VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : D

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. ( Research) December – 2020
Electrical and Electronics Engineering

Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No, branch and branch code are not already printed on the
OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
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debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Scientific calculator is only permitted. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary
action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered
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16. Handover the OMR sheet and the question paper booklet to the Room Invigilator while
leaving the examination hall.
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 PART – I
Research Methodology to all Engineering,
MCA, MBA and Basic Sciences

[50 Marks]
1. The odds that the book will be reviewed favourably by three independent cities are 5 to 2, 4 to
3, 3 to 4. What is the probability that of the three reviews, a majority will be favourable
209 219 2 3
a) b) c) d)
343 343 49 49

2. If Ten shooters hit the target independently with the chances 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1 , 1

2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
then compute the probability that the target is destroyed
a) 1 b) 1 c) 10 d) Cannot decide
2 11! 11

3. A business man buys washing machines from three manufacturers A, B, C. The possibilities of
buying washing machines from these manufacturers are 0.25, 0.5 and 0.25 respectively. For a
specified period of ten years the probabilities that the washing machines work properly are 0.8,
0.9 and 0.85 respectively (for A, B, C manufacturers). If the products A, B, C are mixed, find
the probability that a randomly chosen washing machine will work properly for specified time.
a) 1 b) 96.25 percent
3
c) 86.25 percent d) Product from B only work properly

4. A continuous random variable x has probability density function (pdf)

Kx 2 0  x  3
P(x) =  . Find mean = m by first finding K.
 0 otherwise
a) K = 2 m = 9 b) K = 1 m = 2 c) K = 1 m = 2 d) K = 1 m = 9
9 4 3 3 9 3 9 4

5. Given the joint probability distributions of two discrete random variable X and Y, find whether
they are independent.

X Y 1 3 6

1 1 1 1
9 6 18
P11 P12 P13
3 1 1 1
6 4 12
P21 P22 P23
6 1 1 1
18 12 36
P31 P32 P33
a) Not independent b) Independent
c) For X = Y = 1, 3 independent d) Impossible to predict

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6. The ANOVA theory was developed by
a) Siegel S b) Fisher RA c) Delbert Miller d) Whitney F.L

7. The correction factor used in ANOVA is

T T T2 T2
a) b) c) d)
N N N N2

8. In an experiment to study the yield of three variates of wheat grown on four plots, the number of
factors studied are
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

9. The null hypothesis used in ANOVA is

a) All population variance are same b) All population means are same
c) All population variance are not same d) All population means are not same

10. In ANOVA, there is a relationship between

a) Independent variable and uncontrolled variable
b) Dependent variable and controlled variable
c) Independent variable and controlled variable
d) Dependent variable and uncontrolled variable.

11. The difference between statistic and parameter is called

a) Error b) Bias c) Sampling error d) Random error

12. Non – sampling error is reduced by

a) Increasing sample size b) Decreasing sample size
c) Reducing the amount of data d) None of these

13. In statistical analysis, the sample size is considered large if

a) n > or = 30 b) n < or = 30 c) n > or = 50 d) n < or = 50

14. What does the Central limit theorem state :

a) If the sample size increases sampling distribution must approach normal distribution
b) If the sample size decreases then the sample distribution must approach normal distribution
c) If the sample size increases then the sample distribution must approach an exponential
distribution.
d) If the sample size decreases then the sample distribution must approach an exponential
distribution.

15. Statistical inference is the process of drawing formal conclusions from data
a) True b) False

16. Which among the following type of non – sampling errors occurs during the planning stage
a) Specific errors b) Ascertainment errors
c) Tabulation errors d) Total errors

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17. In which form of convenience sampling the population elements are selected based on the
judgment of the researcher
a) Quota sampling b) Snowball sampling
c) Systematic sampling d) Judgement sampling

18. Which among the following test is done to determine how well an instrument that is developed
measures the particular concept it is intended to measure
a) Validity test b) Item analysis test c) Stability test d) Reliability test

19. Which among the following research technique is more time consuming but scientifically valid
a) Focus Group Research b) Experimental Research
c) Observational Research d) Survey Research

20. The population census carried out by the Government of India is an example of
a) Exploratory Research b) Causal Research
c) Descriptive Research d) All of the above

21. The research study carried out with help of collecting of primary and /or secondary data is
termed as
a) Observational b) Conceptual c) Empirical d) None of the above

22. In which form of convenience sampling the population elements are selected based on the
judgment of the researcher
a) Quota sampling b) Snowball sampling
c) Systematic sampling d) Judgement sampling

23. In a research problem, the variable related to the cause is known as

a) Dependant variable b) Independent variable
c) Test variable d) Moderating variable

24. The restraints / short falls / problems encountered in the process of data collection / compilation
/ analysis are included in ________ section of the research report.
a) Limitations of the study b) Findings of the study
c) Literature review d) Conclusion of the study

25. _______ can be used to clearly depict / display the steps / components of a process.
a) Pie charts b) Flow charts c) Picto graphs d) Histogram

26. In a Binomial distribution if p = q , then the probability function p(x) is given by _______,
where ‘p’ is probability of success and ‘q’ is probability of failure.
a) n Cn (0.5) n b) n C x (0.5) n c) n C x p n x d) n C x p n p

27. If ‘μ’ is the mean of Poisson distribution then P(0) is ______

a) e- μ b) e μ c) e d) e-x

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28. The shape of the normal curve is ____
a) Flat b) Bell shaped c) Circular d) Spiked

29. The area under the standard normal curve is ____

a) 0 b) ∞ c) 1 d) not defined

30. Suppose a bag contains m white and n black balls. If r balls are drawn at random (with
replacement) then the probability that K of them will be white is _____
mC  nC ek K n m C  n Cr
a) k rk
b) n C pk qn-k c) d) k
m  n Cr k n! m  n Cr

31. A factor loading of 0.8 means

a) The variable is poorly related to the factor
b) The variable is moderately related to the factor
c) The variable correlates well with the factor
d) There is no relation between the factor and the variable.

32. In Q – type factor analysis

a) Factors emerge where there is high correlation within groups of people
b) Factors emerge where there is high correlation within groups of variables
c) Factors emerge when variables and people are unrelated
d) Factors emerge where there is low correlation within groups of variables.

33. Rotation usually involves _______ high correlations and _______ low ones
a) Retaining , Omitting
b) Omitting , Retaining
c) Minimizing , Maximizing
d) Maximizing , Minimizing.

34. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model with one
variable?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

35. In the equation y = α1 + α2 x + error , α1 and α2 refer to

a) x intercept, slope b) y intercept, slope c) slope, x intercept d) slope, y intercept

36. If you reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true, what is this an example of ?
a) Type I error
b) Type II error
c) Statistical power
d) Hypothesis testing

37. The length of time to prepare dinner is recorded in minutes. A sample of 25 people is taken and
the time to prepare dinner is recorded. It is required to test the hypothesis based on the evidence
that the population mean time to prepare dinner is less than 48 minutes, at a significance level of
0.05. the null hypothesis for this case is Ho : μ 7, 48. The appropriate alternative hypothesis is
a) μ = 48 b) μ > 48 c) μ < 48 d) μ # 48

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38. A certain process produces 10 percent defective articles. A supplier of new raw material claims
that the use of his material would reduce the proportion of defectives. This hypothesis testing is
an example of
a) Testing for mean number of defectives
b) Testing for variances of the number of defectives
c) Testing for proportions of defectives
d) Testing for ratio of variances of defectives.

39. If it is required to test the hypothesis that the fit is good or the observed data is drawn from the
population having the specified distribution, against the hypothesis that the fit is not good, the
observed data is not drawn for the population having the specified distribution, then the
appropriate test statistic is
2 (O i  E i ) 2 2
(O ij  E ij ) 2
a)  c   b)  c  
 Ei all cells E ij
X  o X  o
c) Z= d) t =
/ n / n

40. If Zc is the computed value of test statistic and the distribution of test statistic is normally
distributed with N(0, 1) then the p value for the right tailed test is
a) 2 p(Z > / Zd) b) p(Z < Zc)
c) p(Z > Zc) d) p(Z = Zc)

41. Which one of the technologies is most likely to be used in qualitative analysis
a) ANOVA b) Discriminant analysis
c) CHAID d) NVIVO

42. The range of a sample gives an indication of the

a) way in which the values cluster about a particular point
b) number of observations bearing the value
c) maximum variation in the sample
d) degree to which the mean value differs from its expected value.

43. The measure of dispersion can never be

a) Positive b) Zero c) Negative d) Equal to 2

44. If beta one is 9 and beta two is 11 then coefficient of skewness is

a) 0.589 b) 0.689 c) 0.489 d) 0.889

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45. Statistical measures such as average deviation, standard deviation and mean are classified as
part of
a) Deciles system
b) Moment system
c) Percentile system
d) Quartile system

46. A systematic literature review is

a) One which generates a literature review using online method
b) A replicable , scientific and transparent process
c) One which gives equal attention to the principal contributors to the area
d) A manufactured system for generating literature reviews tailored to your subject

47. What is distinctive about a narrative literature review?

a) It is a review based exclusively on experiences of organizations in case study form.
b) It is historically – based review , starting with the earliest contributions to the field.
c) It is a paraphrase style of reviewing which does not require referencing.
d) It serves as a means of obtaining initial impression on a topic , which you will understand
fully as you carry out the research.

48. Research design strategy does NOT deal with

a) Data collection design
b) Sampling design
c) Instrument development
d) Data analysis

49. If neither the experimenter nor the participant knows which experimental condition the
participant is assigned to , this is known as
a) Single - blind
b) Double – blind
c) Standardization
d) Treatment combination

50. A variable that changes in a systematic way with the independent variable and may also affect
the dependent variable is known as
a) Confounding variable
b) Error variable
c) Equivalent variable
d) Intruder variable

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 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. The physical conditions governing ionization mechanisms in gaseous dielectrics are
a) pressure
b) electrode configuration
c) availability of initial conducting particles
d) all of the above

52. A 12 stage impulse generator has 0.12F capacitors. The wave front and tail resistance are
400Ω and 800Ω respectively. If the load capacitances is 800pF. Under these conditions front
and tail time produced is
a) 100sec, 10sec
b) 120sec, 15sec
c) 0.95sec, 11sec
d) 0.88sec, 9.7sec

53. Cross – blast air breakers are commonly used in

a) outdoor, very high voltage class
b) outdoor high voltage class
c) indoor medium high voltage class
d) indoor low voltage class

54. A 3 – phase, 220/1100V transformer is connected in star – delta and the protective
transformers on the 220V side have current ratio of 600  5  . The ratio of CTs on 11000V
 
 3
side is
a) 22 : 5 b) 12 : 5 c) 60 : 3 d) none of these

55. A 220 KV system employs 11 insulator strings. The transmission line will not permit a
traveling wave of value more than 1025KV. As per IS : 3070(Part – I) 1965. The residual
discharge voltage for 198KV lightning arrestor at a discharge current of 10KV is 649KV. If
the surge impedance of the line is 450Ω, then maximum value of arrester discharge current
will be
a) 1000A b) 2500A c) 3100A d) 10000A

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56. A converter which can operate in both 3–pulse and 6-pulse mode is a
a) 1 – phase full converter
b) 3 – phase half wave converter
c) 3 – phase semi converter
d) 3 – phase full converter

57. In the three – phase inverter circuit shown in Fig.Q57, the load is balanced and the gating
scheme is 180 - conduction mode. All the devices are ideal. The rms value of phase voltage
across the load is

Fig.Q57
a) 106.1volts b) 141.4volts c) 212.2volts d) 282.2volts

58. A power electronic converter shown in the Fig.Q58 has a single pole double throw switch. The
pole P of the switch is connected alliteratively to A and B. The converter shown is

Fig.Q58
a) step-up chopper
b) step down chopper
c) half wave rectifier
d) full wave rectifier

59. A single phase SCR based AC regulator is feeding power to a load consisting of 5Ω resistance
and 16mH inductance. The input supply is 230V, 50Hz AC. The maximum firing angle at
which the voltage across the device becomes zero and rms value of current through SCR under
this condition are
a) 30 and 46A b) 30 and 23A
c) 45 and 23A d) 45 and 32A

60. The AC output voltage waveform of Voltage Source Inverter (VSI) and AC output current
waveform of Current Source Inverter (CSI) respectively is composed of
a) high dv/dt, low di/dt
b) low dv/dt, low di/dt
c) low dv/dt, high di/dt
d) high dv/dt, high di/dt

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61. Transformers are rated in KVA instead of KW because
a) load power factor is often not known
b) KVA is fixed where as KW depends on load power factor
c) total transformer loss depends on volt – ampere
d) it has become customary

62. One of the method to calculate voltage regulation of alternator is called pessimistic method.
Identify
a) EMf method b) ZPf method c) MMf method d) none of the above

63. The speed of a ______ motor is practically constant

a) cumulatively compounded
b) series
c) differentially compounded
d) shunt

64. The crawling and cogging is predominant in,

a) slip ring induction motor
b) squirrel cage induction motor
c) single phase induction motor
d) all the above

65. The circle diagram can be used to

a) predict the performance of an induction motor under various load condition
b) find losses in an induction motor
c) efficiency of an induction motor
d) all of these

66. Find the contents of P2 after execution of the following code

P2 = 0;
P2 = P2 |0x99;
P2 = ~P2;
a) 66H b) 33H c) 22H d) 11H

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67. What is the output on P0, P1 and P2 of a given 8051 C program?
#include<reg51h>
void main (void)
{
unsigned char x, binbyte, d1, d2, d3 ;
binbyte = 0xFD ;
x = binbyte/10;
d1 = binbyte%10;
d2 = x% 10;
d3 = x/10;
P0 = d1;
P1 = d2;
P3 = d3;
}
a) 255 b) 254 c) 250 d) 253

68. Which of the following statements are correct about DAC 0808?
a) parallel digital data to analog data conversion
b) it has current as an output
c) serial digital data to analog data conversion
d) all of the above statements are correct

69. If the input applied to DAC using current to voltage converter is 10110100, determine the
reference voltage (Assume I0 = 2mA and R1 = 1.2kΩ)

a) 53.1V b) 3.41V c) 9.21V d) 67.3V

70. A 555 timer is monostable applications mode can be used for

a) pulse position modulation

b) frequency shift keying
c) speed control and measurement
d) digital phase deterctor

71. A linear network has two voltage sources V1 and V2. A resistance of 4Ω is connected across
V1 as well V2. What is the current through the resistance when V1 = 10V, V2 = 20V.
a) 2.5A b) 5.0A c) 7.5A d) none of the above

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72. The Z parameters for the network of Fig.Q72 is given by

Fig.Q72

 2 S  5 2  S S  2 S  S  2 2 
a)   b)  c)  d) 
S 3 3  S 5   S S  3  3 S  3

73. The Norton’s equivalent for the network of Fig.73 across terminals AB is,

Fig.Q73
a) cannot be determined since there is no active source that is independent
b) a resistance of 1.5Ω
c) 3A current source
d) 3A current source across 1.5Ω resistor

74. 
An EM wave is propagating in free space. E  20 cos(108 t   x )a y V / m where ay is unit vector
in y direction. The direction of the magnetic field H is
a) ay b) –ay c) az d) –az

75. A charge of 20nc is moved from point P1(0, 0, 0)m to point P2(0, 8, 0)m in a field
E = 20ax + 15az V/m. The work done is
a)  b) Zero c) 200J d) 280J

76. The per unit impedance of a short transmission line is j0.06. The per unit load on the line is
(1 + j0.6)pu at a receiving end voltage of 1 0  pu. Calculate the average reactive power flow
over the line.
a) 0.56pu b) –0.56pu c) 0.55pu d) 0.57pu

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77. Consider two bus system, V1  1 0 pu , Zl = (0.05 + j0.02)pu and P2 + jQ2 = (1.0 + j0.6)pu. At
4th iteration of load flow analysis V2 = (0.9635 – j0.054)pu . Determine P1 + jQ
a) (1.050 + j0.22)pu
b) (1.069 + j0.5625)pu
c) (1.1 + j0.3)pu
d) (1.02 + j0.054)pu

78. In which of the following frequency control method, tie line may be overloaded?
a) Flat tie line control
b) Flat frequency control
c) Parallel frequency
d) All of the above

79. In order to establish the pertinent control strategy for load – frequency control, the Area
Control Error (ACE) is
a) Ptie + b.f
b) Ptie – b. f
c) Ptie + (1/b) f
d) Ptie – (1/b) f

80. Which of the following objectives is essential for efficient and reliable operation of power
system in context of control of voltage and reactive power
a) to maintain the voltages at the terminals of all equipment in an system within acceptable
limit
b) to maximize the utilisation of transmission system for enhancement of system stability
c) to reduce I2R and I2X losses to minimum for minimization of reactive power flow
d) all of the above

81. As the frequency of the system is increased, the charging MVAR

a) increases
b) decreases
c) remain the same
d) none of the above

82. The transfer of reactive power over a line mainly depends upon
a) Vr b) V8 c) |VS | –|Vr | d) power angle

83. Fault level means

a) voltage at the point of fault
b) fault current
c) fault power factor
d) fault MVA.
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84. When a fault occurs in a power system, the zero sequence component of current becomes zero.
The type of fault is
a) three phase to ground fault
b) double line fault
c) double line to ground fault
d) single line to ground fault

85. Zero – sequence currents can flow from a line into a transformer bank if the windings are in
a) Grounded star – Delta
b) Delta – star
c) Star – grounded stat
d) Delta – delta

86 40(s  2)
A unity feedback system has G (s )  the steady state error for a ramp input with
s(s  1)(s  4)
magnitude 4 is :

a) 20 b) 10 c) 0.2 d) 2

87. The maximum value of ‘K’ for the system to be stable with the open loop transfer function,
K
G (s )H (s )  is
s(1  0.4s)(1  0.25s)

a) 6.5 b) 65 c) 0.65 d) none of the above

88. k
The open loop transfer function of a system is given by G (s)H(s)  . The
s(s  1)(s  4)
breakaway point of the transfer function is
a) 0.46 b) –0.46 c) 0 d) 

89. The stability of the system with the below Bode magnitude and phase plots is :

Fig.Q89
a) stable b) unstable
c) marginally stable d) none of the above

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90. The type and order of Nyquist plot shown Fig.Q90 below of a system are respectively :

Fig.90
a) 0, 1 b) 1, 2 c) 0, 2 d) 2, 1

91. For the following continuous time signal

Fig.Q91
The signal corresponding the equation y(t) = x(3t + 2) is given by

a) b)

c) d) none of these

92. The DTFT of the signal x(n) = u(n) – u(n – 6) corresponds to

1  e  j6  1  e  j6  1  e  j6 
a) b) c) d) none of these
1  e  j6  1  e  j 1  e  j

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93. Obtain the Fourier transform for the following equation :

x (t )    K  ( t  KT );|  | 1 is given by
K 0

1 1
a) X( j)  b) X( j) 
(1  e  jT ) (1  e  jT )

K 1
c) X( j)  d) X( j) 
(1  e K  jT ) e

94. A causual signal x(n) has z – transform X(z)  sin( z 1 )(1  3z 2  2z 4 ) . The x(11) is found to
be
a) –3.88 × 10–4 b) +3.88 × 10–4
c) –5.98 × 106 d) –9.64 × 10–6

95. Unwrapped phase response of FIR filter in passband is

a) exponentially increasing
b) exponentially decreasing
c) non linear
d) linear

96. An audio amplifier rated at 40W output is connected to 10Ω speaker. Calculate the input
voltage for rated output, if the amplifier voltage gain is 40dB
a) 80mV b) 125mV c) 200mV d) 210mV

97. The voltage gain of the circuit shown in Fig.Q97 with and without feedback respectively are :

Fig.Q97

a) –8.2 and –323.4 b) –4.2 and 293.3

c) 4.2 and 293.3 d) 8.2 and 323.4

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98. Why is the practical value of | Aβ | considered or adjusted to be slightly greater than ‘1’?
a) to compensate for noise voltage
b) to compensate for shifting of two relevant signals upto 180
c) to compensate for non- linearities existing in the circuit
d) to compensate for the change in feedback voltage

99. 7 bit ring counter’s initial state is 0100010. After how many clock cycles will it return to the
initial state?
a) 7 cycles b) 8 cycles c) 6 cycles d) none of the above

100. In a 8 bit Johnson’s counter, the number of unused states are :

a) 8 states b) 32 states c) 24 states d) 16 states

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