Analytical Chemistry MCQS 2ND

1:  Beer Lambert’s law gives the relation between which of the following?
a) Reflected radiation and concentration
b) Scattered radiation and concentration
c) Energy absorption and concentration
d) Energy absorption and reflected radiation
(C)
Explanation:Beer Lambert’s law gives the relation between Energy absorption and
Concentration. It was proposed by Beer and Lambert.
2: In which of the following ways, absorption is related to transmittance?
a) Absorption is the logarithm of transmittance
b) Absorption is the reciprocal of transmittance
c) Absorption is the negative logarithm of transmittance
d) Absorption is a multiple of transmittance
(C)
Explanation:Transmittance is the ratio of the radiant power transmitted by a sample
to the radiant power incident on the sample. Absorption is the negative logarithm
of transmittance.
3 :  Which of the following is not a limitation of Beer Lambert’s law, which gives
the relation between absorption, thickness, and concentration?
a) Concentration must be lower
b) Radiation must have higher bandwidth
c) Radiation source must be monochromatic
d) Does not consider factors other than thickness and concentration that affect
absorbance
(B)
Explanation: The law is derived assuming that the radiation is monochromatic. So,
if bandwidth increases it will create deviation
4: Beer’s law states that the intensity of light decreases with respect to __________
a) Concentration
b) Distance
c) Composition
d) Volume
(A)
Explanation: Beer’s law states that the intensity of light decreases with the
concentration of the medium. It was stated by Beer.
5: The representation of Beer Lambert’s law is given as A = abc. If ‘b’ represents
distance, ‘c’ represents concentration and ‘A’ represents absorption, what does ‘a’
represent?
a) Intensity
b) Transmittance
c) Absorptivity
d) Admittance
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Explanation: ‘a’ represents the absorption constant. It is also known as
absorptivity.

6: Which of the following is not true about Absorption spectroscopy?

a) It involves transmission
b) Scattering is kept minimum
c) Reflection is kept maximum
d) Intensity of radiation leaving the substance is an indication of concentration
(C)
Explanation: In Absorption spectroscopy, reflection must also be kept minimum
along with scattering. Amount of absorption depends on the number of molecules
in the material.
7: Transmittance is given as T = P/Po. If Po is the power incident on the sample,
what does P represent?
a) Radiant power transmitted by the sample
b) Radiant power absorbed by the sample
c) Sum of powers absorbed and scattered
d) Sum of powers transmitted and reflected
(A)
Explanation: P represents radiant power transmitted by the sample. Transmittance
is the ratio of radiant power transmitted by the sample to the radiant power that is
incident on it
8: What is the unit of absorbance which can be derived from Beer Lambert’s law?
a) L mol-1 cm-1
b) L gm-1 cm-1
c) Cm
d) No unit
(d)
Explanation: Absorbance has no unit. The units of absorptivity, distance, and
concentration cancel each other. Hence, absorption has no unit.
9. What is the unit of molar absorptivity or absorptivity which is used to determine
absorbance A in Beer Lambert’s formula?
a) L mol-1 cm-1
b) L gm-1 cm-1
c) Cm
d) No unit
(a)
Explanation: The unit of absorptivity is L mol-1 cm-1. If the concentration is
represented as gm per litre it becomes L gm-1 cm-1.
10: Which of the following statements is false about single beam absorption
instruments?
a) Tungsten bulb is used as a source
b) Beam splitter is used to get parallel beam
c) Test tube is used as sample holder
d) Photovoltaic cell as detector
(b)
Explanation: Single beam instruments make use of one beam. Therefore, beam
splitters are not required in single beam instruments

11: Which of the following statement is false about double beam absorption
instruments?
a) It is similar to single beam instruments except two beams are present
b) Tungsten bulb is used as a source
c) Reference beam must have a higher intensity than sample beam
d) Both the beams after they pass through respective samples are compared
 (c)
Explanation: Reference beam cannot have a higher intensity than sample beam.
The beam is split into two beams of equal intensity
12:  Which of the following is not an application of colorimeter?
a) Paints
b) Inks
c) Cosmetics
d) Composition detection
(d)
Explanation: Colorimeter is not used to determine composition. Its application is
paints, dyes, inks, cosmetics and plastics
13: In photometers, the readings of the specimen are initially obtained in the form
of which of the following parameters?
a) Transmittance
b) Absorption
c) Wavelengths
d) Volume
(a)
Explanation: In photometers, the reading is initially obtained in the form of
transmittance as some radiation is absorbed by the sample and the rest of the beam
is transmitted. This transmitted beam is measured by the detector
14: In the diagram of single beam photometer given below, identify the component
that is not marked.
a) Monochromator
b) Absorption filter
c) Sample holder
d) Interference filte
(c)
Explanation: In single beam spectrophotometer, the beam passed through the
sample which is held in the sample holder. The transmitted beam is measured by
the detector.
15: Colorimeters are used to determine the concentration of solutions.
a) True
b) False
(a)
Explanation: Colorimetry is the science of colour measurement. It is used to
determine the concentrations of solutions
16: Which of the following is the purpose of balance indicator in double beam
photometer or colorimeter?
a) Selects a particular wavelength
b) Splits the wavelength selected into two equal beams
c) Detects and indicates the amount of light falling on it
d) Indicates the difference between the output of two photometers
 (d)
Explanation: It compares the output of the two photometers obtained using two
beams. It indicates the output.
17: Which of the following is the purpose of the beam splitter in double beam
photometer or colorimeter?
a) Splits beam into two equal intensity beams
b) Splits beam in such a way that sample beam has higher intensity
c) Splits beam in such a way that a reference beam has higher intensity
d) Merge two equal intensity beams into single beam
(A)

Explanation: Beam splitter splits beam into two equal intensity beams. One beam
passes through the sample and other through the reference.
18:  Which of the following is a source used in spectroscopy?
a) LASER
b) Tube light
c) Sodium vapour lamp
d) Tungsten lamp
 (D)

Explanation: Tungsten lamp is the source used in spectroscopy. It is the source

used in UV, Visible spectroscopy.
19: What is the wavelength range for UV spectrum of light?
a) 400 nm – 700 nm
b) 700 nm to 1 mm
c) 0.01 nm to 10 nm
d) 10 nm to 400 nm
 (D)

Explanation: Ultraviolet (UV) is an electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength

from 10 nm to 400 nm, shorter than that of visible light but longer than X-rays (the
visible region fall between 380-750 nm and X- rays region fall between 0.01 to
10nm)
20: The ultraviolet spectrum of benzonitrile shows a primary absorption band at
224 nm. If a solution of benzonitrile in water, with a concentration of 1x 10-
4
 molar, is examined at a wavelength of 224 nm, the absorbance is determined to be
1.30. The cell length is 1 cm.
What is the molar absorptivity of this absorption band?
a) 2.3 x 104
b) 3.3 x 104
c) 1.3 x 104
d) 4.3 x 104

 (c)
Explanation:
Benzonitrile in water with:
C = 1 x 10-4 M
A = 1.30
l = 1 cm
We know, A = ℇCl
ℇ = A/C I = 1.30/ 1X 10-4 X 1 = 1.34 X 104.
21: The ultraviolet spectrum of benzonitrile shows a secondary absorption band at
271 nm. If a solution of benzonitrile in water, with a concentration of 1×10-4 molar
solution is examined at 271 nm, what will be the absorbance reading (ℇ = 1000)
and what will be the intensity ratio, IO/I, respectively?
a) 0.1, 1.26
b) 0.2, 2.26
c) 0.3, 3.26
d) 0.4, 4.26
(a)
Explanation: A = ℇCl and ℇ = 1000 (Given)
A = 1000 x 1 x10-4 x 1
A = 0.1
Also, A = log (IO/l)
0.1 = log (IO/I)
=> IO/I = 1.26.

22:  What does a spectrophotometer directly measure?

(A)The amount of a chemical in a material


(B) The amount of light that a substance absorbs

© What wavelength of light we are seeing

 (D) The weight of a material

(B)

23: The intensity of an absorption band is always proportional to which of the

following factor?
a) Atomic population
b) Molecular population of the initial state
c) Molecular population of the final state
d) Temperature

( b)
Explanation: The probability of a transition taking place in initial state is the most
important factor influencing the intensity of an observed l line. This probability is
proportional to the population of the initial state involved in the transition.

24: On which factors the vibrational stretching frequency of diatomic molecule

depend?
a) Force constant
b) Atomic population
c) Temperature
d) Magnetic field

( a)
Explanation: The value of vibrating stretching frequency is shifted if the force
constant of a bond changes with its electronic structure. Frequency shifts also take
place on working with the same substance in different states (solids, liquids and
gas). A substance usually absorbs at higher frequency in a gaseous state as
compared to liquid and solid states.
25: In which unit Force constant is not expressed?
a) Dynes cm-1
b) dyne Å-1
c) Nm-1
d) kp

(d)
Explanation: All of the above units are correct for force constant except kp, i.e.
kilogram force or kilopond, which is the unit of force.

26: Since the nuclei in a polyatomic molecule do not always vibrate in a simple
harmonic manner, there arises which of the following situation?
a) Harmonicity
b) Anharmonicity in molecular vibrations
c) Fundamental frequencies
d) Infrared

(a)
Explanation: q → displacement and K →Force constant

27: The vibrations, without a center of symmetry are active in which of the
following region?
a) Infrared but inactive in Raman
b) Raman but inactive in IR
c) Raman and IR
d) Inactive in both Raman and IR

 (c)

Explanation: If a molecule has COS, then its vibrational mode will either IR active
or Raman Active.

28: The frequency of vibration of a bond is a function of which factor?

a) Force constant of the bond
b) Masses of the atoms involved in bonding
c) Force constant of the bond and Masses of the atoms
d) Bond order

(c)
EXPLANATION

29: What is the order of decreasing vibrational frequency for C — Cl, C — Br, C
— C, C — O and C — H?
a) C-H, C-C, C-O, C- Cl, C-Br
b) C- Cl, C-Br, C-C, C -H, C-O
c) C-O, C-H, C-Br, C- Cl, C-C
d) C-Br, C- Cl, C-C, C-O, C-H

30: The different types of energies associated with a molecule are

a) Electronic energy
b) Vibrational energy
c) Rotational energy
d) All of the mentioned

(D)
Explanation: The different types of energies associated with a molecule are
electronic energy, vibrational energy, rotational energy and translational energy.

31: During the motion, if the centre of gravity of molecule changes, the molecule
possess
a) Electronic energy
b) Rotational energy
c) Translational energy
d) Vibrational energy
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Explanation: During the motion, if the centre of gravity of molecule changes, the
molecule possess translational energy. Translational refers to the movement in
horizontal or vertical direction.

32: The correct order of different types of energies is

a) Eel >> Evib >> Erot >> E tr
b) Eel >> Erot >> Evib >> E tr
c) Eel >> Evib >> Etr >> E rot
d) Etr >> Evib >> Erot >> E el

 (a)
Explanation: The correct order is: Eel >> Evib >> Erot >> E tr. Electronic enrgy is the
highest whereas translational energy is the lowest.

33: The region of electromagnetic spectrum for nuclear magnetic resonance is

a) Microwave
b) Radio frequency
c) Infrared
d) UV-rays

 (b)
Explanation: The region of electromagnetic spectrum for nuclear magnetic
resonance is radio frequency.

34: Which of the following is an application of molecular spectroscopy?

a) Structural investigation
b) Basis of understanding of colors
c) Study of energetically excited reaction products
d) All of the mentioned.

(d)
Explanation: The various applications of molecular spectroscopy are- Structural
investigation, basis of understanding of colors and study of energetically excited
reaction products.

35: Select the correct statement from the following option.

a) Spectroscopic methods require less time and more amount of sample than
classical methods
b) Spectroscopic methods require more time and more amount of sample than
classical methods
c) Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample than
classical methods
d) Spectroscopic methods require more time and less amount of sample than
classical methods

 (c)
Explanation: Spectroscopic methods require less time and less amount of sample
than classical methods (1 mg).

36: The results obtained by spectroscopic methods are less reliable, less
reproducible and incorrect than classical methods.
a) True
b) False

 (b)
Explanation: The results obtained by spectroscopic methods are reliable,
reproducible and correct than classical methods.

37. The transition zone for Raman spectra is

a) Between vibrational and rotational levels
b) Between electronic levels
c) Between magnetic levels of nuclei
d) Between magnetic levels of unpaired electrons

 (a)
Explanation: The transition zone for Raman spectra is between vibrational and
rotational levels. Raman spectroscopy is a spectroscopic technique used to observe
vibrational, rotational, and other low-frequency modes in a system.

38: The criteria for electronic spin resonance is

a) Periodic change in polarisability
b) Spin quantum number of nuclei > 0
c) Presence of unpaired electron in a molecule
d) Presence of chromophore in a molecule

(c)
Explanation: The criterion for electronic spin resonance is presence of unpaired
electron in a molecule. This spectroscopy is a method for studying materials with
unpaired electrons.
39: Sample recovery is possible after spectroscopic analysis because sample is not
chemically affected.
a) True
b) False

 (a)
Explanation: Sample recovery is possible after spectroscopic analysis because
sample is not chemically affected.

40: CFL means

a. Combustible fluoride lamp

b. Compact fluoride lamp
c. Compact fluorescent lamp
d. Combustible fluorescent lamp

42: In fluorescent lamp one capacitor is connected across the lamp circuit and
another is connected across the starter. Then 

a. Both the capacitors are used for improving power factor

b. Both the capacitors are used for reducing radio interference
c. Former capacitors is used for improving power factor and later is used for
reducing radio interference
d. Former capacitors is used for reducing radio interference and later is used for
improving power factor

43:The main electrode of high pressure mercury vapour lamp is made up of

a. Quartz
b. Hard glass
c. Tungsten
d. Bronze

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44: The practical luminous efficiency of the sodium vapour lamp is of the
order of

a. 25 to 40 lumens per watt

b. 40 to 45 lumens per watt
c. 45 to 50 lumens per watt
d. 60 to 67 lumens per watt

(C)

45 : The inside wall of fluorescent tube is coated with

a. Sulphur powder`
b. Phosphor powder
c. Sodium
d. Krypton

(B)

46: Nitrogen is added with the argon in an incandescent lamp to 

a. Reduce the temperature

b. Reduce the possibility of arcing
c. Increase the brightness
d. Increase the efficiency

(B)

47: The artificial source of light is

a. Arc lamp
b. Incandescent lamp
c. Discharge lamp
d. All of these

(D)
48: The glare can be reduced by

a. Decreasing the height of bright light sources

b. Using glossy surfaces for bench tops
c. Using reflectors to the bright sources
d. All of these

(C )

49: The suitable lamps for street lighting are

a. Mercury vapour lamps

b. Sodium discharge lamps
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these

(C)

50: Which of the following is not a type of radiation detectors?

a) Geiger Muller counter
b) Proportional counter
c) Semiconductor detector
d) Flame emission detector

 (d)
Explanation: Flame emission detector is not a type of radiation detector. Radiation
can be detected by several methods.

51: When nuclear radiations pass through, gas ionization is produced.’ This is the
principle of which of the following detectors?
a) Proportional counter
b) Flow counter
c) Geiger Muller counter
d) Scintillation counter

 (c)
Explanation: ‘When nuclear radiations pass through, gas ionization is produced.’
This is the principle of which of Geiger Muller counter. It is used to measure the
intensity of radioactive radiation.
52:  Which of the following acts as quenching gas in Geiger Muller counter?
a) Alcohol
b) Argon gas
c) Krypton
d) Hydrogen

( a)
Explanation: Alcohol acts as quenching gas in Geiger Muller counter. It is present
in a gas tight envelope along with the electrodes.

53: Which of the detectors is similar to Geiger Muller counter in construction but
is filled with heavier gas?
a) Proportional counter
b) Flow counter
c) Semiconductor detector
d) Scintillation counter

 (a)
Explanation: Proportional counter is similar to Geiger Muller counter in
construction but is filled with heavier gas. The output is proportional to the
intensity of radiation incident on it.

54:  Which of the following gases are used in the proportional counter as the
ionising gas?
a) Alcohol
b) Argon gas
c) Krypton
d) Hydrogen

( c)
Explanation: Proportional counter is filled with krypton. It acts as ionising gas.
Xenon can also be used.

56:  Which of the following is the main disadvantage of solid state semiconductor
detector?
a) Low accuracy
b) Low sensitivity
c) It should be maintained at low temperature
d) High pressure has to be produced
 (c)
Explanation: The main disadvantage of solid state semiconductor detector is that it
must be maintained at low temperature. This is necessary to reduce noise and to
prevent deterioration of detector characteristics.

57: Scintillation detector is a large flat crystal of which of the following materials?
a) Sodium chloride
b) Sodium iodide
c) Sodium sulphate
d) Sodium carbonate

 (a)
Explanation: Scintillation detector is a large flat crystal of sodium iodide. It is
coated with thallium doping.

58: When X-ray enters the solid state detector it produces ion pair rather than
electron-hole pair.
a) True
b) False

(b)
Explanation: When X-ray enters the solid state detector it produces electron-hole
pair rather than an ion pair. The output signal is taken from an aluminium layer.

59: Which of the following materials are used as the insulation between the inner
and outer electrodes of the ion chamber?
a) Polythene
b) Plastic
c) Polytetrafluoroethylene
d) Polyacrylamide

 (c)
Explanation: Polytetrafluoroethylene is used as the insulation between the inner
and outer electrodes of the ion chamber. The material has very high resistance.

60: Liquid samples must be counted using ionization chamber by placing them in
which of the following?
a) Test tube
b) Curvette
c) Ampoules
d) Flask
(c)
Explanation: Liquid samples must be counted using ionization chamber by placing
them in ampoules. The ampoules are placed in the chamber.

61: Which of the following is a unique property of laser?

a) Directional
b) Speed
c) Coherence
d) Wavelength

(c)
Explanation: Coherence is an important characteristic of laser beam because in
laser beams, the wave trains of the same frequency are in phase/ Due to high
coherence it results in an extremely high power.

62: Which of the following is an example of optical pumping?

a) Ruby laser
b) Helium-Neon laser
c) Semiconductor laser
d) Dye laser

 (a)
Explanation: The atoms of Ruby are excited with the help of photons emitted with
the help of photons emitted by an external optical source. The atoms absorb energy
from photos and raises to excited state. Therefore Ruby laser is an example of
optical pumping.

63: When laser light is focussed on a particular area for a long time, then that
particular area alone will be heated.
a) True
b) False

 (a)
Explanation: Laser beam has very high intensity, directional properties and
coherence. When it is focussed on a particular area for a long time, then the area
alone will be heated and the other area will remain as such. This is called thermal
effect.

64: Calculate the wavelength of radiation emitted by an LED made up of a

semiconducting material with band gap energy 2.8eV.
a) 2.8 Å
b) 4.3308 Å
c) 5548.4 Å
d) 4430.8 Å

(d)
Explanation: E = hc/ʎ
Therefore, ʎ = hc/E
ʎ = 4430.8 Å.

65: Calculate the number of photons, from green light of mercury (ʎ = 4961 Å),
required to do one joule of work.
a) 4524.2×1018/m3
b) 2.4961×1018/m3
c) 2.4961/m3
d) 2.4961/m

(b)
Explanation: E = hc/ʎ
E = 4.006×10-19 Joules
Number of photons required = (1 Joule)/(4.006×10-19 )
N = 2.4961×1018/m3.

66: Which of the following can be used for generation of laser pulse?
a) Ruby laser
b) Carbon dioxide laser
c) Helium neon laser
d) Nd- YAG laser

(d)
Explanation: Since Nd YAG laser has a higher thermal conductivity than other
solid state lasers, it lends itself for generation of laser pulses at a higher pulse
repetition rate or a quasi continuous wave operation.

67: What is the need to achieve population inversion?

a) To excite most of the atoms
b) To bring most of the atoms to ground state
c) To achieve stable condition
d) To reduce the time of production of laser

 (a)
Explanation: When population inversion is achieved, the majority of atoms are in
the excited state. This causes amplification of the incident beam by stimulated
emission. Thus the laser beam is produced.

68: Which of the following can be used in a vibrational analysis of structure?

a) Maser
b) Quarts
c) Electrical waves
d) Laser

(d)
Explanation: Laser can be used in a vibrational analysis of structure. This is
because when a structure under test begins to vibrate a distinctive pattern begins to
emerge.