MCQS of Inorganic BS6TH

1: Which of the following does not affect the reaction rate?

a) Solubility
b) Agitation
c) Nitro group
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: A number of factors accelerate or retard the replacement of atoms or radicals by the
amino group. These will be discussed in the following order: (1) solubility, (2) agitation, (3) halogen
derivative treated, (4) presence of nitro groups, and (5) temperature of amination and NH3
concentration.

2:  Which factor increases the partial pressure in a reaction?

a) NH3 concentration
b) Heat
c) Agitation
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Reaction can be facilitated by increasing either the NH 3 concentration or the
temperature, as both the factors incidentally increase the partial pressure or activity of the dissolved
ammonia.

3:When we dilute NH3 solution, does the reaction suffer?

a) Yes
b) No

Answer: a
Explanation: When more dilute NH3 solutions are employed, the results obviously suffer from the
increased activity of the solvent-water.

4: Homogeneity of reaction is highly important in which phase?

a) Vapour
b) Liquid
c) Solid
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: In liquid-phase ammonolysis, the rate of amination depends upon the homogeneity of
the reaction mass.

5: Liquid phase reaction are possible without agitation.

a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Without agitation, some insoluble compounds would, on account of their greater
density, settle to the bottom of the autoclave while the ammonia liquor remained as a distinct layer
above it. Reaction would then take place only at the interface, and a complete conversion of the
compound to the amino derivative would not be feasible.
6:  The replacement of Br atom is easier than Cl atom.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: From the known activity of the halogens and the heats of formation of the halides, it
would be expected that replacement of bromine atoms could be accomplished more readily than that
of chlorine atoms.

7: The conversion of chlorobenzene to aniline requires what temperature?

a) Below 50°C
b) 100°C
c) 150°C
d) Above 200°C

Answer: d
Explanation: The conversion of chlorobenzene to aniline requires a comparatively high temperature-
200°C or above-and the presence of a catalyst.

8: By the introduction of which group makes the replacement of halogen atom faster?
a) Positive group
b) Negative group
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: By the introduction negative groups such as the -NO 2 or -COOH in the ortho or para
position of the phenyl nucleus, the replacement of the halogen atom takes place more readily

9:  What is meant by Ammonia factor?

a) Ammonia concentration
b) Intensity factor
c) Capacity factor
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: Ammonia ratio means Capacity factor, whereas Ammonia concentration means
intensity factor.

10: Which of the following is/are the advantage for using excess NH3?
a) Rapid amination
b) Complete reaction
c) Large quantity
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: by utilizing a more concentrated NH3 solution for non-catalytic aminations may be
summed up as follows: (1) amination is more rapid, (2) conversion of reacting compound to primary
amine is more complete, (3) formation of secondary and tertiary amines and hydroxy compounds is
inhibited, (4) lower reaction temperatures can be used, and (5) since larger batches can be treated.

11: The reaction-rate with aryl chlorides depends on what?

a) Ammonia ratio
b) Reaction temperature
c) Halogen compound
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: Reaction-rate studies with aryl chlorides showed that the effect of NH3 concentration
on the rate of conversion in catalytic ammonolysis depends upon (1) the ammonia ratio, (2) the
reaction temperature, and (3) the halogen compound.

12:  What are oxidation states of metal ion in following complexes?

I. PdCl2
II. Pd(PPh3)4
III. Pd(OAc)2
IV. ArPdBr where Ar is aryl
a) 2, 4, 2, 2
b) 2, 0, 2, 1
c) 2, 0, 2, 2
d) 0, 0, 0, 2

Answer: c
Explanation: n → oxidation states of metal ion
PdCl2: n – 2 = 0 ⇒ n = 2
Pd(PPh3)4 : Since PPh3 is neutral, Pd is in 0 Oxidation state.
Pd(OAc)2: n – 2 = 0 ⇒ n = 2
ArPdBr: n + [(–1) (–1)] ⇒ n = 2.

13: Which of the following complex has a highest oxidation state of metal?
a) (η6-C6H6)2Cr
b) Mn(CO)5Cl
c) Na2[Fe(CO)4] 
d) K[Mn(CO)5]

Answer: c
Explanation: Oxidation State of metal:
(a) (η6-C6H6)2Cr ⇒ 0, (b) Mn(CO)5Cl ⇒ +1
(c) Na2[Fe(CO)4] ⇒ +2 and (d) K[Mn(CO)5] ⇒ +1

14: Which of the following complex is in which organic ligand is having only bond with metal?
a) W(CH3)6
b) K[PtCl3(C2H4)] 
c) (η5-C5H5)2Fe
d) (η5-C6H6)2Ru

Answer: a
Explanation: CH3 is the only σ-donor ligand while C2H4, C5H5, C6H6 are π-acceptor ligands.

15: What is the oxidation state of molybdenum in [η7-tropylium) Mo(CO)3]+?

a) +2
b) +1
c) 0
d) -1
Answer: c
Explanation: Let O.S. of Mo is η.
η + (0) + 1 = +1
η = 0.

15: Which of the following is the neutral complex which follows the 18- electron rule?
a) (η5-C5H5)Fe(CO)2
b) (η5-C5H5)2Mo(CO)3
c) (η5-C5H5)2Co
d) (η5-C5H5)2Re(η6-C6H6)

Answer: d
Explanation:
(a) (η5-C5H5)Fe(CO)2
V.E.C. = 8 + 2(2) + 5 = 17
((b) η5-C5H5)2Mo(CO)3
V.E.C. = 8 + 2 + 2 + 5 = 17
(c) (η5-C5H5)2Co
V.E.C. = 9 + 5 + 5 = 19
(d) (η5-C5H5)2Re(η6-C6H6)
V.E.C. = 7 + 5 + 6 = 18
The correct answer is (η5-C5H5)2Re(η6-C6H6), obeys 18 e– rule.

16:  If complex [W(Cp)2(CO)2] follows 18e- rule. What is Hapticity of Cp?
a) 5 and 5
b) 3 and 5
c) 3 and 3
d) 1 and 5

Answer: b
Explanation: [W(Cp)2(Co)2].
Let hapticity of one Cp ligand = x and another y
VEC = 6 + 2(2) + x + y = 18
x + y = 18 – 10 = 8
Out of (1,3,5) the combination that is valid is (3 + 5).

17: Which of the following complexes show easy oxidation?

a) (η5-C5H5)2Fe
b) (η5-C5H5)2Ru
c) (η5-C5H5)2Co
d) (η5-C5H5)2Co+

Answer: c
Explanation: (a) (η5-C5H5)2Fe: VEC = 8 + 5 + 5 = 18
(b) (η5-C5H5)2Ru: VEC = 8 + 5 + 5 = 18
(c) (η5-C5H5)2Co: Since it is one e– extra of stable no., oxidation i.e. loss of e– can take place easily,
VEC = 9 + 5 + 5 = 19
(d) (η5-C5H5)2Co+: VEC = 9 + 5 + 5 – 1 = 18.

18:  How many M — M bonds are present in [Cp Mo(CO 3)]2?

a) 1
b) 2
 c) 0
d) 4

Answer: c
Explanation: No. of M-M bonds = (18×2-[(6+5+2×3)×2])/2=0.

19: If a C-14 has a half life of 5730 years, then how long will it take for quantity of
C-14 in a sample to drop to 1/8 of initial quantity?

A. 2.58 × 104 years
B. 1.44 × 104 years
C. 1.72 × 104 years
D. 2.58 × 104 years

(c)

20:  If a radioactive element has a half-life of 40 minutes. initial count rate was
1000 per minute, then how long will it take for count rate to drop to 125 per
minutes

A. 120 minutes
B. 90 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 60 minutes

(a)

21: What fraction of original sample will be after 22 years, if Cobalt-50 is a

radioactive element with half-life of 4.3 years?

A. 1⁄32
B. 1⁄16
C. 1⁄8
D. 1⁄4

(b)
 22: If activity of a sample of radioactive bismuth decreases to 1/8 of its original
activity in 15 days, then sample's half life will be

A. 3 days
B. 10 days
C. 5 days
D. 7 days

(c)

23: Radium-226 has a half-life of

A. 1160 years
B. 1340 years
C. 1580 years
D. 1620 years

(d)

24: Given: A + 3B 2C + D

This reaction is first order with respect to reactant A and second order with respect to reactant B. If the
concentration of A is doubled and the concentration of B is halved, the rate of the reaction would _____
by a factor of _____.

(a) increase, 2

(b) decrease, 2

(c) increase, 4

(d) decrease, 4

(e) not change

(b)

25: When the concentration of reactant molecules is increased, the rate of reaction increases. The best
explanation is: As the reactant concentration increases,

(a) the average kinetic energy of molecules increases.

(b) the frequency of molecular collisions increases.

(c) the rate constant increases.

(d) the activation energy increases.

(e) the order of reaction increases

(b)

26: A catalyst:

(a) actually participates in the reaction.

(b) changes the equilibrium concentration of the products.

(c) does not affect a reaction energy path.

(d) always decreases the rate for a reaction.

(e) always increases the activation energy for a reaction.

(a)

27: A catalyst:

(a) actually participates in the reaction.

(b) changes the equilibrium concentration of the products.

(c) does not affect a reaction energy path.

(d) always decreases the rate for a reaction.

(e) always increases the activation energy for a reaction.

(d)

28: A possible mechanism for the reaction, 2A + B C + D, is:

(1) A + A ……A2 fast, equilibrium

(2) A2 + A …… A3 slow

(3) A3 + B ……. A + C + D fast

According to the mechanism, the rate law will be:

(a) Rate = k[A]2

(b) Rate = k[A][B]

(c) Rate = k[A]2[B]

(d) Rate = k[A]

(e) Rate = k[A]3

(e)

29. What are the units of k for the rate law: Rate = k[A][B]2, when the concentration unit is mol/L?

(a) s-1

(b) s

(c) L mol-1 s-1

(d) L2 mol-2 s-1

(e) L2 s2 mol-2

(d)

30: Why is controlled oxidation needed?

a) High energy
b) Loss of products
c) Temperature
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: In the majority of cases, steps must be taken to limit the extent of the reaction and
prevent complete loss of product through continued oxidation.

31:  In which phase is Oxidation of high molecular weight done?

a) Vapour
b) Liquid
c) Solid
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Oxidations are conducted in the liquid phase in cases where high-molecular-weight,
complex, and more or less thermally unstable substances are dealt with and where the oxidizing
agent is relatively non-volatile.

32: Extent of oxidation can be controlled by?

a) Oxidizing agent
b) Duration of reaction
c) Temperature control
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Temperatures are low or moderate, and the extent of oxidation may be readily
controlled by (1) limiting the duration of operation, (2) controlling the temperature, and (3) limiting the
amount of oxidizing agent.

33:  Vapour phase oxidation can be readily effective to which type of compound?
a) Volatile
b) Non-volatile
c) Both volatile and non-volatile
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Vapour-phase oxidation reactions can be effectively applied only to readily volatile
substances that are of sufficient thermal stability to resist dissociation at elevated temperatures.

34: Control in oxidation processes can be done by?

a) Time
b) Temperature
c) Catalyst
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation Control is effected by limiting the time of contact, temperature, proportion of oxygen, or
type of catalyst or by combinations of these factors.

35:  Is oxidation of the low-molecular-weight paraffin hydrocarbons under high pressures possible?
a) No
b) Yes

Answer: b
Explanation: By conducting the oxidation of the low-molecular-weight paraffin hydrocarbons under
high pressures it has been possible to obtain alcohols, increased yields of aldehydes, and acids as
oxidation products. Conditions claimed for the pressure processes include (1) pressures of 50-250
atm, (2) temperatures from 200-600°C, (3) low oxygen: hydrocarbon ratios ranging from 5-15 moles
per cent, (4) short time of contact, and (5) the presence.
36:  Noncatalytic oxidation of the aromatic hydrocarbons is slow at which temperature?
a) Above 800
b) Below 800
c) Below 500
d) Above 500

Answer: c
Explanation: Noncatalytic oxidation of the aromatic hydrocarbons is slow at temperatures below
500°C.

37: Removal of energy during reaction leads to what?

a) Completion of reaction
b) Limit the reaction
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Equilibrium is favourable, and the problems are largely the removal of heat at the
desired reaction temperature level and the limitation of the oxidation to the desired product by
avoidance of complete combustion.

38:  Catalyst are also used to direct the reaction towards desired product.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Catalysts are generally used in an effort to obtain the oxidation reaction at the Iowest
temperature as possible and to direct the reaction to the desired products.

39: Number of dative bonds to central metal ion is its

A. oxidation number
B. compound number
C. co-ordination number
D. dative number

(c)

40: Ions which are produced from ligands are

A. cation
B. anion
C. complex ion
D. all of them

(c)

41:  Different ions will split up by different compounds to given of

A. same colored complexes

B. different colored complexes
C. same density complexes
D. same temperature complexes

(b)

42: Ligands which can form two coordinate bonds from each ion or
molecule to transition metal ion are known as
 A. ligands ions
B. dentate ligands
C. monodentate ligands
D. bidentate ligands

(d)

43: Due to ligands action of splitting color of transition metal compound,

change occurs at

A. s-orbital
B. d-orbital
C. p-orbital
D. f-orbital

(b)

44: In coordination chemistry, the donor atom of a ligand is

(a) a Lewis acid.
(b) the counter ion
(c) the central metal atom.
(d) the atom in the ligand that shares an electron pair with the metal.
(e) the atom in the ligand that accepts a share in an electron pair from the metal.

(d)

45: (Crystal Field Theory) Strong field ligands such as CN -:

(a) usually produce high spin complexes and small crystal field splittings.
(b) usually produce low spin complexes and small crystal field splittings.
(c) usually produce low spin complexes and high crystal field splittings.
(d) usually produce high spin complexes and high crystal field splittings.
(e) cannot form low spin complexes

(c)
 46: Crystal Field Theory) How many unpaired electrons are there in a strong
field iron(II) octahedral complex?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
(e) 6

(a)

47: Crystal Field Theory) Consider the complex ion [Mn(OH2)6]2+ with 5 unpaired electrons. Which
response includes all the following statements that are true, and no false statements?

I. It is diamagnetic.

II. It is a low spin complex.

III. The metal ion is a d5 ion.

IV. The ligands are weak field ligands.

V. It is octahedral.

(a) I, II

(b) III, IV, V

(c) I, IV

(d) II, V

(e) III, IV

(b)