PGI MONTHLY EXAMINATION concentrations of the allergen(s) considered to be

specifically responsible for the symptom complex?

1. The binding of IgE to human mast cells and basophils
a. Immunotherapy
and prepares these cells for subsequent antigen-
b. Intranasal High Potency Corticosteroids
specific activation is called?
c. Systemic High Potency Corticosteroids
a. Sensitization
d. Both B and C
b. Vaculation
8. The most potent drugs available for the relief of
c. Proliferation
established rhinitis, seasonal or perennial, and are
d. Aggregation
effective in relieving nasal congestion as well as
2. The Microvascular responses generated by IgE-
ocular symptoms is?
dependent activation of murine mast cells leading to
a. Immunotherapy
acute and sustained inflammatory responses include
b. Intranasal High Potency Corticosteroids
the ff except?
c. Systemic High Potency Corticosteroids
a. Augmented venular permeability
d. Both B and C
b. Leukocyte adherence
9. It occurs in 1–4% of the population, is defined by the
c. Constriction
appearance of a linear wheal with surrounding
d. Dilatation
erythema at the site of a brisk stroke with a firm
e. Activation of coagulation cascade
object?
3. This is distinctive disease that presents with pruritic
a. Dermographism
wheals, small size (1–2 mm) and are surrounded by a
b. Pressure Urticaria
large area of erythema; attacks are precipitated by
c. Cholinergic Urticaria
fever, a hot bath or shower, or exercise and are
d. Exercise-Induced Anaphylaxis
presumptively attributed to a rise in core?
10. It may occur after years of occupational exposure or
a. Pressure Urticaria
can be idiopathic; it may be accompanied by
b. Cholinergic Urticaria
cholinergic urticaria?
c. Exercise Induced Anaphylaxis
a. Vibratory Angioedema
d. Cold Urticaria
b. Aquagenic Angioedema
4. This is associated with elevations of plasma
c. Contact urticaria
histamine levels, biopsy-proven mast cell
d. Exercise-Induced Anaphylaxis
degranulation have also been demonstrated with
11. A more practical and useful of anaphylaxis and can
generalized attacks?
be measured as long as 5 h after the onset?
a. Pressure Urticaria
a. IgE
b. Cholinergic Urticaria
b. Tryptase
c. Exercise Induced Anaphylaxis
c. IgM
d. Cold Urticaria
d. EGFr Antibodies
5. The following is/are true of hallmarks of allergic
12. Answer in question #11 usually peaks after the
rhinitis?
onset?
a. Episodic steatorrhea
a. 30-60 mins
b. obstruction of the nasal passages
b. 60-90 mins
without lacrimation
c. 90-120 mins
c. Swelling of the conjunctiva, nasal mucosa
d. No peak onset
d. Sneezing
13. The following are mediators associated with
6. It occurs in the middle decades of life and is
anaphylaxis except?
characterized by nasal obstruction, anosmia, chronic
a. Mast Cells
sinusitis, and prominent eosinophilic nasal discharge
b. Basophils
in the absence of allergen sensitization?
c. Eosinophils
a. Vasomotor rhinitis
d. All of the Above
b. Perennial nonallergic rhinitis
e. None of the Above
c. All of the Above
14. Which of following is/are true of anaphylaxis?
d. None of the Above
a. 70–90% of anaphylactic episodes are uniphasic
7. Treatment for allergic Rhinitis which consists of
repeated exposure to gradually increasing
 b. 5–10% of cases are biphasic in which 21. It is associated with the delay is 2–4 months
anaphylactic symptoms return about an hour or following initiation of a new medication?
longer after resolution of initial symptoms a. Anagen effluvium
c. Patients with underlying asthma are predisposed b. Telogen effluvium
to severe involvement of the lower airways and c. All of the above
increased mortality associated with anaphylaxis d. None of the above
d. All of the above 22. Immunologic Drug Reactions associated with
15. True about the treatment of SJS/TENS? Thrombocytopenia?
a. sulfonamides, allopurinol, antiepileptics a. Type 1
b. fluid management, atraumatic wound care b. Type 2
c. Frozen-section skin biopsy may aid in rapid c. Type 3
diagnosis d. Type 4
d. All of the above 23. Immunologic Drug Reactions associated with
16. True of the manifestations of SJS/TENS SJS/TENS?
a. initially present with fever >39°C (102.2°F); sore a. Type 1
throat; conjunctivitis b. Type 2
b. acute onset of painful dusky, atypical, target-like c. Type 3
lesions d. Type 4
c. Intestinal and upper respiratory tract 24. It is usually associated with neomycin sulfate,
involvement are associated with a poor bacitracin, and polymyxin and may be seen to
prognosis adhesive tapes, leading to irritation or blisters
d. All of the above around ports and IV s?
17. Which of the following drugs can be used for the a. Irritant/Allergic Contact Dermatitis
treatment of SJS/TENS? b. Anaphylactoid Reactions
a. Lamotrigine c. Fixed Drug Eruptions
b. Phenytoin d. Drug-Induced Hypersensitivity Syndrome
c. Carbamazepine 25. They are characterized by one or more sharply
d. All of the above demarcated, dull red to brown lesions, sometimes
18. It describes cases in which the total body surface with central dusky violaceous erythema and central
area of blistering and eventual detachment is <10%? bulla?
a. Steven Johnson Syndrome a. Irritant/Allergic Contact Dermatitis
b. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis b. Anaphylactoid Reactions
c. SJS/TEN Overlap c. Fixed Drug Eruptions
d. Serum Sickness d. Drug-Induced Hypersensitivity Syndrome
19. Which of the following is the typical skin lesion 26. Which of the ff is/are about Acute generalized
associated with serum sickness or serum sickness exanthematous pustulosis (AGEP)?
like reaction? a. present with diffuse erythema or erythroderma
a. Urticarial serpiginous or polycyclic rash; purpuric b. Associated with high spiking fevers, and
eruption along the sides of the feet and hands is leukocytosis
characteristic c. pustules are most pronounced in body fold areas
b. Urticaria or swelling of the central face, other d. All of the above
areas 27. The following drugs are the most common culprits
c. Purpura and necrosis, especially of central, fatty associated with angioedema except?
areas a. ACE Inhibitors
d. Diffuse, deep red morbilliform eruption with b. NSAIDS
facial involvement; facial and acral swelling c. Contrast Dye
20. Most frequent signs and symptoms associated with d. Heparin/Warfarin
Serum Sickness? 28. Which of the following is/are true of Vasculitis?
a. Fever, arthralgias a. presents with purpuric papules and macules
b. Pain in affected areas involving the lower extremities and other
c. Respiratory distress, cardiovascular collapse dependent areas
d. All of the above
 b. Antibiotics, particularly β-lactams, are commonly
implicated; however, almost any drug can cause
vasculitis
c. Drugs are implicated as a cause of roughly 15%
of all cases of small vessel vasculitis. Antibiotics,
particularly β-lactams, are commonly implicated;
however, almost any drug can cause vasculitis
d. All of the above
29. Clinical and Laboratory Findings Suggestive of Severe
Cutaneous Adverse Drug Reaction except?
a. Eosinophil count >1500/μL
b. Lymphopenia with atypical lymphocytes
c. Abnormal liver or kidney function tests
d. All of the Above
30. It is associated with prodrome of fever and flu-like
symptoms for several days, followed by the
appearance of a diffuse morbilliform eruption usually
involving the face?
a. Steven Johnson Syndrome
b. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
c. SJS/TEN Overlap
d. DHIS
31. This skin lesions exceeds or extends beyond the
edges of the original wound?
a. Scar
b. Keloid
c. Petechia
d. Purpura
32. Most prominent feature of Atopic Dermatitis?
a. Pruritus
b. Swelling
c. Inflammation
d. None of the above
33. Most Commonly involved areas of Psoriasis except?
a. Forehead
b. Knees
c. Gluteal cleft
d. Scalp
34. The Most common first line treatment of Lichen
Planus Lesions?
a. High Potency Corticosteroids
b. Phototherapy
c. Oral Corticosteroids
d. Antibiotics
35. Most Common organism in Impetigo associated with
blister formation?
a. Staphyloccocus Aureus
b. Strepotoccocus Pneumoniae
c. Hemophilus Influenzae
d. Streptococcus Pyogenes