CD 16 Question Paper

11/13/22, 11:07 AM https://www.aspiration.link/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?
qSetID=k0VZFhCDiOo%3D
Countdown Mock 16 (CLAT) 2023
English Language
Directions: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.

Passage – 1

Marginality as a discourse in Indian Nepali writing is introduced relatively quite recently. Although
pains and grief of
being alienated and relegated to the fringes can be traced as far back as 50s and
60s of the preceding century in
the writings of the writers and poets of Darjeeling Hills, Assam and
elsewhere in India, they largely exhibit indulgence
in bitter nostalgia of their long past and romantic
expression of their grief, almost to the point of being maudlin.

Tendency to escape the hard and tormenting reality and yearn for 'a land at once strange and familiar
where the
heart finds itself at home' is an element of romanticism. These writers sang melancholic
songs 'in shady haunts'
and cried in wilderness. They were still far from using the language of, to
borrow Bell Hooks' phrase, 'talking back',
language of resistance and self-assertion in the larger
context of the nation.

Late seventies and eighties witnessed some poets more vocal and bold in giving vent to their
resentment and
protest against the calculated ignorance, apathy, manipulation and maneuvering
meted out by those belonging to
the class far more advantaged and advanced. All the Nepali
speaking Indians throughout India had felt a sharp
smack when Morarji Desai, the then Prime
Minister, in 1977 had battered black and blue the whole
Nepali-speaking community in India with his
strangely arrogant replies to the delegates of All India Nepali Bhasha
Samity (AINBS). He slammed
shut the door of Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution to Nepali language by
pronouncing it a foreign
language, in spite of the fact that it was already enlisted as one of the major Indian
languages by
Sahitya Akademi, the highest National Academy of Letters in India. He even threatened to disband
Gorkha Regiment from Indian Army. Our long cherished demand for the inclusion of Nepali language
in the
Constitution was thus humiliatingly dashed to the brink by the Centre.
This humiliation and insult at the hand of the most powerful seat at the centre shook the entire Nepali
community
of the land like never before. And the poets poured out their anguish, playwrights took
their agonized protest to the
stage, short-story writers came up with the theme of cultural identity and
musicians also composed songs evoking
the deep-rooted feelings of Nepali ethnic culture. A few lines
from a poem entitled, "Backlash", that was spurred by
these anguished moments and published in
'Haamro Bhasha' (1978), the AINBS's mouthpiece, may be cited here
to show the different tone and
texture of Indian Nepali poetry in late seventies and eighties:
https://www.aspiration.link/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=k0VZFhCDiOo%3D 1/50
11/13/22, 11:07 AM https://www.aspiration.link/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?qSetID=k0VZFhCDiOo%3D
It was, of course, a serious question of identity crisis, and the then sixty lakh Nepali-speaking Indians
fervently
believed that the inclusion of Nepali language in the Constitution would solve this crisis, the
primary cause of their
decades-long suffering - physical as well as psychological. 'Our language, our
life', 'We sacrifice our lives but we
will reach the goal' - slogans rent the sky of Darjeeling Hills and the
Dooars and their echo could be heard in far
flung regions like Manipur-Mizoram in the east and
Dehradun-Bhaksu in the west.
Q 1. 30245929 Out of the following options, which one is a synonym of the word 'batter' as used in
the passage?
a) Calomel b) Ramble c) Pummel d) Enamel
Q 2. 30245929 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:
a) The Nepali community could not organize themselves into a major movement.
b) The identity movement of the Nepalis attained a pan India characteristic feature.
c) The identity movement of the Nepalis was funded by foreign countries.
d) Very few individuals from the Nepali community belonged to the world of literature.
Q 3. 30245929 What does the author mean when s/he says, "they largely exhibit indulgence in bitter
nostalgia of their long
past and romantic expression of their grief, almost to the point of being
maudlin"?
a) The Nepali writers display a strong sense of sentiment in their writings.
b) The Nepali writers display a strong sense of patriotism in their writings.

c) The Nepali writers display a strong sense of jingoism in their writings.
d) The Nepali writers display a strong sense of fulfillment in their writings.
Q 4. 30245929 The author's attitude towards the central government can be defined as that of an:
a) Egotism b) Arrogance c) Ecstasy d) Umbrage
Q 5. 30245929 From the passage, it can be understood that:
a) b)
Very little research has been done on the Nepali Nepali literature revolved around Nepali ethnicity.
language. c) The Nepali diaspora is very wealthy.
d)
The Nepali community is not concerned about
their language.

Passage – 2
Comprising of members from the Vaishnava Hindus and Sufi Muslims, Bauls occupy a unique position
as devotees,
mystics, naturalists, tantric and wanderers in India and Bangladesh. Baul-Fakirs are
identified by their unique
clothing and music, with an ektara and bowl for alms in hands. Clubbed, in
colonial accounts, as subordinate
categories within the larger 'Hindu' identity as Bairagi, then as
Vaishnava and later on as Baolas, Bauls were
"held in very low estimation by respectable Hindus".
Even reformists like Ali Shariyati denounced Bauls and Fakirs
as corrupting Bengali Islam with their
"un-Islamic" life and songs.

Though there are differences in beliefs and practices among distinct sects of Bauls, it is undeniable
that they,
as a collective whole, occupy similar social positions in rural society and have shared
historical experiences.
Bauls have no faith in sectarian religion. Rather, they are representatives of a
syncretic marginal religious sect
following a musical tradition influenced by lyrics from the Hindu
Bhakti movements and the suphi (a form of Sufi
song exemplified by the songs of Kabir) that seek the
divinity in human beings. Baul songs, thus, unify multiple
worship practices in the Baul tradition.

But, what is a Baul song? To some, Baul songs are articulations of a heterodox Bengali sect that
observed and
practiced abominable yogic rituals. To others, they were merely an entertaining form of
soliciting alms; while to
another set of people, they came to be distinguished by their decidedly
indigenous folk-melody and folk-content of
the idyllic Bengali village. Many regard Baul songs as
songs of transcendental humanism. Others, however,
suggest that they are in fact to be distinguished
from other folk songs by their highly sophisticated and coded
esoteric content. The romantic-
nationalist perception of Bauls and Baul songs as embodiments and repositories
of the Bengali village
was shaped in response to these earlier disparaging framings and negative stereotypes of
Bauls as
the disrespectable and the immoral Other. Baul song forms were occasionally dismissed as strategies
of entertainment of the bhadraloks of late nineteenth century. However, some sections of bhadralok
society of the
times, and especially, Rabindranath Tagore, regarded Baul identity as one that voiced
concerns about rural
oppression while providing a window into their everyday life through simple and
rustic allegory.

Despite being an eclectic group with multiple religious influences, the music of the Bauls transcend
religious
boundaries and evoke open interpretations of the supreme. The lyrics of the Baul songs
celebrate this
approach and understanding. It is a complete assimilation of the spiritual with the
material-Bhav Tattva and Deha
Tattva-principles related to emotions and the body which offer a new
perspective of the world. They renounce
religious practices and criticize the superficiality of religious
divisions. The lyrics from a Baul song says,
"Fakiri koribi khyapa kon raag-e/ Ache Hindu-Musalman
dui bhaghe"-which means, how can one preach peace in
a country which is divided on the basis of
two major religious groups-Hindu and Muslim. Also, "Je ja bhabe sei rupe
se hoy,Ram-Rahim-Karim-
Kala ek atma jogotmoy," which again reinforces that Ram, Rahim, Karim and Kala are
the names of
the same supreme power.
Q 6. 30245929 What was the opinion of Rabindranath Tagore about the baul songs?
a) Tagore felt that baul songs represented a martial culture.
b) Tagore felt that baul songs represented the town life.
c) Tagore felt that baul songs represented an alien culture.
d) Tagore felt that the baul songs represented village repression.
Q 7. 30245929 As per the passage, one of the characteristics of baul songs is:
a) They promote religious unity. b) They promote religious diversity.

c) They promote fundamentalism. d) They promote science.
Q 8. 30245929 Out of the following options, which one can suitably replace the word 'syncretic' as
used in the passage?
a) Vocation b) Incubation c) Assimilation d) Variation
Q 9. 30245929 Out of the following options, which one is an appropriate title of the given passage?
a) b) An overview of the bauls of Bengal

The patriotic songs of the baul community in c) The religious inclusivity of the bauls in Bengal
Bengal
d)
How the bauls represented the village life of
Bengal
Q 10. 30245929 From the passage, it can be understood that:
a) The baulsbelieved in the caste system.
b) Presently, the bauls have managed to attain international recognition.
c) The bauls could never become a part of the Bengali culture.
d) The bauls were initially marginalized.

Passage – 3

Nobel laureate Annie Ernaux is the Grande Dame of auto fiction, writings that give a narrative form to
one's life
story. Perhaps Geoff Dyer, a personal favourite, can be said to write auto non-fiction, a genre
distinct from memoir
or autobiography where the writer uses personal experience to give narrative
forms to stories external to himself.
No one who has read Dyer's brilliant Out of Sheer Rage, a book
about not writing on D.H. Lawrence should be
surprised that his latest, The Last Days of Roger
Federer has little on the tennis great. Few writers meander with
the certainty of Dyer, few are so
confident of the reader forgiving their occasional overreach, few make their
sentences sing with the
same harmony. Dyer could neither write the book on Lawrence he set out to do nor walk
away from it.
"One of the reasons, in fact, that it was impossible to get started on either the Lawrence book or the
novel was because I was so preoccupied with where to live. I could live anywhere, all I had to do was
choose - but
it was impossible to choose because I could live anywhere," he wrote. Choice is terror.

The Last Days is about the last days of creative geniuses from Nietzsche and Turner, Beethoven and
Kerouac to
Dylan, all signposts in Dyer's life. Our lives are somehow part of the lives of even those
who don't know we exist.

Dyer shares details of his life that, taken by themselves are commonplace, even banal. He steals
shampoos from
hotel bathrooms. And uses that quirk to riff on writing itself. "That's the whole point of -
and justification for - writing
about yourself," he says, "indulged in conscientiously, and with sufficient
rigour, it's never just about you." Is that
startling profundity from a writer Zadie Smith has called "a
national treasure", or a self-indulgent justification?
No matter. It is fun.

The book sometimes reads like notes for a range of other books, each of which Dyer is capable of
writing with
authority and charm. Pages are loaded with wit and information, and the ordinary raised to
literature, with unexpected
connections and sharp insights. It is fascinating and puzzling.

The many enthusiasms of this most interesting of writers has seen him write books on jazz and
photography,
on watching the film Where Eagles Dare and the work of John Berger, on modern art
and travel, on war and
remembrance and essays on an even greater range of subjects. And yes,
there are novels too.

Dyer, 64, writes, "After a stage in a man's life it is essential that he retain some residue of how he saw
the world as
a 14-year-old." That perhaps is his secret.

Ernaux once said, "The time that lies ahead of me grows shorter. There will inevitably be a last book,
as there is
always a last lover, a last spring, but no sign by which to know them". The message from
the auto-fiction genius
is given breath by the auto non-fiction one.
Q 11. 30245929 What can be concluded about 'auto-fiction'?
a) A genre of literature that combines elements of autobiography and fiction.
b) A genre of literature that gives a self-written account of one's own life.
c) A genre of literature that gives an account of someone's life written by someone else.
d) None of these.
Q 12. 30245929 Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word 'meander'?
a) Curl b) Bend c) Twist d) Straighten
Q 13. 30245929 What did Geoff Dyer want to imply through 'choice is terror'?
a) The more the number of choices, the greater the chances of failure.
b) The more the number of choices, the greater the chances of success.
c) The more the number of choices, the greater the indecisiveness.
d) The more the number of choices, the greater the fear of unpleasant outcome.
Q 14. 30245929 Consider the following line from the passage: 'Our lives are somehow part of the
lives of even those who
don't know we exist.' What does the author wish to imply through these lines?
a) Our decisions, actions and experiences are influenced by the opinions of other people.
b) Our lives are always likely to get influenced by the lives of other people.
c) Our lives are bound to get influenced by the lives of other people.
d) Our decisions, actions and experiences are in some way influenced by complete strangers.
Q 15. 30245929 Which of the following correctly describes the content of the book The Last Days?
a) It is like notes for a range of other books. b) Pages are loaded with wit and information
c) d) It is vivid in its content.

It bears unexpected connections and sharp
insights.

Passage – 4

Top telco executives and sector analysts say the immediate 5G connectivity challenges could have
been avoided
if carriers and device ecosystem partners had more time to roll out 5G networks and
test handsets. Instead of
launching barely a month-and-a-half after receiving airwaves from the
government. 5G spectrum allotment took
place on August 18, about six weeks before the October 1
launch, they pointed out. In contrast, there was a much
longer gap between the 4G spectrum award
and a full-services launch, they said.

"The government moved fast from auction to allocation of 50 spectrum, which followed by the high-
profile launches
appears to have created huge expectations around 5G services, and hence the
disappointment over the immediate
non-availability of 5G on many devices and locations," said
Jaideep Ghosh, telecoms expert and chief operating
officer at Shardul Amarchand Mangaldas & Co.

In India too, telcos had more time to roll out 3G and 4G services, which is why the overall consumer
upgradation
experience had been more seamless, said the people cited above. For instance, Airtel
was the first telco to roll out
4G in April 2012, which was more than a year-and-a-half after spectrum
allotments had taken place in September
2010. But it took until September 2016 for the near
ubiquitous availability of 4G services, when Jio launched
services.

On the 3G front, erstwhile Tata DoCoMo was the first private operator to launch services in early
November 2010,
two months after spectrum allotment. But larger companies like Airtel launched 3G
only by late January 2011,
said executives cited above.

Telco execs welcomed the government's call for faster 5G rollouts, especially to give Indians a taste of
high data
speeds. But they asserted that rollouts can't happen overnight as all 5G network planning
started only in late
August as it would have been impossible to import radio network gear before
spectrum was allocated by the
government.

They added that telcos in a smaller country like South Korea had launched 5G faster as they had a
sense of the
bands and quantum of the spectrum they would get before the auction. Telcos in India
had to wait for the auction
to end for clarity on 5G bands and the quantum of airwaves won.

"Operators could go ahead with 5G network planning, equipment imports and ecosystem creation with
partners
only after receiving spectrum in mid-August, and this process takes five to six months as
rollouts can't be done
haphazardly," said a top executive at one of India's SG operators.
Q 16. 30245929 Which of the following best describes the attitude of telco execs towards the launch
of 5G networks?
a) b) It has turned out to be way ahead of its time.

It has turned out to be purposeless and c) It has turned out to be an ill timed event.
uninnovative.
d) It lacked sufficient planning and preparation.
Q 17. 30245929 Which of the following was true about the 3G and 4G technologiesin India?
a) The overall consumer upgradation experience turned out to be seamless post their launch.
b) Their launch happened just two weeks after the spectrum allotment.
c) They proved a game changer for India in the global race to gain internet supremacy.
d) None of the above
Q 18. 30245929 Which of the following is not one of the tasks associated with launch of a
telecommunication technology?
a) Network planning b) Equipment imports c) Ecosystem creation d)

Selling mobile phones.
Q 19. 30245929 Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word: haphazardly
a) Erratic b) Methodical c) Systematic d) Steady
Q 20. 30245929 Which of the following can be termed as a suitable title for the passage?
a) Internet and its challenges b) Problems with network technologies

c) 5G launch: concerns and causes d) Cons of 5G technology

Passage – 5

Becoming an entrepreneur when you are close to 50 isn't easy. It's harder in a business - online
retailing of
beauty, personal care and fashion products - where the target consumers are Generation Z
and Millennials.
Falguni Nayar has defied all stereotypes, becoming India's only second self-made
woman billionaire after Biocon's
Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw. Not only was the Rs. 5,352-crore initial public
offering of Nayar's FSN E-Commerce
Ventures Ltd oversubscribed nearly 82.5 times, but its shares
debuted at Rs 2,001 in the BSE on Wednesday,
against the issue price of Rs. 1,125. At Friday's
closing price of Rs. 2,359, the Nayar family's 52.56 per cent stake
in her company was worth $7.9
billion. That makes her the country's second richest woman after Savitri Jindal,
ahead of Mazumdar-
Shaw, Leena Tewari of USV, Mallika Srinivasan of Amalgamations, Smita Crishna of Godrej
and Anu
Aga of Thermax. All of them, barring Mazumdar-Shaw and Nayar, are inheritors of businesses
originally
promoted by men.

Nayar's company - better known as Nykaa, an apt take on the Sanskrit word 'nayika' or heroine - is
also interesting
in other ways. It reported a profit of Rs 62 crore on operational revenues of Rs. 2,441
crore for the year ended
March 31, 2021. This is rare for any digital startup, including the likes of
Zomato and One 97 Communications
(Paytm) that have been burning cash despite being around for
more than a decade. One reason could be that a
lot of what is sold through the company's websites,
mobile apps and 73 physical stores are under its own Nykaa
and Kay Beauty brands. This is unlike
Amazon or Flipkart that largely hawk others' brands/products, whose gross
monetary value paid by
consumers would be many times the actual revenue accruing to the company. Nykaa has
also been
different from other tech startups in not receiving much venture capital funding. Most of its investors
have been high-net worth individuals.

Whether or not Nykaa's future performance meets its post-IPO expectations, Nayar's story should
hopefully
inspire more women to become job creators, not just job seekers. Dismantling patriarchy
requires many more
such entrepreneurs to emerge, particularly from India's small towns and
hinterlands. Nykaa's own business
model has been about leveraging rising female workforce
participation and aspirations. The fact that 64 per cent
of its sales last fiscal came from Tier 2 and 3
cities points to not just a huge untapped market; the demand for
skincare and beauty accessories is
ultimately a reflection of growing aspirations.
Q 21. 30245929 Which of the following has not been identified as something distinct about Nykaa as
compared to other
digital start ups?

I. Most of its investors are venture capitalists

II. It is not a profit making enterprise

III. It mostly sells its own products

a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III
Q 22. 30245929 The author says "more such entrepreneurs to emerge" to:
a) Establish a matriarchal form of society b)

Counter the narrative of women being bad
businessperson
c) d)
Counter male domination and consequent Counter the exploitation of women in corporate
prejudice world
Q 23. 30245929 Which of the following challenges has not been mentioned by the author in context
of the start of
entrepreneurial journey of Falguni Nayar?
a) Age b) Nature of business c) Gender d)

Demography of the
consumers
Q 24. 30245929 As per the passage, which of the following would be closest to the total valuation of
Nayar’s company?
a) $10 billion b) $15 billion c) $20 billion d) $25 billion
Q 25. 30245929 Which of the following will best describe the trait of Falguni Nayar as expressed by
the author in the expression
'defied all stereotypes'?
a) Pioneering b) Philanthropist c) Evangelist d) Thespian

Passage – 6

The recent Allahabad High Court verdict that a sexual assault on a 10-year-old boy by an offender did
not amount
to an aggravated form of the crime appears to be per incuriam. The offence that was
proven in the trial,
and endorsed without demur by the High Court, involved the child being sexually
abused. The Court agrees that
it was a "sexual assault" as defined by the Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act. However,
it did not amount to "aggravated sexual assault", a crime
punishable with a minimum prison term of 10 years that
can go up to life, Justice Anil Kumar Ojha has
said. Instead, it was punishable under Section 4 of POCSO, which
prescribes a minimum seven
years. Accordingly, he reduced the trial court sentence of 10 years in jail to seven
years. The High
Court is palpably in error, as it failed to note that a sexual offence takes the character of an
aggravated form of the same offence in certain circumstances under POCSO. The main
circumstances involving
aggravation given in Section 5 are where the offender is a police officer, a
member of the armed forces, a public
servant or someone on the staff of a jail, remand home,
hospital, educational or religious institution, or any place

of custody or care and protection.
However, these are not the only circumstances. Where the crime involves a group of offenders, or is
done
repeatedly, or when it pertains to the use of deadly weapons or causes grievous harm or injury,
or leads to
physical or mental incapacitation, pregnancy, or disease, it is also an aggravated form of
the offence. Significantly,
Section 5(m) adds "whoever commits sexual assault on a child below 12
years" to this list. The High Court
seems to have missed either this legal provision while reducing the
sentence, or the fact that the child was about
10 years old when the offence took place. The fact that
the convicted person will stay in jail for seven years will not
obviate the deleterious effect of the ruling -
that a particular act, amounting to a sexual act, does not attract the
punishment prescribed for its
aggravated form - will have on lower courts trying similar cases. It is a matter of
coincidence that this
ruling came from the Allahabad High Court on the same day as the Supreme Court's
judgment
underscoring the importance of not diluting the gravity of an offence against a child by ignoring the
plain
meaning of POCSO's provisions. The verdict in Sonu Kushwaha vs State of U.P. is a fit case for
review, as it
seems to be based on an error of law.
Q 26. 30245929 Which of the following is the most suitable title of the passage?
a) Court demurs: POSCO setback in a landmark judgment
b) Abuse eye opener: On Allahabad Court's ruling on POSCO
c) Child protection: POSCO on sexual abuse
d) POCSO shocker: On Allahabad High Court verdict on child sexual assault
Q 27. 30245929 Which of the following best captures the essence of the passage?
a) HC applied the law correctly but missed the spirit of the law
b) HC ruling highlights the apathy that all Courts exhibit towards sexual assault victims
c) HC ruling ignores specific provision defining aggravated form of sexual offence
d) HC ruling misinterpreted the POSCO as envisaged by the Supreme Court
Q 28. 30245929 Which of the following is closest in meaning to per incuriam?
a) A ruling handed down without due regard to the law and facts
b) Beneficiary heir receives the inheritance should the beneficiary die before the testator
c)
A ruling issued by an appellate court of multiple judges in which the decision rendered is made by the
court acting collectively
d) A situation where a litigant represent themselves without a lawyer
Q 29. 30245929 Which of the following can be concluded about the case mentioned in the passage
above?
a) The name of the victim is Sonu Kushwaha b) The victim was a teenager
c) The perpetrator was a minor d) The incident took place in UP
Q 30. 30245929 Which of the following has not been mentioned as one of the factors which can
make a sexual offence
takes the character of an aggravated form of the same offence?
a) b) c) d)

Profession of the Number of the offenders Frequency of the Duration of the offence
offender offence
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1

The Nobel Prize for Literature 2022 has gone to French author [1], for, according to the Swedish
Academy,
"the courage and clinical acuity with which she uncovers the roots, estrangements and
collective restraints of
personal memory".
[1] has seen a sharp increase in popularity in the English-speaking world since 2019, after her
seminal work
'The Years', translated by Alison L Strayer, was shortlisted for the Man Booker
international prize. Her book on her
illegal abortion in the 1960s, 'Happening' (first published in 2001)
has also been in the limelight after abortion rights
were curtailed in the US.

As the Nobel citation says, [1]'s work - ranging from a history of France to her first sexual experience
and the
shame around it to her mother's illness and death to her abortion to her class-linked shame -
meticulously mines
her own memory and life experiences with "courage and clinical acuity".

Her treatment of her memories is unsparing but unembellished - she travels back to the moment she
is writing
about as completely as possible, without giving herself the benefit and wisdom of hindsight,
putting on paper the
raw vulnerability of the moment. As anchors, she uses songs, slogans, meals
from the time she is writing about,
which many say blurs the line between fiction and autobiography.
Q 31. 30245929 The Nobel Prize for Literature 2022 was awarded to the French author [1], what is
the name of the recipient
whose name has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Annie Ernaux b) Kazuo Ishiguro c) Bob Dylan d) Louise Gluck
Q 32. 30245929 Name the Indian poet, philosopher, nationalist and developer of Integral yoga who
was nominated
unsuccessfully for the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1943 and for the Nobel Peace Prize
in 1950.
a) Sri Aurobindo b) c) Dadabhai Naoroji, d)

Sir Surendranath Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Banerjee
Q 33. 30245929 Rabindranath Tagore was first Indian to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in which of
the following years?
a) 1906 b) 1913 c) 1920 d) 1926
Q 34. 30245929 Who was the first recipient of Nobel Prize in Literature?
a) Bjornstjerne Martinus Bjornson b) Sully Prudhomme
c) Christian Matthias Theodor Mommsen d) Frederic Mistral
Q 35. 30245929 The New Academy Prize in Literature was established in 2018 in lieu of the Nobel
Prize in Literature, which
was not awarded in 2018 and instead postponed until 2019. The winner was
announced on 12 October
2018. The New Academy was dissolved in December 2018. The first and
only New Academy Prize in
Literature was awarded to ________________.
a) Maryse Conde b) c) Selma Ottilia d)

Paul Johann Ludwig Rudolf Christoph
Heyse Eucken
Passage – 2

Ukraine has submitted an official application to join NATO, President Volodymyr Zelenskyy said after
Moscow
annexed four Ukrainian regions earlier. "We are de facto allies already," Zelenskyy said. "De
facto, we have already
proven compatibility with Alliance standards."

"Ukraine is applying to confirm it de jure by an expedited procedure," he stated. NATO was not
immediately able to
respond to questions about what Ukraine's "accelerated" application to join the
alliance would mean.

Ukraine is already considered an "aspirant country" for membership in the world's biggest security
alliance, along
with Georgia. All 30 NATO allies would have to agree for the country to join. NATO is
wary of allowing any country
to join when its borders and territory are not clearly defined.

Earlier this year, Ukraine has been granted membership candidate status by the European Union, but
member
countries have warned that it would take several years for the conflict-torn country to be able
to join.

Zelenskyy's statement came right after Russian President Vladimir Putin signed treaties to annex
parts of Ukraine
in defiance of international law, vowing to protect the newly incorporated regions by
"all available means".

In a Kremlin ceremony at the ornate St. George's Hall to herald the annexation of the occupied parts
of Ukraine,
Putin accused the West of fueling the hostilities as part of what he said is a plan to turn
Russia into a "colony" and

a "crowds of slaves".
Q 36. 30245929 The foundations of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) were officially laid
down on 4 April 1949
with the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty, more popularly known as
the_____________.
a) London Treaty b) Paris Treaty c) Berlin Treaty d) Washington Treaty
Q 37. 30245929 The NATO headquarters is located in ____________.
a) New York, USA b) Brussels, Belgium c) Paris, France d) Warsaw, Poland
Q 38. 30245929 Which of the following two countries are anticipated to become the 31st and 32nd
members of NATO?
a) Norway and Moldova b) c) Finland and Sweden d) Belarus and Latvia
Denmark and Belarus
Q 39. 30245929 Jens Stoltenberg is serving as the current secretary general of NATO since 2014. He
previously served as
the Prime Minister of ___________.
a) United Kingdom b) Norway c) Germany d) France
Q 40. 30245929 The principle of collective defence is at the very heart of NATO's founding treaty. The
principle of collective
defence is enshrined in Article __________ of NATO.
a) Article 1 b) Article 2 c) Article 3 d) Article 5
Passage – 3

India's maiden human space-flight mission 'Gaganyaan' is expected to be launched in 2024, Union
Minister of
State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology, Jitendra Singh said. Earlier, the
mission was scheduled
to be launched in 2022 but that could not be achieved due to Covid-19. "The
Covid-19 pandemic took a toll on the
training of astronauts in Russia as well as India," Singh added
as was quoted by an Indian news agency.

The first test-flight will be followed by sending a female-looking spacefaring humanoid robot - [1] -- in
outer space
likely next year. The Indian Air Force had identified four fighter pilots as the potential crew
for the human space flight
mission. The potential crew had undergone basic training in [2].

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will send at least two astronauts into a low earth
orbit (LEO) in
2024 after assessing the outcome of the two orbital test flights. According to ISRO, the
Gaganyaan programme
envisages undertaking the demonstration of human spaceflight to LEO in the
short-term and will lay the foundation
for a sustained Indian human space exploration programme in
the long run.

The objective of this space programme is to demonstrate indigenous capability to undertake human
space flight
mission to LEO. As part of this programme, two unmanned missions and one manned
mission are approved by
the Indian government. The total cost of Gaganyaan programme would be to
the tune of Rs 9,023 crore.
Q 41. 30245929 What is the name of the female looking spacefaring humanoid robot which has been
redacted with [1] in the
passage above?
a) Ganga Mitra b) Vyom Mitra c) Bharati Mitra d) Gagan Mitra
Q 42. 30245929 The Indian Air Force had identified four fighter pilots as the potential crew for the
human space flight mission.
The potential crew had undergone basic training in [2]. Which of the
following countries has been redacted
with [2] in the passage above?
a) USA b) France c) Russia d) United Kingdom
Q 43. 30245929 Which of the following Indian Lunar Probes discovered water on the Moon?
a) Cartosat -3 b) Chandrayaan-1 c) Mangalyaan d) Chandrayaan-2
Q 44. 30245929 Rakesh Sharma is the first Indian citizen to travel in space who flew aboard Soyuz
T-11 on____________.
a) 3 April 1964 b) 3 April 1974 c) 3 April 1984 d) 3 April 1994
Q 45. 30245929 The first human to travel into space is______________.
a) Toyohiro Akiyama b) Yuri Gagarin c) Charles D. Walker d) Helen Sharman
Passage – 4
India abstained in an emergency special session of the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) on
a vote for a
resolution that condemned and rejected Russia's annexation of four Ukrainian regions. A
total of 143 states voted
for the proposal, 35 abstained, while only four nations backed Russia.

India's abstention was in keeping with its voting posture on all substantive Ukraine-related resolutions
since the
war began. It, however, expressed deep concern at the escalation of the conflict in Ukraine,
called for an immediate
ceasefire, reiterated its traditional position in favour of peace, diplomacy, and
dialogue, and advocated keeping
diplomatic channels open.

India said it was abstaining since there were "other pressing issues" not covered adequately by the
resolution.
The non-binding resolution, titled "Territorial Integrity of Ukraine: Defending the Principles
of the UN Charter",
was brought to the UNGA after the Russians vetoed a similar text condemning its
referendum and annexation at
the UN Security Council.

The resolution condemned Russia's "so called" referendums and annexation of Donetsk, Kherson,
Luhansk and
Zaporizhzhia, and said Moscow's move has no validity in international law and do form
the basis for altering status
of "these regions of Ukraine". It also called on Russia to "immediately,
completely and unconditionally" withdraw all
of its forces from Ukraine's territory.

China, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Cuba were among those who abstained, while North Korea, Syria,
Nicaragua and
Belarus were the only four countries to vote along with Russia against the resolution.
Most South Asian countries
- Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Afghanistan, Myanmar - voted for the
resolution condemning Russia.

India has voted only twice against Russian positions during the Ukraine conflict, both on procedural
issues, including
the when Russia sought a secret vote on the General Assembly resolution.
Q 46. 30245929 Who among the following coined the term 'United Nations'?
a) Harry S. Truman b) c) Winston Churchill d) Joseph Stalin

Franklin D. Roosevelt
Q 47. 30245929 What does the principle of sovereign equality of States entail based on the United
Nations Charter?
a)
Each State has the right freely to choose and develop its political, social, economic and cultural
systems
b) That all UN Member States have equal rights and duties.
c) Both a and b statements are true
d) Neither a nor b statements are true
Q 48. 30245929 Which of the following is the second largest intergovernmental organisation after the
United Nations with a
membership of 57 states?
a) Organisation of Islamic Cooperation b) European Union
c) African Union d) Collective Security Treaty Organization
Q 49. 30245929 The Bretton Woods Conference led to the creation of which of the following?
a) b) International Monetary Fund

International Bank for Reconstruction and c) United Nations Security Council
Development
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 50. 30245929 Russia has withdrawn from which of the following the organization/ organizations?
a) United Nations World Tourism Organization b)

United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC)
c) World Trade Organization d) Both (a) and (b)
Passage – 5
President Droupadi Murmu gave away the National Film Awards for the year 2020 under various
categories at 68th
edition of the ceremony. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award was conferred on veteran
actor [1], an accomplished
Indian classical dancer who has also been a director and producer.
Speaking on the occasion, the President said
the award to [1] was a recognition of women
empowerment.

Ms. Murmu said films had the widest impact among all the art forms and were a medium for an artistic
expression
of our value system. "Cinema was an effective tool for nation building as well. As the
nation celebrated "Azadi Ka
Amrit Mahotsav", feature and non-feature films related to the life stories of
freedom fighters, known and unknown,
would be welcomed by the Indian audience," she said.

Information & Broadcasting Minister Anurag Thakur said he held a strong belief today cinema had
crossed the
boundaries of theatre and reached the comforts of homes and mobile phones with the
advent of OTT. The Minister
commended the film stars for their contribution during the COVID-19
pandemic.

At the 68th edition, Tamil movie "Soorarai Pottru"got the national awards for the Best Feature Film,
Best Actor,
Best Actress, Best Background Score and the Best Screenplay, while "Tanhaji: The
Unsung Warrior" bagged the
awards for the Best Actor, which went to Ajay Devgn, and for the Best
Popular Film Providing Wholesome
Entertainment. The Best Actor award was shared by Suriya for his
work in Sudha Kongara-directed "Soorarai
Pottru".

Aparrna Balamurali won the Best Actress award for the Tamil film that also got the recognition for the
Best
Background Score (G.V. Prakash Kumar), and the Best Screenplay (Shalini Usha Nair and
Sudha Kongara).
Late Sachidanandan K.R. was adjudged the best director for Malayalam movie, AK
Ayyappanum Koshiyum.
Q 51. 30245929 Who among the following was conferred the Dadasaheb Phalke Award at a
ceremony to honour the winners
of 68th National Film Awards whose name has been redacted with
[1] in the passage above?
a) Asha Parekh b) c) K Chiranjeevi d)

Akkineni Nageswara Nandamuri Taraka
Rao Rama Rao
Q 52. 30245929 The first recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award was
a) Devika Rani b) Paidi Jairaj c) L. V. Prasad d) Sohrab Modi
Q 53. 30245929 The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India's highest award in the field of cinema. It is
presented annually at the
National Film Awards ceremony by the _____________.
a) Directorate of Film Festivals b) Films Division of India
c) National Film Development Corporation d) National Film Archive of India
Q 54. 30245929 Who among the following were the only posthumous recipients of the Dadasaheb
Phalke Award?
a) Raj Kapoor and Shashi Kapoor b) Lata Mangeshkar and Asha Bhosle
c) Prithviraj Kapoor and Vinod Khanna d) B. R. Chopra and Yash Chopra
Q 55. 30245929 The Dadasaheb Phalke Award was introduced by the Government of India to
commemorate Dadasaheb
Phalke's contribution to Indian cinema. What is the name of the India's first
full-length feature film directed by
him?
a) Bilwamangal b) Raja Harishchandra c) d) Ayodhyecha Raja

Satyawadi Raja
Harishchandra
Passage – 6

At the recently concluded summit of G7 leaders in Germany, United States President Joe Biden and
his allies
unveiled their $600-billion plan called the PGII to build infrastructure projects in developing
and middle-income
countries. This is being seen as a counter to China's Belt and Road Initiative
(BRI), valued at a trillion U.S. dollars
by some experts.

When asked about the Chinese government's response at a press conference, Zhao Lijian,
spokesperson of the
country's Foreign Ministry, defended the BRI, countering the narrative that it is a
debt trap. Citing a World Bank
forecast, he said, "If all BRI transport infrastructure projects are carried
out, by 2030, the BRI will generate
$1.6 trillion of revenues for the world each year, or 1.3 per cent of
global GDP".

In 2013, Chinese President [1], during his visits to Kazakhstan and Indonesia, expressed his vision to
build a Silk
Road Economic Belt (SERB) and a 21st Century Maritime Silk Road (MSR), to break the
"bottleneck" in Asian
connectivity.

The initiative envisioned a Chinese-led investment of over $1 trillion in partner countries by 2025.
More than 60
countries have now joined BRI agreements with China, with infrastructure projects
under the initiative being planned
or under construction in Asia, Africa, Europe, and Latin America.
Q 56. 30245929 What is the full form of PGII?
a) b)
Partnership for General Infrastructure and Partnership for Global Infrastructure and
Investment Investment
c) d)
Progress for Global Infrastructure and Investment Participation for Global Infrastructure and
Investment
Q 57. 30245929 Who among the following is the current President of China whose name has been
redacted with [1] in the
passage above?
a) Li Keqiang b) Wang Qishan c) Hu Jintao d) Xi Jinping
Q 58. 30245929 The PGII is being seen as the G7's counter to China's multi-trillion dollar Belt and
Road Initiative (BRI) to
build connectivity, infrastructure, and trade projects in Asia, Europe, Africa,
and Latin America. The PGII is
the relaunch of the____________.
a) b) c) d)

Build Back Better World Great Economic Deal New Economic Order Bring Back Better World
World
Q 59. 30245929 Which of the following is/are the benefits of PGII for India?
a)
U.S. International Development Finance Corporation (DFC) will invest up to USD 30 million in
Omnivore
Agritech and Climate Sustainability Fund.
b)
Climate Sustainability Fund is an impact venture capital fund that invests in entrepreneurs building the
future of agriculture, food systems, climate, and the rural economy in India.
c)
Omnivore Agritech is a technology driven agricultural practice that will increase agricultural prosperity
and transform food systems to make farming more resilient and sustainable.
d) All of the above
Q 60. 30245929 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the PGII and BRI?
a)
PGII aims to build projects through grants and investments while China builds BRI's projects by
extending
large, low-interest loans to countries that have to usually be paid over 10 years.
b)
The G7 has pledged 600 billion USD by 2027, while it has been estimated that China's overall funding
for
BRI by that time could reach 1.2 USD to 1.3 trillion USD with the actual funding being higher.
c)
Under the PGII, large private capital will be also mobilized while China's BRI is majorly state-funded.
d) All of the above
Passage – 7
India has slipped to rank 107 among 121 countries in the latest edition of the Global Hunger Index.
The country was
ranked 101 out of 116 countries in the 2021 index. With a GHI score of 29.1, the
report placed India's hunger levels
under the "serious" category. While this shows an improvement in
the "alarming" numbers of 38.8 points in 2000,
the report says that India's child nutrition performance
was quite concerning. The Indian government has maintained
its stance that the GHI is an "erroneous
measurement of hunger" and part of a "consistent effort" to "taint India's
image."

The GHI measures and tracks global, regional, and national hunger. It maps four indicators across
three dimensions.
This includes the under-five mortality rate under the "child mortality" dimension,
undernourishment under "inadequate
food supply", and child stunting and child wasting under "child
undernourishment".

While child wasting maps the percentage of children under five years of age with a low weight for their
height,
child stunting counts for the share of children with a low height for their age in the same age
group.

The GHI primarily sources data from various multilateral agencies based in the United States and
other countries
to compute scores under each dimension for all participating countries. These
organisations include the Food and
Agricultural Organization (FAO) and UNICEF.
Q 61. 30245929 India has slipped to rank [1] among 121 countries in the latest edition of the Global
Hunger Index. What is the
India rank which has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) 92 b) 96 c) 100 d) 107
Q 62. 30245929 The Global Hunger Index is prepared by Concern Worldwide and___________.
a) Columbia University b) Welthungerhilfe c) d) Hunger World

World Economic Forum
Q 63. 30245929 Which of the following countries is the top performing country in the Global Hunger
Index 2022?
a) Belarus b) Finland c) Chile d) China
Q 64. 30245929 Which of the following countries is the worst performing country in the Global
Hunger Index 2022?
a) Yemen b) North Korea c) Sudan d) Madagascar
Q 65. 30245929 Which of the following Sustainable Development Goals aims to achieve "zero
hunger"?
a) b) c) d)

Sustainable Sustainable Sustainable Sustainable
Development Goal 1 Development Goal 2 Development Goal 3 Development Goal 4
Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.
Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of
law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage – 1

Tribunals are judicial or quasi-judicial institutions established by law. They intend to provide a platform
for faster
adjudication as compared to traditional courts, as well as expertise on certain subject
matters. In 1976, Articles
323A and 323B were inserted in the Constitution of India through the 42nd
Amendment. Article 323A empowered
Parliament to constitute administrative Tribunals (both at the
central and state level) for adjudication of matters
related to recruitment and conditions of service of
public servants. Article 323B specified certain subjects
(such as taxation and land reforms) for which
Parliament or state legislatures may constitute tribunals by enacting
a law. In 2010, the Supreme
Court clarified that the subject matters under Article 323B are not exclusive,
and legislatures are
empowered to create tribunals on any subject matter under their purview as specified in the
Seventh
Schedule of the Constitution. Currently, tribunals have been created both as substitutes to High
Courts
and as subordinate to High Courts. In the former case, appeals from the decisions of Tribunals
(such as the
Securities Appellate Tribunal) lie directly with the Supreme Court. In the latter case (such
as the Appellate Board
under the Copyright Act, 1957), appeals are heard by the corresponding High
Court.

There are two major issues related to the working of tribunals. First, as quasi-judicial bodies, where
they have the
same degree of independence from the Executive as the courts that they replace.
Second, the level of their
success in achieving quicker decision on disputes. In addition, their place
within the constitutional scheme has
been questioned. The Supreme Court has examined some of
these issues and laid out some principles.
In L. Chandra Kumar versus Union of India and Ors, 1997,
it was noted that A tribunal which substitutes High
Courts as an alternative institutional mechanism for
judicial review (to lessen the burden on High Courts) must
have the status of High Courts and Such
tribunals will act as courts of first instance in respect of areas of law for
which they have been
constituted. However, decisions of these tribunals will be subject to scrutiny by a division
bench of the
High Court within whose jurisdiction the concerned tribunal falls.

The Supreme Court has noted that the members of a tribunal may be selected from departments of
the central
government as well as from various other fields of expertise. The presence of expert
members (technical members)
along with judicial members is a key feature of tribunals which
distinguishes them from traditional courts.
Only persons with a judicial background (such as Judges of
the High Court and lawyers with the prescribed
experience who are eligible for appointment as High
Court Judges) may be considered for appointment as Judicial
Members.
Q 66. 30245929 Kushagra Prasad and Anirudh Kesri were the music producer and jointly they
produced a Lo-fi track which
gained a lot of public attention. The actual producer of the track brought
a suit against both regarding the
copyright. The matter went to the appellate board under Copyright
Act. Decide where the appeal shall lie?
a) The appeal shall lie at Supreme Court as the appellate board is a substitute for High Court.
b) The appeal shall lie at High Court as the appellate board is subordinate to HC.
c) The appeal will be heard only by the Appellate board of the Copyright Act.
d) None of the above
Q 67. 30245929 Atmaram and Jethalal entered a contract for the sale of Ratnagiri mangoes. One of
the conditions of their
contract was that in case of any dispute, it will be resolved by an arbitrator
appointed by them. The mangoes
were found to be of bad quality and an arbitrator was appointed.
Decide whether the arbitrator will be considered
as a tribunal?
a) An arbitrator is a tribunal as the award is binding on both parties.
b) The arbitrator is not a tribunal as he is appointed by both parties.
c) The arbitrator is a tribunal as he is appointed with the free consent of both parties.
d) The arbitrator is not a tribunal as there was no separate contract for arbitration.
Q 68. 30245929 The Custom, Excise and Gold Control Appellate Tribunal (CEGAT) was established
for Judicial review and
disposal of the petitions and to substitute the High Court. One of the duties of
the Excise inspector was
challenged where he has the power to products which he believes to be
illegal. The CEGAT gave a decision
stating that the power is constitutional in nature as provided by
the statute. Decide which of the statement is
false?
a) The decision should be reviewed by the High Court within whose jurisdiction CEGAT falls.
b) The tribunal will act as the court of the first instance.
c)
The decision can only be reviewed by SC as the tribunal is an alternative to HC and not subordinate.
d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 69. 30245929 Tribunal under Motor Vehicle Act is a substitute to the High Court. It passed an order
in a dispute between 2
parties. Which of the following is the correct statement?

I. The tribunal will be the court of the first instance in a respected area of law.

II. Decisions given by these tribunals will be final and not subject to the scrutiny of the High Court.

III. The decision can only be reviewed by the Supreme Court.

IV. Although these tribunals are substitutes for High Court, they do not have the same status.
a) I and III b) II and IV c) I only d) III only
Q 70. 30245929 Decide which of the statement if false regarding 323A and 323B of Constitution?
a)
It is the legislature who is empowered to establish any tribunal on any subject matter which he deems
fit
and is given under schedule seven.
b) Being a quasi-judicial body, a tribunal is not given the same freedom as courts.
c) Tribunals are established to achieve quick decisions and lessen the burden on higher courts.
d) Along with judicial members, technical members can also be appointed to the tribunal.
based on each
the passage.

Passage – 2

A consensual love affair is not a defence against the criminal charge of kidnapping a minor girl under
18 years of
age, the Supreme Court has held in a judgment. "Section 361 of the Indian Penal Code
(kidnapping from lawful
guardianship) bestows the ability to make crucial decisions regarding a
minor's physical safety upon his/her
guardians. Therefore, a minor girl's infatuation with her alleged
kidnapper cannot by itself be allowed as a defence,
for the same would amount to surreptitiously
undermining the protective essence of the offence of kidnapping,"
Justice Surya Kant observed in the
recent judgment authored for the Bench, which included Justice S. Abdul
Nazeer. Though, he was
found guilty of rape by the trial court, the Gujarat High Court, in 2009, acquitted him of the
crime, but
held him guilty of kidnapping her by enticing her to flee with him. "Such 'enticement' need not be direct
or immediate in time and can also be through subtle actions like winning over the affection of a minor
girl. However,
mere recovery of a missing minor from the custody of a stranger would not ipso facto
establish the offence of
kidnapping," the apex court upheld the High Court verdict.

Kidnapping means removing an individual without wanting his/her will forcibly, threat or deceit.
Normally, the motivation
behind the kidnapping is to get a ransom, or for some political or different
purposes and so. Kidnapping is classified
into 2 categories in Section 359 of the IPC and defined in
Section 360 and 361 of the IPC. As per section 360,
assuming any individual takes an individual past
the restrictions of India against the assent of that individual or
against the assent of somebody who is
legitimately qualified to give assent for that individual's benefit, and then the
offence of the offense of
kidnapping from India is committed. Section 361of IPC explains kidnapping from lawful
guardianship.
Whoever takes or entices any minor under sixteen years old if a male, or less than eighteen years
old
if a female, or any individual of unsound mind, out of the keeping of the legitimate guardian of such
minor or
individual of unsound mind, without the consent of such guardian, is said to kidnap such
minor or individual from
lawful guardianship.

Section 362 of the Indian Penal Code defines abduction. It says that if a person compels another
person to go from
one place, or induces some person to go from one place, then the offence of
abduction is committed.

Thus, Abduction is an offence in which a person is moved from one place, against his/her will by
forceful compulsion
or by use of deceitful means.

This section merely gives a definition of the word "abduction" which occurs in some of the penal
provisions which
follow. There is no such offence as abduction under the Code, but abduction with
certain intent is an offence.
Force or fraud is essential.

Ingredients- this section requires two things:

• Forceful compulsion or inducement by deceitful means.

• The object of such compulsion or inducement must be the going of a person from any place.
Q 71. 30245929 Ankita was a minor girl of 10 years who was playing in her courtyard when Ansh who
was her neighbour
came to her and lured her to his house by promising her chocolate. When Ankita's
mother and aunt were
searching for her and they reached Ansh's house. Ansh panicked from this and
therefore stabbed both.
Decide whether Ansh will be liable?
a) Ansh will not be liable as mens rea was not present on his part.
b) Ansh will only be liable for Kidnapping as there was mens rea for that act.
c) Ansh will be liable for both kidnapping and culpable homicide.
d) Ansh will be liable for abduction as it was a series of events.
Q 72. 30245929 Tarun was fond of watching Crime Scenes, a television show which mainly solves
crime-related mysteries.
He got inspired by all these episodes and planned to kidnap Naman who
belonged to a well-established
family, which was not known to Tarun. He acted just as he learnt from
the series but he got caught by the
local police. In his defence, he said that he only wanted to try his
hands while mimicking the series. Decide?
a) He will not be liable as his intentions were not malafide.
b) He will be liable for kidnapping a minor out of lawful guardianship.
c) He will not be liable as he got inspired by the television series.
d) He will not be liable as he just wanted to try his hands while mimicking.
Q 73. 30245929 Barfi was in love with Jhilmil who was a person of unsound mind. They both met at a
bus stop when Barfi
noticed that Jhilmil was alone and was looking for her guardian. He took her
home and took care of her.

Jhimlil guardians filed a complaint against Barfi for the offence of
kidnapping. Decide whether he will be
liable for offence?
a) No, as he did not take Jhilmil out of her lawful guardianship.
b) Yes, as Jhilmil was a minor who was lost.
c) No, as Jhilmil's guardians were not present when he took her with him.
d) Yes, as Jhilmil was of unsound mind and Barfi took her out of the legal guardianship.
Q 74. 30245929 In the above given case, consider that Jhilmil was above 18 years old and was at
home when Barfi asked
her to marry him saying that now she is a major and could marry anyone. As
both loved each other,
Jhilmil went to Barfi's home and they got married. Jhilmil's guardian filed a
complaint against Barfi for
kidnapping their daughter. Decide whether Barfi would be liable?
a) Yes, as she was of unsound mind and Barfi took her out of lawful guardianship.
b) No, as Barfi did not take her out of the keeping of lawful guardianship.
c) Yes, because persons of unsound minds are not capable of making a decision.
d) No, because Jhilmil herself went to Barfi.
Q 75. 30245929 Zeeshan was asked by Gautam to go with them in their jeep with an objective of
settling a dispute which
Zeeshan had with Nanda. Zeeshan got dressed up properly and left with
Gautam but when both Zeeshan
and Nanda met, they entered a huge fight which resulted in the
death of Zeeshan. His wife filed a suit of
abduction against Gautam. Decide?
a) She will be successful as the fight caused the life of her husband.
b) She will not be successful as Zeeshan was not forced to go with Gautam.
c) She will be successful as this was a prior plan of conspiracy between Gautam and Nanda.
d) She will not be successful as Gautam merely gave lift to him in good faith.
based on each
the passage.

Passage – 3

Medical negligence is considered to be one of the most crucial concerns not just in our country but
throughout the
world. While considering the issue, the Hon'ble Supreme Court in Kusum Sharma &
Ors. v. Batra Hospital &
Medical Research Centre and Ors placed reference to the Halsbury's Laws of
England, 4th Edn., Vol. 26 pp.
17-18, wherein it was defined as "22. Negligence. - Duties owed to
patient. A person who holds himself out as
ready to give medical advice or treatment impliedly
undertakes that he is possessed of skill and knowledge for the
purpose. Such a person, whether he is
a registered medical practitioner or not, who is consulted by a patient,

owes him certain duties,
namely, a duty of care in deciding whether to undertake the case; a duty of care in
deciding what
treatment to give; and a duty of care in his administration of that treatment. A breach of any of these
duties will support an action for negligence by the patient." Thus, there are 3 components of medical
negligence:

• Existence of legal duty

• Breach of legal duty

• Damage caused by such breach

There are various kinds of situations which amount to medical negligence by a medical professional
such as
incorrect diagnosis, deferred diagnosis, inaccurate surgery, long term negligent treatment,
childbirth and labour
malpractice, needless surgery and erroneous administration of anesthesia etc.

If a patient has suffered an injury the doctor might not be held liable for negligence. In case of error of
judgement by
the doctor, he shall not be charged against any such actions. The Courts have
observed that merely because the
doctor choose an different procedure/ treatment to cure the
problem and it did not work as expected, will not make
him liable. One must prove that there was
breach of duty on his part. A doctor performing his duty with due care
and caution could not be held
liable for negligence.

The Hon'ble Supreme Court in Dr. Laxman Balkrishna Joshi Vs. Dr. Trimbak Bapu Godbole had
observed that
every doctor must exercise reasonable "standard of care" that are set out in the
profession. Any breach towards
these duties shall hold him liable for medical negligence. A medical
professional or hospital shall be held liable for
all actions against the patients where they have not
taken proper standard of care and it has resulted in suffering
on part of the patient. The burden of
proof shall lie on the complainant to prove a case of negligence.
Q 76. 30245929 Chanda was hit by a car on her way back home and she was rushed to the hospital
nearby where she
claimed that she will provide all the required money within time. After some initial
surgery, the hospital
demanded Rs.8000 and when she was not able to pay the sum, they denied to
proceed to the next surgery.
She rushed to another hospital and on her way, she died due to huge
blood loss as another hospital was
5 kms away. Decide?
a) The hospital will not be liable as it was her decision to get treated in another hospital.
b) The hospital was liable as they denied to proceed with the surgery required.
c) The hospital will not be liable as Chanda did not die in the hospital.
d) The hospital will not be liable as it followed the due procedure required.
Q 77. 30245929 Ashu lost one of his hands due to an accident and went to a hospital 1km away from
the place of an accident
with his amputated hand. It is believed that in such cases the hand can be
fixed if the person is treated within
a specific period. Due to the unavailability of required anaesthesia,
the hospital performed the surgery by

giving a mild dosage since the surgery must be performed
within time. Decide whether this is medical
negligence?
a) No, as it was necessary to perform the surgery within the time.
b) Yes, as the hospital did not perform reasonable care.
c) No, as there was no breach of duty on the part of the hospital.

d) No, as the hospital gave the mild dosage.
Q 78. 30245929 Kamal was suffering from an incurable disease and for this, she had to be
administered with 20ml of weekly
dosage which the doctor prescribed. For this, she has appointed a
nurse who worked in the same hospital
in which the doctor was employed. One day the nurse
mistakenly gave 50ml of dosage and this caused
paralysis to Kamal. Decide who will be liable?
a) The doctor will be liable as he did not warn about the damage which can be caused.
b) The nurse will be liable as she did not act with due and reasonable care.
c)
The hospital will be liable as both the doctor and the nurse were employed there and both were liable.
d) The nurse will not be liable as she is not a medical professional to act with due care.
Q 79. 30245929 Saumya met with an accident and she was taken to the hospital by one of the
ambulances which were hired
by a private contractor for the hospital. Due to insufficient oxygen
cylinders available in the ambulance,
Saumya died on the way to the hospital. Decide who will be
liable when the hospital was under a duty to
continuously check whether there is a sufficient cylinder?
a) The contractor will be liable as he was the employer of the ambulance driver.
b)
The hospital will be liable as the ambulance worked for the hospital and it was their duty to check the
cylinders.
c) The ambulance driver alone will be liable for not informing of the shortage of cylinders.
d) No one will be liable as it was an act of God.
Q 80. 30245929 During the gas leakage in the city of Bhopal, most of the civilians rushed to their
nearest hospital. Mr X was
a senior doctor in hospital Z. Since the composition of the gas which was
released was not known by him,
he refused to proceed with any surgeries. This caused a lot of havoc
and people started being aggressive
with the doctors. As one of the symptoms showed that there was
no adequate amount of water and minerals
in the patient's body, Mr X proceeded with the use of
Intravenous drips. Later on, it was known that the gas
was Methyl Isocyanate, which reacts with water.
Most of the patients died. Decide whether Mr X will be
liable?
a) Yes, as a medical practitioner he was under a duty to work with due care.
b) No, as he first refused to proceed with the surgeries.
c) Yes, as there was no knowledge and skill for the purpose.
d) No, as Mr X exercised a reasonable standard of care.
based on each
the passage.

Passage – 4

In normal circumstances, the creator or the author of the work is the owner of the work and therefore
entitled to get
the copyright for the work. Where the author of the work is employed by another
person, the work belongs to the
employer of the author. And where the creation of the works is
incidental, but not the purpose, the work belongs to
the authors. But in practice, out of the contractual
agreement between the employer and the employee, the creation
during the course of employment
would be belonging to the employer.

According to Section 17 of the Copyright Act, 1957, the author of a work shall be the first owner of the
copyright.
"Author" means as contained in the Act, "(i) in relation to a literary or dramatic work, the
author of the work; (ii) in
relation to a musical work, the composer; (iii) in relation to an artistic work
other than a photograph, the artist;
(iv) in relation to a photograph, the person taking the photograph;
(v) in relation to a cinematograph film or
sound recording, the producer; and (vi) in relation to any
literary, dramatic, musical or artistic work which is
computer-generated, the person who causes the
work to be created."

Hence, we can say that the following are the owners of the copyrights:

• In musical sound recordings: lyricist, composer, singer, musician and the person or company who
produced
the sound recording

• In works by journalists during their employment: in the absence of any agreement to the contrary, the
proprietor

• In works produced for valuable consideration at the instance of another person: in the absence of
any
agreement to the contrary, the person at whose instance the work is produced

There are certain cases or in other words exceptions to the general rule that the author of a work shall
be the first
owner of the copyright. These circumstances are enumerated in the Proviso to Section 17
of the Copyright Act.

For instance, in the case of a literary, dramatic or artistic work made by the author in the course of his
employment
by the proprietor of a newspaper, magazine or similar periodical under a contract of
service or apprenticeship,
for the purpose of publication, the said proprietor shall (in the absence of
any agreement to the contrary) be the
first owner of the copyright in the work in so far as the copyright
relates to the publication of the work in any

newspaper, magazine or similar periodical, or to the
reproduction of the work for the purpose of its being so
published, but in all other respects, the author
shall be the first owner of the copyright in the work.
Q 81. 30245929 Aditya was a painter who used to draw live paintings in the city of New York. Aman
when heard about him
went straight for a live painting. A very beautiful picture was drawn by Aditya
and it was looking worth a
million. Aman wanted to sell it as the work was owned by him. Decide
whether he will be successful in
selling the painting?
a) He can sell the painting as the work belonged to him.
b) He cannot sell the painting as the copyright is only with the painter.
c) He can sell it as he had already paid the painter for the work.
d) He cannot sell as the copyright belongs to no one.
Q 82. 30245929 Nikki was a law student who was pursuing her law degree from one of the National
Law Universities.
During her college years, she started writing legal essays for a person who hired her
and used to publish
them in his name and in return she was given an amount equal to her work.
Decide whether it is a case of
copyright infringement and if there is a locus standi for Nikki?
a) No infringement, as consideration was given to Nikki.
b) Infringement, as the copyright remains with the creator if payment is given to them.
c) No infringement, as Nikki worked as an employee under the person.
d) Infringement, as the labour, skill and knowledge belong to Nikki.
Q 83. 30245929 Abhishek was an employee who used to work under Sahil in a music studio where
they use to compose
music and lyrics together. Abhishek also used to compose music as a freelancer
in his home.
One of his works as a freelancer went viral. Sahil filed a suit against him for the
ownership of the copyright.
Will he be successful?
a) Yes, as Abhishek is the employee under Sahil.
b) No, as the work was not created during the course of employment.
c) Yes, as every work created within the course of employment belongs to the employer.
d) No, as Abhishek mainly worked as a freelancer and not as an employee.
Q 84. 30245929 Subhangi worked under Ranbir as a journalist. One of the clauses of the agreement
was that the ownership
of the work will belong to the employer if that work is being published.
Shubhangi wrote a newsletter regarding
how equal opportunity is not being given to women in India,
during their employment. This work was not
published citing the reason that it is not a trending topic.
The work was later published by an international
publication. Ranbir filed a suit for ownership of the
work. Decide?
a) The ownership will lie with Ranbir as he is the employer.
b) Subhangi will have the ownership right as she is the creator of the work.
c)
The ownership right will be given to Ranbir as the work was made during the course of employment.
d) Ownership will belong to Subhangi as this work of hers was not published.
Q 85. 30245929 In which of the following work, the copyright will not belong to the employer even
when it is being done during
the course of employment?

I. In the case of an engraving made by a person on a stone

II. In the case of lyrics written by the lyricist

III. In a case when a book was written by a writer
a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) None of the above
based on each
the passage.

Passage – 5

Human trafficking like slavery is the exploitation of humans for personal or financial gains. The victims
are subjected
to fraud or coercion for the purpose of commercial sex, debt bondage or involuntary
labour. Children are considered
easy targets for trafficking due to their inexperience, innocence and
naivety. It is relatively easy to manipulate them
with empty promises and lies. Human trafficking is
mainly divided into three types namely sex trafficking, forced
labour and domestic servitude.

According to section 370 of IPC 'Whoever, for the purpose of exploitation, (a) recruits, (b) transports,
(c) harbours,
(d) transfers, or receives a person or persons by using threats, or using force, or any
other form of coercion,
or by abduction, or by practising fraud or deception, or by abuse of power, or
by inducement, including the giving or
receiving of payments or benefits, in order to achieve the
consent of any person having control over the person
recruited, transported, harboured, transferred or
received, commits the offence of trafficking. According to this
section, exploitation includes physical or
sexual exploitation, slavery, servitude or forced removal of organs.
The consent of the victim to any of
these acts is immaterial. The punishment for this offence is imprisonment for
a term which from seven
years to ten years along with a fine, although when the offence involves the trafficking of
more than
one persons the punishment is imprisonment for a term of ten years which may extend to life
imprisonment. According to this section, exploitation includes physical or sexual exploitation, slavery,
servitude or
forced removal of organs.

Section 371 of IPC says Habitual imports, exports, trafficking, buying, selling etc in slaves, shall be
punished with
imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment for a term not exceeding ten years, and shall
also be liable to fine.
According to Section 374 Unlawful compulsory labour against the will of the
person shall be punished with
imprisonment extending up to one year, or with fine, or both. Section
368 says, Whoever wrongfully conceals or
keeps in confinement, kidnapped or abducted person shall
be punished in the same manner as the kidnapper or
abductor himself

The Constitution of India under Article 23 Trafficking in humans and forced labour is prohibited and is
punishable in
accordance with law. Similarly, Article 24 It states that any child under the age of
fourteen years shall not work in
any hazardous employment like factories.
Q 86. 30245929 Vimla was travelling by train when she found a woman (22 years old) begging. She
instantly had an idea to
keep that woman as a maid as she was looking for one. She forced the
woman to work as a servant in her
home, and took the woman to her home. Vimla's neighbour
reported the crime of human trafficking. Decide?
a) Vimla will not be liable as the woman was not a minor.

b) Vimla will not be liable as only the trafficking of children are punishable.
c) She will be liable for human trafficking as she recruited the women.
d) She will be liable as there was no family connection between the two.
Q 87. 30245929 Kamal generated pain in his abdomen and he went to a doctor named Jamaal who
was an expert in it.
Jamaal prescribed surgery to him and Kamal also consented to the same. After a
few weeks of the surgery
Kamal again had acute pain in the abdomen and this time, he went to Polo
Hospital where he got to know
that there was only one functional kidney in his body and the second
was removed without him knowing.
Decide?
a) Jamaal will not be liable as Kamal already consented to surgery.
b) Jamaal will be liable for the forced removal of an organ.
c) Jamaal will not be liable as he removed the kidney in good faith.

d) Both (a) and (c)
Q 88. 30245929 Kanta abducted Shikha and asked for ransom from her family. When they refused to
provide it and instead
went to Police for help, Kanta forcefully sent Shikha to Raja for consideration as
Raja used to put children in
the hazardous factories. Decide who will be liable?
a) Only Kanta, as he abducted Shikha.

b) Only Raja, as she was indulged in human trafficking.
c) Both Kanta and Raja for the offence of abduction and human trafficking.
d) None of the as ransom was not given by Kanta's family.
Q 89. 30245929 Which of the following provisions is not associated with the offence of human
trafficking?
a) Section 371 and 370 of IPC b) Articles 23 and 24 of the Constitution
c) Section 374 of IPC d) None
Q 90. 30245929 Gangu was in love with Hitesh and she aspired to be an actor while living in a small
village. Hitesh gave her
hope that she can fulfil her dream but she has to escape from her house
without informing her parents.
Gangu did the same but Hitesh took her to a different place and traded
her off for sexual exploitation.
Decide whether he will be liable?
a) No, as Gangu's consent was already there to join Hitesh.

b) Yes, as this is an offence under Section 370 of IPC.
c) No, as Gangu was not a minor or a child who could be enticed.
d) No, as both Gangu and Hitesh were in love with each other.
based on each
the passage.

Passage – 6

Consideration is the foundation of every contract and one of the essential elements thereof. The law
insists on the
existence of consideration if a promise is to be enforced as creating legal obligations. In
the absence of consideration,
a promise or undertaking is purely gratuitous and therefore creates no
legal binding effect. Consideration must be
of two-directional nature. That means both parties should
get benefitted mutually. The term "consideration" means
something in return i.e. quid pro quo.
Consideration may be in the form of cash, goods, act or abstinence.
A promise without consideration
is null and void. It is called a naked promise.

Essential Elements of Consideration

• Consideration must move at desire of the promisor: Any act performed at the desire of the third party
or
without the desire of the promisor cannot be a valid consideration.

• It may move from the promisee or any other person: It is immaterial who furnishes the consideration
&
therefore may move from the promisee or any other person. This means that even a stranger to the
consideration can sue on a contract, provided he is a party to the contract

• Consideration may be of past, present or future: Past Consideration is a consideration for the act
done in
past or which has already moved before the formation of the agreement is a past
consideration.
Present Consideration is when both the parties are ready to give consideration at the
same time or the
consideration which moves simultaneously with the promise is a present
consideration. Future Consideration
happens when a party promises to do or to abstain from doing
something in future, it is a future consideration.

• Consideration need not to be adequate: Consideration must actually be of some value in the eyes of
law,
that 'something' can be adequate or grossly inadequate. An agreement to which the consent of
the promisor
is freely given is not void merely because the consideration is inadequate; but the
inadequacy of the consideration may be taken into account by the Court in determining the question
whether the consent of the
promisor was freely given.

• Consideration must be real: It should not be uncertain, illusory or impossible.

• Consideration must be lawful: For a valid contract it is necessary that the consideration should be
lawful,
otherwise it will become void and unenforceable i.e. it must not be illegal, immoral or opposed
to public
policy.

• Must be something other than the promisor's existing obligation: Consideration must be something
which
the promisor is not already bound to do because a promise to do what a promisor is already
bound to do
adds nothing to the existing obligation.
Q 91. 30245929 During a strike in the sugar factory, the owner of the factory asked the police who
were deployed for the
factories and other different factories nearby, to pay extra attention and be
stationed near the sugar factory
only. The owner also promised to give extra money to them. But in
the end, he refused to pay saying that the
police have just carried out their duty. Decide?
a) Police cannot ask for money as they just carried out their duty.
b) The owner has no power to ask a public servant for extra attention.
c) The consideration was void in nature because the act was against public policy.
d) The police can ask for money as they have provided extra protection.
Q 92. 30245929 Utkarsh's pet jumped from a cruise ship in an ocean. Harsh rushes to save his dog.
In a show of gratitude,
Utkarsh promises to pay Harsh a sum of Rs. 2,00,000. Decide whether Harsh
is entitled to money and
whether it is a past, present or future consideration?
a)
Present consideration, as both the event of saving the pet and promising the sum was at the same
time.
b) Past consideration, as the event of saving the pet, was done in the past.
c) Future consideration, as the promise to pay the sum, was for the future.
d) No consideration at all, as this was an act of humanity.
Q 93. 30245929 Ravish was a carpenter and Dhyani was the owner of SPAN hotel for which she
wanted some furniture.
Ravish promised to give 100 tables to Dhyani and in return, she promised to
pay at the time the furniture will
be received. Decide which type of consideration it is?
a) Past consideration as the money will be paid for the furniture made before.
b) Present consideration as the furniture given and money paid will happen simultaneously.
c) Future consideration as the agreement is being made for the events which will be done in future.
d) Both Past and Present Considerations.
Q 94. 30245929 X belonged to the non-ruling party in Andhra Pradesh. During the election period, X
wanted a ticket for her
area and he made an agreement with the head of the party that she will be
given a ticket and in return,
she will file a fake rape case against the present CM. After filing the suit,
she was not given the ticket.
She claimed that there was a contract with a valid consideration.
Decide?
a) The claim was valid as she acted on the agreement.
b) The claim will not be valid as the consideration was immoral and against public order.
c) The claim will be valid as there was a valid contract.
d) The claim will be invalid as there was no consent from the leader of the party.
Q 95. 30245929 Anshu was a wedding photographer who was hired by the bride's side and he was
promised an amount of
Rs. 2,50,000 for three days of which 50,000 was already given by the groom
and the rest was promised to
be given after work. After the work was done by him, he was furnished
the rest of the amount by the bride's
side. He claimed the money from the groom also. Decide?
a) The claim will not be successful as he has been already the money by the bride.
b) The claim will be successful as the groom has promised to pay not the bride.
c) The claim will not be successful as consideration can be given by anyone.
d) Both (a) and (c)
based on each
the passage.

Passage – 7

Defamation as the meaning of the word suggests is an injury to the reputation of a person resulting
from a
statement which is false. Section 499 says that whoever, by words either spoken or intended to
be read, or by
signs or by visible representations, makes or publishes any imputation concerning any
person intending to harm,
or knowing or having reason to believe that such imputation will harm, the
reputation of such person, is said,
except in the cases hereinafter excepted, to defame that person.

Essentials of Defamation

• The statement must be defamatory: The test to check if a particular statement is defamatory or not
will
depend upon how the right thinking members of society are likely to take it.

• The statement must refer to the plaintiff: In an action for defamation, the plaintiff has to prove that the
statement of which he Complains referred to him, it will be immaterial that the defendant did not intend
to
defame the plaintiff.

• The statement must be published: Publication of defamatory statement to some person other than
the
person defamed is a most important aspect for making any person liable, and unless that is done,
no action
for defamation will lie.

Forms of Defamation

• Slander- It is the publication of a defamatory statement in a transient form.

• Libel- It is the representation made in some permanent form.

Indian law does not make any distinction between libel and slander and both are treated as criminal
offenses under
section 499 IPC.

• Innuendo: A statement is prima facie defamatory when its natural and obvious meaning leads to that
conclusion.
Sometimes it may happen that the statement was prima facie innocent but because of
some secondary
meaning, it may be considered to be defamatory. For this secondary instance plaintiff
must prove the
secondary meaning i.e. innuendo which makes the statement defamatory.

• Defamation of class of persons: When particular words spoken are referred to a group of individuals
or a
class of persons, then no single person of that group or class can sue unless he proves that the
words
could reasonably be considered to referring him.

• Communication between husband and wife: In the eyes of law, both husband and wife are one
person and
the communication of a defamatory matter from the husband to the wife or vice versa is
no publication and
will not come within the purview of section 499.

The defences to an action for defamation are

1. Justification of truth

2. Fair comment: It must be a comment i.e. an expression of opinion rather than an assertion of fact
and must
be fair and must be of public interest.

3. Qualified privilege- This privilege is also available and under this, it is necessary that the statement
must
have been made without a malice i.e a wrongful intention.
Q 96. 30245929 Saloni was being stalked by Shaurya continuously and later a fake account of her
was created and it was
used to spread hate comments and obscene messages to Saloni's friends.
Decide Shaurya will be liable
under which offence?
a) Shaurya will be liable only for stalking Saloni. b)

Shaurya will be liable for the defamation of
Saloni.
c) d) Shaurya will not be liable.
Shaurya will be liable only for spreading hate
comments.
Q 97. 30245929 Ansari used to speak in public gatherings and was a well-recognised person who
posted his videos on
Facebook. In his previous video, he made hate comments regarding the
dressing of women saying that
"Women who wear short length dress must be boycotted by the
society". Akanksha, a feminist filed a
defamation case against him. Will she be successful?
a) Yes, as the statement was defamatory in nature.
b) No, because the statement was against a class of person.

c) Yes, as she has the right to file a suit being a feminist.
d) No, as there was no authenticity that the statement was made by him.
Q 98. 30245929 Raushan was the owner of a pharmaceutical shop and Vishal was his helper. One
day when Raushan was
leaving while handing the work to Vishal, he made a statement that "Sell
nothing to Aditya unless he pays you
money, as I am doubtful of his honesty." Aditya filed a suit for
defamation?
a) Raushan will be liable for making a defamatory statement.
b) Raushan will not be liable as the comment made was without any malicious intention.
c) Raushan will be given qualified privilege.
d) Both (b) and (c)
Q 99. 30245929 Manoj wrote a letter to Sita who was his wife, complaining about her attitude,
manners and character and
made a defamatory statement regarding the non-furnishing of dowry
demand. Sita filed a defamation suit
against Manoj. Decide whether she will be successful?
a) b)
Yes, as the statements were defamatory against No, as it was a statement not specifically against
her. Sita.
c) Yes, as Sita has the locus standi to file a suit. d) No, as there was no publication of the letter.
Q 100. 30245929 Nishant was fond of plants and he planted many shrubs and plants in his hostel
room He used to ask the
gardener from his college to fill the pots with soil. One day the head of the
gardener found that some of the
exotic plants were missing and he remembered that Nishant was
asking about them with great interest.
The head made a statement to all the gardeners that "The theft
must be done by a person who is fond of
exotic plants". Nishant filed a defamation suit. Decide?
a) Nishant will be successful as the comment referred to him.

b) Nishant will not be successful as there was no mention of his name.
c) Nishant will not be successful as it was a general comment.
d) Nishant will be successful as he was the only one having plants in the hostel.
based on each
the passage.

Passage – 8

According to Section 339 of the Indian Penal Code; "Whoever voluntarily obstructs any person so as
to prevent
that person from proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed, is
said wrongfully to
restrain that person." Further, the section also lays down an exception, which is that
if a person in good faith
believes himself to have a lawful right to obstruct and so obstruct a private
way over land or water, then it does not
amount to wrongful restraint.

According to Section 340 of the Indian Penal Code; "Whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such
a manner
as to prevent that person from proceeding beyond certain circumscribing limits is said to
have committed the
offence of wrongful confinement." To constitute an offence under this section the
period of confinement is immaterial.

Whoever wrongfully confines any person shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for
a term
which may extend to one year, or with a fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with
both. Section 343
says whoever wrongfully confines any person for three days, or more, shall be
punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with
fine, or with both. Section 344: whoever
wrongfully confines any person for ten days, or more, shall be
punished with imprisonment of either description for
a term which may extend to three years and shall
also be liable to fine. Section 345: Whoever keeps any person in
wrongful confinement, knowing that
a writ for the liberation of that person has been duly issued, shall be punished
with imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to two years in addition to any term of
imprisonment to
which he may be liable under any other section of this chapter. Section 346: Whoever wrongfully
confines any person in such manner as to indicate an intention that the confinement of such person
may not be
known to any person interested in the person so confined, or to any public servant, or that
the place of such
confinement may not be known to or discovered by any such person or public
servant as hereinafter mentioned,
shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to two years in addition to
any other punishment to which he may be liable for such
wrongful confinement. Section 347: whoever wrongfully
confines any person for the purpose of
extorting shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a
term which may extend to
three years, and shall also be liable to fine. Section 348: whoever wrongfully confines
any person for
the purposes of extorting confession or any information which may lead to detection of an offence
or
misconduct shall be punished.
Q 101. 30245929 Aryan was the owner of the property in which Abhishek was a tenant. Aryan was
living on the top floor and
since he was the owner of the property, he prohibited Abhishek to use the
terrace as it causes a lot of
disturbance. Decide whether Aryan will be liable?
a) Aryan will be liable for wrongful restrain as he restricted Abhishek.

b) Aryan will not be liable as he was the owner of the property.
c) Aryan will not be liable as the restriction was justified in nature.
d) Aryan will be liable because he himself chose to live on the top floor.
Q 102. 30245929 Dubey was a police inspector who arrested Gajni on suspicion that he has
committed the offence of theft.
Gajni was treated inhumanely in the process of accepting the crime.
Meanwhile, a writ of habeas corpus
was issued for the release of Gajni and the notice of the same
was given to Dubey but he did not act on it and
continued to torture Gajni. Can Dubey be held liable?
a) No, as he was just discharging his duty.
b) Yes, as the writ of habeas corpus was already issued.
c) No, as Dubey was a police inspector and was acting in good faith.
d) Yes, as he was treating Gajni inhumanly.
Q 103. 30245929 The income tax officials conducted a raid on the house of Anant Sharma and they
were informed that during
this period they are not allowed to leave the premises and cannot talk on
their phones. Anant Sharma filed a
suit against the officials under Section 340 of the IPC making them
liable for wrongful confinement as no
prior notice was given to Anant Sharma. Decide?
a) Officials will be liable as they were restricted within the four walls of their house.
b) Officials will not be liable as they were only discharging their duty.
c)
Officials will be held liable as they were also prohibited to use their phones which make the situation
grave.
d) Both (a) and (c)
Q 104. 30245929 Mahesh parked his car in front of Kartik's gate in good faith believing that the
passage is a public one but due
to this Kartik was unable to open his gate and leave the house. Kartik
somehow managed to escape the
house from his backdoor as there was a swamp in his backyard.
Can Kartik file a suit against Mahesh for
wrongful confinement?
a) Yes, as there was a swamp in his backyard which completely restrained him.
b) Yes, as Kartik was unable to leave his house for some time.
c) No, as there was a way to leave the house.

d) No, as Mahesh parked his car in good faith.
Q 105. 30245929 Decide which of the situation is neither Wrongful restrain nor Wrongful
Confinement?

I. Kanta deployed men with guns outside Manmit's building and said that if she ever tried to escape
then
she will be shot down.

II. Ramesh restricted Suresh to proceed forward on a pathway because there was construction work
going
on and people were not allowed there.

III. Suraj called and threaten Shalima not to leave her house or else she will be shot down.
a) Both I and III b) Both II and III c) Only II d) Only III
Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 106 to 135: Read the passages and answer the questions that follow.

Passage – 1

Do people still read Rudyard Kipling's "If"? Even if you haven't, you probably know how it begins: "If
you can keep
your head when all about you/ Are losing theirs…" Refusing to panic, Kipling asserted,
was a great virtue.

But during a bank run, refusing to panic can also be a way to losing all your money.

The Nobel Prize in Economics was given to a household name, Ben S. Bernanke, and two
economists' economists,
Douglas W. Diamond and Philip H. Dybvig, largely for papers they published
almost 40 years ago. So, let's talk
about their work and why, unfortunately, it remains all too relevant.

Obviously, Bernanke, Diamond and Dybvig weren't the first economists to notice that bank runs
happen.
But Diamond and Dybvig provided the first really clear analysis of why they happen - and
why, destructive as they
are, they can represent rational behavior on the part of bank depositors. Their
analysis was also full of implications
for financial policy. At the same time, Bernanke provided
evidence on why bank runs matter and, although he
avoided saying so directly, why Milton Friedman
was wrong about the causes of the Great Depression.

Diamond and Dybvig offered a stylized but insightful model of what banks do. They argued that there
is always a
tension between individuals' desire for liquidity - ready access to funds - and the
economy's need to make
long-term investments that can't easily be converted into cash.

Banks square that circle by taking money from depositors who can withdraw their funds at will -
making those
deposits highly liquid - and investing most of that money in illiquid assets, such as
business loans.

So banking is a productive activity that makes the economy richer by reconciling otherwise
incompatible desires
for liquidity and productive investment. And it normally works because only a
fraction of a bank's depositors wants
to withdraw their funds at any given time.

This does, however, make banks vulnerable to runs. Suppose that for some reason many depositors
come to
believe that many other depositors are about to cash out, and try to beat the pack by
withdrawing their own funds.
To meet these demands for liquidity, a bank will have to sell off its illiquid
assets at fire sale prices, and doing so
can drive an institution that should be solvent into bankruptcy.
If that happens, people who didn't withdraw their

funds will be left with nothing. So, during a panic, the
rational thing to do is to panic along with everyone else.
Q 106. 30245929 What according to you is the objective of the study of the given passage?
a) Highlighting the tension which permeates through bankers and tellers across society.
b) Highlighting the causes behind the public's desire for a bank run.
c) Highlighting the economical and psychological reasons which prompt a bank run.
d) Highlighting the social causes which push depositors to go for a bank run.
Q 107. 30245929 Read the following and select the best answer.

I. Diamond and Dybvig had covered uncharted territories in their work on bank runs.
II. The causes behind the Great Depression were erroneously accounted for till Bernanke's work was
published.
a) I is true. b) II is true. c) Both are false. d) Both are true.
Q 108. 30245929 Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
a) Majority of depositors are unperturbed about their bank deposits.
b) Irrationality among depositors can save banks from bank runs.

c) Panic stricken people are vulnerable in nature.
d) Herd mentality is a rational behaviour.
Q 109. 30245929 Which of the following is a valid assumption?
a) Depositors are forever wary of bankruptcy.
b) Economists differ from individuals on their desire to hold on to long-term assets.
c) The author is a behaviourist looking at an economics theory.
d) Individuals are governed by short term consumerist desires.
Q 110. 30245929 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
a) Banks are sustained as well ruined by depositors.
b) Banks are responsible for the rise in individual business ventures.
c) Banks offer both securities as well anxious moments to depositors.

d) Banks lose their potency to the desires of the individual.

Passage – 2

Ahead of the 27th Conference of the Parties of the UNFCCC (COP 27), in Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt, in
November,
the Union Cabinet has approved India's Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC), a
formal statement detailing
its action plan to address climate change. The 2015 Paris Agreement
requires countries to spell out a pathway to
ensure the globe does not heat beyond 2°C, and
endeavor to keep it below 1.5°C by 2100. The subsequent COPs
are a quibbling arena where
countries coax, cajole and make compromises on the cuts they can undertake over
multi-decadal
timelines with the least impact on their developmental priorities. While the end product of the COP
is a
joint agreement, signed by all member countries, the real business begins after, where countries must
submit
NDCs every five years, mapping what will be done post-2020 to stem fossil-fuel emissions.
India's first NDC,
in 2015, specified eight targets, the most salient of them being reducing the
emissions intensity of GDP by 33%-
35% (of 2005 levels) by 2030, having 40% of its installed
electricity capacity sourced from renewable energy,
and creating an additional carbon sink of 2.5-3
billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent through forest and tree cover by
2030. Being a large, populous
country, India has high net emissions but low per-capita emissions. It has also,
by participating in
COPs for decades, made the case that the existing climate crisis is largely due to industrialization
by
the U.S. and developed European countries since 1850. However, years of negotiations, international
pressure,
and clearer evidence of the multi-dimensional impact of climate change have seen India
agree to move away from
fossil fuels over time.

At COP 26 in Glasgow in 2021, Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid out five commitments, or
'Panchamrit', as the
Government references it, which included India increasing its non-fossil energy
capacity to 500 GW by 2030 and
achieving "Net Zero" by 2070, or no net carbon dioxide emitted from
energy sources. However, the press statement
on the Cabinet decision was silent on whether India
would cut emissions by a billion tons and on creating carbon
sinks. While India is within its right to
specify its emissions pathway, it should not - at any forum - promise more
than what it can deliver as
this undermines the moral authority that India brings to future negotiations. India has
expressed its
intent, via several legislations, to use energy efficiently and many of its biggest corporations have
committed to shifting away from polluting energy sources. Going ahead, these should be grounds for
India, at its
pace, to be an exemplar for balancing energy use, development, and meeting climate
goals.
Q 111. 30245929 What do COPs insure over the years?
a) Objecting the countries to make development on the cost of environment

b) Check on developing countries and developed countries.
c) Ensures that development and environment go hand in hand.
d) Signing the environmental laws
Q 112. 30245929 What is the role of the Union cabinet before the 27th Conference of the Parties of
the UNFCCC (COP 27)?
a)
Climate crisis is largely due to industrialization by the U.S. and developed European countries since
1850.
b) Set climate goals for India
c) To bring into action "Panchamrit"
d) To ratify India's Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC),
Q 113. 30245929 Which of the following statements is false?
a) Climate change is majorly affected by developed European nations
b) Effects of high emissions can majorly be seen in India due to its huge population
c) The existing climate crisis is largely due to industrialization by the U.S.

d) India has agreed to move away from fossil fuels over time.
Q 114. 30245929 Which of the following statements is incorrect wrt the following passage?
a)
The 2022 Paris Agreement requires countries to spell out a pathway to ensure the globe does not
heat
beyond 2°C, and endeavor to keep it below 1.5°C by 2100
b)
India has agreed to move away from fossil fuels over time after pressure being put by developed
European
nations and also the effect was evident.
c)
Out of eight targets, the most noticeable one was having 40% of its installed electricity capacity
sourced
from renewable energy,
d) India's first NDC was in 2021, in Glasgow.
Q 115. 30245929 Which of the following statements justifies the last paragraph of the above
passage?
a) b) Moral Authority: Impacts of future negotiations

Prime Minister Narendra Modi: layout for c)
'Panchamrit', Sticking to commitments: On India's climate
change goals
d) Achieving "Net Zero": How and When

Passage – 3

Culture is associated with common practices, beliefs that are trusted and followed by a group of
people. It may be
related to their language, art form, living styles and so on. People are entrenched in
their culture through various
means. One of the most important means is manuscript. India is a
culturally affluent nation which is surrounded
with different forms of cultural practices. Indian culture
has been influenced by several foreign ways in the past.
And now it seems Indian culture is coming to
light again and influencing a lot of people from outside.
It is an astounding fact to know that your
culture is being cherished. Yet, one is free to follow any culture.
One should not restrict oneself to
follow a certain idea. What I mean here is observe all cultures, follow which
seems right but keep
yourself rooted to your own culture. What is important is to follow a particular form of culture
and not
to keep oneself away from such a wonderful zone.

India is a hub of cultural practices, realizing one's culture is very important. And the growing
awareness of ancient
scripts and manuscripts is amazing. If this was not to be realized soon there
would have been very few people to
let you know about your own cultural practices. The Youth in the
eyes of few people are considered to have lost
their ways of living. The younger generation is said to
follow modern trends but that is not right; today's youth is
also paying attention to their culture and its
practices. The ways may vary but one can evidence that the younger
generation is trying their best to
know their culture. Through means of social media they are even propagating
valuable ideas. Our
world is moving towards a phase of realisation in which people are able to see the need of the
time. If
one tries to delve into the pool of culture a person is socked in the power of wisdom.
Q 116. 30245929 Which of the following can replace the word 'entrenched' logically used in the first
paragraph?
a) Limited b) Centered c) Devoted d) Rooted
Q 117. 30245929 The tone of the speech at last is
a) Satiric b) Humorous c) Optimistic d) Pessimistic
Q 118. 30245929 What is the main idea in the first paragraph?
a) Culture is important as one is bound to follow one's traditions.
b) Indian culture has been corrupted by the influence of outsiders
c) One should keep oneself associated with any form of culture
d) Culture is associated with common practices, and beliefs.
Q 119. 30245929 What is true about culture?
a) All are bound to follow it b) No one is bound to follow it
c) It is custom of a particular society d) There is one universal culture
Q 120. 30245929 Why do you think the writer has talked about the youth in the second paragraph?
a) To draw attention of Youth that the writer supports younger generation
b) To eliminate the general misconception

c) The topic of culture cannot be ended without this discussion
d) For deviating the mind from the general discussion

Passage – 4

Water, being the most precious resource, is required for domestic, irrigation and industrial purposes.
River is more than an amenity; it is a treasure. It offers a necessity of life that must be rationed among
those who
have power over it. Most of the Indian rivers travel to more than one state. Each state of a
river basin tries to obtain
the maximum quantity of water. This has resulted in many water disputes in
the country. In the Indian Constitution
(1950), water is the state subject. Consequently, the state
government virtually exercises full control on planning,
development, regulation, distribution and
control of water flowing through their territories. Under Article 262 of the
Indian Constitution, the
Parliament is empowered to provide the adjudication or control of water on any interstate
river. Most
of the rivers of India traverse several states. Under the Water Dispute Act,1956, amended in 2002,
a
tribunal of three sitting judges of the Supreme Court has to be constituted by the central government
for the
settlement of an Interstate water dispute when a request is received from the state
government. According to the
Interstate water dispute in 1968, the central government has also been
given the responsibility of regulation and
development of intestate's river and river valleys to extend to
which such regulation and development under the
control of the Union is declared by the Parliament.

Many of these water disputes have been settled on the basis of equitable appointment which is the
universally
accepted principle. However, there are some interstate water disputes whose final
solution, acceptable to all
parties, has yet not been worked out.

The Kaveri dispute between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu is more than a century old. An agreement
between the
princely state of Mysuru and Madras Presidency in 1892 and 1924 over sharing water
entitling a major share to
Tamil Nadu. To solve this problem, the Kaveri dispute tribunal was formed in
1990. It was resolved by the Supreme
Court in February 2007, but the government and people of
Karnataka were not satisfied with the decision of the
court.
Q 121. 30245929 According to the passage, what does equitable apportionment stand for
a) That every state shall have equal portion of water

b) That every state near shore is entitled a fair share of water of an interstate river
c) That there can be unfair share of water according to state government wishes
d) That the decision is responsibility of Union
Q 122. 30245929 River is more than amenity, means:
a) River is more than convenience b) River is more than security
c) River is worthless d) River is more than unpleasantness
Q 123. 30245929 What is the rule according to the 1968 Interstate Water Dispute Act?
a) The states shall take their decisions on the basis of common agreement.
b) The Central Government has also been given responsibility.
c) The state government virtually exercise full control on Interstate water dispute
d) The Interstate water dispute is in full control of The Central Government
Q 124. 30245929 The government and people of Karnataka were not satisfied with the decision of
the court. What is your
opinion?
a) The People can never be satisfied.
b) Issue of water sharing should be discussed with the technical experts.

c) The disputes should continue anyway.
d) It is a personal matter of states.
Q 125. 30245929 What may be the reason for prolonged Inter Water Disputes?
a) Political ambitions and historical troubles, the desperation of water-scarce areas.
b) Fundamental Rights of People which are being violated here.
c) Acting according to the law which is not helpful in these disputes.

d) Unequal power distribution among state governments.

Passage – 5

Of all the racist episodes that the Yorkshire cricketer Azeem Rafiq recounted in his witness statement
to a UK
parliamentary committee, it's the memory failure of two individuals that tells the tale of the
state of affairs.
The current England Test captain Joe Root, who Rafiq called a "good guy", has said
he couldn't recollect any
unsavoury episodes. Azeem has made it clear that Root was present when
others called him "Paki" on many
occasions but he did not intervene. Former captain Michael
Vaughan has denied that he ever told Rafiq and three
other Asian-origin cricketers that "there are too
many of you lot". When celebrated captains don't feel the need to
confront the problem, it is no
wonder that racists, by and large, get away with it. Telling people to "sit near the loos"
or calling them
"elephant washers" (as Rafiq says Matthew Hoggard, former bowler, would do) isn't banter.
When the
system covers it up, this toxicity takes a toll on those like Rafiq who are at the receiving end.

Dr Thomas Fletcher, whose report about community engagement in the Yorkshire and England
Cricket board was
referenced in Rafiq's witness statement, told this newspaper that he didn't hear a
word from the establishment

after he had tabled it. His study tried to find out why only very few British
Asians progress through the professional
ranks when about 30 per cent of young people who play
cricket in the country belong to these groups. Racism and
other hurdles conspire to make sure that
the system turns whiter and whiter as they go forward. With Lord
Kamlesh Patel taking over Yorkshire
cricket, discussion in parliament over racism in cricket, public shaming of big
names, England cricket
finds itself at a watershed moment.
Q 126. 30245929 Which of the following will capture the meaning of the first paragraph?
a) When others behave in a racist way, then a good guy has the obligation to step in.
b) When a good guy withdraws, little hope that the conscience of others will be stirred.
c) When good guys turn racist, then one shouldn't have any expectation from others.
d) The best illustration of the extent of the problem is that even good guys are racist.
Q 127. 30245929 Which of the following, if true, will not weaken the assertion by the author?
a)
British Indian cricketers did not regularly call native Britishers by names which mocked their culture or
heritage.
b)
Hoggard called all British cricketers as "elephant washers", not just the immigrants or non-native
Britishers.
c) New and young players in a cricket team are often asked to sit near loo, in the dressing room.
d) Azeem Rafiq is not from Pakistan, yet he never corrected those who called him Paki.
Q 128. 30245929 Which of the inference can be drawn from the following statement and its context:"
Dr Thomas Fletcher,
whose report about community engagement in the Yorkshire and England
Cricket board was referenced in
Rafiq's witness statement, told this newspaper that he didn't hear a
word from the establishment after he
had tabled it"?
a) Board was not interested in reading the report. b)

Board was not concerned about the racial
discrimination.
c) d)
Board wanted to brush the whole issue under the Board did not believe in the credibility of Thomas
carpet. Fletcher.
Q 129. 30245929 Which of the following does NOT strive to weaken the idea of the author as
expressed in the statement
"Racism and other hurdles conspire to make sure that the system turns
whiter and whiter as they go
forward"?
a) Many hurdles can still be leaped over by ambition and hard work.
b) Will a parent willingly send their kid into an apparently poisoned environment?
c) Most of those who claim being racism victims were rejected early on in their career.
d) Most of those who were racially abused preferred not to complain.
Q 130. 30245929 Which of the following is an assumption inherent in the statement 'When celebrated
captains don't feel the
need to confront the problem, it is no wonder that racists, by and large, get
away with it"?
a) Captains have a right to interfere in a private conversation between players.
b) Captains are obliged to interfere if something unseemly is said or done between players.
c) Celebrated captains carry more pull with the players than other captains and hence must interject.
d) Players feel protected if they are not castigated publicly for their wrongdoing, by their captains.

Passage – 6

The move by Sudan's military to dissolve the Sovereignty Council where it shared power with civilian
leaders has
thrown the African country's fragile transition from dictatorship to democracy into chaos.
Almost three years ago,
tens of thousands of Sudanese rose against the regime of Omar al-Bashir in
what they call a "revolution"
that eventually led to the dictator's fall in April 2019. Ever since, the
military and leaders of the civilian movement
came together to form a transitional government. In their
agreement, the acting Prime Minister would run the
day-to-day affairs while the military chief would
remain the leader of the Sovereignty Council for two years. Lt. Gen.
Abdel Fattah al-Burhan, the
military chief, was scheduled to hand over the leadership of the transitional government
to the civilian
leadership in a few weeks. Instead, he disbanded the government, proclaimed himself the new
leader,
declared a state of emergency and imprisoned the civilian leaders, including Prime Minister Abdalla
Hamdok.
Tensions were brewing in recent weeks. Pro-military mobs had been carrying out protests
demanding the
government's removal amid soaring prices of essentials. Port Sudan, the country's
largest port, on the Red Sea,
had been blockaded by a tribal group, with help from the military, which
worsened the economic situation, including
acute shortages of food, currency and fuel. The civilian
leadership had accused the military of exploiting the
economic crisis. The overthrow of the Bashir
regime and the promised democratic transition were the best hopes
for Sudan to end its international
isolation, heal the wounds of decades of oppression and state violence, and build
a stable economic
and political order in an otherwise violence-ridden Horn of Africa. Sudan had taken the steps in
that
direction. The country was also gearing up to organise its first free and fair elections in decades. But
the
power-hungry generals appear to be more concerned about protecting their interests, which they
feared would be
at risk had a democratic government taken full control of the country. After all,
Sudan's military cannot absolve
itself from whatever allegations Bashir is facing.
Q 131. 30245929 Which of the following will the author disagree with?
a) Political parties should seek military help from other countries.
b) The military should restore the transition government and allow free elections.
c) Neither (a) nor (b)

d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 132. 30245929 In the context of the passage, which of the following solution for the future is the
author most likely to agree
with?

I. Military should desist from more violence.

II. Military should release all the arrested leaders and restore the transition government.

III. Military should let free elections decide the future of the country.
a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III
Q 133. 30245929 Which of the following would make the position of the military generals MOST
untenable?
a) Military rulers face a stiff challenge from the aggrieved public.

b) The protesters who brought down Bashir are back on the streets fighting for democracy.
c) A violent showdown between democratic parties and military is most likely.
d) International pressure is mounting on Sudan to extradite Bashir and others involved in war crimes.
Q 134. 30245929 Which of the following can inferred to be the biggest fear of the military rulers in
handing over the reins to the
civilian government?
a) That the political parties will seek retribution.

b) That military might lose some of its might and control in a democratic set-up.
c) That the old power sharing agreement may not be honored.
d) That military will be kept out of the democratic power structure.
Q 135. 30245929 Which of the following will strengthen the idea of the statement "Sudan had taken
the steps in that direction"?
a)
Five years back, U.S. removed Sudan from the list of state sponsors of terrorism and announced
financial
aid.
b) IMF had reached a $50 billion loan agreement with the transitional government.
c) The civilian leaders were going to send Bashir to The Hague to be prosecuted for war crimes.
d)
Some of the countries with dictatorship government like North Korea etc. have broken off ties with
Sudan.
Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The premises of a school are to be renovated. The renovation is in terms of flooring. Certain areas are
to be
floored either with marble or wood. All rooms/halls and pantry are rectangular. The area to be
renovated comprises
a hall for students' fee transaction measuring 28 m × 32 m, the branch
principal's room measuring 15 m × 18 m,
a pantry measuring 20 m × 14 m, a record keeping cum
server room measuring 23 m × 17 m and staff room
33 m × 29 m. The total area of the school is 3500
sq. m. The cost of wooden flooring is Rs.160 per sq. m and the
cost of marble flooring is Rs.180 per
sq. m. The staff room area, record keeping cum server room and pantry are
to be floored with marble.
The branch principal's room and the hall for student's fee transaction are with floored to
be wood. No
other area is to be renovated in terms of flooring.
Q 136. 30245929 What is the ratio of the total cost of wooden flooring to the total cost of marble
flooring?
a) 359 : 471 b) 213 : 363 c) 537 : 239 d) 212 : 333
Q 137. 30245929 If the four walls and ceiling of the principal's room (the height of the room is 15
metres) are to be painted at
the cost of Rs.175 per square metre, how much will be the total cost of
renovation of the principal's room
including flooring?
a) Rs.2,43,450 b) Rs.2,63,700 c) Rs.3,16,590 d) Rs.2,15,600
Q 138. 30245929 If the remaining area of the school is to be carpeted at the rate of Rs.125 per
square metre, how much will
the increase in the total cost of renovation of school premises be?
a) Rs.72,189 b) Rs.6,58,050 c) Rs.88,250 d) Rs.4,89,560
Q 139. 30245929 What is the approximate percentage area of school that is not renovated?
a) 20.17% b) 15.25% c) 17.63% d) 23.6%
Q 140. 30245929 What is the total cost of flooring of the hall for students' fee transaction and staff
room area?
a) Rs.4,28,969 b) Rs.3,75,690 c) Rs.3,15,620 d) Rs.3,52,086
Directions for questions 141 to 145: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
The number of candidates qualifying for admission to Institution A and B for the time period 2016 to
2021 has been
given below. The number of candidates that qualified for Institute B in 2017 and 2018
is 4000 each, which was 500
more than that for the year 2016. In 2017 the ratio of the number of
candidates that qualified for Institution A and
Institution B was 7 : 8. In 2018 the number of candidates
that qualified for Institution A is 25% more than that in B.

In 2019 the total number of candidates
qualified in Institutions A and B was 11500 such that the number for
Institution A was 20% more than
the previous year. In 2021 the total number was 1000 more than in 2019 such that
the number of
candidates that qualified for Institution A was 500 more than that in 2019. In 2020 the number of
candidates qualifying for Institutions A and B were 4000 and 5000 respectively. In 2016 the number of
candidates
qualified for Institution A was half of those that qualified for the same institution in 2020.
Q 141. 30245929 What was the respective ratio between the number of candidates qualified in the
written test in the year 2016
for admission in institution B and the number of candidates qualified in
the written test in the year 2020 for
admission in institution A?
a) 8 : 5 b) 7 : 4 c) 7 : 8 d) 7 : 5
Q 142. 30245929 What was the approximate average number of candidates qualified in the written
test for admission in
Institution B during the given period?
a) 4555 b) 4200 c) 4160 d) 4667
Q 143. 30245929 In which year was the total number of candidates qualified in the written test for
admission to both the
Institutions together the second highest?
a) 2019 b) 2018 c) 2017 d) 2020
Q 144. 30245929 What is the difference between the total number of candidates qualified in the
written test in 2020 for admission
in institutions A and B together and that in 2017 for admission in
institution A?
a) 5000 b) 5500 c) 1500 d) 3500
Q 145. 30245929 What was the total number of candidates that qualified in the written test for
admission in institution A during
the given period?
a) 27000 b) 26500 c) 26000 d) 27500
Directions for questions 146 to 150: Answer the question on the basis of the information given
below.

There are three investment schemes - A, B and C - at a finance company. Scheme A calculates
Simple interest
per annum at the rate of r% where r2 - 3r - 10 = 0 and the lock in period is 5 years.
Scheme B calculates Simple
interest for time period, 't', where t2 - t - 6 = 0 and rate of interest is 8%.
The time period for Scheme C is the
average of the time periods of Schemes A and B whereas the
rate of interest is double that of Scheme A and it is
compounded annually. Rahul and Rohit had Rs.1
lakh and Rs.1.5 lakh respectively. Rohit invested equally in the
three schemes whereas Rahul
invested in schemes A, B and C in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5 respectively.
Q 146. 30245929 What is the lock in period for Scheme C?
a) 2 years b) 4 years c) 3 years d) 5 years
Q 147. 30245929 What is the difference between the total amounts received by Rahul and Rohit on
maturity of their investments
made in Scheme A?
a) Rs.37,500 b) Rs.25,000 c) Rs.62,500 d) Rs.42,500
Q 148. 30245929 At maturity, what is the approximate percentage increase in the investment made
by Rahul in all three
schemes?
a) 30% b) 42% c) 25% d) 35%
Q 149. 30245929 If Rohit withdraws the interest accrued in Scheme C at the end of 2 years, then
what is the difference in the
amounts received by Rahul and Rohit at the time of maturity of the
investments in Scheme C?
a) Rs.12,500 b) Rs.12,050 c) Rs.12,705 d) Rs.11,850
Q 150. 30245929 The two roots of the equation z2 – 11z + 24 = 0 represent the investments (in
thousands) of Rajat in
Schemes A and B respectively. If the larger amount was invested in Scheme B,
find the total amount that
Rajat received on maturity of the two schemes.
a) Rs.12,860 b) Rs.13,670 c) Rs.14,500 d) Rs.16,800

CD 16 Question Paper

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

CD 16 Question Paper

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

11/13/22, 11:07 AM https://www.aspiration.link/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?

Countdown Mock 16 (CLAT) 2023

a) Calomel b) Ramble c) Pummel d) Enamel

Q 2. 30245929 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:

c) The identity movement of the Nepalis was funded by foreign countries.

a) The Nepali writers display a strong sense of sentiment in their writings.

b) The Nepali writers display a strong sense of patriotism in their writings.

d) The Nepali writers display a strong sense of fulfillment in their writings.

a) Egotism b) Arrogance c) Ecstasy d) Umbrage

Q 5. 30245929 From the passage, it can be understood that:

a) Tagore felt that baul songs represented a martial culture.

b) Tagore felt that baul songs represented the town life.

c) Tagore felt that baul songs represented an alien culture.

d) Tagore felt that the baul songs represented village repression.

a) They promote religious unity. b) They promote religious diversity.

a) Vocation b) Incubation c) Assimilation d) Variation

a) b) An overview of the bauls of Bengal

Q 10. 30245929 From the passage, it can be understood that:

a) The baulsbelieved in the caste system.

b) Presently, the bauls have managed to attain international recognition.

c) The bauls could never become a part of the Bengali culture.

d) The bauls were initially marginalized.

a) A genre of literature that combines elements of autobiography and fiction.

Q 12. 30245929 Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word 'meander'?

a) Curl b) Bend c) Twist d) Straighten

c) d) It is vivid in its content.

a) b) It has turned out to be way ahead of its time.

d) None of the above

a) Network planning b) Equipment imports c) Ecosystem creation d)

Q 19. 30245929 Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word: haphazardly

a) Erratic b) Methodical c) Systematic d) Steady

a) Internet and its challenges b) Problems with network technologies

c) 5G launch: concerns and causes d) Cons of 5G technology

I. Most of its investors are venture capitalists

II. It is not a profit making enterprise

III. It mostly sells its own products

Q 22. 30245929 The author says "more such entrepreneurs to emerge" to:

a) Establish a matriarchal form of society b)

a) Age b) Nature of business c) Gender d)

a) $10 billion b) $15 billion c) $20 billion d) $25 billion

a) Pioneering b) Philanthropist c) Evangelist d) Thespian

hospital, educational or religious institution, or any place

a) Court demurs: POSCO setback in a landmark judgment

b) Abuse eye opener: On Allahabad Court's ruling on POSCO

c) Child protection: POSCO on sexual abuse

d) POCSO shocker: On Allahabad High Court verdict on child sexual assault

d) HC ruling misinterpreted the POSCO as envisaged by the Supreme Court

Q 28. 30245929 Which of the following is closest in meaning to per incuriam?

d) A situation where a litigant represent themselves without a lawyer

c) The perpetrator was a minor d) The incident took place in UP

a) b) c) d)

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

a) Annie Ernaux b) Kazuo Ishiguro c) Bob Dylan d) Louise Gluck

a) Sri Aurobindo b) c) Dadabhai Naoroji, d)

a) 1906 b) 1913 c) 1920 d) 1926

Q 34. 30245929 Who was the first recipient of Nobel Prize in Literature?

a) Bjornstjerne Martinus Bjornson b) Sully Prudhomme

c) Christian Matthias Theodor Mommsen d) Frederic Mistral

a) Maryse Conde b) c) Selma Ottilia d)

Russia into a "colony" and

a) London Treaty b) Paris Treaty c) Berlin Treaty d) Washington Treaty

Q 37. 30245929 The NATO headquarters is located in ____________.

a) New York, USA b) Brussels, Belgium c) Paris, France d) Warsaw, Poland