9. A 9-year-old boy presents with pounding frontal headache.

Examination
shows flushing of the face, blood Pressure 135/70, heart rate 60 bpm, and
distended bladder. He had a history of spinal cord injury involving the upper
thoracic vertebrae.
Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. migraine
B. essential hypertension
C. pheochromocytoma
D. intracranial hypertension
E. autonomic dysreflexia

10. Which of the following factors considered protective against development

of birth brachial plexus palsy?
A. Multiparous mothers
B. Mothers with excessive weight gain
C. Diabetic mothers
D. Cephalic presentation
E. Twins

11. Which of the following types of birth brachial plexus injury is the LEAST
severe form?
A. Neurapraxia
B. Neurotmesis
C. Axonotmesis
D. Avulsion
E. Rupture

12. What is the recommended time for surgical intervention in patients with a
complete brachial plexus palsy?
A. As soon as possible
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
E. 2 years

13.Which of the following neurological level of meningomyelocele carry the

highest risk of developing scoliosis?
A. Thoracic
761
 B. Upper lumbar (L1-L2)
C. Midlumbar (L3)
D. Lower lumbar (L4-L5)
E. Sacral

14. Which of the following neurological level of meningomyelocele carry the

highest risk of developing hip dislocation?
A. Thoracic
B. Upper lumbar (L1-L2)
C. Midlumbar (L3)
D. Lower lumbar (L4-L5)
E. Sacral

15. Which of the following is the mainstay of management in patients with

meningomyelocele and neurogenic bladder?
A. Clean intermittent catheterization
B. Prophylactic antibiotics
C. Oxybutynin
D. Bladder augmentation
E. Urethral surgeries

16. Which of the following spinal cord segment of meningomyelocele will have
minimal motor dysfunction?
A. L1-L2
B. L3-L4
C. L5
D. S1
E. S2-S3

17. What is the minimal age limit where a manual and electric power wheelchair
can be used by children?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
E. 6 years

762
18. Which of the following is the MOST common and long-lasting sequelae of
traumatic brain injury?
A. Cognitive-behavioral disorders
B. Syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone
C. Posttraumatic seizure
D. Paroxysmal sympathetic hyperactivity
E. Spasticity

763
Chapter 32
Rehabilitation Medicine
Answers
AQEEL MAHDI
1.(B) Prophylactic treatment with an anti-epileptic medication for 7 days after a
traumatic brain injury is commonly prescribed. However, treatment with an
anti-epileptic medication beyond 1 week offers no further benefit as a
prophylactic agent.
2.(A) Paroxysmal sympathetic hyperactivity PSH is thought to be due to
disruption of the inhibitory function of the mesencephalon on the
diencephalon. Some drug-related symptoms may mimic the features of PSH for
example, haloperidol and chlorpromazine may cause neuroleptic malignant
syndrome, phenytoin may precipitate a fever, and cimetidine may produce
extrapyramidal symptoms.
3.(A) Diazepam is the most commonly used medication to treat spasticity
because of its long half-life and need for less-frequent administration. In
children <2 yr of age, clonazepam is a good option because of the availability of
a liquid formulation and dosing guidelines.
4.(C) Intrathecal baclofen (ITB) is highly effective in treating severe spasticity.
ITB is delivered to the intrathecal space via a surgically implanted infusion pump
and catheter. This method of delivery confers an advantage over enteral
baclofen, in that central nervous system depressive effects are minimized and
dosages can be titrated to functional effect.
5.(A) Deficiencies of growth hormone and gonadotropin are the most common
disorders following TBI, resulting in growth retardation and precocious puberty
respectively. About 8% of children with severe TBI sustain chronic pituitary
dysfunction.
6.(A) Baclofen exerts an inhibitory effect on both monosynaptic and
polysynaptic spinal reflexes. Unfortunately, supraspinal receptor sites also exist,
resulting in sedation, which is common to all GABAergic medications.
7.(D)
 Baclofen: centrally acting, structural analog of GABA. Bind to GABAB
receptors causing presynaptic inhibition of mono/ polysynaptic spinal
reflexes.
764
  Diazepam: Centrally acting, binds to GABAA receptors mediating
presynaptic inhibition in brain stem reticular formation and spinal
polysynaptic pathways.
 Clonidine: Centrally acting mixed alpha adrenoceptor agonist.
 Dantrolene sodium: Peripheral action, blocking release of calcium from
sarcoplasmic reticulum with uncoupling of nerve excitation and skeletal
muscle contraction.
 Tizanidine: Centrally acting, alpha-2 adrenoceptor agonist activity at
both spinal and supraspinal sites.
8.(E) At C8 level patient can do feeding, grooming, upper extremity dressing,
lower extremity dressing, bathing, bed mobility, weight shifts, transfer
independently.
9.(E) Children with neurologic levels of injury at T6 or above are at particular risk
for interruption and decentralization of the autonomic nervous system.
Autonomic dysreflexia AD is a sustained sympathetic response as a result of a
noxious stimulus below the level of injury. Symptoms resulting from AD typically
include hypertension, bradycardia, headache, and flushing of the skin above the
level of injury, although vague symptoms such as fatigue, irritability, or crying
may be the presenting symptoms in younger patients. Noxious stimuli are most
often localized to bladder or rectal distention, but may include a number of
other causes.
10.(E) Risk factors for birth brachial plexus injury include prior infants with birth
brachial plexus palsy BBPP, shoulder dystocia, birth weight >4 kg, multiparous
mothers, mothers with excessive weight gain, and diabetic mothers. Delivering
twins or triplets, as well as cesarean sections, have been described as protective
from BBPP.
11.(A) Nerve injuries include neurapraxia, neurotmesis, and axonotmesis.
Neurapraxia is the least severe of these types and is a reversible loss of nerve
conduction. This type will recover. Neurotmesis is the most severe and is a total
and complete disruption of the nerve. An avulsion describes a neurotmesis of a
preganglionic lesion, and a rupture describes the same event in a postganglionic
lesion. Axonotmesis is the intermediate form and the most difficult to delineate.
12.(B) Infants who do not show satisfactory improvement in muscle strength
are candidates for surgical intervention. Classically the lack of elbow flexion to
3/5 or greater strength by 3 mo of age merits referral for nerve surgery. The
specific criteria and timing remain under debate. Those with a complete
brachial plexus palsy with a flaccid arm and lack of sensation are under

765
consideration for surgery at 3 mo of age, and those with upper-plexus
involvement are considered between 3 and 6 (or even 9) mo of age.
13.(A) The development of scoliosis has an association with the neurologic level.
Children with thoracic level defects have an 80–100% risk, whereas those with a
sacral level are at very low risk.
14.(C) The development of the hip is also influenced by neurologic level. The risk
for dislocation is highest for those with lesions at the L3 level, followed by L1-L2.
Unilateral hip dislocations should be fixed surgically, as they may result in pelvic
obliquity and problems with sitting, whereas bilateral dislocations generally do
not require interventions.
15.(A) The goals of treatment interventions are to protect kidney function and
achieve social continence. The introduction of clean intermittent catheterization
is the mainstay of management.
16.(E)
17.(A) Children as young as age 2 year can self-propel a manual wheelchair and
operate a power wheelchair.
18.(A) Cognitive and behavioral impairments (poor memory-learning and
executive skills, hyperactivity, depression, awareness deficits) are the most
common and long-lasting sequelae of TBI. These deficits can inhibit successful
school re-entry and participation in social activities.

766
Chapter 33
Environmental health
Questions
HAIDAR A. N. ABOOD
1. Which of the following conditions is linked to environmental mycotoxin
exposures?
A. Cerebral palsy
B. Neural tube defects
C. Thyroid cancer
D. Kidney stones
E. Chloracne

2. A 6-year-old boy presents to the E/D with cyanosis, headache, dizziness and
generalized weakness two hours following eating excessive amount of cured
meat. He vomited twice during transport to the hospital. Physical examination
shows HR 120 bpm, RR 30 bpm, SpO2 85%. ECG and CXR are normal. An arterial
blood sample (obtained for ABG analysis) shows chocolate brown-colored
blood. Ingestion of contaminated food is suspected.
Of the following, the MOST likely food contaminant is
A. nitrite
B. antimony
C. arsenic
D. mercury
E. copper

3. Which of the following imaging tests has the HIGHEST average radiation
doses?
A. Computed tomography: brain
B. Computed tomography: chest
C. Computed tomography: abdomen/pelvis
D. Nuclear medicine (99mTc methylene diphosphonate–Bone)
E. Positron emission tomography (18F-FDG; whole body)

767
4. Which of the following is the MOST radiosensitive tissue?
A. Brain
B. Skin
C. Lung
D. Liver
E. Gonads

5. Which of the following age groups is MOST sensitive to radiation-induced

carcinogenesis?
F. Neonates
G. Infants
H. Toddlers
I. Preschool children
J. School children

6. Radiation induced cell injury results primarily from damage to

A. cell membrane
B. cytoplasmic reticulum
C. RNA
D. DNA
E. ribosomes

7. Which of the following effects of radiation therapy is the MOST severe acute
reaction?
A. Pneumonitis
B. Dermatitis
C. Mucositis
D. Esophagitis
E. Cerebral edema

8. Which of the following primary malignancies has the HIGHEST cumulative

incidence of a second neoplasm?
A. Soft tissue sarcoma
B. CNS cancers
C. Leukemia
D. Hodgkin disease
E. Non-Hodgkin disease lymphoma

768
9. After acute penetrating whole-body irradiation, the expected outcome
depends on absolute lymphocyte count (ALC).
Which of the following ALC ranges determined within first 48 hours after
exposure is associated with severe injury and fair prognosis?
A. 1,000-3,000
B. 1,000-1,500
C. 500-1,000
D. 100-500
E. <100

10. What is the MOST common site for accidental localized irradiation injuries?
A. Face
B. Hand
C. Foot
D. Thigh
E. Buttocks

11. Which of the following radiopharmaceutical agents requires complete

cessation of breast feeding if administered to a lactating mother?
A. 131-I Sodium iodide
B. 99mTc pertechnetate
C. 123-I Sodium iodide
D. 99m-Tc MDP
E. 51Cr EDTA

12. A 2-month-old boy was breast fed during the last night by his mother who
received 131-I Sodium iodide before 4 days as a part of investigations for her
thyroid nodule. The mother was advised previously to stop breast feeding but
she believed that 3 days would be enough to clean her body.
Of the following, the MOST appropriate treatment is
A. no treatment is required
B. dilution therapy with forcing fluids
C. blocking therapy with potassium iodine
D. chelation therapy with calcium diethylene triamine pentaacetic acid
E. removal treatment with prussian blue

13. Which of the following chemical pollutants is associated with increased risk
of sudden infant death syndrome?
769
 A. Benzene
B. Environmental tobacco smoke
C. Lead
D. Methyl mercury
E. Organophosphate insecticides

14. Which of the following is the principal source of air pollution?

A. Agricultural use of pesticides
B. Industrial waste
C. Military sources
D. Natural sources
E. Fuel combustion

15. Which of the following chronic toxic effects is caused by organophosphate

insecticides?
A. Cancer
B. Hormonal disruption
C. Reproductive impairment
D. Polyneuropathy
E. Pulmonary fibrosis

16. Children suffering from more than simple urticaria (e.g., wheezing, evidence
of laryngeal edema or cardiovascular instability) following hymenoptera
(including the stinging ants, bees, and wasps) envenomation are at high risk for
progressing to systemic anaphylaxis with future stings.
Of the following, the MOST appropriate treatment that can reduce this risk is
A. Antihistamines
B. Regular epinephrine
C. Immunotherapy
D. Systemic corticosteroids
E. Leukotriene modifiers

17. Which of the following insects regularly causes fatalities in Middle East
children?
A. Ants
B. Bees
C. Spiders
D. Scorpions
770
 E. Wasps

18. Tobacco smoke exposure can be considered a modifiable risk factor for
children with
A. sickle cell disease
B. immune thrombocytopenia
C. type I diabetes mellitus
D. hypothyroidism
E. rickets

19. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate method to treat children’s
second-hand tobacco smoke (SHS) exposure?
A. Parents smoking outside the home
B. helping parents quit smoking by the 5 A’s method
C. wearing a smoking jacket
D. helping parents quit smoking by the Ask, Advise, Refer model
E. helping parents quit smoking by the CEASE program

20. Which of the following heavy metals has the MOST prevalent human
exposure and requires a screening program?
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Arsenic
D. Cadmium
E. Thallium

21. Which of the following is MOST commonly required for the treatment of
scorpion stings in children?
A. Intravenous opioids
B. Oral pain killers
C. Intravenous benzodiazepines
D. Scorpion antivenom
E. Local anesthesia

22. Which of the following is the classical presentation after toxic exposure to
arsine gas?
A. Encephalopathy
B. Acute hemolysis
771
 C. Cardiac arrhythmias
D. Acute tubular necrosis
E. Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis

23. A 5-year-old girl lives in an industrial area of glass refining, presents with
chronic cough and mild diarrhea for the last two months. She also had
prolonged fatigue, malaise, and weight loss. On examination she has peripheral
sensorimotor neuropathy, mild alopecia, oral ulceration, generalized pruritic
macular rash and transverse white striae on the nails. CBC shows leukopenia,
anemia, and thrombocytopenia. Environmental exposure to heavy metals is
suspected.
Of the following, the MOST likely offender is
A. lead
B. mercury
C. arsenic
D. cadmium
E. thallium

24. Definitive diagnosis of acute arsenic intoxication depends on quantitative

analysis of arsenic in
A. blood
B. urine
C. saliva
D. hair
E. nail

25. Which of the following routes of exposure is usually associated with

elemental mercury poisoning?
A. Oral
B. Dermal
C. Inhalation
D. Parenteral
E. Sublingual

26. What is the heavy metal responsible for the toxic effects of ingestion of a
button battery?
A. Organic mercury
B. Organic lead
772
 C. Arsenic salts
D. Inorganic mercury salts
E. Inorganic lead

27. A 6-year-old boy presents to the hospital with tremor, neuropsychiatric

disturbances (emotional lability, delirium, and impaired memory), and
gingivostomatitis. His father (a worker in the national batteries factory)
describes the tremor as a fine intention tremor of the fingers that is abolished
during sleep. On examination there is mixed sensorimotor neuropathy and
visual disturbances. Chronic exposure to a heavy metal is suspected.
Of the following, the MOST likely offender is
A. lead
B. arsenic
C. aluminum
D. copper
E. mercury

28. A 3-year-old girl presents to the E/D two hours following ingestion of a hair-
removal powder frequently used as folk remedy by her grandmother. The girl
vomited twice before hospital arrival and the parents describe a history of
convulsion during transport. On arrival she is semiconscious and crying while
holding her stomach with bloody diarrhea and moderate dehydration. ECG
reveals QT interval prolongation and polymorphous ventricular tachycardia, CXR
shows diffuse pulmonary edema, while plain abdominal X-ray is normal.
After stabilizing the patient, the MOST appropriate next step management is
A. collecting urine for 24 hours and send for arsenic level
B. performing gastric lavage
C. administration of activated charcoal
D. whole-bowel irrigation
E. starting chelation therapy with dimercaprol

29. Which of the following chelators is preferred for chronic inorganic mercury
poisoning?
A. Succimer (DMSA)
B. Dimercaprol (BAL)
C. D-Penicillamine
D. N-acetyl-D,L-penicillamine
E. Calcium disodium edetate (CaNa2EDTA)
773
30. Which of the following is the STANDARD specimen for estimating lead
toxicity?
A. urine
B. blood
C. saliva
D. hair
E. nails

31. A 9-year-old boy presented to the ER two hours after a rattle snake bite in
his right leg. His leg was progressively swollen, tender, and erythematous with
localized area of ecchymosis over the bitten site. Few minutes following
removing the field-placed tourniquet, the boy developed severe epistaxis
requiring nasal packing. Investigations revealed WBC 6000/mm3, platelet
40,000/mm3, INR 2.5, fibrinogen 60 mg/dL, and activated partial thromboplastin
time (aPTT) 40 sec. Following these finding, Crotalinae polyvalent immune Fab
antivenom was administered
Of the following, the MAIN indication for antivenin administration is
A. low platelet count
B. high INR
C. epistaxis
D. high aPTT
E. low fibrinogen level

32. Which of the following is the MOST common pathway for lead to enter the
body?
A. Drinking contaminated water
B. Eating contaminated food
C. Cutaneous contamination with inorganic lead compounds
D. Nonnutritive hand-to-mouth activity of young children
E. Cutaneous contamination with organic lead compounds

33. Which of the following factors can enhance GI lead absorption?

A. Ingestion of large paint chips
B. Ingestion of lead with meal
C. Alkaline medium
D. Presence of calcium in meal
E. Iron deficiency

774
34. Which of the following is the MOST effective first aid measure after snake
envenomation?
A. Local application of ice
B. Application of proximal tourniquets in the bitten limb
C. Immobilization of the bitten limb
D. Incision and squeezing of the wound
E. Wound suction

35. A 5-year-old boy lived in an old house presents with chronic constipation
associated with headache and lethargy. The boy had two attacks of generalized
seizures last week. On examination he looks pale and confused,
ophthalmoscopy reveals papilledema. Serum ferritin 12 ng/mL, Hb 9 g/dL,
Erythrocyte protoporphyrin level 40 µg/dL and radiographs of long bones show
dense bands at the metaphyses. Chronic exposure to a heavy metal is
suspected.
Of the following, the MOST likely offender is
A. lead
B. arsenic
C. aluminum
D. cadmium
E. mercury

36. Which of the following is the earliest manifestation of neurotoxicity after

neurotoxic snake envenomation?
A. Upper limb weakness
B. Ptosis
C. Lower limb weakness
D. Respiratory muscles weakness
E. Flaccid paralysis

37. Which of the following drug combinations is indicated for children with lead
encephalopathy?
A. CaNa2 EDTA plus DMSA
B. CaNa2 EDTA plus BAL
C. DMSA plus BAL
D. D-Penicillamine plus DMSA
E. D-Penicillamine plus BAL

775
38. Which of the following mushroom species is the MOST fatal?
A. Gyromitra
B. Boletus
C. Cortinarius
D. Amanita
E. Psilocybe

39. A 3-year-old boy presents to the E/D with delirium for the last 30 minutes.
The boy was completely healthy before one hour when he ingests a wild
mushroom from the adjacent garden. Physical examination shows plethoric
face, dilated pupils, hot and dry skin, HR 150 bpm, RR 24 bpm, and temp 38 ◦C.
Of the following, the MOST appropriate management is
F. administration of activated charcoal
G. performing gastric lavage
H. whole-bowel irrigation
I. administration of cathartics
J. induction of emesis

40. A 13-year-old boy presents to the E/D with generalized erythema and
shortness of breath, one hour after having dinner in a seafood restaurant. The
symptoms started 20 min after eating a fish dish as abdominal pain and diarrhea
associated with oral numbness. On examination there is generalized urticarial
rash, diaphoresis, facial swelling, and tachycardia.
Of the following the MOST likely diagnosis is
A. shellfish poisoning
B. scombroid fish poisoning
C. ciguatera fish poisoning
D. pufferfish poisoning
E. Rudderfish poisoning

41. What is the classical toxic effect of illegal addition of melamine to infant
formula?
A. Encephalopathy
B. Gall stone formation
C. Chemical hepatitis
D. Renal stone formation
E. Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis

776
42. In chemical and biologic terrorism, patients can be classified as having
primarily respiratory, neuromuscular, or dermatologic manifestations. In this
regard, which of the following agents has prominent dermatologic findings?
A. Mustard
B. Anthrax
C. Plague
D. Chlorine
E. Phosgene

43. The nerve agents (tabun, sarin, soman, and VX) antidote kits consisting of
prefilled autoinjectors designed for the rapid administration of
A. Pralidoxime and pyridostigmine
B. Pralidoxime and diazepam
C. Atropine and pralidoxime
D. Atropine and diazepam
E. Atropine, pralidoxime, and diazepam

44. What is the MAJOR presentation of envenomations due to snakes, spiders,

scorpions, and other venomous animals?
A. Acute compartment syndrome
B. Coagulopathy
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Localized pain and swelling
E. Infected wounds

45. A 10-year-old boy presents to the E/D with large lacerated wound in his left
thigh due to dog bite. After appropriate material has been obtained for culture,
the wound is anesthetized, cleaned, and prepared for vigorous irrigation.
Of the following, the MOST appropriate irrigation method is
A. copious irrigation with sterile saline
B. Irrigation with antibiotic-containing solutions
C. irrigation with catheter
D. blunt-tipped needle irrigation
E. high-pressure irrigation

46. Which of the following antimicrobials can be considered as FIRST CHOICE for
the treatment of most infected wounds caused by animal and human bites?
A. Clindamycin
777
 B. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Cefotaxime
E. Amoxicillin/clavulanic acid

47. Which of the following is the drug of CHOICE for the treatment of rat bite
fever?
A. Penicillin G
B. Doxycycline
C. Gentamicin
D. Streptomycin
F. Clindamycin

778
Chapter 33
Environmental health
Answers
HAIDAR A. N. ABOOD
1.(B) Exposures to mycotoxins have been linked to at least 2 conditions that
affect children: neural tube defects and acute pulmonary hemorrhage. Other
conditions are linked to other environmental exposure; cerebral palsy to
methylmercury, thyroid cancer to radiation, kidney stones to melamine, and
chloracne to dioxin.
2.(A) Nitrates and nitrites not only help kill bacteria, but also produce a
characteristic flavor and give meat a pink or red color. Nitrite salts are most
often used in curing meat. Nitrite poisoning usually occurred 1–2 hr following
eating cured meals, any contaminated foods with nitrates, or spinach exposed
to excessive nitrification. Signs and symptoms include nausea, vomiting,
cyanosis, headache, dizziness, weakness, loss of consciousness, chocolate
brown–colored blood. It is usually self-limited. Treatment is supportive care;
methylene blue may be required to correct methemoglobinemia.
3.(E) Average radiation doses (mSv) by Imaging test for pediatric population:
 Interventional fluoroscopy: AP & Lat abdomen (0.2-1.1
mSv/min)
 Interventional fluoroscopy: head (0.02-0.08
mSv/min)
 Interventional fluoroscopy: cardiac (0.1-1
mSv/min)
 Digital radiography: 2 view chest (0.04-0.06)
 Digital radiography: 2 view abdomen (0.1-0.4)
 Computed tomography: brain (0.8-4)
 Computed tomography: chest (1-4)
 Computed tomography: abdomen/pelvis (2-7)
99m
 Nuclear medicine ( Tc methylene diphosphonate–Bone) (5-7)
 Positron emission tomography (18F-FDG; whole body) (3-15)
There is clear evidence of radiation-induced cancer risk for whole body
exposure >100 mSv, whereas no direct epidemiological data supports exposure

779
<10 mSv. What is unclear is the cancer risk for calculated effective dose levels
between 10 and 100 mSv.
4.(C) Tissue radiosensitive weighting factors (WT) according to international
commission on radiological protection report 103:
 Red bone-marrow, colon, lung, stomach, breast, remainder tissues (0.12)
 Gonads (0.08)
 Bladder, oesophagus, liver, thyroid (0.04)
 Bone surface, brain, salivary glands, skin (0.01)
5.(A) Compared with middle-aged adults, children are generally are 2 times
more sensitive to radiation-induced carcinogenesis, and neonates are more
sensitive than older children.
6.(D)
7.(A) One of the most severe acute reactions is pneumonitis. It can be manifest
within 24 hr of irradiation when there is an exudation of proteinaceous material
into the alveoli and intraalveolar edema. Most often, radiation pneumonitis
begins 2-6 mo after the beginning of radiation with a clinical presentation of
fever, cough, congestion, and pleuritic pain.
8.(D) Radiation therapy increases the risk of second cancers in a dose-
dependent manner for nongenetic neoplasms. Almost 70% of the second
neoplasms are in the field of the original irradiation. Primary malignancies with
the highest cumulative incidence of a second neoplasm in the order of
frequency are Hodgkin disease (7.6), soft tissue sarcoma (4.0), cancers of bone
(3.3), leukemia (2.1), central nervous system (CNS) cancers (2.1), and non-
Hodgkin disease lymphoma (1.9). This reflects an overall standard incidence rate
of 6.38%. The most prevalent second tumors are bone, breast, thyroid, and CNS
lesions.
9.(C) Expected outcome based on absolute lymphocyte count after acute
penetrating whole-body irradiation:
Minimal ALC within Prognosis
First 48 hr after exposure
 1,000-3,000 (normal range) No significant injury
 1,000-1,500 Significant but probably nonlethal injury,
good prognosis
 500-1,000 Severe injury, fair prognosis
 100-500 Very severe injury, poor prognosis
 <100 Lethal without compatible bone marrow
donor

780
10.(B) The hand is the most common site for accidental localized irradiation
injuries, usually as a result of picking up or playing with lost radiation sources.
The second most common accidental site is the thigh and buttocks,
predominantly from placing unsuspected highly radioactive sources in the
pockets.
11.(A) Nuclear regulatory commission guidelines on breastfeeding during the
period of a nuclear medicine examination recommended complete cessation of
breast feeding if 131-I Sodium iodide is administered to a lactating mother, and
stopping breast feeding for 24 hr if 99mTc pertechnetate is used, while no
interruption in breast feeding is required for other distracters.
12.(C) The most effective treatment of internal contamination with radionuclide
requires knowledge of both the radionuclide and the chemical form. Treatment
must be instituted quickly to be effective. Blocking therapy is the administration
of potassium iodine or other stable iodine containing compounds to patients
with known internal contamination with radioactive iodine. The stable iodine
effectively blocks the thyroid, although its effectiveness decreases rapidly as
time elapses after the contamination.
13.(B) There is increased risk of sudden infant death syndrome and asthma in
infants exposed to air pollution and environmental tobacco smoke. Benzene is
associated with childhood cancer, lead with neurobehavioral toxicity, while
methyl mercury, and organophosphate insecticides are associated with
developmental neurotoxicity.
14.(E) Fuel combustion is the principal source of air pollution. In high- and
middle-income countries, combustion of fossil fuels (coal, oil, and gas) accounts
for most air pollution. In low- and lower-middle-income countries, the major
source is burning of biomass: wood, dung, straw, and charcoal. Coal is the single
most highly polluting fossil fuel and also the most important source of the
greenhouse gas emissions that drive global climate change.
15.(D) Pesticides can cause a range of chronic toxic effects that include:
polyneuropathy and central nervous system dysfunction (organophosphates);
hormonal disruption and reproductive impairment (DDT, kepone,
dibromochloropropane); cancer (aldrin, dieldrin, chlorophenoxy herbicides
[2,4,5-T]); and pulmonary fibrosis (paraquat).
16.(C) Immunotherapy reduces the risk of systemic anaphylaxis from future
stings in high-risk patients from somewhere between 30% and 60% to <5%.
17.(D) Most scorpion envenomations occur in the southwestern United States,
and fatalities are rare. In other regions of the world-especially Latin America,

781
Africa, the Middle East, and Asia-a number of scorpions regularly cause
fatalities.
18.(A) Tobacco smoke exposure can be considered a modifiable risk factor for
children with sickle cell disease and with CF. Children with sickle cell disease
who are exposed to second-hand tobacco smoke have increased morbidity,
specifically increased rates of Emergency Department visits and hospitalizations
for vaso-occlusive crisis and acute chest syndrome. In addition, tobacco smoke
exposure is also associated with pulmonary function abnormalities among
children with sickle cell disease, independent of their baseline disease.
19.(E) The best method to treat children’s SHS exposure is to eliminate this
exposure by helping parents quit smoking. Methods to reduce exposure such as
“smoking outside” or wearing a “smoking jacket” have not been shown to
eliminate biochemically confirmed SHS exposure. The 5 A’s method (Ask,
Advise, Assess, Assist, and Arrange) was developed for adults. The pediatric
model has been abbreviated to the Ask, Advise, and Refer. The Clinical Effort
Against Secondhand Smoke Exposure (CEASE) is a program that trains
pediatricians and their office staff to systematically provide cessation counseling
and interventions to parents and other adults who smoke, while offering more
assistance in quitting smoking than Ask/Advise/Refer.
20.(A) Lead, mercury, arsenic, and cadmium, four of the World Health
Organization’s (WHO) “Ten chemicals of greatest public health concern,” are the
heavy metals posing the greatest threats to humans. The most prevalent of
these exposures is lead. It is estimated that 99% of lead-poisoned children are
identified by screening procedures rather than through clinical recognition of
lead related symptoms. Exposure to thallium is relatively rare.
21.(B) Most scorpion stings do not produce severe effects and require only
wound care and orally administered pain medications. However, patients with
more severe symptoms may require intravenous opioids for analgesia and
benzodiazepines for severe muscle spasm or agitation. The antivenom is
recommended for critically ill patients with neurotoxicity or other severe
symptoms, including intractable pain that is not responsive to adequate doses
of opioid analgesics.
22.(B) Arsine gas is colorless, odorless, nonirritating, and highly toxic. After
exposure to arsine gas, absorbed arsine enters RBCs and is oxidized to arsenic
dihydride and elemental arsenic. Complexing of these derivatives with red cell
sulfhydryl groups results in cell membrane instability and massive hemolysis.
Other forms of arsenic cause the other distractors.

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