4.

1 Low power microscopic urine analysis is specifically diagnostic of the following EXCEPT :

(a) Bacteria

(b) Red blood cell casts

(c) Trichomonods

(d) Cystine crystals

4.2 In high power microscopic urine analysis, each bacterium seen per hpf signifies a bacterial count of:

(a) Less than 5.000/ml

(b) Between 5.000-10.000/ml

(c) Between 10.000-20.000/ml

(d) More than 20.000/ml

4.3 Which of the following cast on urine analysis do not have pathologic significance ?

(a) Hyaline cast

(b) Granular cast

(c) Red cell cast

(d) Waxy cast

4.4 Which of the following is more reactive to dipstick reagents ?

(a) Albumin

(b) Globulin

(c) Bence-Jones proiens

(d) Mucoprotiens
4.5 The urinary dipstick for blood measures the following EXCEPT :

(a) Intact erythrocytes

(b) Free hemoglobin from lysed erythrocytes

(c) Myoglobin

(d) Leucocytes

4.6 In which part of the coverslip, in low power microsopic urine analysis, cast and other elements tend
to concentrate:

(a) Centre

(b) Between the edge and centre

(c) Edge

(d) Any part

4.7 Dipstick urine alaysis by oxidase peroxidase reaction is specific for :

(a) Fructose

(b) Glucose

(c) Lactose

(d) Galactose

4.8 Which of the following is identified by detection of nitrit in urine(Griess test) ?

(a) Ketones

(b) Bilirubin

(c) Bacteria

(d) Prodens
4.9 How many leucocytes per hpf accepted as the cut of level for significant piuria?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

(e) Five

4.10 Pseudohematuria can occur due to the following EXCEPT :

(a) Pyridium

(b) Beets. Vegetable dyes

(c) R.B.C.

(d) Porphyria

4.11 What is often accepted as the upper limit of normal for 24 hours urinary protein excretion in
healthy adults ?

(a) 50 mgs

(b) 150 mgs

(c) 200 mgs

(d) 250 mgs

4.12 Which of the following statement is WRONG regarding 3 percent sulfosalicylic acid test for
detection of urinary protiens?

(a) Accuracy and sensitivity is greater than the dipstick method

(b) It cannot detect bence jones proteins

(c) It can detect albumin

(d) It can determine the presence or absence of significant protelnuria

4.13 Which is the microscopic appearance of ureteral epithelial cell under high power field?

(a) ‘Diamond’ shaped

(b) ‘Envelop’ shaped

(c) ‘Star like’ appearance

(d) ‘Kite like’ appearance

4.14 How many percent of newborn void during the first day of life ?

(a) 70 percent

(b) 80 percent

(c) 90 percent

(d) 100 percent

4.15 Which is the commonest cause of neonatal ascities ?

(a) Congenital megacystis

(b) Bladder trauma

(c) Posterior urethral valves

(d) Pulsion diverticula of the bladder

4.16 The following conditions are associated with oligohidramnion EXCEPT:

(a) Severe obstructive uropathy

(b) Prune-Belly syndrome

(c) Neonatal ovarian cyst

(d) Renal agenesis

4.17 Which symptom leading to urologic surgery neonates in recquire immediate evaluation ?

(a) Abdominal mass

(b) Haematuria

(c) Hypertension

(d) Abnormal micturition

4.18 Which is the most common cause of neonatal abdominal mass ?

(a) Hydronephrosis

(b) Renal tumour

(c) Neuroblastoma

(d) Hydromentrocolpos

4.19 What is the means sistolic blood pressure at birth ?

(a) 76 ± 10 mm Hg

(b) 86 ± 10 mm Hg

(c) 96 ± 10 mm Hg

(d) 106 ± 10 mm Hg

4.20 Which is the most common cause of firm enlargement of the testis in neonates ?

(a) Torsion of the spermatic cord

(b) Epididymitis

(c) Orchitis

(d) Testicular tumour

4.21 Which is the most commonly found fluid in neonatal ascites ?

(a) Blood

(b) Urine

(c) Chyle

(d) Bile

4.22 Which is the most likely diagnosis in a child with ambiguous genitalia who have no gonads and 46
XX karyotype ?

(a) Female pseudohermaphroditism

(b) True hermaphroditism

(c) Male pseudohermaproditism

(d) Mixed gonadal dysgenesis

4.23 Which is the most likely diagnosis in a child with ambiguous genitalia who have 2

palpable gonads and 46 XY karotype ?

(a) Female pseudohermaphroditism

(b) Male pseudohermaphroditism

(c) True hermaphroditism

(d) Mixed gonadal dysgenesis

4.24 Which is the most likely diagnosis in child with ambigious genitalia who have one

palpable gonad and 46 xx karyotype ?

(a) female pseudohermaphroditism

(b) male pseudohermaphroditism

(c) true hermaphroditism

(d) mixed gonadal dysgenesis

4.25 Which is the most likely diagnosis in a child with ambiguous genitalia who have one palpable gonad
and 45 X / 46 XY or 46 XY karyotype ?

(a) female pseudohermaphroditism

(b) male pseudohermaphroditism

(c) true hermaphroditism

(d) mixed gonadal dysgenesis

4.26 What are the symptoms of abnormally located ectopic ureter orifice within bladder ?

(a) Incontinence of urine

(b) Recurrent UTI

(c) Dysuria

(d) No symptom

4.27 Which is the common cause of hematospermia ?

(a) Non spesific inflamation of prostat or seminal vesicle

(b) Tubercolosis of the prostate

(c) Adenocarcinoma of the prostate

(d) Transition cell carcinoma of the prostate

4.28 Which of the following is a rare cause of the pneumaturia:

(a) Diverticulitis

(b) Carcinoma of the sigmoid colon

(c) Regional enteritis

(d) Diabetes mellitus with gas forming infections

4.29 Which is the common cause of thick profused and yellow to gray purulent urethral

discharge ?

(a) Nonspecific urethritis

(b) Gonococcal urethritis

(c) Carcinoma urethra

(d) Nongonococcal urethritis

4.30 In which of the following, the normal size left kidney is paplable :

(a) Chidren

(b) Thin women

(c) Men

(d) None of the above

4.31 Which is the most common cause of priapism ?

(a) Sickle cell disease

(b) Advanced malignancy

(c) Coagulation disorders

(d) Pulmonary disease

4.32 In which age group, torsion of the testis usually occurs :

(a) Around puberty

(b) 20-25 years

(c) 25-30 years

(d) 30-35 years

4.33 In which of the following retroperitoneal tumor can be cause for varicocel :

(a) A sudden onset of a varicocele

(b) Right sided varicocele

(c) A varicocele which does not reduce in size in supine position

(d) All of the a bove

4.34 Which of the following not advice in the treatment of acute prostatitis ?

(a) Antibiotics

(b) Anti inflammatory drugs

(c) Sitz bath

(d) Rectal massage of the prostate

4.35 A cystic swelling along the posterior surface of the bladder can be :

(a) Wolffian duct remnants

(b) Mullerian duct remnants

(c) Prostatic cysts

(d) All of the a bove

4.36 Calcification of the vas is a pathognomonic sign of :

(a) Old age

(b) DM

(c) Hypercalciuria

(d) Hypertension

(e) All of the a bove

4.37 Which of the following are characteristic of the nephrotic syndrome ?

(a) Increased permeability of the glomerular basement membrane to albumin an IgG

(b) Increased serum concentration of 2 globulin

(c) Marked reduction sodium excretion in the urine

(d) All of the above

4.38 Which statement concerning acute renal failure is NOT true ?

(a) Diagnosis is based simply on presence of anuria or oligouria (urine volume 1800 cc/m2/24hrs)

(b) If patient is well hydrated, use of diuretic such as frusemide may be indicated

(c) Endogenous catabolism may be minimised by provision of at lest 30 calories/m2/day

(d) Intravenous fluids should include glucose, sodium and vitamins

(e) Inability to correct acidosisi or hyperkalemia by other methods are indications for dialysis

4.39 Which is the most impartant primary tubulus interstitial disease cause acute renal failure?

(a) A cute interstitial nephritis

(b) Acute tubular necrosis

(c) Pyelonephritis

(d) Nephrolithiasis

(e) Radiation nephritis

4.40 Which drug is most commonly associated with acute interstitial nephritis ?

(a) Penicillins

(b) Cephalosporines

(c) Trimethoprim

(d) Rifampicin
4.41 Which is the most common and most dangerous electrolyte abnormality seen with acute renal

failure ?

(a) Hyperkalemia

(b) Hypermagnesemia

(c) Hyperphosphaternia

(d) Hypercalcemia

4.42 Generally, proteinuria exceeding how many gm/day (normalized per 1.73 m2 body surface

area) suggest glomerular cause of chronic renal failure:

(a) 1.5 gm/day

(b) 2.5 gm/day

(c) 3.5 gm/day

(d) 4.5 gm/day

4.43 Which is the most common cause of acquired arteriovenous fistula ?

(a) Percutaneus needle biopsy

(b) Perietrating or blunt abdominai trauma

(c) Partial nephrectomy

(d) Nephrolithotomy

(e) Tumour

4.44 Which is the definitive diagnose study for arteriovenous fistula ?

(a) Intravenous urography

(b) Radionuclide angiography

(c) Doppler ultrasound

(d) Contrast angiography

4.45 What is the maximum level of protiens in mg/m2 of body surface area per day in normal urine in

small chlidren ?

(a) 80

(b) 100

(c) 120

(d) 140

4.46 Following are the common glomerular disease cause chronic renal failure EXCEPT :

(a) Minimal changed disease

(b) Focal segmental glomerulasclerosis

(c) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

(d) Chronic glomerulonephritis

4.47 Anuria refers to the excretion of how many ml of urine in 24 hours :

(a) Less than 100 ml

(b) 100-200 ml

(c) 200-300 ml

(d) 300-400 ml

4.48 What should be the daily urine output cases of chronic renal failure :

(a) 1000-1500 ml/day

(b) 1500-2000 ml/day

(c) 2500-3000 ml/day

(d) 3500-4200 ml/day

4.49 Which is the investigation of choice for assesing the iron stone of patients with chronic renal failure
?

(a) Measurement of serum iron

(b) Measurement of iron binding capacity of plasma

(c) Estimation of bone marrow for stainable iron

(d) Examination of peripheral blood smear

4.50 What is the treatment of choice for the management of anaemia of chronic renal failure ?

(a) Oral iron therapy

(b) Transfusion of packed fresh washed red cells

(c) Androgen therapy

(d) Intrasuscular iron

4.51 In which of the following group of patients, renal osteodistrophy will occur in chronic renal failure :

(a) Treated with conservative therapy

(b) Treated with periotoneal dialysis

(c) Treated with haemodilysis

(d) All of the above

4.52 Which is major contribution cause of renal osteodystrophy ?

(a) Diminurion in 1.25DHCC

(b) Increae in serum phosphate

(c) Decrease in serum calcium

(d) Increase in serum potassium

4.53 The following decline with aging EXCEPT :

(a) Ladder capacity

(b) Bladder contractility

(c) Ability to postpone voiding

(d) Urine flow rate

4.54 Which is the leading cause of incontinence in older individuals?

(a) Detrusor overactivity

(b) Detrusor underactivity

(c) Outlet incompetence

(d) Outlet obstruction

4.55 Which is the leading cause of incontinence in middle age women ?

(a) Detrusor overactivity

(b) Detrusor underactivity

(c) Outlet incompetence

(d) Outlet obstruction

4.56 A patient with a history of cardiovascular and cerebrovascular disease developed prolonged

erection following intracavernous injection therapy. He came back for treatment within 6

hours. Which is the safest mode of therapy for him :

(a) Aspiration of corpora cavernosum

(b) Intra cavernous injection of alpha adrenergic agent

(c) Aspirin + intracavernous injection of alpha adrenergic agent

(d) Sub cutaneous injection of alpha adrenergic agents

4.57 A 25 years man developed erection during scrub prepration under spinal anaesthesia. Which is

the most effective treatment :

(a) Induction of general anaesthesia

(b) Use of heta blockers

(c) Use of ketamine

(d) Intravenus injection of dilution alpha adrenergic agent

4.58 Which of the following are NOT found on glans penis ?

(a) Acquired inclusion cyst

(b) Retention cyst

(c) Sebaceous gland

(d) Angiomas