Ultrasound

―Question Bank – Final‖

1. Sounds with frequencies above 20,000 hertz are called ultrasounds.
A. True. B. False.

2. In biological tissues, ultrasonic energy is propagated mainly in the form of longitudinal

waves, as it is in fluid.
A. True. B. False.

3. The ultrasound wave can only be emitted by a piezoelectric transducer.

A. True. B. False.

4. The piezoelectric transducer is able to change electrical signals into mechanical waves and
vice versa.
A. True. B. False.

5. Ultrasound waves propagate in biological tissue at an average speed of 1540 meters per
second.
A. True. B. False.

6. Ultrasound echoes are analyzed first with regard to their site of origin (time – distance
principle), and secondly with regard to their intensity.
A. True. B. False.

7. On ultrasound, bones, gas, and foreign bodies cause a very strong reflection (acoustic
shadow).
A. True. B. False.

8. Ultrasound waves are considered electromagnetic, just like X-rays.

A. True. B. False.

9. A medium must be present for ultrasound propagation to occur.

A. True. B. False.

10. Absorption, reflection, and scattering cause a permanent attenuation of ultrasound energy.
A. True. B. False.

11. Diagnostic ultrasound can obtain good information from regions behind bones.
A. True. B. False.

12. The frequency of a sound wave is the distance needed to complete one wave cycle.
A. True. B. False.

Best Wishes; Yaseen Auf

13. The wavelength of a sound wave is the number of cycles or waves that are completed every
second.
A. True. B. False.

14. A direct relationship exists between the frequency and the wavelength of a sound wave.
A. True. B. False.

15. The higher the frequency of the sound wave, the longer the wavelength.
A. True. B. False.

16. A high-frequency ultrasound waves create high-resolution images, but is unable to

penetrate deeper tissues.
A. True. B. False.

17. A low-frequency wave has better penetrating power, but their resolution is lower.
A. True. B. False.

18. The ultrasound transducer has only one function, which is to generate sound waves.
A. True. B. False.

19. Period is the time taken for one complete wave cycle to occur.
A. True. B. False.

20. The velocity of an ultrasound wave is dependent on the frequency.

A. True. B. False.

21. According to the pulse-echo principle, ultrasound waves are produced in pulses, not
continuously.
A. True. B. False.

22. The piezoelectric crystals inside the transducer can generate and receive sound waves at the
same time.
A. True. B. False.

23. During an M-mode examination, stationery structures whose dots do not shift positions will
trace straight lines perpendicularly to the time base, while moving structures will trace zig-
zag patterns.
A. True. B. False.

24. Reverberation artifact may be seen on the anterior wall of the simple cyst.
A. True. B. False.

25. A cluster of smaller cysts may appear within simple cysts.

A. True. B. False.

26. Fluid-fluid layers or hyperechoic calcifications may appear within complex cysts.
A. True. B. False.

Best Wishes; Yaseen Auf

27. Septations are normally seen within simple cysts.
A. True. B. False.

28. An abscess has smooth wall with clear content.

A. True. B. False.

29. Benign masses are always seen on ultrasound as poorly defined and heterogeneous masses.
A. True. B. False.

30. Benign masses are mostly homogeneous with a well-defined wall.

A. True. B. False.

31. Malignant masses are usually seen as poorly defined and heterogeneous masses.
A. True. B. False.

32. Hemangiomas appear on ultrasound as hyperechoic, rounded and homogenous masses.

A. True. B. False.

33. A hepatoma is usually solitary, hypoechoic and poorly defined and is mostly associated with
cirrhotic liver.
A. True. B. False.

34. The most common hepatic metastases (~65%) are hyperechoic.

A. True. B. False.

35. The duration of pregnancy is 40 weeks starting from the 1st day of the last menstruation.
A. True. B. False.

36. The abdominal transducers have higher resolution and are positioned closer to the uterus,
the gestational sac and pelvic organs, when compared to the transvaginal transducers.
A. True. B. False.

37. The closer proximity and higher resolution of the transvaginal transducers allow for
excellent anatomic details and recognition of first trimester anatomy.
A. True. B. False.

38. The size of the embryo increases rapidly by approximately 1mm per day in length.
A. True. B. False.

39. The gummy-bear appearance of the embryo is seen on ultrasound when the embryo has no
discernible body parts.
A. True. B. False.

40. The grain of rice appearance of the embryo is seen on ultrasound when the embryo has no
discernible body parts.
A. True. B. False.

Best Wishes; Yaseen Auf

41. The grain of rice appearance of the embryo is seen as gestational age advances, the embryo
develops body curvature and clear delineation on ultrasound of a head, chest, abdomen and
extremities.
A. True. B. False.

42. The gummy-bear appearance of the embryo is seen as gestational age advances, the embryo
develops body curvature and clear delineation on ultrasound of a head, chest, abdomen and
extremities.
A. True. B. False.

43. Ultrasound is the term applied to mechanical pressure waves with frequencies above:
A. 2 Hz. B. 20 Hz. C. 2 kHz. D. 20 kHz.

44. Ultrasound waves interact with biological tissue in various ways, including:
A. Absorption. B. Reflection. C. Back-scattering. D. All of the previous.

45. The following cause a very strong reflection (acoustic shadow), Except:
A. Bones. B. Foreign bodies. C. Soft tissues. D. None of the previous.

46. The number of cycles or waves that are completed every second is known as:
A. Frequency. B. Wavelength. C. Velocity. D. Period.

47. The distance needed to complete one wave cycle is known as:
A. Frequency. B. Wavelength. C. Velocity. D. Period.

48. The frequency of the sound waves used in ultrasonography is usually in the range of:
A. 20,000 Hz. B. 2 – 12 kHz. C. 2 – 12 MHz. D. 2 – 12 GHz.

49. The relationship that exists between the frequency and the wavelength of a sound wave is:
A. Directly proportional. B. Inversely proportional.

50. Higher-frequency ultrasound waves create:

A. High resolution, B. Low resolution, C. High resolution, D. Low resolution,
high penetration. low penetration. low penetration. high penetration.

51. Lower-frequency ultrasound waves create:

A. High resolution, B. Low resolution, C. High resolution, D. Low resolution,
high penetration. low penetration. low penetration. high penetration.

52. Main functions the ultrasound (US) probe include:

A. Generate sound wave. B. Receive sound wave. C. Both A and B.

53. Types of ultrasound machines are:

A. Console. B. Portable. C. Hand-held. D. All of the previous.

54. Benefits of ultrasound include:

A. Cheap. B. Fast. C. No ionizing radiation. D. All of the previous.

Best Wishes; Yaseen Auf

55. Used to improve contact between the transducer and the patient while promoting
transmission of sound through the skin.
A. Gel. B. Probe. C. Computer. D. Water.

56. The time taken for one complete wave cycle to occur.
A. Wavelength. B. Period. C. Velocity. D. Amplitude.

57. The speed of sound with direction specified.

A. Wavelength. B. Period. C. Velocity. D. Amplitude.

58. Measure of the degree of change within a medium when a sound wave passes through it and
relates to the severity of the disturbance (Maximum variation of an acoustic variable).
A. Wavelength. B. Period. C. Velocity. D. Amplitude.

59. The average speed of ultrasound waves for soft tissue is taken to be:
A. 330 m/sec. B. 5000 m/sec. C. 1540 m/sec. D. 15.40 m/sec.

60. A thicker piezoelectric element produces a ……… frequency ultrasound wave.

A. Higher. B. Lower.

61. A thinner piezoelectric element produces a ……… frequency ultrasound wave.

A. Higher. B. Lower.

62. The component of the ultrasound transducer that attenuates stray ultrasound signals from
the housing:
A. Crystal. B. Damping block. C. Electrodes. D. Housing.

63. The measure of the resistance of the particles of the medium to mechanical vibrations.
A. Reflection. B. Acoustic boundary. C. Acoustic impedance. D. Refraction.

64. Positions within tissue where the values of acoustic impedance change.
A. Reflection. B. Acoustic boundary. C. Acoustic impedance. D. Refraction.

65. The Acoustic impedance in air is equal to:

A. 0.0004 Rayl. B. 1.48 Rayl. C. 1.61 Rayl. D. 7.80 rayl.

66. The Acoustic impedance in bones is equal to:

A. 0.0004 Rayl. B. 1.48 Rayl. C. 1.61 Rayl. D. 7.80 rayl.

67. The gradual weakening of the ultrasound beam as it passes through tissue.
A. Refraction. B. Attenuation. C. Scattering. D. Reflection.

68. The amount of sound beam attenuation is determined by:

A. Tissue involved. B. Distance travelled. C. Frequency. D. All of the previous.

69. When ultrasound waves are bounced back to the transducer for image generation.
A. Refraction. B. Absorption. C. Scattering. D. Reflection.

Best Wishes; Yaseen Auf

70. The deviation in the path of an ultrasound beam when the beam passes through interfaces
of differing speeds of sound, when the ultrasound beam hits a structure at an oblique angle.
A. Refraction. B. Absorption. C. Scattering. D. Reflection.

71. Transfer of some of the energy of the ultrasound beam to the material through which the
sound is traveling.
A. Refraction. B. Absorption. C. Scattering. D. Reflection.

72. The redirection of ultrasound waves as they interact with small, rough, or uneven
structures.
A. Refraction. B. Absorption. C. Scattering. D. Reflection.

73. One-dimensional ultrasound examination technique, where the signals from returning
echoes are displayed in the form of spikes on the screen, traced along a time base:
A. A-mode. B. B-mode. C. M-mode. D. Doppler mode.

74. The ultrasound examination where echoes are displayed as points of different grey-scale
brightness corresponding to the intensity (amplitude) of each signal:
A. A-mode. B. B-mode. C. M-mode. D. Doppler mode.

75. The ultrasound examination used to generate an electronic trace of a moving object lying
along the path of the ultrasound beam:
A. A-mode. B. B-mode. C. M-mode. D. Doppler mode.

76. The ultrasound examination where the velocity and direction of blood flows are depicted in
a color map superimposed on the 2-D image:
A. A-mode. B. B-mode. C. M-mode. D. Doppler mode.

77. During a doppler examination, the doppler shift can be measured and used to detect:
A. Motion. B. Direction. C. Velocity. D. All of the previous.

78. The ability of a structure to produce echoes:

A. Echogenic. B. Anechoic. C. Hypoechoic. D. Hyperechoic.

79. The production of no echoes (sonolucent—appears black on ultrasound):

A. Isoechoic. B. Anechoic. C. Hypoechoic. D. Hyperechoic.

80. The production of less reflective and low amount of echoes when compared with
neighboring structures, appears as varying shades of darker gray:
A. Isoechoic. B. Anechoic. C. Hypoechoic. D. Hyperechoic.

81. The production of highly reflective and echo rich when compared with neighboring
structures, appears as varying shades of lighter gray:
A. Isoechoic. B. Anechoic. C. Hypoechoic. D. Hyperechoic.

82. Having similar echogenicity to a neighboring structure:

A. Isoechoic. B. Anechoic. C. Hypoechoic. D. Hyperechoic.

Best Wishes; Yaseen Auf

83. When organ parenchyma is uniform in echogenicity, it known as:
A. Homogeneous. B. Heterogeneous.

84. When organ parenchyma is not uniform in echogenicity, it known as:

A. Homogeneous. B. Heterogeneous.

85. The artifact that occurs when sound travels with minimal to no attenuation through a fluid-
filled structure and displayed as multiple parallel echogenic lines equidistant from each
other:
A. Reverberation. B. Comet tail. C. Acoustic enhancement. D. Shadowing.

86. The artifact with dense, tapering trail of echoes distal to a strongly reflecting structure
A. Reverberation. B. Comet tail. C. Acoustic enhancement. D. Shadowing.

87. The artifact which produces a hyperechoic pattern posterior to a poorly or non-attenuating
structure or mass (e.g., a cyst):
A. Reverberation. B. Comet tail. C. Acoustic enhancement. D. Shadowing.

88. The artifact which produces a hypoechoic pattern posterior to highly attenuating structures
(e.g., calcifications such as gallstones and bone):
A. Reverberation. B. Comet tail. C. Acoustic enhancement. D. Shadowing.

89. Completely anechoic, clear and smooth walled structure with posterior enhancement:
A. Complex cyst. B. Benign mass. C. Malignant mass. D. Simple cyst.

90. Anechoic and smooth walled structure with septations that appear as echogenic hair-like
strands within it:
A. Complex cyst. B. Benign mass. C. Malignant mass. D. Simple cyst.

91. Characteristics of a complex cyst may include:

A. Septations. B. Multilocular compartments. C. Fluid-fluid layers. D. All of the previous.

92. A Turbid Cyst, thick wall with septations or air bubbles inside.
A. Complex cyst. B. Abscess. C. Simple cyst. D. Solid mass.

93. The most common benign mass in the liver is:

A. Hemangioma. B. Hepatocellular carcinoma.

94. A hyperechoic, rounded and homogenous liver mass, that appear mostly near the HV:
A. Hemangioma. B. Hepatocellular carcinoma.

95. The most common malignant mass in the liver is:

A. Hemangioma. B. Hepatocellular carcinoma.

96. A hypoechoic and poorly defined liver mass, that is usually solitary and mostly associated
with cirrhotic liver:
A. Hemangioma. B. Hepatocellular carcinoma.

Best Wishes; Yaseen Auf

97. A Hypoechoic hepatic metastases is a secondary to the following cancers, Except:
A. Lung cancer. B. Breast cancer. C. Colorectal carcinoma. D. Lymphoma.

98. A Hyperechoic hepatic metastases is a secondary to the following cancers, Except:

A. Breast cancer. B. Colorectal carcinoma. C. Renal cell carcinoma.

99. The second trimester of pregnancy period is:

A. 1 – 14 weeks. B. 14 – 28 weeks. C. 18 – 35 weeks. D. 28 – 40 weeks.

100. The third trimester of pregnancy period is:

A. 1 – 14 weeks. B. 14 – 28 weeks. C. 18 – 35 weeks. D. 28 – 40 weeks.

101. The importance of the first trimester ultrasound examination is to:

A. Intrauterine gestation. B. Assess viability. C. Date pregnancy. D. All of the previous.

102. Ultrasound examination in the first trimester of pregnancy should be performed:

A. Transabdominally. B. Transrectally. C. Transvaginally.

103. The first sonographic evidence of pregnancy is:

A. Embryo. B. Yolk Sac. C. Amniotic sac. D. Gestational sac.

104. The gestational sac on transvaginal ultrasound is first seen at ………… from the first day of
the last menstrual period.
A. 2 weeks. B. 4 weeks. C. 6 weeks. D. 8 weeks.

105. The first sonographic structure to be seen within the gestational sac:
A. Embryo. B. Yolk Sac. C. Amniotic sac. D. Gestational sac.

106. A mean sac diameter of ……… with no embryo is diagnostic of failed pregnancy.
A. 2 – 4 mm. B. 10 mm. C. 25 mm. D. 40 mm.

107. The yolk sac on transvaginal ultrasound is seen at:

A. 2 weeks. B. 4 weeks. C. 5 weeks. D. 10 weeks.

108. The yolk sac has a diameter of around 2mm at 6 weeks and increases slowly to around 6mm
at:
A. 8 weeks. B. 10 weeks. C. 12 weeks. D. 14 weeks.

109. The embryo is connected to the yolk sac by the:

A. Vitelline duct. B. Bile duct. C. Amniotic sac. D. Gestational sac.

110. A thin echogenic structure surrounding the embryo which appears following the
appearance of the yolk sac and just before the appearance of the embryo.
A. Embryo. B. Yolk Sac. C. Amniotic sac. D. Gestational sac.

Best Wishes; Yaseen Auf

111. The structure first seen on transvaginal ultrasound as a focal thickening on top of the yolk
sac, giving the appearance of a ―diamond engagement ring‖, at around the 5th menstrual
week.
A. Embryo. B. Yolk Sac. C. Amniotic sac. D. Gestational sac.

112. The first embryonic cardiac activity should be seen at:

A. 2 weeks. B. 4 weeks. C. 6 weeks. D. 8 weeks.

113. The longest distance in a straight line from the cranial to the caudal end of the body of the
embryo.
A. Biparietal Diameter. B. Crown-Rump-Length. C. Mean Sac Diameter.

114. The most accurate measurement for the assessment for pregnancy dating is:
A. Biparietal Diameter. B. Crown-Rump-Length. C. Mean Sac Diameter.

115. A CRL of ………. with no cardiac activity is a suggestive for diagnosing failed pregnancy.
A. 2 mm. B. 4 mm. C. 7 mm. D. 9 mm.

116. The embryo appears on ultrasound as a thin cylinder with no discernible body parts ―the
grain of rice appearance‖ at:
A. 2 weeks. B. 4 weeks. C. 6 weeks. D. 8 weeks.

117. The measurements used to date pregnancy in the first trimester:

A. Biparietal Diameter. B. Crown-Rump-Length. C. Mean Sac Diameter. D. All of the previous.

118. The measurement used in the late first trimester (12 – 13 weeks):
A. Biparietal Diameter. B. Crown-Rump-Length. C. Mean Sac Diameter.

Best Wishes; Yaseen Auf