AbnormalPsychologyPart1and2 221007 163512

Abnormal Psychology by Barlow and Durand
Diagnostic Test Questions
1. Refers to a psychological dysfunction within an individual associated with distress or

impairment in functioning and a response that is not typical or culturally expected.
a. Acute Disorder
b. Impairment
c. Psychological Disorder
d. Presenting Problem
2. It is the scientific study of psychological disorders.
a. Etiology
b. Clinical Descriptions
c. Prevalence
d. Psychopathology
3. These are mental health professionals who receive a Ph.D. degree and follow a course
of graduate-level study, lasting approximately 5 years, that prepares them to conduct
research into the causes and treatment of psychological disorders and to diagnose,
assess, and treat these disorders.
a. Clinical and Counseling Psychologists
b. Psychiatrists
c. Psychiatric Social Workers
d. Psychiatric Nurses
4. These are mental health professionals who first earn an M.D. degree in medical school
and then specialize in psychiatry during residency training that lasts 3 to 4 years. They
also, investigate the nature and causes of psychological disorders, often from a biological
point of view, make diagnoses, and offer treatments.
a. Clinical and Counseling Psychologists
b. Psychiatrists
c. Psychiatric Social Workers
d. Psychiatric Nurses
5. Represents the unique combination of behaviors, thoughts, and feelings that make up
a specific disorder.
a. Clinical Description
b. Insidious Onset
c. Incidence
d. Prevalence
6. The question “How many people in the population as a whole have the disorder?” would
refer to?
a. Etiology
b. Incidence
c. Prevalence
d. Prognosis
7. We might say, “the prognosis is ______” meaning the individual will probably recover,
or “the prognosis is ______” meaning the probable outcome doesn’t look good.
a. Better; Worse
b. Excellent; Hopeless
c. Good; Guarded
d. Unguarded; Bad
8. Many mental health professionals take a scientific approach to their clinical work and
therefore are called ______?
a. Clinical Psychologists
b. Psychotherapists
c. Research-based Practice
d. Scientist-practitioners
9. These behaviors are oftentimes considered not culturally expected, at times, something
is considered abnormal because it occurs infrequently; it deviates from the average.
a. Atypical
b. Distress
c. Dysfunctional
d. Prototype
10. It is the study of origins, has to do with why a disorder begins (what causes it), and
includes biological, psychological, and social dimensions.
a. Etiology
b. Prevalence
c. Prognosis
d. Taxonomy
11. Miguel recently began feeling sad and lonely. Although still able to function at work
and fulfill other responsibilities, he finds himself feeling down much of the time and he
worries about what is happening to him. Which of the definitions of abnormality apply to
Miguel’s situation?
a. Atypical Behaviors
b. Distress
c. Dysfunction
d. Societal Norm Violation
12. Three weeks ago, Jane, a 35-year-old business executive, stopped showering,
refused to leave her apartment, and started watching television talk shows. Threats of
being fired have failed to bring Jane back to reality, and she continues to spend her days
staring blankly at the television screen. Which of the definitions seems to describe Jane’s
behavior?
a. Atypical Behaviors
b. Distress
c. Dysfunction
d. Societal Norm Violation
13. Maria should recover quickly with no intervention necessary. Without treatment, John
will deteriorate rapidly. This is an example of?
a. Course
b. Incidence
c. Prognosis
d. Prevalence
14. Three new cases of bulimia have been reported in this county during the past month
and only one in the next county. This statement can be considered as?
a. Course
b. Incidence
c. Prognosis
d. Prevalence
15. Elizabeth visited the campus mental health center because of her increasing feelings
of guilt and anxiety. This is an example of?
a. Course
b. Prevalence
c. Prognosis
d. Presenting problem
16. Biological, psychological, and social influences all contribute to a variety of disorders.
a. Course
b. Etiology
c. Incidence
d. Prognosis
17. This refers to the pattern a disorder follows can be chronic, time-limited, or episodic.
a. Course
b. Etiology
c. Incidence
d. Prognosis
18. How many people in the population as a whole suffer from an obsessive-compulsive
disorder? This statement can be considered as?
a. Incidence
b. Prognosis
c. Prevalence
d. Presenting problem
19. In the historical context, what treatments were used to “cure” the abnormal behaviors
that have supernatural causes, evil demons took over the victims’ bodies and controlled
their behaviors.
a. Bloodletting; induced vomiting
b. Exorcism; burning at the stake
c. Patients placed in socially facilitative environments
d. None of the above

20. The humoral theory reflected the belief that the normal functioning of the brain
required a balance of four bodily fluids or humors. The humoral theory believers make
use of what kind of treatment?
21. Practitioners who believe that maladaptive behavior was caused by poor social and
cultural influences within the environment apply the following treatment?
d. All of the above
22. Achieving sexual arousal and gratification by exposing genitals to unsuspecting

strangers.
a. Pedophilic Disorder
b. Exhibitionistic disorder
c. Frotteuristic disorder
d. Masochistic disorder
23. Touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting individual.
a. Pedophilic Disorder
d. Masochistic disorder
24. Sexual arousal is strongly associated with the act of (or fantasies of) dressing in
clothes of the opposite sex, or cross-dressing.
a. pedophilic disorder
b. sexual masochism disorder
c. gender dysphoria
d. transvestic disorder
25. Individuals born with ambiguous genitalia are associated with documented hormonal
or other physical abnormalities.
a. Hermaphroditism
b. Dual sexuality
c. Sex organ duality
d. Autogynephilia
26. It is defined as a negative mood state characterized by bodily symptoms of physical

tension and by apprehension about the future (American Psychiatric Association, 2000;
Barlow, 2002).
a. Anxiety
b. Fear
c. Panic
d. Panic Attacks
27. This is the sudden overwhelming reaction, that came after the Greek god Pan who
terrified travelers with bloodcurdling screams.
a. Anxiety
b. Fear
c. Panic
d. Panic Attacks
28. It is defined as an abrupt experience of intense fear or acute discomfort, accompanied

by physical symptoms that usually include heart palpitations, chest pain, shortness of
breath, and, possibly, dizziness.
a. Anxiety
b. Fear
c. Panic
d. Panic Attacks
29. Which of the following is not a basic type of panic attack?
a. Situation bound
b. Unexpected
c. Situation predisposed
d. Situation inevitable
30. It is the excessive fear or anxiety concerning separation from home or attachment
figures and the anxiety exceeds what may be expected given the person's developmental
level.
a. Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder
b. Reactive Attachment Disorder
c. Separation Anxiety
d. Selective Mutism
31. Which of the following is not a specifier for Specific Phobia?
a. Animal
b. Blood-injection-injury
c. Natural environment
d. Social Situation
32. It is a marked or intense, fear or anxiety of social situations in which the individual
may be scrutinized by others.
a. Agoraphobia
b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
c. Panic Disorder
d. Social Anxiety Disorder
33. It is marked, or intense, fear or anxiety triggered by the real or anticipated exposure
to a wide range of situations such as using public transportation, being in open spaces,
being in enclosed places, standing in line or being in a crowd and/or being outside of the
home alone.
a. Agoraphobia
c. Panic Disorder
34. It is the excessive anxiety and worry (apprehensive expectation) about a number of
events or activities and the intensity, duration, or frequency of the anxiety and worry is
out of proportion to the actual likelihood or impact of the anticipated event.
a. Agoraphobia
c. Panic Disorder
35. These are intrusive and mostly nonsensical thoughts, images, or urges that the
individual tries to resist or eliminate.
a. Anxiety
b. Compulsions
c. Obsessions
d. Panic Attacks
36. These are the thoughts or actions used to suppress the obsessions and provide relief.
a. Anxiety
b. Compulsions
c. Obsessions
d. Panic Attacks
37. Individuals suffering from this disorder are preoccupied with one or more perceived
defects or flaws in their physical appearance, which they believe look ugly, unattractive,
abnormal, or deformed.
a. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
b. Conversion Disorder
c. Hypochondriasis
d. Somatic Symptom Disorder
38. The essential feature of this disorder is the persistent difficulties of discarding or
parting with possessions, regardless of their actual value.
a. Excoriation Disorder
b. Hoarding Disorder
c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
d. Trichotillomania
39. The essential feature of this disorder is the recurrent pulling out of one's own hair.
d. Trichotillomania
40. The essential feature of this disorder is recurrent picking at one's own skin.
d. Trichotillomania
41. Psychological disorders are considered developmental disorders when there is a:
a. Change in symptoms over the lifespan
b. Genetic component to the disorder
c. Significant dysfunction during childhood
d. General decline in functioning over time
42. Although not classified as developmental disorders, many, if not most, psychological
disorders can be considered developmental because they:
a. Appear early in life and change over the lifespan
b. Have a genetic component
c. Lack of biological causes and is influenced by learning
d. Are unique to children
43. Johnny is a 2-year-old boy who has no motivation to interact with other people. His
absence of interest in people may also lead to severe deficits in his ability to:
a. Amuse himself
b. Think
c. Communicate
d. Walk
44. The main reason that it is so important to identify children with developmental
disorders as early as possible is that:
a. Medications are most effective when administered at an early stage of the disorder
b. Skill deficits can be identified and addressed before they impact later development
c. Family functioning often declines as the developmental disorder progresses
d. Children are more receptive to therapy when they are young
45. An individual diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder will always

present with:
a. Hyperactive behavior that alternates with periods of distraction
b. Patterns of inattention or hyperactivity/impulsivity
c. Both patterns of inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity
d. Periods of distraction that lead to hyperactive/impulsive behavior
46. Which of the following is not characteristic of ADHD?
a. Inattention
b. Learning disabilities
c. Self-control
d. Fidgeting
47. A learning disorder is defined as:
a. Achievement in reading, writing, or math below the level predicted by the individual's
age, IQ, and education
b. Achievement in any academic subject below the level predicted by the individual's age,
IQ, and education
c. Substandard IQ score in comparison to the individual's family and educational

background
d. The existence of a neurological deficit that interferes with the individual's ability to
assimilate new information
48. All of the following are typical behaviors for autistic children EXCEPT:
a. Spinning a wheel on a toy truck and starring at it for hours
b. Throwing a loud tantrum when prevented from carrying out a ritual
c. Becoming wildly upset when one toy was removed from the shelf
d. Performing complex math calculations that appear well beyond their abilities
49. A 7-year-old boy in second grade displays significant delays in his ability to reason,
solve problems, and learn from his experiences. He has been slow to develop reading,
writing, and mathematical skills in school. All through development, these skills lagged
behind his peers, although he is making slow progress. These deficits significantly impair
his ability to play in an age-appropriate manner with peers and to begin to acquire
independent skills at home. He requires ongoing assistance with basic skills such as
dressing, feeding, and bathing himself on a daily basis. Which of the following diagnosis
best fits this presentation?
a. Childhood-onset Major Neurocognitive Disorder
b. Klinefelter’s Syndrome
c. Intellectual Disability Disorder
d. Autism Spectrum Disorder
50. A 15-year-old boy has a long history of non-verbal communication deficits. As an

infant, he was unable to follow someone else directing his attention by pointing. As a
toddler, he was not interested in sharing events, feelings, or games with his parents. From
school age into adolescence, his speech was odd in tonality and phrasing, and his body
language was awkward. What do these symptoms represent?
a. Stereotypies
b. Restricted range of interests
c. Developmental regression
d. Deficits in nonverbal communication behaviors
51. A psychological dysfunction within an individual associated with distress or

impairment in functioning and a response that is not typical or culturally expected.
a. Psychological dysfunction
b. Psychological distress
c. Psychological impairment
d. Abnormal behavior
52. A psychological disorder characterized by marked and persistent fear of an object or

situation.
a. Anxiety
b. Object fear disorder
c. Phobia
d. Specific phobia
53. You are out on a date. However, you experience severe fear all evening and just want
to go home, even though there is nothing to be afraid of, and the severe fear happens on
every date you have.
a. Atypical response
b. Personal distress
c. Psychological dysfunction
54. You are out on a date. However, you experience severe fear all evening and just want
to go home.
a. Atypical response
b. Personal distress
c. Psychological dysfunction
55. Describing the patients presenting problem which is represented by the unique
combination of behaviors, thoughts, and feelings that make up a specific disorder.
a. Clinical description
b. Etiology
c. Psychological Criteria
d. Psychopathology
56. The anticipated course of a disorder is called __.
a. Onset
b. Course
c. Prevalence
d. Prognosis
57. Schizophrenia follows an/a _________, meaning that they tend to last a long time,
sometimes a lifetime.
a. Episodic course
b. Chronic course
c. Acute onset
d. Insidious onset
58. Mood disorders follow an/a______, in that the individual is likely to recover within a
few months only to suffer a recurrence of the disorder at a later time.
a. Episodic course
b. Chronic course
c. Acute onset
d. Insidious onset
59. Some disorders have an/a _____, meaning that they begin suddenly; others develop
gradually over an extended period, which is sometimes called an/a ______.
a. Acute onset; insidious onset
b. Insidious onset; acute onset
c. Acute onset; chronic course
d. Insidious onset; chronic course
60. Number of people in the population as a whole that have the disorder: _______; new
cases that occur during a given period: ______.
a. Incidence; prevalence
b. Prevalence; incidence
c. Onset; course
d. Course; onset
61. The individual will probably recover: _______; the probable outcome doesn’t look
good: _____.
a. Good prognosis; bad prognosis
b. Good prognosis; guarded prognosis
c. Positive prognosis; negative prognosis
62. The study of changes in abnormal behavior.
a. Psychopathology
b. Developmental pathology
c. Developmental psychopathology
d. Developmental psychology
63. The study of origins, has to do with why a disorder begins (what causes it) and
includes biological, psychological, and social dimensions.
a. Causality
b. Nosology
c. Epidemiology
d. Etiology
64. Biological, psychological, and social influences contribute to the _____ of disorders.
a. Etiology
b. Factors
c. Causes
d. Process
65. Short-lived, temporary states lasting from several minutes to several hours, occurring
in response to an external event.
a. Mood
b. State
c. Affect
d. Emotion
66. A more persistent period of affect or emotionality.

a. Mood
b. State
c. Affect
d. Emotion
67. Refers to the momentary emotional tone that accompanies what we say or do.
a. Mood
b. State
c. Affect
d. Emotion
68. The systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological, and social
factors in an individual presenting with a possible psychological disorder.
A. Clinical Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Psychological testing
D. Clinical evaluation
69. The process of determining whether the particular problem afflicting the individual
meets all criteria for a psychological disorder.
A. Clinical Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Psychological testing
D. Clinical evaluation
70. Mental Status exam covers
i. Appearance and behavior
ii. Thought processes
iii. Mood and affect
iv. Intellectual functioning
v. Sensorium
a. iv only
b. iv and ii
c. iv, iii, and ii
d. all of the above
71. Refers to our general awareness of our surroundings.
a. Thought processes
b. Mood and affect
c. Intellectual functioning
d. Sensorium
72. Are made up of questions that have been carefully phrased and tested to elicit useful
information in a consistent manner so that clinicians can be sure they have inquired about
the most important aspects of particular disorders (Summerfeldt, Kloosterman, & Antony,
2010). Clinicians may also depart from set questions to follow up on the specific issue.
A. Structured interview
B. Unstructured interview
C. Semistructured interview
D. Follow-up interview
73. When Lisa was brought to Dr. Miller’s office, he asked if she knew the date and time,
her identity, and where she was.
a. Sensorium
b. Thought processes
c. Mood and affect
d. Intellectual functioning
74. Dr. Swan listened carefully to Joyce’s speech pattern, noting its speed, content, and
continuity. He noticed no loose association but did hear indications of delusional thoughts
and visual hallucinations.
a. Sensorium
b. Thought processes
c. Mood and affect
d. Intellectual functioning
75. If someone were to ask you to describe a dog, you could easily give a general
description (the essential, categorical characteristics), but you might not exactly describe
a specific dog. Dogs come in different colors, sizes, and even species (the nonessential,
dimensional variations), but they all share certain doggish characteristics that allow you
to classify them separately from cats. This is a/an example of _______. DSM-5 is also
based on this approach.
A. categorical approach
B. dimensional approach
C. prototypical approach
D. none of the above
76. The following are DSM-5 criteria for Major Depressive Episode, except;
A. Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day
B. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities most of the day,
nearly every day.
C. Significant weight loss when dieting or weight gain.
D. Insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day.
77. Allowed the clinician to gather information about the individual’s functioning in a
number of areas rather than limiting information to the disorder itself. This framework is
used in the previous version of DSM.
a. Dimension system
b. Categorical system
c. Multiaxial system
d. Biological framework
78. Former axes I, II, and III of DSM-IV have been combined into the _________ in DSM-
5.
a. descriptions of the disorders
b. severity of the disorders
c. global assessment functioning (GAF)
d. dimension of the disorders
79. Individuals who have all the symptoms but do not cross _______ of impairment could
not be diagnosed with a disorder. Example, Frank has been positive with MDD symptoms
according to DSM – 5 criteria. However, he is not depressed most of the day.
a. Threshold
b. Criteria
c. Dimension
d. Social aspect
80. The individual is diagnosed with more than one psychological disorder at the same
time.
a. Onset
b. Course
c. Compatibility
d. Comorbidity
81. In DSM-5 the term “mental retardation” has been dropped in favor of the more
accurate term “_________,”
a. Intellectually incapacitated
b. intellectual disability
c. mental disability
d. intellectual retardation
82. _____ is a negative mood state characterized by bodily symptoms of physical tension
and by apprehension about the future (American Psychiatric Association, 2013). In
humans, it can be a subjective sense of unease, a set of behaviors or a physiological
response originating in the brain and reflected in elevated heart rate and muscle tension.
Lastly, it is a future-oriented mood state.
a. Anxiety
b. Fear
c. Phobia
d. Panic
83. As an immediate alarm reaction to danger.
a. Anxiety
b. Fear
c. Phobia
d. Panic
84. Is defined as an abrupt experience of intense fear or acute discomfort, accompanied

by physical symptoms that usually include heart palpitations, chest pain, shortness of
breath, and, possibly, dizziness.
a. Fear
b. Anxiety
c. Generalized anxiety
d. Panic attack
85. Panic attack in fixed situations: ______; Varying panic attacks with no clue when or
where it will occur: ______.
a. Unexpected; expected
b. Fixed; varied
c. Expected; unexpected
d. Varied; fixed
86. Raj is unable to speak whenever he faces women. However, he converses well with
his friends Sheldon, Leonard, and Howard. Raj is suspected to have _____.
a. specific phobia
b. social anxiety disorder
c. panic disorder
d. Selective mutism
87. Samantha was a 20-year-old college student with an engaging personality but not
many friends. She came to the clinic complaining of excessive anxiety and general
difficulties in controlling her life. Samantha is diagnosed with ____.
a. agoraphobia
b. social anxiety disorder

c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. Selective mutism
88. Sheldon Cooper is a very intelligent person with strict morning bathroom routine. He
and Leonard lived together in a nice apartment. Leonard observed that Sheldon keeps
on sitting on a specific couch. Whenever someone tries to sit in this couch, Sheldon fidget
uncomfortably and argue “that’s my spot”. Sheldon’s behavior annoyed most of the
people around him. Despite of this, Sheldon seems to notice no wrong about him. Sheldon
could be diagnosed with ________ due to the presence of ______.
a. Narcissistic PD; ego-syntonic
b. Obsessive-compulsive; ego-syntonic
c. Narcissistic PD; ego-dystonic
d. Obsessive-compulsive PD; ego-syntonic
89. The following are not interoceptive daily activities typically avoided by people with
Agoraphobia except;
a. Watching an aquarium
b. Walking in a very fine weather
c. Dancing
d. Having a polite conversation with a friend
90. Most patients with panic disorder and agoraphobic avoidance display an avoidance
of internal physical sensation called ____.
a. interoceptive avoidance
b. interceptive avoidance
c. external avoidance
d. exteroceptive avoidance
91. An interruption of breathing during sleep that may feel like suffocation.
a. Gagging
b. Snoring
c. Sleep apnea
d. Night terror
92. Is an irrational fear of a specific object or situation that markedly interferes with an
individual’s ability to function.
a. Agoraphobia
b. Phobia
c. Object phobia
d. Specific phobia
93. Anthropophobia is a fear of ___.
a. Human history
b. Humanity
c. Human society
d. Human study
94. Ron Weasley experiences an extreme anxiety whenever he is close with Hemione
Granger. He fidgets and can’t function properly when Hermione is around. He has been
experiencing this for about a year. Despite of being friends with both Hermione and Harry,
Ron endured this intense anxiety whenever the three are into adventures. Ron might be
diagnosed with ___.
a. Nothing, this is just a simple crush. The anxiety he felt is an outburst of his feelings
b. Love syndrome. Ron is in love with Hermione
c. Panic disorder, because of his extreme anxiety
d. Specific phobia, Ron has a mysterious hermionephobia – a fear of Hermione.
95. Doctor Stephen Strange is driving his car while talking to a friend when suddenly a
fatal accident occurred. Before the accident, while on the phone, his friend heard his
scream. Doctor Strange’s friend was diagnosed with a specific phobia 6 months after the
accident. His phobia was acquired through ____
a. Direct experience
b. Vicarious experience
c. Communicative experience
d. being told about danger
96. Billy had no friends. He was unwilling to attend social or sporting activities connected
with school, even though most of the other kids in his class went to these events His
teachers had difficulty getting anything more than a yes or no answer from him. More
troublesome was that he had been found hiding in a stall in the boy’s restroom during
lunch, which he said he had been doing for several months instead of eating. Billy has a
______
a. General anxiety disorder

b. Phobia
c. Social anxiety disorder
d. Separation anxiety disorder
97. It is a startling disorder characterized by a broad spectrum of cognitive and emotional

dysfunctions including delusions and hallucinations, disorganized speech and behavior,
and inappropriate emotions.
a. Bipolar Disorder
b. PTSD
c. Personality Disorder
d. Schizophrenia
98. The term __________ has been used to characterize many unusual behaviors,
although in its strictest sense it usually involves delusions (irrational beliefs) and/or
hallucinations (sensory experiences in the absence of external events).
a. Abnormal behavior
b. Neurotic behavior
c. Psychotic behavior
d. Somatic behavior
99. These symptoms in schizophrenia are the more obvious signs of psychosis which
include the disturbing experiences of delusions and hallucinations.
a. Atypical symptoms
b. Behavioral symptoms
c. Negative symptoms
d. Positive symptoms
100. A belief that would be seen by most members of a society as a misrepresentation of

reality is called a disorder of thought content, or called as?
a. Delusion
b. Hallucination
c. Alogia
d. Anhedonia
101. The experience of sensory events without any input from the surrounding
environment is called?
a. Delusion
b. Hallucination
c. Alogia
d. Anhedonia
102. These group of symptoms in schizophrenia usually indicate the absence or

insufficiency of normal behavior. They include apathy, poverty of (i.e., limited) thought or
speech, and emotional and social withdrawal.
a. Atypical symptoms
b. Behavioral symptoms
c. Negative symptoms
d. Positive symptoms
103. This is the inability to initiate and persist in activities. People with this symptom (also
referred to as apathy) show little interest in performing even the most basic day-to-day
functions, including those associated with personal hygiene.
a. Avolition
b. Affective flattening
c. Alogia
d. Anhedonia
104. This refers to the relative absence of speech, a schizophrenic client having this
symptom may respond to questions with brief replies that have little content and may
appear uninterested in the conversation.
a. Avolition
c. Alogia
d. Anhedonia
105. It is the presumed lack of pleasure experienced by some people with schizophrenia.
a. Avolition
c. Alogia
d. Anhedonia
106. This is a schizophrenia symptom where you could communicate with the client
verbally, but you wouldn’t be able to see their emotional reactions.
a. Avolition
c. Alogia
d. Anhedonia
107. The essential feature of this disorder is a disturbance that involves the sudden onset
of at least one of the following positive psychotic symptoms: delusions, hallucinations,
disorganized speech (e.g., frequent derailment or incoherence), or grossly abnormal
psychomotor behavior, including catatonia. Then the duration of an episode of the
disturbance is at least 1 day but less than 1 month, with eventual full return to premorbid
level of functioning.
a. Brief Psychotic Disorder
b. Delusional Disorder
c. Schizophreniform Disorder
d. Schizophrenia
108. The characteristic symptoms of this disorder are identical to those of schizophrenia
and the distinguished by its difference in duration: the total duration of the illness,
including prodromal, active, and residual phases, is at least 1 month but less than 6
months.
a. Brief Psychotic Disorder
b. Delusional Disorder
c. Schizophreniform Disorder
d. Schizophrenia
109. Jane has spent the last half hour staring in the mirror. As you approach her she turns
away and giggles. When you ask what she’s laughing at, she answers, but you’re having
difficulty understanding what she says. Which subtype of schizophrenia is described in
each scenario?
a. Catatonic
b. Disorganized
c. Paranoid
d. Residual
110. Two years ago Drew had an episode of schizophrenia, but he no longer displays the
major symptoms of the disorder. He does, however, still have some bizarre thoughts and
displays flat affect on occasion. Which subtype of schizophrenia is described in each
scenario?
a. Catatonic
b. Disorganized
c. Paranoid
d. Residual
111. Greg’s cognitive skills and affect are relatively intact. He, however, often has
delusions and hallucinations that convince him enemies are out to persecute him. Which
subtype of schizophrenia is described in each scenario?
a. Catatonic
b. Disorganized
c. Paranoid
d. Residual
112. Alice usually holds an unusual posture and is sometimes seen grimacing. Which
subtype of schizophrenia is described in each scenario?
a. Catatonic
b. Disorganized
c. Paranoid
d. Residual
113. Cameron suffers from a type of schizophrenia that is identified by disruption and
incoherence in his speech and behavior. He also shows inappropriate affect, often
laughing in a silly way in sad situations. Which subtype of schizophrenia is described in
each scenario?
a. Catatonic
b. Disorganized
c. Paranoid
d. Residual
114. Lately, Dom has become more isolated because he believes his coworkers are
conspiring to get him fired. He becomes agitated whenever he sees a group of employees
talking and laughing because he believes that they are plotting against him.
a. Schizophreniform disorder
b. Schizoaffective disorder
c. Delusional disorder
d. Shared psychotic disorder.

115. Natalie reveals to her therapist that she hears numerous voices talking to her and
giving her orders. Her doctor has just sent her to this therapist for what he believes to be
a major depressive episode. She had begun to sleep all the time and contemplated
suicide often.
116. If Shawn’s schizophrenic symptoms disappeared after about 4 months and he

returned to his normal life, what diagnosis might he have received?
117. Elias believes the government is out to get him. He thinks agents follow him daily,
monitor his calls, and read his mail. His roommate Cedric tried to convince him otherwise.
However, after a year of this, Cedric began to believe Elias was correct and the
government was out to get him, too.

118. People who suffer from this disorder are typically socially isolated and they also
behave in ways that would seem unusual to many of us, and they tend to be suspicious
and to have odd beliefs (Cloninger & Svakic, 2009).
a. Paranoid Personality Disorder
b. Schizoid Personality Disorder
c. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
d. Schizophreniform Disorder
119. People who have this disorder are excessively mistrustful and suspicious of others,
without any justification. They assume other people are out to harm or trick them;
therefore, they tend not to confide in others.
120. People with this personality disorder show a pattern of detachment from social
relationships and a limited range of emotions in interpersonal situations. They seem aloof,
cold, and indifferent to other people.
121. Individuals who have this personality disorder perform actions most of us would find
unacceptable, such as stealing from friends and family. They also tend to be
irresponsible, impulsive, and deceitful (De Brito & Hodgins, 2009).
a. Antisocial
b. Borderline
c. Histrionic
d. Narcissistic
122. People who have this personality disorder lead tumultuous lives, their moods and
relationships are unstable, and usually, they have a poor self-image. These people often
feel empty and are at great risk of dying by their own hands.
a. Antisocial
b. Borderline
c. Histrionic
d. Narcissistic
123. Individuals with this personality disorder tend to be overly dramatic and often seem
almost to be acting. They seem to also have patterns of excessive emotionality and
attention-seeking behavior.
a. Antisocial
b. Borderline
c. Histrionic
d. Narcissistic
124. People with this personality disorder have an unreasonable sense of self-importance
and are so preoccupied with themselves that they lack sensitivity and compassion for
other people (Miller, Campbell, & Pilkonis, 2007). There is also a pattern of grandiosity, a
need for admiration, and a lack of empathy.
a. Antisocial
b. Borderline
c. Histrionic
d. Narcissistic
125. Individuals who have this personality disorder are extremely sensitive to the opinions
of others and therefore avoid most relationships. Their extremely low self-esteem,
coupled with a fear of rejection, causes them to be limited in their friendships and
dependent on those they feel comfortable with.
a. Obsessive-compulsive PD
b. Avoidant PD
c. Dependent PD
d. Antisocial PD
126. People with this personality disorder rely on others to make ordinary decisions as
well as important ones, which results in an unreasonable fear of abandonment. There is
also a pattern of submissive and clinging behavior related to an excessive need to be
taken care of.
b. Avoidant PD
c. Dependent PD
d. Antisocial PD
127. People who have this personality disorder are characterized by a fixation on things
being done “the right way.” Although many might envy their persistence and dedication,
this preoccupation with details prevents them from completing much of anything.
b. Narcissistic PD
c. Paranoid PD
d. Antisocial PD
127. Kinn trusts no one and wrongly believes other people want to harm him or cheat him
out of his life earnings. He is sure his husband, Porsche, is secretly planning to leave him
and take their three dogs, although he has no proof. He no longer confides in friends or
divulges any information to coworkers for fear that it will be used in a plot against him. He
is usually tense and ready to argue about harmless comments made by family members.
Kinn might suffer from what personality disorder?
128. Metawin is 17 and has been in trouble with the law for the past 2 years. He lies to
his parents, vandalizes buildings in the community, and often fights with others. He shows
no remorse for whom he injures or the grief that he causes his ailing parents. Metawin is
probably having what PD?
a. Antisocial PD
b. Borderline PD
c. Histrionic PD
d. Narcissistic PD
129. Singto has no social life because of his great fear of rejection. He disregards
compliments and reacts excessively to criticism, which only feeds his pervasive feelings
of inadequacy. Mike takes everything personally. Singto suffers from what time of PD?
b. Avoidant PD
c. Dependent PD
d. Antisocial PD
130. Vegas lives alone out in the country with his birds and has little contact with relatives
or any other individuals in a nearby town. He is extremely concerned with pollution, fearing
that harmful chemicals are in the air and water around him. He has developed his own
water purification system and makes his own clothes. If it is necessary for him to go
outside, he covers his body with an excessive thing and wears a face mask to avoid the
contaminated air. Vegas can be diagnosed with?
131. During a therapy session, Tay Tawan gets up for a glass of water. Ten minutes later
Tay Tawan still is not back. He first had to clean the fountain area and neatly arrange the
glasses before pouring his glass of water. Tay Tawan might have?
a. OCPD
b. BDD
c. PTSD
d. OCD
132. Gu Hai has low self-esteem and usually feels empty unless he does dangerous and
exciting things. He is involved in drugs and has casual sexual encounters, even with
strangers. He threatens to commit suicide if his boyfriend suggests getting help or if he
talks about leaving him. He alternates between passionately loving and hating him,
sometimes going from one extreme to the next in a short time. Gu Hai can be diagnosed
with what personality disorder?
a. Antisocial PD
b. Borderline PD
c. Histrionic PD
d. Narcissistic PD
133. Lala Lisa thinks she is the best at everything. She thinks her performance is always
excellent and is extremely critical of anyone else’s success. She constantly looks for
admiration and reassurance from others. Lala Lisa can be diagnosed with?
a. Antisocial PD
b. Borderline PD
c. Histrionic PD
d. Narcissistic PD
134. Jisoo is known for being overly dramatic. She cries uncontrollably during sad movies
and we sometimes think that she is acting. She is vain and self-centered, interrupting
many of our class conversations to discuss her personal life. Jisoo might have?
a. Antisocial PD
b. Borderline PD
c. Histrionic PD
d. Narcissistic PD
135. Porchay is a college student who has no close friends. He comes to class every day
and sits in a corner and is sometimes seen having lunch alone on the park bench. Most
students find him difficult to engage with and complain about his lack of involvement in-
class activities but he appears indifferent to what others say. He has never had a girlfriend
or boyfriend and expresses no desire to have sex. He is meeting with a therapist only
because his family tricked him into going. Porchay might have what PD?
136. Mixx is self-critical and claims he is unintelligent and has no skills. He is also afraid
to be alone and seeks constant reassurance from his family and friends. He says and
does nothing about his cheating boyfriend because he thinks that if he shows any resolve
or initiative he will be abandoned and will have to take care of himself. Mixx might be
diagnosed with what personality disorder?
b. Avoidant PD
c. Dependent PD
d. Antisocial PD
137. Rose witnessed a horrific tornado on her farm 3 weeks ago. Since then, she’s had
many flashbacks of the incident, trouble sleeping, and a fear of going outside in storms.
a. posttraumatic stress disorder
b. acute stress disorder
c. delayed-onset posttraumatic stress disorder
d. adjustment disorder
138. Jack was involved in a car accident 6 weeks ago in which the driver of the other car
was killed. Since then, Jack has been unable to get into a car because it brings back the
horrible scene he witnessed. Nightmares of the incident haunt him and interfere with his
sleep. He is irritable and has lost interest in his work and hobbies.
139. Patricia was raped at the age of 17, 30 years ago. Just recently, she has been having
flashbacks of the event, difficulty sleeping, and fear of sexual contact with her husband.

140. The essential feature is the presence of emotional or behavioral symptoms in

response to an identifiable stressor. The stressor may be a single event (e.g., termination
of a romantic relationship), or there may be multiple stressors (e.g., marked business
difficulties and marital problems).
a. Acute stress disorder
b. PTSD
c. Adjustment disorders
d. Reactive attachment disorder
141. Tom Marvolo Riddle is just 6 years old when his parents died. Since he doesn’t have
any other relatives, he was placed in a foster care home for children. Tom felt that the
foster care home didn’t provide his emotional needs for comfort and affection. Because
of this, Tom had a minimal social and emotional responsiveness to others. He also shows
limited positive affect. In your assessment, Tom has ________.
a. disinhibited social engagement disorder
b. reactive attachment disorder
c. Adjustment disorder
d. Extended grieve
142. Once OCD develops, it tends to follow a/an ______.
a. Episodic course
b. Acute course
c. Insidious onset
d. Chronic course
143. When clients with OCD equate thoughts with the specific actions or activity
represented by the thoughts, this is called ______.
a. thought-action fusion.
b. Obsessive-impulsive fusion
c. Impulsive-obsession fusion
d. Action- thought fusion
144. Characterized by preoccupation with one or more perceived defects or flaws in

physical appearance that are not observable or appear only slight to others, and by
repetitive behaviors (e.g., mirror checking, excessive grooming, skin picking, or
reassurance seeking) or mental acts (e.g., comparing one's appearance with that of other
people) in response to the appearance concerns.
a. somatoform disorder
b. narcissistic disorder
c. Body dysmorphic disorder
d. Narcissistic personality disorder
145. ____ and _____ have approximately the same age of onset and run the same
course.
a. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder; Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder

b. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder; Body Dysmorphic Disorder
c. Body Dysmorphic Disorder; Narcissistic Personality Disorder
d. Body Dysmorphic Disorder; somatoform disorder
146. Hysteria were thought to occur primarily in women and can be traced to a _____
according to Hippocrates and Egyptians.
a. wandering uterus
b. wandering baby
c. wandering emotion
d. none of the above
146. Sarah is a 7-year-old girl and is studying under the tutelage of Ms. Minchin. Because
of the unfortunate death of her father, Sarah became a house maid to sustain living. Ms.
Minchin, her former teacher, made Sarah’s life miserable. Sarah often received
punishment and food deprivation from her. Every time, whenever a stranger comes to
Sarah, she shows no inhibitions whatsoever to the approaching adult. She also engages
an inappropriately intimate behavior to the stranger by showing a willingness to
immediately accompany the adult somewhere without first checking back with Ms.
Minchin. Sarah might have developed _____.
a. disinhibited social engagement disorder
b. reactive attachment disorder
c. disinhibited engagement disorder
d. none of the above

147. Persistent or recurrent experiences of feeling detached from, and as if one were an
outside observer of, one’s mental processes or body.
a. Derealization
b. Hallucination
c. Delusion
d. Depersonalization
148. Persistent or recurrent experiences of unreality of surroundings.
a. Derealization
b. Hallucination
c. Delusion
d. Depersonalization
149. Illness anxiety disorder was formerly known as ____.
a. Somatic anxiety
b. Somatoform disorder
c. Hypochondriasis
d. Malingering
150. Any time Maxine experienced minor physical symptoms such as breathlessness or
a headache, she was afraid she had a serious illness. A headache indicated a brain
tumor. Breathlessness was an impending heart attack. She avoided exercise, drinking,
and even laughing because the resulting sensations upset her. Public restrooms and, on
occasion, public telephones were feared as sources of infection. In your assessment,
Maxine has ______.
a. Somatic symptom disorder
b. Factitious disorder
c. Conversion disorder
d. Illness anxiety disorder
151. Linda felt she had any one of a number of chronic infections that nobody could
properly diagnose. She had begun to have these problems in her teenage years. She
often discussed her symptoms and fears with doctors and clergy. Drawn to hospitals and
medical clinics, she had entered nursing school after high school. During hospital training,
however, she noticed her physical condition deteriorating rapidly: she seemed to pick up
the diseases she was learning about. After developing unexplained paralysis in her legs,
Linda was admitted to a psychiatric hospital.
a. Somatic symptom disorder
152. Culture-specific belief, accompanied by severe anxiety and sometimes panic, that
the genitals are retracting into the abdomen. Most victims of this disorder are Chinese
males
a. Dhat
b. Amok
c. Koro
153. Culture-specific disorder characterized by an anxious concern about losing semen,

something that obviously occurs during sexual activity.
a. Dhat
b. Amok
c. Koro
154. Eloise’s difficulty walking developed over 5 years. Her right leg had given way and
she began falling. Gradually, the condition worsened to the point that 6 months before
her admission to the hospital Eloise could move around only by crawling on the floor.
Physical examinations revealed no physical problems. Eloise presented a classic case of
____________.
a. Somatoform disorder
155. Fall somewhere between malingering and conversion disorders. The symptoms are
under voluntary control, as with malingering, but there is no obvious reason for voluntarily
producing the symptoms except, possibly, to assume the sick role and receive increased
attention.
a. Somatoform disorder
156. Malingering: _______.
a. Faking
b. Physical symptoms
c. Falsification of physical or psychological signs or symptoms
d. Intentional falsification of symptoms
157. Altered articulation: _______; absent speech volume: _________; double vision:
_______.
a. Diplopia; aphonia; dysarthria
b. Dysarthria; aphonia; diplopia
c. Aphonia; diplopia; dysarthria
d. Dysarthria; diplopia; aphonia
158. Maria Labo has three children. She is known to be a loving mother in their town. Not
long ago, her eldest child died because of an unknown sickness. After a week, her second
child got sick and died. And a week after, her third child died of the same cause. Maria’s
neighbor poured their sympathy to her because of the unfortunate experience. Little did
they know is that Maria has been making her children sick, which results to their death.
Maria did it for the attention and pity given to her as the mother of deceased children.
a. factitious disorder imposed on another
b. factitious disorder
c. schizophrenia
d. antisocial personality disorder
159. Pastor Ben conducted a healing brigade in their small town. Many attendees who
have physical ailments gave testimonies that they are miraculously healed. As a mental
health practitioner, you might say that the miraculous healing is attributed to _______.
a. Strong faith of those who are healed
b. Belief system of those who are healed
c. Conversion disorder of those who are healed
d. Factitious disorder of those who are healed
160. Is characterized by clinically significant persistent or recurrent experiences of

unreality or detachment from one's mind, self, or body and/or experiences of unreality or
detachment from one's surroundings. These alterations of experience are accompanied
by intact reality testing.
a. Dissociative identity disorder
b. other specified dissociative disorder
c. dissociative amnesia
d. depersonalization/derealization disorder
161. Characterized by an inability to recall autobiographical information that is

inconsistent with normal forgetting.
a. Dissociative forgetting
b. depersonalization/derealization disorder
c. Dissociative identity disorder
d. Dissociative amnesia
162. A failure to recall specific events, usually traumatic that occur during a specific
period: _______; Unable to remember anything, including who they are: _______.
a. generalized amnesia; localized or selective amnesia
b. localized or selective; generalized amnesia
c. depersonalization/derealization disorder; Dissociative identity disorder
d. Dissociative identity disorder; depersonalization/derealization disorder
163. Memory loss revolves around a specific incident —an unexpected trip.
a. Dissociative amnesia
b. Localized amnesia
c. Dissociative fugue
d. Generalized amnesia
164. An apparently distinct dissociative state not found in Western cultures. Most people
with this disorder are males. Has attracted attention because individuals in this trancelike
state often brutally assault and sometimes kill people or animals. If the person is not killed
himself, he probably will not remember the episode. One of a number of “running”
syndromes.
a. Dissociative amnesia
b. Dissociative fugue
c. Dhat
d. Amok
165. According to DSM 5, people with ______ may adopt as many as 100 new identities,
all simultaneously coexisting, although the average number is closer to 15. In some
cases, the identities are complete, each with its own behavior, tone of voice, and physical
gestures.
a. multiple personality disorder
b. dissociative identity disorder
c. identity disorder
d. dissociative amnesia
166. Shorthand term for the different identities or personalities in DID.
a. Character
b. Host
c. Role
d. Alter
167. Mang Kepwing, a cult leader in a certain province in the Philippines, performed a
certain ritual. During the ritual, Mang Kepwing entered into a trance state. Another voice
spoke and told the followers that he is “bakunawa” the god that will make all the cult
members invincible. After the ritual, Mang Kepwing returned to his senses and gave a
speech to his followers. Mang Kepwing is suspected to have ______.
a. Schizophrenia
b. Dissociative identity disorder
c. Dissociative amnesia
168. Loss of energy and inability to engage in pleasurable activities: _________; extreme
pleasure in every activity: _______.
a. Anhedonia; mania
b. Hypomania; mania
c. Depression; mania
d. Fatigue; mania
169. The essential feature of _____ is a depressed mood that occurs for most of the day,
for more days than not, for at least 2 years, or at least 1 year for children and adolescents.
a. major depressive disorder
b. persistent depressive disorder
c. double depression
d. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
170. Symptoms for __________ must be present nearly every day to be considered
present, with the exception of weight change and suicidal ideation. Depressed mood must
be present for most of the day, in addition to being present nearly every day.
a. major depressive disorder
b. persistent depressive disorder
c. double depression

171. For a diagnosis of _______ disorder, it is necessary to meet criteria for a manic
episode. The manic episode may have been preceded by and may be followed by hypo-
manic or major depressive episodes.
a. Cyclothymic disorder
b. Bipolar I
c. Bipolar II
172. Dumbo has been having episodes lately when he eats prodigious amounts of food.
He’s been putting on a lot of weight because of it.
a. bulimia nervosa
b. anorexia nervosa
c. binge-eating disorder
d. pica disorder
173. Kirsten has lost several pounds and now weighs less than 90 pounds. She eats only
a small portion of the food her mother serves her and fears that intake above her current
500 calories daily will make her fat. Since losing the weight, Kirsten has stopped having
periods. She sees a fat person in the mirror.
a. bulimia nervosa
b. anorexia nervosa
d. pica disorder
174. Joo-Yeon eats large quantities of food in a short time. She then takes laxatives and
exercises for long periods to prevent weight gain. She has been doing this almost daily
for several months and feels she will become worthless and ugly if she gains even an
ounce.
a. bulimia nervosa
b. anorexia nervosa
d. pica disorder
175. Joshua has been observed eating a piece of paper for almost a month. When his
teacher asked him why he was doing it, he said that it is a part of their family culture. Both
his parents have been doing it for a decade. However, it is not a socially normative
practice in their community. In your assessment, Joshua is diagnosable with _________.
a. Nothing, since eating a paper is their family culture
b. Nothing, he has been eating nonnutrive substance for only 3 months. This is not
enough criteria based on DSM 5
c. Pica disorder because Joshua met the essential features
d. Pica disorder because eating paper is not a socially normative practice
176. A category of sleep-wake disorder that involves difficulties in getting enough sleep,
problems with sleeping when you want to and complaints about the quality of sleep, such
as not feeling refreshed even though you have slept the whole night.
a. Parasomnia
b. Insomnia
c. Dyssomnia
d. Hypersomnia
177. A category of sleep-wake disorder characterized by abnormal behavioral or

physiological events that occur during sleep.
a. Parasomnia
b. Insomnia
c. Dyssomnia
d. Hypersomnia
178. Sonja was a 23-year-old law student. She reported that she never really slept well,
both having trouble falling asleep at night and usually awakening again in the early
morning. Sonja’s sleep problems and their interference with her schoolwork were causing
her to experience increasingly severe depression. Sonja could be diagnosed with
_______.
a. Major depressive disorder
b. Depressive episodes
c. Insomnia disorder
d. Insomnia
179. A sensorimotor, neurological sleep disorder characterized by a desire to move the

legs or arms, usually associated with uncomfortable sensations typically described as
creeping, crawling, tingling, burning, or itching.
a. Restless leg disorder
b. Restless leg syndrome
c. Parasomnia
d. Dyssomnia
180. Nami has an excessive sleeping and it had been a problem since her teenage years.
In situations that were monotonous or boring, or when she couldn’t be active, she fell
asleep. This could happen several times a day, depending on what she was doing. It has
affected her studies and causing her distress.
a. Narcolepsy
b. Hypersomnia
c. Hypersomnolence Disorder
d. Dyssomnia
181. A sudden loss of muscle tone ______.
a. Cataplexy
b. Narcolepsy
c. Paralysis
d. Narcoplexy
182. Vivid and often terrifying experiences that begin at the start of sleep and are said to
be unbelievably realistic because they include not only visual aspects but also touch,
hearing, and even the sensation of body movement.
a. Sleep terror
b. Sleep paralysis
c. hypnagogic hallucinations
d. night terrors
183. Luffy was observed to sleep while eating at least three time a week for almost 5
years. Luffy has ____.
a. Hypersomnolence disorder
b. Sleep disorder
c. Narcolepsy
d. Sleep-Eating disorder
184. A disorder characterized by repeated episodes of upper (pharyngeal) airway

obstruction during sleep.
a. Apnea
b. Hypopnea
c. Obstructive Sleep Apnea Hypopnea
d. Sleep-Related Hypoventilation
185. Refers to the total absence of airflow.
a. Apnea
b. Hypopnea
186. Refers to a reduction in airflow.
a. Apnea
b. Hypopnea
187. This disorder is characterized by disturbed sleep (either insomnia or excessive

sleepiness during the day) brought on by the brain’s inability to synchronize its sleep
patterns with the current patterns of day and night.
a. Circadian Rhythm Sleep–Wake disorder
b. Insomnia disorder
c. Hypersomnia disorder
d. Narcolepsy
188. Commonly afflict children, usually begin with a piercing scream.
a. Nightmare
b. Sleep terror
c. Sleep paralysis
d. Night scream
189. Occurs during NREM sleep. The person leaves the bed, although less active
episodes can involve small motor behaviors, such as sitting up in bed and picking at the
blanket or gesturing.
a. Nightmare
b. Sleep terror
c. Sleep paralysis
d. Somnambulism
190. Dysgraphia: _________; Dyscalculia: ________.
a. Difficulty in calculus; difficulty in graphics
b. difficulty in images; Difficulty in numbers
c. difficulty in math; difficulty in images
d. difficulty in writing; difficulty in math
191. There is incongruence and psychological distress and dissatisfaction with the gender
one has been assigned at birth.
a. Sexual dysfunction
b. Gender dysphoria
c. Paraphilic disorder
d. Sexual disorder
192. Individuals with __________ find it difficult to function adequately while having sex;
for example, they may not become aroused or achieve orgasm.
a. Sexual dysfunction
b. Gender dysphoria
c. Paraphilic disorder
d. Sexual disorder
193. Denotes any intense and persistent sexual interest other than sexual interest in
genital stimulation or preparatory fondling with phenotypically normal, physically mature,
consenting human partners.
a. Paraphilia
b. Voyeurism
c. Frotteurism
d. Exhibitionism
194. Mrs. C. reported that she could enjoy sex once she got involved and almost always
was orgasmic. The problem was her lack of desire to get involved. She avoided her
husband’s sexual advances and looked on his affection and romanticism with great
skepticism and, usually, anger and tears. In the past, she had been repeatedly pressured
into sexual activity by a male cousin who was 5 years her senior. It appeared that romantic
advances by Mr. C. triggered memories of abuse by her cousin. Mrs. C is diagnosable
with _____.
a. Post-traumatic stress disorder
b. Late Post-traumatic stress disorder
c. female sexual interest/arousal disorder
d. female orgasmic disorder
195. Based on the human sexual response cycle. Erectile disorder is a specific disorder
of _______.
a. Desire
b. Arousal
c. Orgasm
d. Plateau
196. Adam Groff is having some difficulty achieving orgasm during his sex with Aimee
Gibbs. He oftentimes fakes his “orgasm moan” to satisfy Aimee. Adam has a disorder of
orgasm called ____.
a. Delayed ejaculation
b. Premature ejaculation
c. Erectile disorder
d. Male hypoactive sexual desire disorder
197. A sexual dysfunction specific to women refers to difficulties with penetration during
attempted intercourse or significant pain during intercourse.
a. female sexual interest/arousal disorder
b. genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
c. hypoactive sexual desire disorder, premature
d. vaginismus
198. The pelvic muscles in the outer third of the vagina undergo involuntary spasms when
intercourse is attempted.
a. female sexual interest/arousal disorder
b. genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
c. hypoactive sexual desire disorder, premature
d. vaginismus
199. A person is sexually attracted to nonliving objects.
a. Voyeuristic disorder
d. fetishistic disorder
200. The practice of observing, to become aroused, an unsuspecting individual

undressing or naked.
a. Voyeuristic disorder
d. fetishistic disorder

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Abnormal Psychology by Barlow and Durand

Diagnostic Test Questions

1. Refers to a psychological dysfunction within an individual associated with distress or

2. It is the scientific study of psychological disorders.

a. Clinical and Counseling Psychologists

c. Psychiatric Social Workers

a. Clinical and Counseling Psychologists

c. Psychiatric Social Workers

d. Societal Norm Violation

d. Societal Norm Violation

a. Bloodletting; induced vomiting

b. Exorcism; burning at the stake

c. Patients placed in socially facilitative environments

d. None of the above

a. Bloodletting; induced vomiting

b. Exorcism; burning at the stake

c. Patients placed in socially facilitative environments

d. None of the above

a. Bloodletting; induced vomiting

b. Exorcism; burning at the stake

c. Patients placed in socially facilitative environments

d. All of the above

22. Achieving sexual arousal and gratification by exposing genitals to unsuspecting

23. Touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting individual.

b. sexual masochism disorder

c. Sex organ duality

26. It is defined as a negative mood state characterized by bodily symptoms of physical

28. It is defined as an abrupt experience of intense fear or acute discomfort, accompanied

29. Which of the following is not a basic type of panic attack?

a. Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder

b. Reactive Attachment Disorder

31. Which of the following is not a specifier for Specific Phobia?

b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

d. Social Anxiety Disorder

b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

d. Social Anxiety Disorder

b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

d. Social Anxiety Disorder

a. Body Dysmorphic Disorder

d. Somatic Symptom Disorder

41. Psychological disorders are considered developmental disorders when there is a:

a. Change in symptoms over the lifespan

b. Genetic component to the disorder

c. Significant dysfunction during childhood

d. General decline in functioning over time

a. Appear early in life and change over the lifespan

b. Have a genetic component

c. Lack of biological causes and is influenced by learning

d. Are unique to children

c. Family functioning often declines as the developmental disorder progresses

d. Children are more receptive to therapy when they are young

45. An individual diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder will always

a. Hyperactive behavior that alternates with periods of distraction

b. Patterns of inattention or hyperactivity/impulsivity

c. Both patterns of inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity

d. Periods of distraction that lead to hyperactive/impulsive behavior

46. Which of the following is not characteristic of ADHD?

47. A learning disorder is defined as:

c. Substandard IQ score in comparison to the individual's family and educational

a. Spinning a wheel on a toy truck and starring at it for hours

b. Throwing a loud tantrum when prevented from carrying out a ritual

c. Intellectual Disability Disorder