifest? and what
nerves are affected. is pain and temp sensation loss ipsilateral or
contralateral.
aneurysm of the basilar artery give you
LGN does what sensation and MGN does what sensation
What is unique about the the thoracic cord
what does the anterior hypothalamus do?
What's the innervation to parotid, submandibular, and sublinguial nerve and mandibular nerve of trigeminal nerve. the submandibu-
gland.
germinal matrix rupture produces
epidural vs subdural hematoma
Name the three dopamine pathways
what is the substantia nigra
what is the ventral tegmental area
2 / 12
PIKA, lateral medullary syndrome, so difficulty chewing. Can also
get horner syndrome, and ipsilateral defect of V (trigeminal),
VIII (vestibulocochlear), IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus), and XI
(spinal accessory). Contralateral loss.
non-pupil sparing third nerve palsy. This is different from diabetes
that can give you pupil sparing third nerve palsy.
Vision and hearing. MGN receives input from superior olivary
nucleus and inferior colliculus (midbrain).
It has a lateral horn
Anterior hypothalamus is important for cooling. The posterior hy-
pothalamus is for heating. Think of the butt as being hot.
Parotid glands are innervated from parasympathetic fibers from
inferior salivatory nucleus which travel with glossopharyngeal
lar and sublingual glands are innervated by parasympathetic
fibers from superior salivatory nucleus, which travel with the facial
nerve.
intraventricular hemorrhage. a complication of prematurity
rupture of middle meningeal artery vs rupture of bridging vein
mesolimbic-mesocortical [regulate behavior], nigrostriatal [coor-
dination of voluntary movement], tuberoinfundibular [control pro-
lactin secretion]
brain structure located in the mesencephalon (midbrain) that plays
an important role in reward, addiction, and movement. Substantia
nigra is Latin for "black substance", reflecting the fact that parts of
the substantia nigra appear darker than neighboring areas due to
high levels of neuromelanin in dopaminergic neurons
group of neurons located close to the midline on the floor of the
midbrain (mesencephalon). The VTA is the origin of the dopamin-
ergic cell bodies of the mesocorticolimbic dopamine system and
is widely implicated in the drug and natural reward circuitry of the
brain
 USMLE Step 1 Physiology and anatomy
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what is the red nucleus
what nerve is affected at surgical neck of humerus and what is the
head of the radius
name the hand bones
difference between apocrine and eccrine and merocrine gland
difference between holocrine and paracrine gland
menotropin and HCG mimic what
What produces ADH and Oxytocin
what are the four types of Glut receptors and their location
3 / 12
Structure in the rostral midbrain involved in motor coordination.
It is pale pink in color; the color is believed to be due to iron,
which is present in the red nucleus in at least two different forms:
hemoglobin and ferritin.[1] It comprises a caudal magnocellular
and a rostral parvocellular part. It is located in the tegmentum
of the midbrain next to the substantia nigra. The red nucleus
and substantia nigra are subcortical centers of the extrapyramidal
motor system.
axillary nerve versus radial nerve
Apocrine glands are found around armpits & the nipples and the
groin regions of the body. They are initially odorless, but then bac-
teria on body makes it smelly. Eccrine is the same as merocrine
gland. They are all over the body and secrete sodium and chloride
Holocrine, involves death of the cell. The secretory cell is re-
leased and as it breaks apart, the contents of the cell become
the secretory product. Involved sebaceous glands [oils]. paracrine
glands produce chemical signals that are sent to neighboring cells
through a process of diffusion. Paracrine glands are sometimes
classified as a subset of exocrine glands. Exocrine glands are
glands which produce secretions destined for the surface of an or-
gan, as opposed to endocrine glands, which secrete compounds
into the bloodstream.
Follicle stimulating hormone and Lutenizing hormone
supraoptic nuclei produce ADH and paraventricular nuclei pro-
duces oxytocin
Glut 2 is liver and pancreatic cells. Glut 4 is adipocyte and mus-
cular cell. glut 1 and glut 3 is everywhere.
 USMLE Step 1 Physiology and anatomy
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what is the role of thyroid peroxidase
what does perchlorate, thionamides, and beta blockers do with
the thryoid hormone pathway
what biochemical change marks menopause
what increases bicarbonate secretion in the GI tract
what are some tale tell sign of turner syndrome
when ions are elevated and decreased in pancreas secretion from increased HCO3- and decrease chloride. sort of like the chloride
secretin
what secretes intrinsic factor, and what other factor is also re-
leased from this organ.
what are the three phases of acid secretion from stomach
what causes the decrease in gastric acid production
what is absorbed in the duodenum, what is absorbed in the
jejunum
what is absorbed in the ileum, what is absorbed in the colon
what can cause subcostal pain after fatty meal
what does somatostatin do. what therapeutic purpose can it serve stimulating hormone, glucagon. As an octreotide, it can be used to
what kind of transport is inhibited by omeprazole
how many calories is yielded from one gram of protein, and one
gram of fat
endometrium has coiled gland filled with carbohydrate rich mu- secretory phase of menstrual cycle occurs from day 15 through
cus, edematous stroma, and torturous spinal arteries. Which time day 28. Progesterone level is still elevated, but the lutenizing
point is this
phases of endometrium and the appearance
catalyzes iodine oxidation to have thyroglobulin iodination. Not
thyroglobulin synthesis. also remember thionamide blocks this
process
perchlorate prevents uptake of iodine to thryoid tissues. thion-
amide prevents thyroglobulin iodination. and beta blockers prevent
thryoid uptake in peripheral tissue.
increased FSH, though later LH is also increased. Don't think
it is decreased estrogen... since your peripheral tissue makes
estrogen. But this is confusing since how come FSH would not
remain inhibited then...
Secretin by S endocrine cells in the duodenum, which stimulates
pancreatic exocrine secretion of bicarbonate.
primary amenorrhea, streak gonad, widely spaced nipples, ele-
vated gonadotrophins [LH and FSH], but normal endometrium
shift phenomena.
parietal cells in the body and fundus of the stomach. Gastrin is a
peptide hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric acid (HCl)
by the parietal cells of the stomach and aids in gastric motility.
It is released by G cells in the pyloric antrum of the stomach,
duodenum, and the pancreas.
cephalic [cholinergic and vagal mechanism], gastric [gastrin me-
diated], and intestinal
ileum and colon release peptide YY, which binds to enterochro-
maffin like cells. This prevents gastrin stimulated histamine re-
lease
duodenum is just lipid digestion. lipid absorption, which includes
fat soluble vitamins is at the jejunum
ileum absorbs bile and vitamin B12, colon is where fluid and
electrolytes are reabsorbed
cholecystokinin, hormone responsible for gallbladder contraction.
Made in duodenum and jejunum in response to fatty acids
in response to low PH, it inhibits growth hormones and thyroid
treat symptoms of cancer, like carcinoid syndrome or acromegaly.
it inhibits active transport. specifically, it inhibits the parietal cells
by blocking the H+/ K+ ATPase. Hence you can't make HCL
4 cal for one gram of protein, and 9 cal for one gram of fat
hormone has come back down from its peak.
in the menstrual and early proliferative phase it is a thin, brightly
echogenic stripe comprising of the basal layer.
in the late proliferative phase it develops a trilaminar appearance:
outer echogenic basal layer, middle hypoechoic functional layer,
and an inner echogenic stripe at the central interface.
in the secretory phase it is at its thickest and becomes uniformly
echogenic, as the functional layer becomes edematous and isoe-
choic to the basal layer.
The postmenopausal endometrium should be smooth and homo-
geneous.
supposedly it is at part 4. but it is voltage gated K+ channels, so
you'd think most would be open at the peak
4 / 12
 USMLE Step 1 Physiology and anatomy
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membrane potential of action potential, when is it most permeable
to potassium ion
what do mu receptors do?
what is the danger of blood transfusion. what chemical mediates
it.
what chemicals prevents lactation
what chemicals does the arcuate nucleus release
what is the flow of estrogen, progresterone, LH, and FSH during estrogen has two peaks, progresterone peaks after ovulation. LH
women's menstrual cycle.
difference between central and arcuate scotoma
what cell secretes a substance that controls iron storage and
release by other cells involved in iron homeostasis
what increase methemoglobinemia. and what is it
what hormone in pregnant women results in increased glucose
and triglycerides
what is somatomedin C structurally similar to
what does POMC cleave up to be
what does troponin do, and when does it work
what is the importance of T-tubules
what is the motor end plate potential and what happens to it during
myasthenia gravis
increase potassium efflux out of the cell. Mu receptors are G
protein linked receptors. Increase potassium efflux hyperpolarizes
the cell
citrate in the blood packets. they chelate calcium [paresthesia]
and magnesium. You also get the chance of hyperkalemia since
potassium leaks from stored red blood cells.
dopamine, progesterone, estrogen. high estrogen and proges-
terone promote breast growth and development
dopamine, growth hormone releasing hormone, gonadotropin
and FSH peak at ovulation
scotoma refers to a visual defect in one area while the other areas
are unaffected. Macular lesions result in central scotoma. Arcuate
scotoma refers to damage in particular region of the optic nerve
head. visual field loss follows an arcuate pattern
hepatic parenchymal cells that release hepcidin.
when ferrous iron Fe2+ is oxidized to ferric iron Fe3+. caused by
dapsones, sulfonamide, nitrites, along with enzyme deficiencies
human placental lactogen
insulin
beta endorphins [acts on delta and mu receptors], ACTH, and
MSH
when it binds to calcium, it will move tropomyosin, so that myosin
can bind to the actin heads
they are invaginations of muscle cell membrane (sarcolemma). So
they are extensions of extracellular space. they are important for
coordination contraction of myofibrils
decreases in myasthenia gravis. End plate potentials (EPPs) are
the depolarizations of skeletal muscle fibers caused by neuro-
transmitters binding to the postsynaptic membrane in the neu-
romuscular junction. They are called "end plates" because the
postsynaptic terminals of muscle fibers have a large, saucer-like
appearance. When an action potential reaches the axon terminal
of a motor neuron, vesicles carrying neurotransmitters (mostly
acetylcholine) are exocytosed and the contents are released into
the neuromuscular junction. These neurotransmitters bind to re-
ceptors on the postsynaptic membrane and lead to its depolariza-
tion. In the absence of an action potential, acetylcholine vesicles
spontaneously leak into the neuromuscular junction and cause
very small depolarizations in the postsynaptic membrane. This
small response (~0.5mV) is called a miniature end plate potential
(MEPP) and is generated by one acetylcholine-containing vesicle.
It represents the smallest possible depolarization which can be
induced in a muscle.
5 / 12
 USMLE Step 1 Physiology and anatomy
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what is pilocarpine and scopolamine and why is it good
with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors [donepezil, neostigmine,
physostigmine]
what elements are the contractile mechanism in smooth muscles
what does the Golgi tendon organ do?
what do muscle spindles do
difference between type I and type II fibers
what is calcitriol
what is a direct marker of osteoblast and osteoclast
where do the bronchial arteries flow to
How does CO poisoning, anemia, and high altitude affect Po2
[dissolve oxygen], percent saturation [O2 per gm Hb], and O2
content [both dissolved and O2 attached to Hb]
sudden onset of dyspnea and calf swelling manifest in what
arterial sign
what parameter is the same in systemic and pulmonary circulation
what is minute and alveolar ventilation
what are the respiratory parameters of a person who has been on is low]. The PaO2 would also be low since at a high altitude. This
the mountain for a few days
how does the lung deal with particles from 2.5 micrometer to 10
micrometers, and less than 2 micrometer
What does COPD do to pulmonary arterial and cerebral vascular and the cerebral vascular resistance decreases [resulting in va-
resistance
pilocarpine is a nonselective muscarinic receptor agonist. scopo-
lamine is a muscarinic receptor antagonist. This is good for
cholinesterase inhibitors since you generally want them to only act
on nicotinic receptor [skeletal muscle]. Acetylcholine is generally
associated with parasympathetic system because of the mus-
carinic receptors. So you would get overactivation of that system
with donepezil. But you can block it with scopolamine.
calmodulin and myosin light chain kinase
Are sensory receptors located at the junction of the muscle and
tendon that are innervated by group IB sensory axons. They are
responsibly for sudden muscle relaxation after carrying a huge
amount of weight. So they ares sensitive to increase in muscle
tension but not passive stretch
they are connected in parallel with extrafusal fibers, rather than
intrafusal muscle fibers like muscle spindles. They are innervated
by group IA and II sensory axons. they are sensitive to change
in muscle length. They are the one s that are involved in stretch
reflex [the ones tested in physical examination like deep tendon
reflex].
type I are slow twitch and type II are fast twitch fibers. Type I
fibers are important for low level sustained force like postural
maintenance, so they will have a lot of mitochondria [i guess rather
than glycolysis or glycogenolysis]. other postural skeletal muscles
are soleus.
it is 1 25 hydroxy vitamin D.
alkaline phosphatase [since it is released when synthesizing bone
matrix]. careful since alkaline phosphatase is also made in liver.
For osteoclast, the most reliable is urinary deoxypyridinoline, but
tartrate-resistance acid phosphatase also works.
The left atrium, which is why you would see a decrease in oxygen
tension from "alveolar-capillary blood" to "arterial blood."
normal, decrease, decrease for CO. normal, normal, and de-
creased for anemia. decrease, possibly normal, decrease for high
altitude.
would result in significantly affected oxygenation. So your body
tries to compensate by breathing a lot. This hyperventilation re-
sults in low CO2, which gives you respiratory alkalosis. The bi-
carbonate levels are probably normal or if enough time passes, it
is decreased.
it should be constant blood flow per minute since it is a closed
circuit
minute ventilation is tidal volume times breaths/minute. It is the
volume of air that enters or leaves the lung and conducting airways
in one minute. Th alveolar ventilation differs since it refers to only
the volume of air participating in gas exchange per minute. So
alveolar ventilation does not include the dead space volume.
respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation [so bicarbonate
actually affects the baroreceptors in the aortic body to increase
ventilatory drive.
trapped in the trachea and bronchi and cleared by mucociliary
transported. less than 2 micrometers, it is cleared by phagocytosis
by macrophages. Also stimulates connective tissue growth.
There is too much pCO2. pulmonary arterial resistance increases
sodilation] the vasodilation leads to increased cerebral perfusion
and increased intracranial perfusion.
6 / 12
 USMLE Step 1 Physiology and anatomy
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CO2 diffuses as H+ to the medullary respiratory center [central
how does paCO2 and PaO2 mediate respiration
chemoreceptors]. PaO2 act on carotid and aortic arch bodies.
laplace law state that larger the vessel radius, the larger the
wall tension required to withstand a given internal fluid pressure.
Distending pressure is proportional to the surface tension and
inversely proportional to the radius. So as the radius of a sphere
what is Laplace law and how does it relate to surface tension and
[with constant surface tension] decrease, the distending pressure
surfactant
increases. so connecting a small sphere to a large sphere, more
distending pressure would go to the large sphere, unnecessarily.
Without enough distending pressure in the small sphere, it will
collapse, unless you have dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine.
polycythemia is when when the hematocrit is above a certain
point. To see if it is real, you need to measure the RBC mass. If
How do you distinguish relative and absolute polycythemia
it is normal, then it is relative erythrocytosis or polycythemia. This
can occur from dehydration or excessive diuresis.
Both are absolute polycythemia. Polycythemia vera is elevation
What is the difference between polycythemia vera and secondary
in all 3 cell lines. Secondary erythrocytosis can be from EPO
erythrocytosis?
producing tumor, hypoxia, and more.
anywhere else, less oxygen causes dilation. The vasoconstriction
why does more less oxygen cause pulmonary vasoconstriction is in order to diver blood flow away from underventilated regions
of the lung toward more well-ventilated areas.
scopolamine and ipatropium are the same, they are antagonist
of muscarinic cholinergic receptors. They are used for asthma
what is the difference between scopolamine, methacholine, and
and COPD since it prevents bronchoconstriction. Methacoline is
ipatropium.
a muscarinic agonist, and provokes asthma like symptoms, along
with histamine.
non-selective alpha adrenergic antagonist, used in treatment of
what is the difference between phenoxybenzamine and isopro- pheochromocytoma. Isoproterenol is a non-specific beta adren-
terenol, and the treatments that they are used for? ergic agonist, like albuterol. It has a bronchodilatory effect in
asthmatic patients.
CFTR is an ATP binding cassette transmembrane ion transporter
what is a CFTR that pumps chloride out of epithelial cells against a concentration
gradient using ATP hydrolysis. That makes sense.
what chemical are released from anaphylactic reaction histamine and tryptase!
from IgE receptors that aggregate, or crosslink, because of the
How do mast cells release histamine and tyrptase
antigen.
pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis, or insufficient surfactants.
what causes decreased lung compliance. how does it present It presents with SOB. Also has decreased functional residual
capacity.
how does the percentage of potassium change as it goes through
100, 35, 10, 110%
the tubules
it decreases glomerular filtration rate. Also through two path-
ways, it decreases the formation of caclitriol, and it retains more
what does chronic kidney disease do
phosphate. This will decrease calcium levels, so there would be
secondary hyperparathryoidism.
what chemical has no tubular reabsorption or secretion inulin and mannitol
what chemical has net tubular secretion PAH and creatinine
The proximal tubule! even if there is severe dehydration, the
where is water mainly reabsorbed in the neprhon
collecting tubules don't do as much as the proximal tubule.
it increases urea reabsorption in the collecting tubule by increas-
how is vasopressin an ADH ing the number of cell surface urea transporters. This contributes
to the corticomedullary interstitial osmotic gradient.
I thought it was the proximal tubule since the most amount of
where does the lowest osmolality occur in the tubule water is reabsorbed starting there. But nope, it is right after the
ascending loop of henle. This is since the region is impermeable
7 / 12
 USMLE Step 1 Physiology and anatomy
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to water, so you would get a lot of ions filtered out, remaining with
lots of water to ion ratio.
You excrete a lot of H+ so the pH would be low. you also try to pee
out less bicarbonate. However you would want to pee out a lot of
what happens to urine concentration when Diabetic ketoacidosis
titratable acids like H2Po4 and NH4+. So that would be increased
in the urine.
the medullary segment of the collecting duct, not the cortical
which part of the the tube responds most to vasopressin
segment of the collecting duct, well not as much!
superior mesenteric vein, splenic vein [connects from the Inferior
mesenteric vein], right gastric vein, and left gastric vein

what 4 main veins connect to the portal vein

Right gives rises to the posterior descending artery and Left gives
rise to left anterior descending [anterior interventricular branch],
and left circumflex

what are the two main coronary arteries, and what vessels do they
give rise to

since coronary sinus is connected to the right atrium, anything that

what causes coronary sinus dilation
causes a back up would cause dilation. This includes Right heart
failure from pulmonary hypertension.
endothelial injury and leakage of fluid from capillaries. Has an
acute onset, and is characterized by bilateral patchy airspace.
Distinguished from pulmonary edema by the absence of jugular
venous distension.

acute respiratory distress syndrome

inferolateral to the pubic tubercle

where can you harvest the saphenous vein

Right atrium. Right ventricle

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 USMLE Step 1 Physiology and anatomy
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what is the position of the heart. what gets hit at the right sternal
border. what gets hit at the left sternal border.
causes of ascending aorta, and aortic isthmus
where do you place a filter for preventing embolization
what are the branches of the celiac trunk
what are the parts of the duodenum
what is gallstone ileus
what does the internal iliac supply in terms of GU
what vessels can be found retroperitoneal
when would there be increased pressure in aorta, IVC, or portal
vein
what is superior mesenteric artery syndrome
what is the lesser omentum made up of
what three areas are of the portal circulation and what do they
lead into
which landmark distinguishes indirect from direct inguinal hernia
what drains to the superficial inguinal lymph node
where do the testes lymph system drain to
where drains to the inferior mesenteric lymph node
what arteries line the suspensory ligament and transverse cervi- The suspensory ligament contains the ovarian artery and vein,
cal ligament
hypertension, syphilis, or vasculitis; and trauma for the isthmus
like MVA
Inferior vena cava.
think of common hepatic, left gastric artery, and splenic artery.
first, second, third, which is close to the superior mesenteric artery
passage of a large gallstone through a cholecystenteric fistula.
It ultimately causes an obstruction at the ileocecal valve. So the
obstruction will be at the ileum. interesting.
internal artery supplies portions of the gut through branches like
middle rectal artery, and the inferior rectal artery (a branch of the
pudendal artery, which arises from the internal iliac artery)
pancreas, kidneys, adrenal glands
hypertension, CHF, or liver cirrhosis
occurs when the transverse portion of the duodenum is entrapped
between the SMA and aorta, causing symptoms of partial intesti-
nal obstruction. This occurs when there is diminished mesenteric
fat (weight loss), lordosis, or surgery.
hepatogastric ligament and hepatoduodenal ligament
left gastric vein to esophageal vein; superior rectal to middle and
inferior rectal veins; paraumbilical veins to the superficial and
inferior epigastric veins
inferior epigastric vessels which seem to come off from femoral
artery and vein
all skin from the umbilicus down, including the anus (up to the den-
tate/pectinate line) but excluding the posterior half. This includes
the scrotum.
they drain to the abdominal aortic lymph nodes
sigmoid colon
and needs to be ligated when taking out the ovary. The transverse
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 USMLE Step 1 Physiology and anatomy
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cervical ligament contains the uterine artery and needs to be
ligated during radical hysterectomy
Spleen can be ruptured by the 9th, 10th, or 11th rib. kidney by the
where does the spleen lie, how about the kidney based on rib
12th rib.
caused by persistent processus vaginalis and failure of internal
what causes the indirect [lateral to inferior epigastric vessels],
inguinal ring to close; weakness of transversalis fascia; protrusion
direct, and femoral hernias
of femoral ring, inferior to the inguinal ligament
accumulation of fluids around a testicle, and is fairly common. It is
often caused by fluid secreted from a remnant piece of peritoneum
wrapped around the testicle, called the tunica vaginalis

where is the hydrocele contain in the testes

what damages the posterior urethra [membranous part], bulbous

pelvic fractures; straddle injury or bike riding; penetrating trauma
urethral segment, and penile urethral segment
abnormal enlargement of the pampiniform venous plexus in the
what is a varicocele
scrotum

facial bone anatomy

The organ of corti, this is what gets damages from excessive loud
noise. There is stereocilia which is efferent [inner hair cell].

what mediates hearing

palate elevation involves which nerves CN IX, and X. Sort of like gag reflex
skin, superficial cervical fascia (including subcut fact and platys-
ma), investing and pretracheal layers of the deep cervical fascia,
and cricothryoid membrane

cricothyroidectomy goes through what

the superior laryngeal nerve, compared to the recurrent laryngeal

what runs with with the superior thyroid artery nerve which courses with the inferior thyroid artery [which actually
comes off the subclavian]. Superior laryngeal nerve has an ex-

10 / 12
 USMLE Step 1 Physiology and anatomy
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what are causes of conductive hearing loss
what are causes of sensorineural hearing loss [will have unaffect- meniere's disease, acoustic neuroma, ototoxic drugs (aminogly-
ed rinne test]
where in the cochlea is the low and high frequency heard?
what drains the ipsilateral side of the face and arm
ternal branch [cricothryoid muscle] and internal branch [sensory
innervation above the vocal cords]
cerumen impaction, cholesteatoma, otosclerosis, tympani mem-
brane rupture
cosides), presbycusis
helicotrema [at the tip] and oval window is where high frequency
heard. The most stiff region.
brachiocephalic vein
arises from the C1-3. It innervaes the sternohyoid, sternothryoid,
and omohyoid muscle of the anterior neck. Penetrating traum to
neck above the cricoid cartilage can injure this nerve

what is the ansa cervicalis

low blood pressure, since of decreased venous return from the

how can tension pneumothorax, pressure. There would then be tachycardia. treat with emergency
needle thoracostomy
They can cause horner syndrome, SVC syndrome, arm weakness
or paralysis. Superior vena cava syndrome is caused by the partial
what can apical lung tumors present as [aka Pancoast tumors] blockage of the superior vena cava. Symptoms include difficulty
breathing, coughing, and swelling of the face, neck, upper body,
and arms.
what would be punctured at the fifth intercostal space, along the
The lung, though I was thinking of the right ventricle
left midclavicular line
what mediates the cough reflex the internal laryngeal nerves
what mediates the glands Parasympathetic fibers which follow the Cranial nerves
7th rib in midclavicular line, 9th rib along midaxillary line, and 11th
Where should thoracocentesis be done to prevent lung puncutre
rib along posterior scapular line.
pain, occurs when increased pressure within a fascical compart-
what is acute compartment syndome ment compromises blood circulation and tissue function within the
space.
a benign, slowly progressive fibroproliferative disease of the pal-
what is dupuytren contracture mar fascia. As scarring progresses, nodules form on the palmar
fascia and the fingers lose flexibility.
what innervates the cutaneous medial forearm, lateral forearm,
ulnar, median, radial, and radial
and posterior forearm, along with posterior arm
what can cause loss of patellar reflex and weakness of quadricep lesion of the femoral nerve. I was dumb, of course you would lose
muscles sensation on the thigh.
what ligament is affected in radial head subluxation and how does annular ligament, and the elbow will be extended and the forearm
it manifest? pronated
you need the rectus abdominis to increase the intra abdominal
what muscle is needed for the valsalva maneuve
pressure and intra thoracic pressure.
radial nerve. i think radial nerve also gets injured when the radial
what nerve would be injured in a humeral midshaft fracture
head is affected
normally you think of surgical neck of the humerus fracture. How-
common axial nerve injury
ever, there is also anterior should dislocation

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 USMLE Step 1 Physiology and anatomy
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what regions of the buttock will hit the superior gluteal nerve, how
Superomedial; superomedial, inferomedial, inferolateral
about the sciatic nerve
prepatellar bursa

what is affected in housemaid's knee

So I would say it is the right knee, and that the medial part really
is the medial part [the one where it seems like there is more curve
at the side]

visualize the mri of a knee, then look at the image, is it a right or

left knee. What is the medial part

what kind of fracture is common with elderly people with osteo- the femoral neck is most common, and the artery affected is
porosis who fall, and what artery is affected medial femoral circumflex
the deep brachial artery. does not show on the image, but it does
branch from the axillary artery

what runs with the radial nerve

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