ANEES HUSSAIN

EXCELLENCE IN EDUCATION SINCE 1989 XII (Physics)

NAME________________________________________
DATE_________________________________________
ROLL NO. / ID NUMBER _______________________ MARKS
CLASS XII SECTION ___________ FACULTY __________ 100
1. The normal human body temperature is:
(a)212 oF (b)100oF (c)98.4 oF (d)37 oF
2. The temperature at which both Celsius and Fahrenheit scales coincide with each other is:
(a)100 (b)273 (c)– 40 (d)Zero
3. Absolute zero is equivalent to:
(a)100 oC (b)– 460 oF (c)0 oC (d)273 K
4. Co-efficient of Volumetric expansion is the:
(a)Intrinsic Quantity (b)Thrice of Co-efficient of Linear expansion
(c)One third of Co-efficient of Linear expansion (d)Thermometric Property
5. Which physical quantity of substance does not change with thermal expansion?
(a)Volume (b)Length (c)Mass (d)Density
6. PV = _:
(a)KT (b)nRT (c)Constant (d)RT
7. The graph of Boyles law is a:
(a)Curve (b)Slope (c)Straight line (d)Hyperbola
8. Efficiency of heat engine will be minimum when:
(a) Sink is kept at 0 oC (b) Source and sink are kept at thermal equilibrium
(c)Temperature of source is kept at Infinity (d)Sink is kept at Absolute zero
9. 1 Cal = ______ J:
(a)42 (b)420 (c)0.42 (d)4.2
10. The pressure of a fixed mass of gas increases when it is heated at constant volume is due to:
(a) Increase in Average speed of the molecules (b)Gas becomes light
(c) Elastic molecular collision (d) Increase in average distance between the molecules
11. The internal energy of a system depends on .
(a) Pressure (b) Volume (c) Temperature (d) Entropy
12. The process during which no external work is performed is .
(a) Isothermal (b) Isochoric (c) Isobaric (d) Adiabatic
13. 273 Kelvin correspond to .
(a) 273oC (b) -32oF (c) 0oC (d) -273oC
14. If the pressure of the gas is doubled, keeping the temperature constant, the volume of the gas is:
(a) Reduced to one-fourth (b) Doubled
(c) Reduced to one-half of the original volume. (d) Increased four times
15. According to Charles's Law .
(a) PV = constant (b) V/T = constant (c) VT = constant (d) p/V = constant
16. The force between two charged particles is inversely proportional to the:
(a)Coulomb constant (b)Product of charges
(c)Square of the distance between them (d)Masses of charges
17. The force per unit charge:
(a)Electric field (b)Electric Flux (c)Electric Potential (d)Electric Intensity
18. The force between two similar unit charges placed one meter apart in air in Newton is:
(a)Zero (b)1 (c)9 x 109 (d)None of these
19. The magnitude of electrostatic force is F and separation between the charges is doubled then the
electrostatic force would be:
(a)2F (b)½ F (c)4F (d)¼ F
20. Dielectric always __________ the electrostatic force between the two point charges:
(a)Increases (b)Changes (c)Decreases (d)Does not change
21. Newton per coulomb is equivalent to:
(a)Meter per volt (b)Volt per meter (c)Volt per meter per meter (d)Volt into meter
22. Direction of electric force and electric field intensity is:
(e)Parallel to each other (f)Perpendicular to each other
(g)Opposite to each other (h)In any direction
23. Gauss’s Law is applied to determine the:
(a)Absolute potential (b)Electric intensity due to a large charge distribution
(c)Electric intensity of an isolated point charge (d)Electric potential between two point in an electric field
24. If capacitors are connected in such a way that their net capacitance increases then they are connected
in:
(a)Complex network (b)Different paths (c)A single path (d)Bridge Circuit
25. Equivalent capacitance of three 3µF capacitors connected in series is:
(a)1µF (b)3µF (c)9µF (d)Zero
26. Relative permittivity of medium is the ratio of its permittivity with the:
(a)Permittivity of any medium (b)Permittivity of itself
(c)Permittivity of free space (d)Permittivity of water
27. Charge carrier in Metallic conductors are the electrons of:
(a)Valence shells (b)All shells (c)Excited states (d)Inner shells
28. If a wire of a uniform area of cross section is cut into two equal parts, the resistivity of each part would
be:
(a)Doubled (b)Halved (c)Same (d)None of these
29. Ohm’s Law is applicable only for:
(a)Electrolytes (b)Metallic Conductors
(c)Semi Conductors (d)All of these
30. 1 KWh = ____________
(a)3.6 x 103J (b)3.6 x 106J (c)3.6 x 109J (d)3.6 x 1012J
31. Resistor connected in a number of paths are in:
(a)Parallel combination (b) Series combination
(c) Either in series or in parallel combination (d) Simultaneously in series and in parallel combination
32. Kilowatt hour is the unit of:
(a)Electric power (b)E.M.F (c)Electric energy (d)Electric potential
33. current which flows from high potential to low potential is called:
(a)Pulsating current (b)Direct current (c)Alternating current (d)Conventional current
34. A wire is cut into two equal halves, which of the following physical quantity will not change:
(a)Conductance (b)Resistivity (c)Resistance (d)All of these
35. E.M.F. of a source in the absence of internal resistance is:
(a)IR (b)IR + Ir (c)Ir (d)IR – Ir
36. Maximum force on a charged particle moving in magnetic field is given by:
a)qvB b)qvB sinθ c)BL d)BL sinθ
37. Which of the following is not the unit of magnetic induction?
a)Weber b)Tesla c) Weber per meter square d) Newton per ampere per meter
38. The principle of transformer is:
a)Mutual Induction b)Electromagnetic Induction
c)Self Induction d)None of these
39. Henry is equivalent to:
a)Weber per ampere b)Weber per meter square
c)Weber per ampere per meter d)Weber x meter
40. A transformer is used to change:
a)Power b)Voltage c)Resistance d)Capacitance
41. The magnetic flux through a surface will be minimum when angle between B and ∆A is:
a)0⁰ b)45⁰ c)60⁰ d)90⁰
42. If a wire of length “L” carrying current “I” placed in a field “B” placed perpendicularly. The force on
the wire would be:
a)Zero b)BIL c)BIL sinθ d)BIL cosθ
43. Which of the following laws is satisfied by the Lenz’s law?
a) Faraday law of induction b) law of conservation of energy
c) law of conservation of charge d) none of these
44. Net electric field in a current carrying conductor is:
a)The difference of electric fields of protons and electrons
b)The sum of electric fields of protons and electrons
c)Negative d)Zero
45. The magnetic field of induction is ___________ outside the core of toroid:
a)Non uniform b)Maximum c)Uniform d)Zero
46. Weber per ampere is known as:
a)Mutual Inductance b)Self Inductance c)Induced e.m.f d)a and b are correct
47. Self induction of the coil increases as the ___________ increases:
a)Magnetic-flux through the coil b)Number of turns of the coil
c)Induced current d)a and b are correct
48. When the coil is moved towards he magnetic poles then:
a)No effect b)Light will appear
c)Heat will produce d)e.m.f will induce in the coil
49. Purpose of step down transformer is to make the:
a)Input current same as output current b)Output current higher than input current
c)Output voltage lower than input voltage d)Output current lower than input current
50. Galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting
(a)A high resistance in series (b)A low resistance in series
(c)A high resistance in parallel (d)A low resistance in parallel
51. Sensitivity of Galvanometer is given by
(a)CBNA (b)1/CBNA (c)C/BNA (d)BAN/C
52. In a circuit voltmeter is always connected in
(a)Series (b)Parallel (c)Both Series and parallel (d)None Of These
53. A VO meter is used to find
(a)Current (b)Resistance (c)E.m.f (d)All of these
54. The deflection of a coil of galvanometer is directly proportional to
(a)Resistance of coil (b)Strength of magnetic field
(c)Current passing through coil (d)Area of coil
55. The couple per unit twist of the suspension is equal to
(a)Sum of deflection and restoring torque (b)Product of deflection and restoring torque
(c)Deflection per restoring torque (d)Restoring torque per deflection
56. The device which can receive or generate Electromagnetic wave is called:
(a)Decoder (b)Diode (c)Antenna (d)Semi conductor
57. The process of converting AC into DC is called:
(a)Modulation (b)Amplification (c)Biasing (d)Rectification
58. The process of generating the effect of Audio Signal in Electromagnetic wave is called:
(a)Modulation (b)Amplification (c)Biasing (d)Rectification
59. Which quantity of audio signal is changed by transistor:
(a)All of these (b)Amplitude (c)Frequency (d)Wave length
60. Which characteristic of audio signal is changed by transistor:
(a)Quality of sound (b)Both pitch and loudness
(c)Pitch (d)Loudness
61. Choose the right option for AM:
(a)Amplitude monitor (b)Amplitude modulation
(c)Amplitude magnification (d)Amplitude measurement
62. In frequency modulation, which one of the following of the original signal does not changed:
(a)Pitch (b)Wavelength (c)Frequency (d)Amplitude
63. The most commonly used configuration of transistor in electronic circuits is:
(a)All of these (b)Common collector (c)Common-base (d)Common-emitter
64. Wave nature of light is proved by:
a)Polarization b)Black body radiation
c)Compton’s Effect d)Photo electric effect
65. Kinetic energy of Photo electrons could be increased by:
a)Decreasing the plate potential b)By decreasing the of incident light wave length
c)Increasing the of incident light wave length d)Increasing the plate potential
66. Dual nature of light is proved by:
a)Davisson and Germer’s Experiment b)Black body radiation
c)Compton’s Effect d)Photo electric effect
67. The minimum light frequency required for photo electric effect is called:
a)Normal frequency b)Cut-Off frequency
c)Threshold frequency d)Natural frequency
68. If the frequency of light causing photo electric emission is doubled, the kinetic energy of photo
electrons will be:
a)The same b)Zero c)Doubled d)Halved
69. The reverse process of pair production is known as:
a)Annihilation of energy b)Anti pair production
c)Materialization of matter d)Annihilation of particle into its antiparticle
70. According to the special theory of relativity, the energy of an object depends upon:
a)Its mass only b)Momentum and position
c)Velocity and time d)Mass and velocity
71. In Compton’s effect a high energy photon on striking with a stationary electron looses its energy:
a)Conditionally b)Partially c)Wholly d)None of these
72. The frequency of incident photon after the Compton Effect will:
a)Not change b)Increase c)Decrease d)None of the above
73. In pair production we have a pair of:
a)Position and electron b)Protons c)Electrons d)a and b are correct
74. In annihilation process of matter:
a)Protons and electrons are converted for energy b)Energy is converted into mass
c)Mass is converted into energy d)a and b are correct
75. In a hydrogen atom Balmer series electron falls into:
(a)n = 1 (b)n = 2 (c)n = 3 (d)n = 4
76. Laser is the:
(a)Beam of electrons (b)Coherent bean of light
(c)Beam of ultra violet rays (d)All of these
77. According to Bohr’s theory, electron revolving around the nucleus in a fixed orbit radiates:
(a)Energy (b)X-rays (c)γ = ray (d)β = Emission
78. Range of wave length of X-rays is:
(a)400 nm -------- 700 nm (b)700 nm -------- 1000 nm
(c)100 nm -------- 0.1000 nm (d)0.01 nm -------- 10nm
79. X-rays are produces when:
(a)Electron falls to ground state (b)Electron loses its energy in the Vicinity of nucleus
(c)Electron jumps to higher state (d)All of these
80. The most stable state of ruby is::
(a)Ground state (b)Meta state (c)Higher state (d)Excited state
81. The process of collecting excited electrons from unstable state into stable state is called:
(a)Induced absorption (b)Population Inversion
(c)Emitted radiation (d)de excitation
82. The time in which half of parent nuclear decay is called:
(a)Life time (b)Time of decay (c)Decay interval (d)Half time
83. The process in which a bigger nucleus splits up into its smaller fragments with an evolution of a large
amount of energy is called:
(a)Nuclear Fission (b)Nuclear Disintegration
(c)Nuclear Fusion (d)Nuclear Decay
84. A material consisting of the fissionable isotopes of Uranium is called the:
(a)Reactor fuel (b)Nuclear fuel (c)Atom bomb fuel (d)Atomic fuel
85. According to the law of radioactive decay, number of parent nuclei is equal to:
(a)e-λt (b)N0 (c)None of these (d)N0e-λt
86. The process in which heavier nucleus is formed from the combination of lighter nuclei is called:
(a)Radioactivity (b)Fission (c)Mass defect (d)Fusion
87. Cancer of the thyroid glands is treated by
(a)1H3 (b)6C14 (c)53I131 (d)6C19
88. Electric field generator in G.M tube is due to
(a)Ionization of alcohol (b)Low vapor pressure of alcohol
(c)Low boiling point of alcohol (d)All of these
89. In an Alpha Decay, mass number of parent nuclei
(a)Remains same (b)changes per 2 unit
(c)Decreases by 4 unit (d)increases by 4 units
90. Two ends of a rod are at temperature -10℃ and -30℃ respectively. Heat will flow from .
(a) -10oC to -30oC (b) -30℃ to -10℃ (c) Will not flow (d)None of these
91. The net change in entropy of a system in a natural process is .
(a)Positive (b) Negative (c)Zero (d) Infinite
92. Boltzmann constant is equal to .
(a) RNA (b) R/ NA (c) NA/R (d) None of these
93. During an Adiabatic change, the pressure and volume formula of a gas is given by .
(a) PVy = Constant (b)PV = Constant (c) PyV = Constant (d) (PV)y= Constant
94. Di-electric always the electrostatic force between the two point charges.
(a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Does not change (d) None of these
95. Electron-volt is a unit of .
(a) Energy (b) Force (c) Current (d) Potential difference
96. One Joule per Coulomb is called .
(a) Ampere (b) Volt (c) Farad (d) Tesla
97. The minimum electrical charge possible in isolated form
(a) 1.6 × 10−19𝐶 (b) 1 × 1012𝐶 (c) 1 × 10−6𝐶 (d) One coulomb
98. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
(a) Potential (b) Electromotive force
(c) Electric flux (d) Electric intensity
99. Which of the following cannot be a scalar quantity?
(a) Electric potential (b) EMF (c)Electric flux (d)Electric intensity
100. If 4𝜇𝐹 and 2𝜇𝐹 capacitors are connected in series, the equivalent capacitance
(a)0.75𝜇𝐹 (b) 6𝜇𝐹 (c) 2𝜇𝐹 (d) 1.33𝜇𝐹