BEST PU College - NEET Grand Test 4

Physics, Chemistry, Botany & Zoology Full Syllabus

Physics - Section A

1. The product of linear momentum and angular momentum of an electron of the hydrogen atom is proportional to n
x
, where x
is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) −2 (4) 2
Ans. 1
Sol. Linear momentum = mv
= mcZ

137 n

Angular momentum =
nh

2 π

Given,

Linear momentum ×angular momentum ∝

n
x

∴
mcZ

137 n
×
nh

2π
∝ n
x

n
0
∝ n
x

⇒ x = 0

2. When Li nuclei are bombarded by protons, and the resultant nuclei are Be , the emitted particles will be
3
7
4
8

(1) Neutrons (2) Alpha particles (3) Beta particles (4) Gamma photons
Ans. 4
Sol.
Li + H → Be + X
3
7
1
1
4
8
Z
A

Zfor the unknown Xnucleus = (

3 + 1 ) − 4 = 0

Afor the unknown Xnucleus = (

7 + 1 ) − 8 = 0

Hence particle emitted has zero Zand zero A

It is a gamma photon.

3. Two perfectly elastic objects A and B of identical mass are moving with velocities 15 m s −1
and 10 m s −1
respectively, collide
along the direction of line joining them. Their velocities after the collision are respectively
(1) 10 m s , 15 m s −1
(2) 20 m s , 5 m s
−1
(3) 0 m s , 25 m s
−1 −1 −1 −1
(4) 5ms
−1
, 20 m s −1

Ans. 1
Sol. Applying momentum conservation:

15m + 10m = mv1 + mv2

25 = v1 + v2
 And
v 2 −v 1

u1 −u2
= 1

⇒
v 2 −v 1
= 1
15−10

⇒
v2 − v1 = 5

Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we have

−1 −1
v2 = 15ms , v1 = 10ms

4. What is the linear velocity of a body on the surface of the earth at the equator? Given the radius of the earth is 6400 km .
Period of rotation of the earth = 24 hours .
(1) 465ms −1
(2) 165 m s −1
(3) 665 m s −1
(4) 410 m s−1

Ans. 1
Sol. ω

=
2π
= 7.26 × 10
−5
rads
−1

24×60×60

3 −5 −1
v = rω = 6400 × 10 × 7.26 × 10 = 465ms

5. For what value of R, the current in galvanometer is zero?

(1) 5 Ω (2) 2Ω (3) 7Ω (4) 1Ω

Ans. 4

Sol.

i =
12

R+5

Potential difference across R

= 2V =
R+5
12
× R

∴ 2 =
12
× R
R+5

⇒ R+5 = 6R

⇒ R = 1Ω

6. An unknown resistance R is connected in series with a resistance of 10 Ω . This combination is connected to one gap of the
1

meter bridge while a resistance R is connected in the other gap. The balance point is at 50 cm , Now, when the 10 Ω
2

resistance is removed the balance point shifts to 40 cm . The value of R (in ohm) is 1

(1) 20 Ω (2) 10 Ω (3) 60 Ω (4) 40 Ω

Ans. 1
 Sol. The balance condition of a meter bridge experiment

R

=
l1

S (100−l 1 )

Here, R
= R1 , S = R2

∴
R1
=
l1

R2 (100−l 1 )

case-I

...(i)

R 1 +10
=
50

R2 50

⇒
R1 + 10 = R2

case-II

R1
=
40

R2 60

⇒...(ii)R
2
=
60
R1
40

So, Eqs. (i) and (ii) give

R1 + 10 =
60

40
R1

⇒ R1 = 20 Ω

7. A series combination of N is charged to a potential difference 3 V . Another parallel combination of N (each of capacity C
1 2 2

is charged to a potential difference V . The total energy stored in both the combination is the same. The value of C in terms
1

of C is 2
2 2
C2 N1 N2 C2 N1 C2 N2
(1) 9
(2)
C2 N
1
N
2
(3) 9N2
(4) 9N1
9

Ans. 1
Sol. C
eq
=
C1

N1

E =
1
CV
2

=
1 C1
9V
2

2 N1

=
9 C1
V
2

2 N1

Ceq = N2 C2

E =
1
CV
2
=
1
C2 N2 V
2

2 2

9 C1
V
2
=
C2 N2 V

2 N1 2


C1 = C2
N2 N1

8. The dimensional formula of magnetic flux is

(1) [M L T A ] 2
(2) [LM T
−2 −1 2 −2
A
−1
] (3) [M L
2
T
−1
A
−2
] (4) [M L
−1
T
−2
A
−1
]

Ans. 1
Sol. The magnetic flux linked with a surface,

ϕ = BAcosθ

Since B
= F /qv,

ϕ =
F

qv
Acosθ =
F
Acosθ
(I×t)v

-2 2
MLT L
[ ] 2 -2 −1
⇒ = [ML T A ]
−1
ATLT
[ ]

9. Two planets of radii in the ratio 2 : 3 are made from the material of density in the ratio 3 : 2 . Then, the ratio of acceleration
g
due to gravity at the surface of the two planets will be
g
1

(1) 1 (2) 2.25 (3) 0.50 (4) 0.12

Ans. 1
Sol. The acceleration due to gravity (isg given
) by

g =
GM
2
R

where M
is mass, G
the gravitational constant and Rthe radius.

Since, planets have a spherical shape

V =
4

3
πr
3

Also, mass (M ) = volume (V ) × density (ρ)

4 3
G πR ρ

g =
3

2
R

4GπρR

⟹ g =
3

Given, R1 : R2 = 2 : 3

ρ 1
: ρ2 =
3

g ρ R1 3
1 1 2
∴ = = × = 1
g ρ R2 2 3
2 2
10. A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times more massive than the earth and its radius is 10 times smaller. Given that the
escape velocity from the earth is 11 km s , the escape velocity from the surface of the planet would be
−1

(1) 0.11kms −1
(2) 1.1 km s (3) 11 km s
−1 −1
(4) 110 km s −1

Ans. 4
Sol. vfor the =
earth
escape
√

‾‾‾‾ 2GM

ve = 11kms
−1

Mass of the planet = 10M

.
e

Radius of the planet = .

10
R

‾‾‾‾‾‾‾
2GM×10 −1
∴
ve = = 10 × 11 = 110 km s
√ R/10

11. In a Carnot engine, the temperature of the reservoir is 927 C and that of sink is 127 C . If the work done by the engine when
∘ ∘

it transfers heat from the reservoir to sink is 12.6 × 10 J , the quantity of heat absorbed by the engine from the reservoir is
6

(1) 18.9 × 10 J 6
(2) 20.5 × 10 J (3) 15.7 × 10 J
6 6
(4) 12.6 × 10 J
6

Ans. 1
Sol. Given, T
= 273 + 927 = 1200 K
1

T2 = 273 + 127 = 400 K

and W

= 12.6 × 10
6
J

We know, the efficiency of a Carnot engine,

where

η = 1−
T2 <, T1
T2

T1

η = 1−
400

1200
= 1−
1

3
=
2

Work done (W)
and η
=
Heat supplied(Q)

2
=
12.6×10

3 Q

⇒ Q =
12.6×10
×3
2

6
= 18.9 × 10 J

12. A gas is expanded from volume V to 2V under three different processes. In figure process 1 is an isobaric process, process 2
0 0

is isothermal and process 3 is adiabatic. Let ΔU , ΔU and ΔU be the change in internal energy of the gas in these three
1 2 3

processes. Then

 (1) ΔU > ΔU > ΔU

1 2
(2) ΔU < ΔU 3 1 2
< ΔU3 (3) ΔU2 < ΔU1 < ΔU3 (4) ΔU2 < ΔU3 < ΔU1

Ans. 1
Sol. Process 1 is isobaric (constant)
p = expansion

Hence, temperature of gas will increase

positive

∴ ΔU1 =

Process 2 is an isothermal expansion

∴ ΔU2 = 0

Process 3 is an adiabatic expansion

Hence, temperature of gas will fall

∴negative
ΔU

= 3

∴ ΔU1 > ΔU2 > ΔU3

13. The magnitude of the magnetic field at O (centre of the circular part) due to the current-carrying coil as shown is:

(μ) i 4π (μ) i (μ) i (μ) i

√2 3π √2 π 3 3π √2
(1) 4π
0

( a
+
b )
(2) 2π
0

( 2a
+
b )
(3) 2π
0

( 3a
+
)
(4) 4π
0

( a
+
b )
√2 b

Ans. 4
μ i
Sol. Magnetic field due to the circular segment =

3
.
0

4 2a

(μ) i (μ) i
Due to one straight wire segment =

0
( sin 45
∘
+ sin 0 ) =
∘ 0

4πb 4√2 πb

Net field

3(μ) i (μ) i (μ) i

0 0 0 3π √2
= +2 × = +
8a 4√2 b 4π ( a b )

14. A stone of density 2000 kg m completely immersed in a lake is allowed to sink from rest. If the effect of friction is
−3

neglected, then after 4 seconds, the stone will reach a depth of

(1) 78.4 m (2) 39.2 m (3) 19.6 m (4) 9.8 m
Ans. 2
 Sol. Given, density of stone (ρ)

= 2000 kg m
−3

Density of water (σ

) = 1000 kg m
−3

According to question,

′ σ
g = g (1 − )
ρ

g

′
= g (1 −
1000

2000
)

g
g
′
=
2

We know that,

S = ut +
1
g t
′ 2

S =
1 ′
g t
2

S =
1
× × (4)
2

2 2

(9.8)

S =
1
× × (4)
2

2 2

S =
9.8×16

S = 39.2 m

15. A body is projected up a smooth inclined plane with velocity v from the point A as shown in the figure. The angle of
inclination is 45 and the top is connected to a well of diameter 40 m . If the body just manages to cross the well, what is the
∘

value of v ? Length of the inclined plane is 20√2‾m .

(1) 40 m s −1
(2) 40√2
‾ms
−1
(3) 20 m s
−1
(4) 20√2
‾ms
−1

Ans. 4

Sol.

′2

g
= 40 [∵ θ = 45 ]
∘

vbut=
v

′2 ′2
40
=gv
2
− 2al

Or 40g

= v
2
− 2 (g sin45 ) .20√2
‾
∘
 Or 40g

= v
2
− 40g

Or v
2
= 80g

Or v = 20√2
‾ms
−1

16. The system of two blocks is at rest as shown in the figure. A variable horizontal force is applied to the upper block. The
maximum possible contact force exerted by the horizontal ground surface on the lower block is (coefficient of friction for both
the contacts is μ )

(1) 3mg√ ‾
1‾‾‾
+μ‾2
‾ (2) 3μmg (3) μmg (4) mg√ ‾
9‾‾‾
+μ‾2
‾

Ans. 1
Sol. The lower block will not move in this case Apply equilibrium equation on upper block

⇒ F = μmg

Total normal force = 3mg

maximum friction force on lower black by ground =

μN

= 3μmg

‾‾‾‾‾‾
2 ‾‾‾‾2
‾
⇒Resultant force =

√(μN )
+N

= mg√ ‾
9‾‾‾‾‾
μ +9 ‾ 2

= 3mg√ ‾
1‾‾‾
+μ‾2
‾

17. If in nuclear fission, a piece of uranium of mass 5.0 g is lost, the energy obtained in kW h is
(1) 1.25 × 10 7
(2) 2.25 × 10 7
(3) 3.25 × 10 7
(4) 0.25 × 10
7

Ans. 1
Sol. E
= Δmc 2

= 0.5 × (10)
−3 8
× (3 × (10) )

= 4.5 × 10
13

13

E =
4.5×10

6
3.6×10

7
= 1.25 × 10 kW h
18. The magnitude of the maximum acceleration is π times that of the maximum velocity of a simple harmonic oscillator. The
time period of the oscillator in second is
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0.5
Ans. 2
Sol. Maximum acceleration = Maximum velocity ×π

i.e., ω

2
A = π ωA

where Ais amplitude and ω

is angular velocity.

ω = π

2π
= π
T

⇒
T = 2s

19. A pole is floating in a liquid with 80 cm of its length immersed. It is pushed down a certain distance and then released. The
time period of vertical oscillation is
4\pi  3\pi  2\pi  \pi 
(1) 7
s (2) 7
s (3) 7
s (4) 7
s

Ans. 1
Sol. Using the standard result of the time period of floating bodies.

‾ ‾‾‾‾‾
l immersed 
⇒ T = 2π s
√ g

‾‾‾‾
0.80 4π
⇒ T = 2π = s
√ 9.8 7

20. The frequency of the incident light falling on a photosensitive metal plate is doubled, the kinetic energy of the emitted
photoelectron is
(1) Double the earlier value (2) Unchanged (3) More than doubled (4) Less than doubled
Ans. 3
Sol. Let Eand Ebe the KE of photoelectrons for incident light of frequency vand 2v
1 2
respectively.

Then hv
and=h2v

E 1
+
=ϕE2 + ϕ0

So, 2or E
E
2
= 2E + ϕ0
+ (ϕ)01) = E + (ϕ)0
( 1 2

It means the KE of photoelectron becomes more than double

21. Two liquids which do not react chemically are placed in a bent tube a shown in the figure. The heights of the liquids above
their surface of separation are

(1) directly proportional to their densities (2) inversely proportional to their densities
 (3) directly proportional to square of their densities (4) equal
Ans. 2
Sol. The pressure at the interface must be same, calculated via either tube. Since, both tube are open to the atmosphere, we
must have

h 1 ρ1 g = h 2 ρ2 g

or h
1
ρ1 = h 2 ρ2

or hρ

= constant

or h ∝
1

22. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near-normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface
and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm ) of the slab is
(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 16
Ans. 3
Real depth f rom surf ace
Sol. Apparent depth =

Ref ractive index

d = (d1 + d2 ) μ

= 1.5 (5 + 3) = 12cm

23. A ray of light passing through a prism of refractive index √2‾ undergoes minimum deviation. It is found that the angle of

incidence is double the angle of refraction within the prism. The angle of the prism is
(1) 60 ∘
(2) 90 (3) 75 ∘ ∘
(4) 30 ∘

Ans. 2
Sol. According to given problem,
i = 2r = A

angle of prism, A
(∵
= 2r)

Since,
δ m
= 2i − A

⇒ δm = 2A − A = A

A+δm
sin
( )
We have, n

sin A
2

= ⇒ √2
‾ =
A A
sin sin
( 2
) ( 2
)

A A
2 sin
( 2
) cos( 2
)
⇒ √2
‾ =
A
sin( )
2

A √2 A −1 1
⇒ cos( ) = ⇒ = cos
2 2 2 ( √2
)

A ∘
⇒ = 45 ⇒ A = 90
2
24. Two solid cylinders A and B of the same mass and same radius start rolling down a fixed inclined plane from the same height
at the same time. The cylinder A has most of its mass concentrated near the surface, while B has most of its mass concentrated
near the axis. Which statement is correct?
(1) Both cylinder A and B reach the ground at the same time (2) Cylinder A has larger linear acceleration than cylinder B
(3) Cylinder B reaches the ground with larger angular speed
(4) Both cylinder A and B reach the ground with the same translational kinetic energy.
Ans. 3
Sol. We can treat cylinders Aas hollow and Bas solid. For the hollow cylinder A,

and=
K

2
1
R

Solid cylinder B,
K
2
=
1

R 2

2gh

∴ VA =
√
‾‾‾‾
= √ 2gh
‾‾‾‾
1+1

‾2gh
‾‾‾ 4gh

VB =
1
=
√
‾‾‾‾
3
1+
√ 2

VB > VA

∴ ωB > ωA

25. A Zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in the figure. The current
through the diode is

(1) 10mA (2) 15 mA (3) 20 mA (4) 5 mA

Ans. 4

Sol.

For R
= 1kΩ

i1 =
15
mA = 15mA
1

For R
= 250 Ω

i250 =
20−15
=
5

250 250

=
20
= 20 mA
1000


izener = 20 − 15

= 5 mA

26. For a rigid diatomic molecule, the universal gas constant R = nCP , where, C is the molar specific heat at constant pressure
P

and n is a number. Hence, n is equal to

(1) 0.2257 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.2857 (4) 0.3557

Ans. 3
Sol. For rigid diatomic molecule

CP
=
7

CV 5

∴
CV =
5
CP
7

Also C
P
− CV = R

CP −
5
CP = R
7

C
2
P
= R
7

2
∴ n = = 0.2857
7

27. A spherical liquid drop is placed on a horizontal plane. A small disturbance causes the volume of the drop to oscillate. The time
period of oscillation (T ) of the liquid drop depends on the radius ( r ) of the drop, density (ρ) and surface tension (S) of the
liquid. Which among the following will be a possible expression for the time period? where k is a dimensionless constant.
2 3 3
ρr ρr
(1) k
√
‾‾‾
S
(2) k
√
‾
ρ‾r
‾
(3) k
√
‾‾‾
ρr
(4) k
√
‾‾‾
2
S S S

Ans. 3
Sol. According to the question,

time period, T
∝ r
a b
ρ S
c

..... (i)

T = kr
a
ρ S
b c

Thus, putting dimension, we get

[ T ] = [ L]
a
[ ML
−3
]
b
[ MT
−2
]
c

[T ] = [M ]
b+c
⋅ [L]
a−3b
⋅ [T ]
−2c

Equating the dimensions of both sides, we get

b + c = 0, a − 3b = 0

and −2c

= 1
 ∴
c = −
1

∴
b =
1

and a
= 3b =
3

Putting these value of a,

andb cinto Equation. (i), we get

3 1 1

T = k⋅r 2 ρ 2 ⋅S
−
2

ρ
‾‾‾‾
= k r3
√ S

28. In an ideal double-slit experiment, when a glass - plate (μ = 1.5) of thickness t is introduced in the path of one interfering
beams (wavelength λ ), the intensity at the position where the central maximum occurred previously remains unchanged. The
minimum thickness of the glass - plate is
(1) λ (2) λ

3
(3) 2λ

3
(4) 2λ
Ans. 4
Sol. According to given condition,

For minima put n

(μ − 1) t = nλ = 1

So, (μ

− 1) t min
= λ

tmin =
μ−1
λ

λ
= = 2λ
1.5−1

29. A string of density 7.5 g cm and area of cross-section 0.2 mm is stretched under a tension of 20 N . When it is plucked at
−3 2

the mid-point, the speed of the transverse wave on the wire is

(1) 116 m s −1
(2) 40 m s −1
(3) 200 m s −1
(4) 80 m s −1

Ans. 1
Sol. The speed of the transverse wave

v = ‾
T‾
√ μ

Given,
T = 20N

M d×Al
= = d×A
l l

‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾
20 ‾
∴= 2
−3
√ 7.5×0.2× 10
( )

−1
v ≈ 116ms
30. An engine pumps water through a hosepipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity of 2 m s −1
. The mass
per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 kg m . What is the power of the engine?
−1

(1) 400W (2) 200 W (3) 100 W (4) 800 W

Ans. 4
Sol. Here, Mass per unit length of water, μ
= 100 kg m −1

The velocity of water, v

= 2m s
−1

Power of the engine, P

= μv
3
= ( 100 (kg m)
−1
) ( 2 (m s)
−1
)
3

= 800 W

31. Power applied to a particle varies with time as P = ( 3t

2
− 2t + 1 ) watts, where t is time in seconds. Then the change in
kinetic energy between time t = 2 s to t = 4 s is
(1) 46 J (2) 52 J (3) 92 J (4) 104 J

Ans. 1
Sol. P
= 3t − 2t + 12

dK
= P
dt

4
4
3 2
⇒
ΔK = Pdt = [t −t + t] = 46 J
2
∫
2

32. Two light waves superimposing at the mid-point of the screen are coming from coherent sources of light with phase difference
3p rad. Their amplitudes are 1 cm each. The resultant amplitude at the given point will be,

(1) 5 cm (2) 3 cm (3) 2 cm (4) zero

Ans. 4
Sol. Resultant amplitude,

‾‾‾‾
2 ‾‾‾‾
2 ‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾
A = A + A + 2A1 A2 cos ϕ
√ 1 2

Here, A

1
= A2 = 1 cm, ϕ = 3π rad

2 2
∴ A = √‾
1‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾
+ 1 + 2‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾ ‾‾‾‾‾
× 1 × 1 × cos 3π ‾

= √‾
2‾‾
+‾‾
2 ‾‾
× ‾‾ ‾‾‾ = 0
(−1)

33. A refrigerator is to maintain eatables kept inside at 9 degree Celsius. If the room temperature is 36 degree Celsius, then what is
the coefficient of performance?
(1) 10.44 (2) 20.62 (3) 1.44 (4) 19.82
Ans. 1
Sol. Coefficient of performance ,
β =
T2

T1 −T2

273+9
=
(273+36)−(273+9)

= 10.44

34. A cubical block rests on an inclined plane of coefficient of friction μ =

1

sqrt3
. What should be the angle of inclination so that
the block just slides down the inclined plane?
(1) 30 o
(2) 60 o
(3) 45
o
(4) 90
o

Ans. 1
 Sol. tan

θθ =
tan = μ
1

√3

tan θ = tan 30
o

Angle of inclination, θ = 30
o

35. Alternating current cannot be measured by D. C. ammeter because

(1) A.C. cannot pass through D.C. ammeter (2) A.C. changes direction (3) average value of current for complete cycle is zero
(4) D.C. ammeter will get damaged
Ans. 3
Sol. Average value of A.
. for
C complete cycle is zero. Hence A.
. can
C not be measured by D.
. ammeter.
C

Physics - Section B

36. Three particles of masses 50 g , 100 g and 150 g are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 1 m (as shown in
the figure). The (x, y) coordinates of the centre of mass will be:

√3 √3 √3 √3
(1) ( 12
7
m,
4
m
)
(2) (
7

12
m,
8
m
)
(3) ( 4
m,
5

12
m
)
(4) ( 8
m,
7

12
m
)

Ans. 1
Sol. Coordinates of A
: (0, 0)

1 √3
B : m, m
( 2 2 )

C : ( 1 m, 0 )

Coordinates of center of mass

50×0+150×
1
+100×1 50×0+150×
√3
+100×0
2 2
(xcm , ycm ) = m, m
50+150+100 50+150+100
( )

7 √3
= m, m
( 12 4 )

37. The angle of dip at a certain place on earth is 60 and the magnitude of the earth's horizontal component of the magnetic field
∘

is 0.26 G . The magnetic field at the place on earth is

(1) 0.13G (2) 0.26 G (3) 0.52 G (4) 0.65 G
Ans. 3
Sol. Horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is the component of earth's magnetic field along the horizontal direction.

BH = B cos δ

0.26 = B cos 60
∘

0.26
⇒ B = ∘ = 0.52 G
cos 60
38. Six negative equal charges are placed at the vertices of a regular hexagon. 6q charge is placed at the centre of the hexagon.
Find the electric dipole moment of the system.

(1) zero (2) 6qa (3) 3qa (4) qa

Ans. 1
Sol. This system is a combination of six equal dipoles each of dipole moment p
0
= qa

From the polygon law of vector,

Σp⃗  = 0

39. In a transformer, the number of turns in the primary coil is 140 and that in the secondary coil is 280 . If the current in the
primary coil is 4 A , then that in the secondary coil is
(1) 4 A (2) 2 A (3) 6 A (4) 10 A
Ans. 2
Sol. I
N = I N
2 2 1 1

I1 N1 4×140
∴
I2 = = = 2 A.
N2 280

40. A long metallic bar is carrying heat from one of its ends to the other end under steady-state. The variation of temperature θ
along the length x of the bar from its hot end is best described by which of the following figure?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans. 2
dQ
Sol. We know that
= kA
dθ

dt dx

In steady-state flow of heat

dQ

dθ = .
1
dx
dt kA

θ H − θ = k′x

θ = θ H − k′x
 Equation θrepresents
= θ a straight line.
− k′x H

41. The strength of the magnetic field around a long straight wire, carrying current, is
(1) Same everywhere around the wire at any distance (2) Inversely proportional to the distance from the wire
(3) Inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the wire
(4) Directly proportional to the square of the distance from the wire
Ans. 2
Sol. The strength of magnetic field around a straight current carrying wire is given by

B =
0
.
I

r
2π

∴
B ∝
1

Therefore, magnetic field due to a straight current carrying wire is inversely proportional to the distance from the wire.

42. A heavy uniform chain lies on a horizontal tabletop. If the coefficient of friction between the chain and the table surface is
0.25 , then the maximum fraction of the length of the chain that can hang over one edge of the table is

(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 35% (4) 15%

Ans. 1
Sol. The force of friction on the chain lying on the table should be equal to the weight of the hanging chain. Let

mass per unit length of the chain

ρ =

coefficient of friction

μ =

length of the total chain

l =

length of hanging chain

x =

N ow, μ ( l − x ) ρg = xρg or μ ( l − x ) = x

μl
⇒ μl = ( μ + 1 ) x or x =
(μ+1)

0.25l 0.25l
∴ x = = = 0.2l
(0.25+1) 1.25

x
∴ = 0.2 = 20%
l

43. In a nuclear reactor, the function of the moderator is to decrease

(1) Number of neutrons (2) Speed of neutrons (3) Escape of neutrons (4) Temperature of the reactor
Ans. 2
Sol. In a nuclear reactor, the function of the moderator is to decrease the speed of neutrons.

44. A photocell is receiving light from a source placed at a distance of 1 m . If the same source is to be placed at a distance of 2 m
, then the ejected electrons
(1) moves with one-fourth energy as that of the initial energy.
(2) moves with one-fourth of momentum as that of the initial momentum. (3) will be half in number.
(4) will be one-fourth in number.
Ans. 4
 Sol. Number

of ejected electrons ∝ (Intensity) ∝
1
2
(Distance)

Therefore an increment of distance two times will reduce the number of ejected electrons to 1/4
of the previous one.
th

45. A soap bubble A of radius 0.03 m and another bubble B of radius 0.04 m are brought together so that the combined bubble
has a common interface of radius r , then the value of r is
(1) 0.24m (2) 0.48m (3) 0.12 m (4) 0.50 m
Ans. 3
Sol. Let the radius of curvature of the common internal film surface of the double bubble formed by two bubbles Aand Bbe r.

Excess of pressure as compared to the atmosphere inside Ais

p1 =
4T

r1
=
4T

0.03

Excess of pressure inside Bis

p2 =
4T

r2
=
4T

0.04

In the double bubble, the pressure difference between Aand Bon either side of the common surface is

4T
−
4T
=
4T

r
0.03 0.04

⇒
1

0.03
−
1

0.04
=
1

0.03×0.04
⇒ r = = 0.12 m
0.01

46. A uniform meter scale of mass 1 kg is placed on a table such that a part of the scale is beyond the edge. If a body of mass
0.25 kg is hung at the end of the scale then the minimum length of scale that should lie on the table so that it does not tilt is

(1) 90cm (2) 80 cm (3) 70 cm (4) 60 cm

Ans. 4
Sol. If the distance from one end is x then

(50 − x) 1 = x (0.25) =
x

200 − 4x = x ⇒ x = 40 cm

∴Length on the table = 100 − 40 = 60 cm

47. In an n − p − n transistor circuit, the collector current is 10 mA . If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the collector
(1) The base current will be 1mA (2) The base current will be −1mA (3) The emitter current will be 9mA
(4) The emitter current will be 15mA
 Ans. 1
Sol. As I(according
= 90% ofto questions)
C
I
E

⇒ 10 mA =
90
IE
100

Or I
E
=
10×10
≈ 11 mA
9

IB = IE − IC = 11 mA − 10 mA = 1 mA

48. The angular width of the central maximum in the Fraunhofer's diffraction pattern is measured. The slit is illuminated by the
∘

light of wavelength 6000 A . If the slit is illuminated by the light of another wavelength, angular width decreases by 30% .
The wavelength of light used is
(1) 3500 Å (2) 4200 Å (3) 4700 Å (4) 6000 Å
Ans. 2
Sol. For first diffraction minimum, dsinθ

= λ

And if angle is small, sinθ

= θ

dθ = λ

i.e., Half angular width, θ

=
λ

Full angular width w

= 2θ =
2λ

Also w
′
=
2λ

′ ′ ′

∴or λ

λ ′
=
= λ
w w

w w
λ

= 6000 × 0.7 = 4200 Å

49. A closed organ pipe and an open organ pipe are tuned to the same fundamental frequency. The ratio of their lengths is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 2
Ans. 4
Sol. Fundamental frequency of close pipe,

v1 =
v

4l 1

Fundamental frequency of open pipe,

v2 =
v

2l 2

But v
1
= v2

l1 1
∴ =
l2 2
50. In the given figure, a diode D is connected to an external resistance R = 100Ω and an e.m.f. of 3.5 V . If the barrier potential

developed across the diode is 0.5 V , the current in the circuit will be

(1) 20 mA (2) 35 mA (3) 30 mA (4) 40 mA

Ans. 3

Sol.

The potential difference across the resistance R is

V= 3.5 V - 0.5 V = 3 V

By Ohm's law,

The current in the circuit is I

= =
V 3V

R 100Ω
−2 −3
= 3 × 10 A = 30 × 10 A = 30mA

Chemistry - Section A

51. de Broglie wavelengths of two particles A and B are plotted against (

1

)
; where V is the potential on the particles. Which
√V

of the following relation is correct about the mass of the particles?

(1) m = m
A B
(2) mA > mB (3) mA < mB (4) mA ≤ mB

Ans. 3
Sol. As λ
= h

√2meV

Here λwavelength,
= m = mass of matter wave and V = potential.

Here considering the graph m

.
A
< mB

52. In which of the following processes colloidal sulphur is formed

(1) F eCl + H S
2 2
(2) F eCl + H S 3 2
(3) H SO + H S O 2 4 2 2 4
(4) SO 2 + Cl 2

Ans. 2
Sol. colloidal sulphur is formed by the reaction of Ferric chloride and H
as S
follows
2

2F eCl3 + H2 S → 2H Cl + S
 (Colloidal form) 

53. Which of the following weighs the least?

(1) 24 g of Mg (2) 0.9 mol of NO (3) 22.4 of N 2 (4) 6.02 × 10
24
molecules of oxygen
Ans. 1
 Sol. B. 0.9 mol NO = 0.9 mol ×30
g mo
g NO
l
= −1
27

C. 22.4 L of Nmol=Ng1N
=
2 2 2 28

D. 6.02
molecules
× 10 of oxygen = 10 mol oxygen

24

= 10 × 32 g = 320 gof O2

Hence, here the least weight is of Mg.

54. Which one of the following ion is aromatic?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans. 1

Sol. Here

it is aromatic as it has 2 πelectrons i.e., follow Huckel's Rule.

anti aromatic.

and

are non-aromatic.

55. A gas cylinder containing cooking gas can withstand a pressure at 14.9 atm. The pressure gauge of the cylinder indicates 12
atm. at 27 C . Due to a sudden fire in the building its temperature starts rising. At what temperature will the cylinder explode?
∘

(1) 372.5 K (2) 3.725 K (3) 37.25 K (4) None of these

Ans. 1
Sol. T
= 273 + 27 = 300 K

P1
=
P2

T1 T2

Since volume of the cylinder is constant

T2 =
T1 P 2
=
300×14.9

P1 12

= 372.5K
56. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(1) 5,6-diethyl-3-methyldec-4-ene (2) 5,6-diethyl-8-methyldec-6-ene (3) 5,6-dimethyl-8-methyldec-6-ene

(4) 5,6-dimethyl-3-methyl-4-ene
Ans. 1
Sol. In bond line notations, bonds are represented by lines and line ends and line intersections denote carbon atoms. The
structure of the compound is

57. Atoms of element B from hcp lattice and those of element A occupy two third of tetrahedral voids. The formula of compound
is
(1) A B
4 3
(2) AB 2
(3) AB 3
(4) AB
Ans. 1
Sol. As the number of tetrahedral voids formed is equal to twice the number of atoms of element B and only 2/3 of these are
occupied by A so the ratio of A : B is 2or×4 : 3.
2
: 1

Hence, the correct formula is A. 4 B3

58. In the given reaction

[X] will be
(3) Mixture of A and B (4) None of these

(1) (2)

Ans. 3
Sol. This reaction is Sreaction,
1N
hence racemic mixture is formed as follows:

59. Which of the following statement is not applicable to H 2

SO 4 ?
 (1) The molecules are associated by H-bonds (2) Oxidation state of S is +6
(3) The hybrid state of S and O atoms of OH groups is same (4) The acid always exhibits a basicity of two
Ans. 4
Sol. As Hforms
SO two series of salts i.e, sulphates and bisulphates, hence, it can exhibit basicity of 1 and 2. It means it does not
2 4

always show basicity 2. Rest other statements given here are correct as it has hydrogen bonds, +6 oxidation state of S-atom
and also have sp
hybridisation for both sulphur and oxygen atoms.
3

60. The sodium salt of a weak acid is hydrolysed to the extent of 3% in 0.1 M solution in water at 25 C . If K for weak acid is
∘
a

1.3 × 10 . The ionic product of water is

−10

(1) 1.17 × 10 −14

(2) 1.17 × 10 (3) 11.7 × 10
14 −14
(4) 11.7 × 10 −10

Ans. 1
Sol. K
= α C
H
2

α = degree of

[hydrolysis ]

= (0.03)
2
× 0.1 = 9 × 10
−5

KH =
Kw

Ka

or K
w
= KH × Ka

= 9 × 10
−5
× 1.3 × 10
−10

.
= 1.17 × 10
−14

61. Consider the following compounds and arrange them in decreasing order of their basic nature

( 1 ) C H − N H − CH
6 5

3

( 2 ) C H − NH − C H
6 5

6 5

(3) (C H ) N (4)CH − CH − N H
6 5 3 3 2 2

(1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (2) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3 (3) 3 > 2 > 1 > 4 (4) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1
Ans. 2
Sol. Here the basic nature order is given here

C
>H(3C−
6
H
C5H
)32N− N H 2 > C 6 H 5 − N H − CH 3 > C 6 H 5 − N H − C 6 H 5

(i) Aliphatic amine is more basic then aromatic amines.

(ii) Among aromatic amines, primary is more basic then secondary which is more basic than tertiary due to delocalisation of
lone pair of nitrogen.

62. Which of the following carbonyl compounds will give racemisation reaction in the presence of acid or base?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans. 2
 Sol. Here the compound given below (Option B) can show racemisation as it has α-carbon atom as chiral. when it reacts with
HCN racemic product is formed

63. Which transition metal has lowest density?

(1) Sc (2) Ti (3) Zn (4) La
Ans. 1
Sol. Scandium has density of 3.0
whereas
g cm most of the transition elements have density greater than

−3

.
6 g cm
−3

64. Match list I with list II and select this correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

List-I List-II

(p) Nucleic acids 1. DNA

(q) Uracil 2. Hormones

(r) Thymine 3. Polynucleotides

(s) Double-helix structure 4. RNA

(1) (p)-4, (q)-3, (r)-1, (s)-1 (2) (p)-3, (q)-4, (r)-1, (s)-1 (3) (p)-3, (q)-1, (r)-4, (s)-1 (4) (p)-3, (q)-1, (r)-1, (s)-4
Ans. 2
Sol. A.
Nucleic acids are long polymers in which monomeric units are nucleotides.

RNA has the base uracil in place of thymine.

B.

DNA has the base thymine paired with adenine.

C.

DNA has double-helix structure. The two strands of DNA helix are said to be complementary to each other in the sense that
D.

the sequence of bases in one strand automatically determines that of order. Base pairs in DNA are held by H-bonds denoted by
dotted lines.

65. The equivalent conductance of a 0.2 N solution of an electrolyte was found to be 200 \Omega  −1
cm
2
eq
−1
. The cell
constant of the cell is 2 cm . The resistance of the solution is
−1
 (1) 50Ω (2) 400Ω (3) 100Ω (4) None of these
Ans. 1
Sol. Λ

=v
200Ω
−1
cm eq
2 −1

CN = 0.2 N, cm
−1

K =
Λv ×CN
=
200×0.2
=
1
Ω
−1
cm
−1

1000 1000×10 25

.
R =
1
.
l

a
= 25 × 2 = 50Ω
K

66. A graph showing variation of osmotic pressure ( π ) versus molar concentration 'C' of an aqueous solution at temperature T is
given below

The slope of the line represents

(1) solution constant R (2) absolute temperature T (3) RT (4) degree of ionization of solute
Ans. 3
Sol. Here the slope of the line represents RT.

As π
= CRT

Using y = mx + C

Slope = RT.

67. In te given reaction

[X] will be
(1) Erythro-2,3-dibromobutane (2) Threo-2,3- dibromobutane
(3) 1 : 1 mixture of Erythro-2,3-dibromo butane and threo-2,3-dibromobutane
(4) 2 : 1 mixture of erythro-2,3-dibromobutane and threo-2,3-dibromobutane
Ans. 2
Sol. It is cis-but-2-ene which on reaction with Br
(anti addition) give racemic mixture of product as follows

 These dibromo derivatives are threo forms as the Br-groups are in anti forms.

68. The standard molar enthalpies of formation of cycohexane (l) and benzene (l) at 25 C are -156 and +49 KJ mol ∘ −1

respectively. The standard enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclo hexene (l) at 25 C is -116 KJ mol . Use these data to ∘ −1

estimate the magnitude of the resonance energy of benzene.

(1) 152 kJ mol (2) 1.52 kJ mol
−1
(3) 15.2 kJ mol −1
(4) None of these −1

Ans. 1
Sol. Enthalpy of hydrogenation of these double bond in benzene

= 3 × −119 = −357 kJ mol

−1

ΔH(reaction) = ΣH(products) − ΔΣH(reactants)

= −156 − (49 + 0) = −205 kJ (mol)

−1

Resonance energy = Calculated heat of hydrogenation - Actual heat of hydrogenation

−1
= 357 − 205 = 152 kJ mol .

69. Polling process is used for

(1) The removal of CuO from Cu (2) The removal of Al O from Al (3) The removal of F e O from F e (4) All of these
2 3 2 3

Ans. 1
Sol. Polling process is used for the removal of CuO
from Cu
. In polling Cu and CuO are placed among green wood where
hydrocarbon gases reduce CuOCu
into .

70. What is the percentage decomposition of H S, if 1 mole of H S is introduced into a 1.1 litre vessel at 1000 K? K for the
2 2 C

reaction 2H S ( g ) ⇌ 2H ( g ) + S ( g ) is 1 × 10
2 2 2
−6

(1) 1.3% (2) 0.13% (3) 13% (4) None of these

Ans. 1

Sol.

x 2 x
( ) ( )

KC =
2×1.1 2×1.1

2
1−x

( 1.1 )

1 × 10
−6
=
x

2.2

So, x. = 1.3 × 10
−2
= 1.3%

Ag

71. Prussic acid +O →

2

The products of above reaction are

(1) C N , H O
2 2 2
(2) CO 2
, H2 O (3) CO, CO2 , H2 O (4) CO 2 , N 2 , H 2 O

Ans. 1
 Sol. Prussic acid (HCN) on reaction with air in presence of Ag gives cyanogen.

Ag

4H CN + O2 → 2(CN )2 + 2H2 O
( Cyanogen )

72. The root mean square speed of an ideal gas in a closed container of fixed volume is increased from 5 × 10 m s to 10 m 2 −1 3

−1
s . Which of the following statement might correctly explain how the change is accomplished?
(1) By heating the gas, the temperature is doubled (2) By heating the gas, the pressure is quadrupled
(3) By heating the gas, volume is tripled (4) By heating the gas, the pressure is doubled
Ans. 2
Sol. u
rms
=
√
‾‾‾‾
3RT
=
√
‾‾‾‾
3PV

M M

So
urms
′
=
5×10 m/s

3
=
1

2
urms 10 m/s

=
‾3PV
‾‾‾‾/M
‾ = ‾‾
P‾

√ ′
3P V /M √ P
′

1

=
P
′
4 P

or P ′
= 4P.

73. A gaseous reaction X ( g ) → Z ( g ) + 1/2y ( g ) shows increase in pressure from 150 mm to 170 mm in 10 minutes. The
2

rate of disappearance of X is 2

(1) 4 mm min −1
(2) 16 mm min (3) 8 mm min −1
(4) 2 mm min −1 −1

Ans. 1
Sol. Pressure αconcentration

Rate of appearance of ymm

n
= mi
170−150
−1
= 2
10

Rate of disappearance of Xrate=of2×

appearance of y
2

mm .
= 2×
min
2 = 4
−1

74. Unknown compound A C H O on methylation with (CH 9 8 5 3

)2 SO4 /N aOH forms methyl derivative whose MW is 210. The
number of hydroxyl groups in A is
(1) five (2) four (3) one (4) three
Ans. 3
MW of methylether−MW compound
Sol. Number of hydroxyl group =

14

=. 210−196
=
14
= 1
14 14

75. Consider the M (OH ) formed by all the group 13 elements. The correct sequence of acidic strength of hydroxides [M (OH )
3 3
]

is
(1) B(OH ) > Al(OH ) > Ga(OH ) > I n(OH ) > T I (OH )
3 3 3 3 3

(2) B(OH ) < Al(OH ) > Ga(OH ) > I n(OH ) > T l(OH )
3 3 3 3 3

(3) B(OH ) > T l(OH ) > Al(OH ) > I n(OH ) > Ga(OH )
3 3 3 3 3
 (4) Al(OH ) > Ga(OH ) > B(OH )
3 3 3
> I n(OH )3 > T l(OH )3

Ans. 1
Sol. Acidic strength of hydroxides

B(OH
is known
B(OH )) >asAl(OH
33
orthoboric
) >acid, .
B)O >
Ga(OH
H 3 3 3 3
I n(OH )3 > T I (OH )3

N
aOH + B(OH ) → N a [B(OH ) ] 3 4

or or N aBO + 2H O
2 2
 Sod. metaborate 

76. Which one of the following can show optical isomerism?

(1) F eSO .7H O 4 2
(2) K [Cr(C O ) ] 3 2 4 3
(3) K3 [F e(CN )6 ] (4) Cr[(N H3 )6 ]Cl3

Ans. 2
3−
Sol. The anion of the compound Bis [or
Cr , (where
[Cr(Ox
C O Ox)Since
] ≡ such
] C Ooctahedral
. . Since such octahedral complexes have non-super-
2 4 3
3
3−
2
2−

imposable mirror images, so they show optical isomerism.

77. Pick out incorrect statement.

(1) N F molecule has trigonal pyramidal structure
3

(2) NF is practically insoluble in water and is only hydrolyzed, when an electric spark is passed through a mixture with water
3

vapour
(3) Dipole moment of N F is more than that of N H
3
(4) Nitrogen (III) oxide ( N O ) is an acidic oxide
3 2 3

Ans. 3
Sol. Dipole moment of N(0.49
H cm) is more than that of N. This
×10 3
is due×to10the fact
−29
F ( 0.07 cm that
) the direction of the dipole moments of the
3
−29

bonding Nand− non-bonding

H electron pairs coincide in Nand
H therefore, vector addition of all dipole moments yield a large
3

resultant dipole moment. In N, on

F the contrary, the dipole moments of N
3
bonds
− F and of the non-bonding electron pair are in

opposite directions, so that they are partially compensated when summated.

A. From the above figre, it is clear that Nhas

F a trigonal pyramidal structure.

B. 2N
vapour
D.
F +)→3H3

(Acid)
NNO(
O
O (l)++
6HHFO(l)
222 33 2
→ 2H N O2 (l)

78. The standard reduction potential for Cu 2+

/Cu is 0.34 V. The reduction potential at pH = 14 for the above couple
) is
19−
(K Cu(OH ) = 1 × 10
sp 2

(1) -0.22 V (2) -0.34 V (3) +0.22 V (4) +0.34 V

Ans. 1
Sol. pH

= 14

pOH = 0

− 0
[OH ] = 10 = 1

Ksp −19

Cu
2+
= − 2
=
1×10
= 1 × 10
−19

[OH ] 1

0.059

=
E 0.34V
Cu
2+
/Cu
=
0.059
− E Cu × /C
∘ 2+
19u= −0.22V
2 log
− 1
−19
2
1×10

79. Sodium salt of acetic acid reacts with ethyl iodide to give

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Ans. 2
Sol. Sodium salt of acetic acid reacts with ethyl iodide to give ethyl acetate as follows

80. In the given reaction

(X) will be

(1) (2) (3)

(4)

Ans. 3
Sol. The reaction is Claisen ester condensation ester between ester and ketone as follows

81. In which of the following reactions ΔS is positive?

(1) H (l) → H O (s)
2
(2) 3O (g) → 2O (g)
2 2 3
(3) H2 O (l) → H2 O (g) (4) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) → 2N H3 (g)

Ans. 3
Sol. ΔS
(Products)
= ΣnΔS −ΣnΔS

82. A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid is 30% ionized. If K for water is 1.86 f
∘
C/m , the freezing point of the solution
will be -
(1) −0.24 C ∘
(2) −0.18 C (3) −0.54 C
∘ ∘
(4) ∘
−0.36 C

Ans. 1
Sol. i
= 1 − α + nα
i
= 1 − 0.3 + 2(0.3)

i
= 1.3

Δ
T = iK m
f f

=
1.3 × 1.86 × 0.1
Δ
T = +0.24 C
f
∘

Freezing point of solution = - 0.24ºC

83. An equimolar quantities of ethanol and propanol is heated with cone. H 2

SO 4 . The product formed is/are
(1) C H OC H
2 5
(2) C H OC H
2 5 3
(3) C
7 3 7 2
H5 OC H3 7
(4) all of these
Ans. 4
conc. H2 SO4

Sol. C H OH + CH CH CH OH −−−−−−−
2 5
→ C H OC H
3 2 2 2 5 2 5
+ C H OC H
3 7 3 7
+ C H OC H
2 5 3 7
Δ

84. K CO cannot be prepared by Solvay's process because

2 3

(1) K H CO is less soluble than N aH CO

3
(2) K H CO is more soluble to be precipitated by K Cl and N H
3 3 4
H CO 3

(3) K CO is more soluble to be precipitated by K Cl

2 3
(4) K CO is less soluble than N a CO 2 3 2 3

Ans. 2
Sol. KisHmore
CO soluble to be precipitated by the addition of N
3
toHtheHsaturated
CO solution of K
. Cl4 3

85. The incorrect statement among the following is:

(1) d-block elements show irregular and crratic chemical properties
(2) La and Lu have partially filled d-orbitals and no other partially filled orbitals
(3) The chemistry of various lanthanoids is very similar (4) 4f and 5f orbitals are equally shielded
Ans. 4
Sol. Different amount of shielding is experienced by 4fand 5f
as they belong to different shell and hence, 4f and 5f
orbitals are not
equally shielded.

Chemistry - Section B

86. Which of the following compounds would you expect to have a dipole moment?
 (1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans. 4

Sol.
is a polar compound while rest other here are non-polar as in them net dipole moment is zero as they are

para isomers.

87. Which of the following will have highest bond energy?

(1) F 2
(2) N 2
(3) F
−

2
(4) O
−

Ans. 2
Sol. F
2
= σ 1s σ
2 ∗ 2
1s , σ 2s , σ
2 ∗ 2 2 2
2s , σ 2pz , π 2px , π 2py , π
2 ∗ 2
2px , π
∗
2py
2

F
−

2
= σ 1s σ
2 ∗ 2
1s , σ 2s , σ
2 ∗ 2 2 2
2s , σ 2pz , π 2px , π 2py , π
2 ∗ 2
2px , π
∗ 2
2py σ
∗
2pz
1

O
−

2
= σ 1s σ
2 ∗ 2
1s , σ 2s , σ
2 ∗ 2 2 2
2s , σ 2pz , π 2px , π 2py , π
2 ∗ 2
2px , π
∗
2py
1

N2 = σ 1s σ
2 ∗ 2
1s , σ 2s , σ
2 ∗ 2 2 2
2s , π 2px , π 2py , σ 2pz
2

B.O. of N
2 =
10−4
= 3
2

O
−

2
=
10−7
= 1.5
2

F2 =
10−8
= 1
2

F
−

2
=
10−9
= 0.5
2

Since, B.O. ∝
B.E.

So bond energy of Nis maximum. 2

88. For the reaction

CH3 COOH ( l ) + C2 H5 ( l ) ⇌ CH3 COOC2 H5 ( l ) + H2 O ( l )

the value of equilibrium constant (K) is 4 at 298 K. The standard free energy change ( ΔG ∘
) is equal to
(1) 3.473 kJ mol (2) −34730 kJ mol
−1
(3) 34730 kJ mol −1 −1
(4) −3.473 kJ mol −1

Ans. 4
Sol. ΔG

o
= − 2.303 RT log K

= −2.303 × 8.314 × 298 log 4

−1 −1
= −3473 J mol = −3.473 kJ mol
89. Number of structural isomers of C H O that are ethers are 4 10

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Ans. 3
Sol. ChasHfollowing
O4
three ether isomers

10

90. The half life period for catalytic decomposition of X Y at 100 mm is found to be 8 hrs and at 200 mm it is 4 hrs. The order of
3

reaction is
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) None of these
Ans. 2
Sol. The value of order of reaction using half life and pressure values can be find out by using this relation given below

1
(t )1 n−1

2
= ( )
P2

1 P 1
(t 2
)2
n−1
or
8
= ( )
200

4 100

(2)
1
= (2)
n−1

or 1
= n−1

So, n
.
= 2

Hence, it is second order reaction.

91. The concentrated aqueous solution of potassium salts of acetic acid and propanoic acid are electrolysed. Which of the
following hydrocarbon(s) is/are produced?
(1) CH CH only 3 3
(2) CH CH CH only 3
(3) CH CH and CH CH CH CH
2 3 3 3 3 2 2 3

(4) CH CH CH CH and CH CH CH
3 2 2 3 3 2 3

Ans. 3
Sol. When concentrated aqueous solution of potassium salts of acetic acid and propanoic acid are electrolysed. Cand
H Care
C H
H 3
CH 2 C
3
3

produced as follows

CH3 COOK ( aq ) → CH3 COO

−
( aq ) + K
+
( aq )

CH3 CH2 COOK ( aq ) → CH3 CH2 COO

−
( aq ) + K
+
( aq )

Anode: A. 2C

H 3
COO
−
( aq ) → CH3 − CH3 + 2CO2 + 2e
−

B. 2C

H 3
CH2 COO
−
( aq ) → CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 + 2CO2 + 2e
−

Cathode: 2H OH + 2e −
→ H2 ( g ) + 2OH
−
92. A certain quantity of electricity deposits 0.54 g of silver from AgN O solution. What volume of hydrogen will the same
3

quantity of electricity liberate at 27 C and 750 mm Hg pressure?

∘

(1) 62.34 ml (2) 6.234 ml (3) 623.5 ml (4) None of these

Ans. 1
W Ag WH
Sol.
=
2

E Ag EH
2

or
0.54
=
W 112

108 1

g
WH2 = 0.005

P = 750 mm = 750/760 atm

Using ideal gas equation

V =
W RT
=
0.005×0.082×300×760

MP 2×750

.
= 62.34 ml

93. Which of the following pairs of elements show diagonal relationship?

1. Li and Mg 2. B and Si 3. Mg and Al

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(1) 1 and 3 (2) 2 and 3 (3) 1 and 2 (4) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. 3
Sol. The first element of a group (elements of second row) often show resemblance with the second element of the next group.

This similarity arises because of their comparable (i) electronegativities, (ii) ionization energies, (iii) polarizing powers
(charge/radius ratios).

94. How will you convert butan-2-one to propanoic acid?

(1) Tollen's reagent (2) Fehling's solution (3) N aOH + I2 , H
+
(4) N aOH + N aI , H
+

Ans. 3

Sol.

95. The vapour pressure of benzene at 90 C is 1020 torr. A solution of 15 g of a solute in 58.5 g benzene has a vapour pressure of
∘

990 torr. The molecular weight of the solute is

(1) 78.2 (2) 204.2 (3) 148.2 (4) 226.6
Ans. 4
Sol. Using Raoult's law for relative lowering of vapour pressure as follows

P o −P s
=
w×M

Po m×W

Here Por pure

= V solvent,
P o
VP=of solution

P s

or
1020−990
=
5×78

1020 m×58.5

So m
. = 226.6

96. Consider the following statements

1. Cs ion is more highly hydrated than other alkali metal ions

2. Among the alkali metals Li, Na, K and Rb, Lithium (Li) has the highest melting point

3. Among the alkali metals, only lithium form a stable nitride by direct combination.

O these statements
(1) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (2) 1 and 2 are correct (3) 1 and 3 are correct (4) 2 and 3 are correct
Ans. 4
Sol. L(order
i > of
+
Nahydration)
> K
+

Rb > Cs
>
+ + +

As size of cation increases, solvation decreases.

due to its small size can form nitrides as it can stabilize the electron cloud of nitride ion.
Li

97. Which one of the following nitroalkanes will give nitrolic acid with N aN O 2
/Conc. H2 SO4 ?
(4) All of the above
(1) (3)
(2)

Ans. 3
Sol. Pimary nitroalkane gives nitrolic acid with H

NO 2

98. In the reaction

(1) A will give haloform(2) B will give haloform(3) Both A and B will give haloform (4) Both A and B will not give haloform
Ans. 3
Sol. As both A and B can form haloform reaction. So, they are ethanol and isopropyl alcohol respectively.

 99. Which of the following compounds liberates dihydrogen gas at anode when it is electrolysed in molten state but the same gas
is liberated at cathode if its aqueous solution is electrolysed?
(1) NaCl (2) NaH (3) PH I
4
(4) CuSO
4

Ans. 2
Sol. NaH contains H as H −
ions but aqueous solution of NaH
contains NaOH
and its electrolysis liberates hydrogen at cathode.

100. The carbon-chlorine bond length is shortest in

(1) CH = CH − Cl
2
(2) CH − Cl
3
(3) C H − CH − Cl
6 5 2
(4) CH = CH − CH − Cl
2 2

Ans. 1
Sol. The carbon-chlorine bond length is shortest in CasHlone
2
= pair
CH of− Cl
Cl is involved in delocallisation due to which a double bond

character develops between C and Cl-atoms.

Botany - Section A

101. The taxonomic unit 'Phylum' is used in the classification of animals only, which term is equivalent to a phylum in the
classification of plants?
(1) Class (2) Order (3) Division (4) Family
Ans. 3
Sol. In a taxonomical hierarchy, term phylum is used only for animal kingdom. In plant kingdom, term division is used in
place of the phylum. According to ICBN specific suffix has been specified for different categories. Name of the division
should end with suffix - phyta.

102. When the activity of one gene is suppressed by the activity of a non-allelic gene, it is known as?
(1) Pseudo-dominance (2) Hypostasis (3) Epistasis (4) Incomplete dominance
Ans. 3
Sol. The gene interaction in which two non allelic gene interacts in which, one gene mask or suppresses the activity of another
gene present at different gene locus. The gene which suppresses the activity is known as epistatic gene and the gene which is
suppressed is known as hypostatic gene.

103. Plants like Indigofera, Sesbania, lupin and gram:

(1) Show zygomorphic flowers (2) Belong to same family Fabaceae (3) Show actinomorphic flower (4) Both (A) and (B)
Ans. 4
Sol. Indigofera, Sesbania, lupin and gram are members of the Fabaceae family. Members of the Fabaceae family has a
zygomorphic flower. They have vexillary aestivation due to which flower can be divided into two equal half from one vertical
plane only.

104. In pteridophytes, spores germinate to produce

(1) prothallus (2) sporangium (3) sporophyte (4) zygote
 Ans. 1
Sol. In Pteridophyta, the main plant body is the diploid sporophyte. Spore is the first haploid structure produced after meiosis.
It germinates to form a small green independent photosynthetic non-vascular plant body which is called prothallus.

105. In the developing ovule of most of the Angiosperms, megaspore mother cell is situated within the nucellus
(1) towards the micropyle (2) towards the chalaza (3) In the centre, equidistant from micropyle and chalaza
(4) towards the raphe
Ans. 1
Sol. The developing ovule of most of the angiosperm originates from a single megaspore mother cell present in the nucellus
that is situated towards the micropylar end.

106. In litchi, the third integument which develops from the funicle at the base of the ovule is
(1) sarcotesta (2) operculum (3) caruncle (4) aril
Ans. 4
Sol. In Litchi the third integument which develops from the base of the funicle becomes thich and fleshy and form the edible
portion and is known as aril.

107. Examples of arithmetic growth are,

(1) root elongation (2) increase in girth (3) both (a) and (b) (4) none of these
Ans. 1
Sol. The growth that occurs at a constant rate is known as the arithmetic growth, which is followed by the mitotic cell division.
Only one daughter cell continues to divide while the other differentiates and other undergoes maturation. Root elongates at a
constant rate thus shows arithmetic growth. An increase in girth of plant shows variable growth and it depends upon the
environmental condition and is a secondary growth involving differentiation.

108. A somatic cell in a human male contains ___________.

(1) no gene on the sex chromosome (2) genes on only on sex chromosomes (3) two genes for every sex-linked character
(4) only one sex-linked gene for each character
Ans. 4
Sol. Human male contains 44 autosomes and a pair of sex chromosome having one X and one Y chromosome. Genes located
on the X and Y chromosomes are called a sex-linked gene. Genes present on X chromosome are called X linked gene and gene
present on Y chromosome are called a Y linked gene. Male is hemizygous for both X linked and Y linked genes.

109. Thurioside is
(1) insecticide (2) fungicide (3) antibiotic (4) weedicide
Ans. 1
Sol. Thurioside is toxic to several insects and produced by bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.

110. Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila is___________.

(1) polytene chromosome (2) lampbrush chromosome (3) supernumerary chromosome (4) B-chromosomes
Ans. 1
Sol. Polytene chromosome also known as salivary gland chromosome was discovered in the salivary gland of Chironomus
insect and later in salivary glands of other insect-like Drosophila. Due to its multi-threaded structure it is also named as a
polytene chromosome.

111. In lac-operon, which protein is not regulated by the repressor?

(1) Galactosidase (2) Lactose Permease (3) Tryptophan synthetase (4) Transacetylase
 Ans. 3
Sol. Lac operon consists of three structural gene X, Y, and A. Gene X synthesizes enzyme beta-galactosidase which breaks
lactose into glucose and galactose. Gene Y synthesizes enzyme Lactose permease which increases membrane permeability for
lactose. Gene A synthesizes enzyme transacetylase which degrades the galactose.

112. Competition is most fierce between

(1) unrelated species in the same environment. (2) two or more closely related species in the same environment.
(3) two or more closely related species in a different environment. (4) none of the above
Ans. 2
Sol. Competition is most fierce between two or more closely related species in the same environment as they depend on the
same resource. If resources are limited then competition cannot occur for long and eventually inferior one gets eliminated.

113. A chromosome with sub-terminal centromere is__________.

(1) acrocentric (2) acentric (3) metacentric (4) telocentric
Ans. 1
Sol. A chromosome consists of two chromatids that remain attached at a point called the centromere. According to the position
of the centromere, the chromosome is of four types. In the acrocentric chromosome the centromere is present towards the end
of the chromosome or the centromere is sub-terminal in position.

114. Which of the following form the basis of fungal classification?

(1) The morphology of the mycelium. (2) Mode of spore formation. (3) Fruiting body (4) All of the above
Ans. 4
Sol. The morphology of the mycelium whether septate or aseptate, mode of spore formation and fruiting bodies forms the
basis for the division of the kingdom Mycota into various classes.

115. Which of the following is made up of dead cells?

(1) Collenchyma (2) Phellem (3) Sieve tube (4) Xylem parenchyma
Ans. 2
Sol. Collenchyma is living mechanical tissue. Phellem or cork is made up of dead cell and its cell wall is deposited with
suberin which makes it impermeable. Sieve tube elements are long, tube-like structures, arranged longitudinally and are
associated with the companion cells. Their end walls are perforated in a sieve-like manner to form the sieve plates. A mature
sieve element possesses a peripheral cytoplasm and a large vacuole but lacks a nucleus. The functions of sieve tubes are
controlled by the nucleus of companion cells. Xylem parenchyma are living parenchyma cells associated with xylem to store
water and minerals.

116. Based on the source of their nutrition or food, organism occupies a specific place in the food chain which is known as their:
(1) Trophic level (2) Standing state (3) Food web (4) Stratification
Ans. 1
Sol. Organism occupy a place in the natural surroundings or in a community according to their feeding relationship with other
organisms. Based on the source of their nutrition or food, organism occupy a specific place in the food chain that is known as
their trophic level. Producer belongs to first trophic level, herbivores to second and carnivores to third trophic level.

117. Pollutants from man's activities like effluents from the industries and homes can radically accelerate the ageing process known
as:
(1) Biomagnification (2) BOD (3) Acclerated Eutrophication (4) COD
Ans. 3
 Sol. Pollutants from man’s activities like effluents from the industries and homes can radically accelerate the ageing process.
This phenomenon has been called cultural or accelerated eutrophication.

118. High biological oxygen demand in a water body means ________.

(1) water is not polluted (2) water is less polluted (3) water body contains lots of life forms and organic pollutant.
(4) None of the above
Ans. 3
Sol. Biological oxygen demand means the quantity of oxygen required in milligram by microbes to aerobically degrade the
organic matter present in one liter of water. BOD is an indirect measurement of organic pollutant present in the water. The high
value of BOD indicates more quantity of organic pollutant present in the water.

119. Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used as:

(1) Insecticide (2) Weedicides (3) Rodenticide (4) None of the above
Ans. 1
Sol. Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used to control butterfly caterpillars. Spore of Bt are available as sachets which are mixed
with water and sprayed onto vulnerable plants such as Brassica and fruit trees, where they are eaten by insects larvae. In the
gut of the larvae, the toxin is released and the larvae geta killed.

120. A population that exhibits birth rates that are identical to the death rate implies:
(1) Initial growth (2) Plateau phase (3) Acceleration phase (4) Log phase
Ans. 2
Sol. A population in which birth rate or number of birth during a given period in the population and the death rate or the
number of death during a given period in a population are same then intrinsic growth rate of the population is zero and the
population exhibits plateau phase.

121. Select the correct option for the matched pair.

(1) Viroid - Naked infective RNA (2) Prion - Infectious protein affecting only plants (3) Capsid - Protein coat of viroid
(4) Phytophage - dsDNA
Ans. 1
Sol. Viroids are naked infective RNA which are not surrounded by any protein coat. Prions are infective proteins which causes
diseases only in animals. Protein coat of virus is known as a capsid. Phytophage are plant viruses which generally has ssRNA
as the genetic material.

122. Plants adapted to low light intensity have

(1) larger photosynthetic unit size than the sun plants (2) higher rate of CO2 fixation than the sun plants
(3) more extended root system (4) leaves modified to spines.
Ans. 1
Sol. To absorb more sunlight (quantitatively), the plants growing in low light conditions have larger photosynthetic unit size.
They have large-sized chloroplast are more in number. Their chloroplast has more number of chlorophyll molecules per
reaction centre to trap more light energy available to them.

123. Find the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) Majority of Euglenoids are fresh water organisms found in stagnant water. (2) Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.
(3) In diatoms, the cell walls form two thin non-overlapping shells, which fit together as in a soap box.
(4) Dinoflagellates are mostly marine and photosynthetic.
Ans. 3
 Sol. In diatoms, the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells, which fit together as in a soap box. The walls are embedded
with silica and thus the walls are indestructible. Thus, diatoms have left behind large amount of cell wall deposits in their
habitat; this accumulation over billions of years is referred to as ‘diatomaceous earth’.

124. Which of the following method is useful for increasing the rate of pollination and facilitating higher crop yield?
(1) Apiculture (2) Sericulture (3) Dairying (4) Fishery
Ans. 1
Sol. Apiculture or beekeeping is the care and management of honey bees for the production of honey and the wax. This
method is useful for increasing the rate of pollination and facilitating higher crop yield.

125. Consider the following statements (A − D) each with one or two blanks.

(I) Bears go into … ( 1 ) … . . during winter to … . . ( 2 ) … . . cold weather.

(II) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an example of … … . ( 3 ) … … .

Which one of the following options gives the correct fill up for the respective blanks?
(1) ( 1 ) stable ( 2 ) commensalism, ( 3 ) marsh (2) ( 1 ) aestivation, ( 2 ) escape, ( 3 ) mutualism
(3) (3) Aestivation, ( 2 ) hibernation, ( 3 ) Commensalism (4) ( 1 ) hibernation, ( 2 ) escape, ( 3 ) Mutualism
Ans. 4
Sol. Bears going into hibernation during winters is an example of escape in time to survive in cold winers. A Gall Wasp lays its
eggs in hypanthodium inflorescence of fig plant and during the act of laying egg it brings about pollination by transferring
pollen grains from one inflorescence to other. The fig offers the wasp some of its developing seeds, as food for the developing
wasp larvae.

126. Non-sense codons participate in:

(1) Releasing t-RNA from polynucleotide chain (2) Formation of unspecified amino acids
(3) Terminating message of gene-controlled protein synthesis (4) Conversion of sense DNA into non-sense DNA
Ans. 3
Sol. Out of 64 codons only 61 codons specifies amino acid. 3 codons which do not sense any amino acid are called as non
sense codons. These codons does not have any anticodons. They help in terminating the process of translation by attaching
release factor.

127. In which of the following, R.Q will always be less than one?
(1) Potato (2) Rice (3) Groundnut (4) More than one option is correct
Ans. 3
Sol. The ratio of the volume of COevolved to the volume of O
2 2
consumed in respiration is called the respiratory quotient (RQ).
When fats are used in respiration, the RQ is less than 1. For oxidation of groundnut, fats are oxidized thus value of RQ is less
than 1. In rice and potato the main respiratory substrate is carbohydrates, for which, the RQ value is one.

128. __________ is not generally seen in biodiversity hotspots.

(1) Endemism (2) Species richness (3) Loss of diversity (4) Lesser interspecific competition.
Ans. 4
Sol. Hotspots are those regions with very high species richness and high degree of endemism, that is the species is confined to
that particular region. These hotspots are also regions of accelerated habitat loss. Since they are rich is diversity they show
higher interspecific competition.

129. Accumulation of which one of the following acids results in the closure of stomata.
(1) Malic acid (2) Aspartic acid (3) PEP (4) Oxaloacetic acid.
Ans. 1
 Sol. According to Kpump
+
−H theory during the closure of stomata, ABA stops the energy dependant proton pump in guard cell,
+

thus Kdiffuses out of the cell and H

+
enters inside, which combines with malate ion to form malic acid. OP of guard cells decreases
+

thus stomata close.

130. Damage to hearing is caused by sounds which exceed

(1) 70 dB (2) 100 dB (3) 110 dB (4) 120 dB
Ans. 4
Sol. Noise has been well defined as unwanted sound which is being dumped into the atmosphere to disturb the unwilling ear.
Sound intensity of 100 dB becomes uncomfortable and 130 dB painful.

131. Which of the following is a well-known sacred grove of India?

(1) National Zoological Park (2) Indo-Burma and Himalaya (3) Khasi and Jaintia Hills (4) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
Ans. 3
Sol. In many cultures, tracts of forest were set aside, and all the trees and wildlife within were venerated and given total
protection. Such sacred groves are found in Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya, Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan, Western Ghat
regions of Karnataka and Maharashtra and the Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar areas of Madhya Pradesh. In Meghalaya, the sacred
groves are the last refuges for a large number of rare and threatened plants.

132. Select the incorrect pair.

(1) Incomplete dominance - Dog flower (2) Pleiotropy - Phenylketonuria (3) Female heterogametic - Grasshopper
(4) Klinefelter's syndrome - XXY
Ans. 3
Sol. In grasshopper, the sex determination mechanism is XO male type in which male has autosome and one X chromosome
and female has autosome and two X chromosome. Thus male is heterogametic producing two types of gametes and female is
homogametc.

133. Cystic fibrosis is a/an

(1) sex-linked recessive disorder (2) autosomal dominant disorder (3) autosomal recessive disorder
(4) sex-linked dominant disorder
Ans. 3
Sol. Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in the single gene. These disorders are transmitted to
the offspring on the same lines as we have studied in the principle of inheritance. The pattern of inheritance of such Mendelian
disorders can be traced in a family by the pedigree analysis. Most common and prevalent Mendelian disorders are
Haemophilia, Cystic fibrosis, Sickle-cell anaemia, Colour blindness, Phenylketonuria, Thalassemia, etc.

Cystic fibrosis, sickle-cell anaemia and phenylketonuria are examples of autosomal recessive disorders, while haemophilia and
colour blindness are sex-linked disorders (both of them are X-linked recessive disorders). Examples of autosomal dominant
includes myotonic dystrophy.

134. Majority of plants use

(1) biotic agent for pollination (2) abiotic agent for pollination (3) air for pollination (4) water for pollination
Ans. 1
Sol. Majority of plants uses biotic agents for pollination. Only a small proportion of plants uses abiotic agents for pollination.
As pollination by air or water is a by chance process, to increase the chance of pollination plant developed attractive flowers to
attract biotic agents for pollination.

135. Which of the following is a coconut milk factor?

 (1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin (3) Morphactin (4) None of the above
Ans. 2
Sol. Cytokinins are plant growth hormones that are basic in nature and derivatives of aminopurine or phenyl urea. These
hormones promote cell division (cytokinesis) either alone or in conjugation with auxin. In liquid endosperm of coconut kinetin
(cytokinin) are present.

Botany - Section B

136. Select the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) Rhizobium multiply and colonises the surroundings of roots and gets attached to epidermal and root hair cell.
(2) Successful infection of the root hair causes it to curl. (3) The nodule establishes a direct vascular connection with the host.
(4) Infection thread carries the bacteria to xylem and phloem.
Ans. 4
Sol. During root nodule formation infection thread carries the bacteria into the cortex of the root, where they initiates the
nodule formation in the cortex of the root. Then the bacteria are released from the thread into the cortical cells which leads to
differentiation of specialized nitrogen fixing cells. The nodule establishes a direct vascular connection with the host for
exchange of nutrients.

137. Select the incorrect match from the following.

(1) Phycobiont - Algal partner of Lichen (2) Phycomycetes - Albugo candida (3) Flagellated protozoan - Trypanosoma
(4) Archaebacteria - Cyanobacteria
Ans. 4
Sol. Archaebacteria are special since they live in some of the most harsh habitats such as extreme salty areas (halophiles), hot
springs (thermoacidophiles) and marshy areas (methanogens). Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different
cell wall structure and this feature is responsible for their survival in extreme conditions. Methanogens are present in the gut of
several ruminant animals such as cows and buffaloes and they are responsible for the production of methane (biogas) from the
dung of these animals.

138. Among the following, identify the substrate required for the only oxidative reaction that occurs in the process of glycolysis.
(1) 3- Phosphoglyceric acid (2) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (3) Fructose 6-phosphate (4) Glucose 6-phosphate
Ans. 2
Sol. In glycolysis, only one oxidative reaction occurs in which the hydrogen liberated is accepted by Nforming
AD+ N . In
ADHthis + H +
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is hydrogen donor and is oxidized to form 1,3 diphosphoglyceric acid.

139. A colorblind man (X c

Y) marries a woman who is carrier for hemophilia ((X X )
h
) . Which of the following is TRUE for their
progenies?
(1) 25% female progenies carry the genes for both haemophilia and colourblindness.
(2) 25% male progenies carry only the gene for haemophilia.
(3) 25% female progenies carry only the gene for colourblindness. (4) All of these
Ans. 4
Sol. X-lined disorders are inherent disorders due to mutation in the X-chromosome which causes the phenotype to be always
expressed in male and in female only in homozygous condition.

Colour blindness and haemophilia are X-linked recessive disorder. In colour blindness, the affected individual has is not able
to distinguish colour especially read and green. In haemophilia, the individual has delayed clotting time for blood which can be
fatal.

 Colour blind father (and

X Y
c
hemophilic
) .(X
carrier
X)
mother will produce the following combination of progenies-

h
( )

Probabilities of son - X
Y /X h
Y

Probabilities of daughter - X
c
X /X
c
X
h

25% female progenies carry the genes for both haemophilia and colourblindness.

25% male progenies carry only the gene for haemophilia.

25% female progenies carry only the gene for colourblindness.

25% male progenies are normal without any X-linked disorder.

140. Identify the stages shown in the figure and select the correct option

(1) A-Late Prophase; B-Anaphase; C-Telophase; D-Prophase

(2) A-Late Prophase; B-Metaphase of mitosis; C-Prophase I of meiosis; D-Metaphase I of meiosis
(3) A-Late Prophase; B-Metaphase of mitosis; C-Metaphase I of meiosis; D-Prophase I of meiosis
(4) A-Metaphase; B-Anaphase; C-Telophase; D-Prophase I of meisos
Ans. 2
Sol. During late prophase, the nuclear membrane disappears and chromosomes are scattered in the cytoplasm. During
metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes are organized in the center of cell forming metaphasic plate. Recombination or crossing
over during prophase I of meiosis. Chromosomal pairs are organised in center of cell during metaphase I of meiosis.

141. Read statements A-D, and select the correct option.

(A. ) Mitosis produced two identical daughter cell.

(B. ) Meiosis introduces variation due to gene exchange.

(C. ) After anaphase, the chromosome has two chromatids.

(D. ) Anaphase I is responsible for the reduction in chromosome number of gametes.

(1) All are correct (2) A, B, C are correct (3) A, B, D are correct (4) C, D are correct
Ans. 3
Sol. Mitosis is an equational division in which one cell divides to form two identical daughter cells. Meiosis produces genetic
variation due to crossing over which occurs during prophase I of meiosis. During anaphase centromere splits and two
chromatids are separated and starts moving to opposite poles. During anaphase I, the homologous chromosome moves to
opposite poles, hence reduction in the number of chromosome happens.

142. Which of the following is generally present in dicot stem but absent in monocot stem?

(i) Endodermis

(ii) Pericycle

(iii) Medullary ray

 (iv) Phloem parenchyma

(v) Pith

(vi) Epidermis
(1) All except (iii) and (iv) (2) All except (iv) (3) All except (i) and (iii) (4) All except (vi)
Ans. 4
Sol. In dicot stem, ground tissue is well-differentiated and consists of endodermis, pericycle, medullary rays and the central
part as pith. In monocot, ground tissue is undifferentiated and lacks endodermis, pericycle, medullary rays and the central part
as pith. Phloem parenchyma is absent in monocot stem.

143. Find out the incorrect statements:

(A. ) PPLO is a prokaryotic cell.

(B. ) W.B.C. shows amoeboid movement.

(C. ) Mesosomes helps in the synthesis of carbohydrates.

(D. ) Microbodies are cell organelles.

(E. ) Prokaryotes have endomembrane cell-organelles.

(1) B, D and E (2) B, C and E (3) C, D and E (4) C and E only

Ans. 4
Sol. A special membranous structure is a mesosome which is formed by the extensions of the plasma membrane into the cell.
These extensions are in the form of vesicles, tubules and lamellae. They help in cell wall formation, DNA replication and
distribution to daughter cells. They also help in respiration, secretion processes, to increase the surface area of the plasma
membrane and enzymatic content.

No organelles, like the ones in eukaryotes, are found in prokaryotic cells except for ribosomes.

144. One set of a plant was grown at 12 hours a day and 12 hours night period and it flowered, while in the other set night phase
was interrupted by a flash of light and it did not produce a flower. Under which one of the following category will u place this
plant?
(1) Long day plant (2) Day neutral plant (3) Short day plant (4) Both (A) and (B)
Ans. 3
Sol. The plant which flowers in the equal duration of day and night photoperiod are called a day-neutral plant. The plant which
requires a short light period and longer continuous dark period for flowering are called short-day plant. They require a
continuous uninterrupted dark period for flowering and fail to flower if the dark period is interrupted by a brief flash of light.

145. Which of the following statements is not applicable to viruses?

(1) The virus replicates in a bacterial host. (2) The protein coat of a virus does not enter the host cell.
(3) The genetic material is DNA or RNA. (4) The virus replicates autonomously in the absence of a host.
Ans. 4
Sol. The virus is an obligate intracellular parasite and they cannot survive outside the living host cell. They are connecting link
between the living and non-living. They lacks cellular organization thus can replicate only inside other living host cell.

146. Select the incorrectly matched pairs.

(1) Purines - Nitrogenous bases cytosine, thymine and uracil
(2) Recombinant DNA - DNA formed by joining the DNA segments from two different sources
(3) rRNA - RNA found in ribosomes (4) ATP - The energy-carrying compound in the cell
Ans. 1
Sol. Nitrogen bases purines are double ringed compound which includes adenine and Guanine. Cytosine, thymne and uracil
are single ringed compounds which are pyrimidines. rRNA are ribosomal RNA which combines with protein to form
 ribosomes. ATP is energy currency of the cell in which energy is carried in high energy phosphate bonds.

147. Which one of the following is incorrect in relation to the difference between plant and animal cell?

Character Animal Cell Plant Cell

A Cell wall Absent Present
B Vacuole Absent or small Present
C Cell division Division is anastral Division is astral
D Reserve food Glycogen Starch

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Ans. 3
Sol. Cell division in an animal cell is astral as they have centriole and astral rays develop from them. In plant cell, astral rays
are absent thus their division is anastral.

148. Match Column- I with Column - II and select the CORRECT option from the codes given below.

Column - I Column - II
(1) Autosomal recessive trait (i) Down’s syndrome
(2) Sex-linked recessive trait (ii) Phenylketonuria
(3) Metabolic error linked to an autosomal recessive trait (iii) Haemophilia
(4) Additional 21 chromosome
st
(iv) Sickle cell anaemia

(1) 1- (ii), 2 - (i), 3 - (iv), 4 - (iii) (2) 1- (iv), 2 - (i), 3 - (ii), 4 - (iii) (3) 1- (iv), 2 - (iii), 3 - (ii), 4 - (i)
(4) 1- (iii), 2 - (iv), 3 - (i), 4 - (ii)
Ans. 3
Sol. Chromosomal disorder occurs when there is addition or deletion of chromosome in the individual. In case of trisomy of
the 21
chromosome causes Down's syndrome. This results in mental retardation and physical development is retarded as well.
st

The palm of the individual is broad with characteristic palm crease.

Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of metabolism where the individual has reduced metabolism of the amino acid
phenylalanine. Such mutation leads to mental retardation, with reduction in hair and skin pigmentation. It is a recessive
autosomal disorder.

Haemophilia are X-linked recessive disorder. X chromosome is part of the sex chromosome. In haemophilia, the individual has
delayed clotting time for blood which can be fatal.

Sickle cell anemia is a type of genetic blood disorder which is inherited from the parents. The person suffering from it
develops an abnormal haemoglobin that leads to elongated and curved or sickle shaped RBC. Such condition occurs when the
individual inherits two abnormal copies of gene for beta globin chain of haemoglobin from each parent. It is an autosomal
recessive disorder.

149. Consider the following four statements and select the option with both incorrect statements.

A. The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses.

B. Sellaginella is heterosporous.

C. The life cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic.

D. In Pinus, male and female cones are borne on different trees.

(1) A and C (2) A and D (3) B and C (4) D and B

 Ans. 2
Sol. The sporophyte in liverworts is small and simple, and sporophyte in moss is more elaborate than liverworts. In Pinus,
plant is monoecious, in which male and female cones are borne on the same plant.

150. Which one of the following cannot be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance?
(1) The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called a factor
(2) Out of one pair of factors one is dominant, and the other recessive
(3) Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as such in F2 generation.
(4) All of the inheritable factors occur in pairs.
Ans. 3
Sol. According to Mendel's law of Dominance, out of two contrasting allelomorphic factors only one expresses itself in an
individual. The factor that expresses itself is called dominant while the other which has not shown its effect in the
heterozygous individual is termed as recessive The option Alleles do not show any blending and both the characters recover as
such in F2 generation in the given question cannot be explained on the basis of law of dominance. It can only be explained on
the basis of Mendel's law of independent assortment, according to which in a dihybrid cross, the two alleles of each character
assort independently of the alleles of other character and separate at the time of gamete formation.

Zoology - Section A

151. Which organ is oval in shape, has a dense covering, and lies in extra-abdominal pouch having two 2 to 1.5 degrees centigrade
lower temperature than the body?
(1) Ovary (2) Eyeball (3) Testis (4) Epididymis
Ans. 3
Sol. The testes - also called testicles - are two oval-shaped organs in the male reproductive system. They're contained in a sac
of skin called the scrotum.

152. Gel electrophoresis is used for

(1) construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors (2) isolation of DNA molecules
(3) cutting of DNA into fragments (4) separation of DNA fragments according to their size.
Ans. 4
Sol. Electrophoresis is a technique used for the separation of substances of different ionic properties. Since the DNA fragments
are negatively charged molecules, they can be separated by allowing them to move towards the anode. DNA fragments move
towards the anode according to their molecules size through the pores of agarose gel. Thus, the smaller fragments move farther
away as compared to larger fragments.

153. When the different structures evolve in the same direction due to adaptation to similar needs, it is then referred to as?
(1) adaptive convergence (2) divergent evolution (3) homology (4) analogy
Ans. 4
Sol. Analogy, or analogous structures, is the one that does not indicate there is a recent common ancestor between two
organisms. Even though the anatomical structures being studied look similar and maybe even perform the same functions, they
are a product of convergent evolution. Convergent evolution is the process whereby groups from the different ancestor evolve
and accumulate similarities.

154. Which of the following character is unique to Mollusca?

(1) Canal system (2) Mantle cavity (3) Pseudocoelom (4) Collar cells
Ans. 2
 Sol. Molluscs are terrestrial or aquatic (marine or fresh water) having an organ-system level of organisation. They are
bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate animals. Body is covered by a calcareous shell and is unsegmented with a
distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump. A soft and spongy layer of skin forms a mantle over the visceral hump. The
space between the hump and the mantle is called the mantle cavity in which feather like gills are present. They have
respiratory and excretory functions. The anterior head region has sensory tentacles. The mouth contains a file-like rasping
organ for feeding, called radula.

155. A technique in which sperm are stored for a long duration is

(1) incubator (2) cryopreservation (3) deep freezing (4) all of these
Ans. 2
Sol. The sperm from a Donor is preserved in liquid nitrogen and can be used when it is required and this process of storage at
-196oC is called cryopreservation.

156. Which of the contraceptive release mineral ions to inhibit the motility of a sperm?
(1) Condoms (2) Copper T (3) Saheli (4) Norplant
Ans. 2
Sol. Copper ions are toxic for the sperm and prevent its motility so that it cannot fertilize eggs.

157. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing transgenic plants resistant to
(1) bollworms (2) nematodes (3) white rusts (4) bacterial blights
Ans. 2
Sol. A nematode Meloidogyne incognita infests the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction in yield. A novel
strategy was adopted to prevent this infection that was based on the process of RNA interference (RNAi). RNA interference
(RNAi) is the phenomenon of inhibiting the activity of a gene by the synthesis of RNA molecules complementary to the
mRNA. the presence of antisense RNA will block the translation of the mRNA of the affected gene.

158. Who among the following is not a naturalist?

(1) Darwin (2) Malthus (3) Wallace (4) All of the above
Ans. 2
Sol. Malthus proposed the principle of population that initiated Darwin to rethink many issues while coming up with his
theory of natural selection. Malthus work made Darwin realize the importance of overpopulation and how it was necessary to
have variability in different populations.

159. Which of the following duct/ducts helps in the transportation of sperm and seminal plasma?
(1) Vasa efferentia (2) Epididymis (3) Vas deferens (4) All of the above
Ans. 4
Sol. The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens. The seminiferous tubules of
the testis open into the vasa efferentia through rete testis. The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into epididymis located
along the posterior surface of each testis. The epididymis leads to vas deferens that ascends to the abdomen and loops over the
urinary bladder. It receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct. These ducts store and
transport the sperms from the testis to the outside through urethra. The urethra originates from the urinary bladder and extends
through the penis to its external opening called urethral meatus.

160. Which of the following hormones is not a secretion product of the human placenta?
(1) Human chorionic gonadotropin (2) Prolactin (3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone
Ans. 2
 Sol. Human chorionic gonadotropin is released by synotiotrophoblesty. cells of the placenta. E ​ strogen and progesterone are
also released by placental cells to maintain pregnancy. Prolactin is secreted from anterior lobe of pituitary. Placenta secretes
Human Placental Lactogenic Factor which prepare mammary glands to secrete milk.

161. The LH and FSH secretion from the anterior pituitary is stimulated by the
(1) gonadotropin releasing hormone. (2) testosterone from testis (3) melatonin from pineal gland
(4) thyroxine from thyroid gland
Ans. 1
Sol. Gonadotropins are hormones synthesized and released by the anterior pituitary, which act on the gonads (testes and
ovaries) to increase the production of sex hormones and stimulate production of either sperm or ova. Follicle stimulating
hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormones (LH) are the main gonadotropins.

162. Which of the following is not a character of the echinoderm life cycle?
(1) Radial symmetry (2) Bilateral symmetry (3) Asymmetrical (4) Both (A) and (C)
Ans. 3
Sol. The adult echinoderms are radially symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally symmetrical.

163. Which of the following structures has the highest concentration of cone cells?
(1) Blind spot (2) Fovea (3) Aqueous chamber (4) Vitreous chamber
Ans. 2
Sol. Everyone has a spot in their retina where the optic nerve connects. In this area, there are no light-sensitive cells so this
part of your retina can't see. This is the blind spot. At the posterior pole of the eye lateral to the blind spot, there is a yellowish
pigmented spot called macula lutea with a central pit called the fovea. The fovea is a thinned-out portion of the retina where
only the cones are densely packed. It is the point where the visual acuity (resolution) is the greatest.

164. Heavy and light meromyosin are components of

(1) Actin filament (2) Myosin filament (3) Troponin protein (4) Tropomyosin protein
Ans. 2
Sol. Muscles contain actin and myosin protein filament. Myosin is made up of heavy and light chain meromyosin.

165. Which of the following is an example of movement?

(1) Protoplasmic streaming (2) Biting and chewing of food (3) Flexion and extension of Limbs (4) All of the above
Ans. 4
Sol. Movement, or motion, is the state of changing something's position-that is, changing where something is. A flying bird or
a walking person are moving, because they change where they are from one place to another.

166. The selective reabsorption of glucose and amino acids into the blood takes place mainly in:
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) Henle's loop (3) Distal convoluted tubules (4) Collecting duct
Ans. 1
Sol. The complete absorption nutrients takes place in proximal convoluted tubule.

PCT is lined by microvilli contain large number of Mitochondria in their cells as the absorption of nutrients is an active
process.

167. The ventricles are relaxed and the ventricular pressure falls causing the closure of semilunar valves. These events are related to
(1) atrial depolarization (2) ventricular systole (3) ventricular diastole (4) joint diastole
Ans. 3
 Sol. As ventricular muscle relaxes, pressure on the blood within the ventricles drops even further. Eventually, it drops below
the pressure in the atria. When this occurs, blood flows from the atria into the ventricles, pushing open the tricuspid and mitral
valves.

168. Child death may occur in the marriage between:

(1) Rh+ man and Rh+ woman (2) Rh+ man and Rh- woman (3) Rh– man and Rh– woman (4) Rh– man and Rh+ woman
Ans. 2
Sol. Rh factor was discovered by Karl Landsteiner. A child of Rh +
man will be Rh
+
whether the mother is Rh
+
or Rh
so, when the blood of
−

+
Rh child (in the womb) mixes with the blood of Rh mother, then some antibodies in mother’s blood may cause death of the
−

child. If the birth takes place then there is a possibility of child death in the early years. This in known as erythroblastosis
foetalis. In most cases the Ist pregnancy may succeed but the chances of successful successive pregnancies decrease many
folds.

169. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are:
(1) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter (2) Rhizobium and Diplococcus (3) Nitrosomonas and Kliebsiella
(4) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
Ans. 4
Sol. E.coli contains many important standard cloning vectors widely used in gene cloning experiments like pBR322 contains
origin of replication (ori). Other cloning vectors like PACYC177, pBR324, PRK 64.6 contain ampicillin resistance gene they
are also found in E.coli. Among higher plants, Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens and Ri plasmid of A. rhizogenes is the
best-known vector. TDNA from Ti or Ri plasmid of Agrobacterium is considered to be a very potential vector for cloning
experiments with higher plants.

170. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by

(1) its Km value. (2) its pH optimum value. (3) the molecular size of the enzyme. (4) the formation of the product.
Ans. 1
Sol. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by comparing their Kvalue or Michaelis Menten
m

constant. The Michaelis constant is the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is at half-maximum. The Kdescribes
m

the affinity of enzyme for a substrate molecule. Greater the affinity lower is the Kvalue and sooner the V
m

​can be attained and vice
max

versa.

171. Which of the following is not related to human teeth?

(1) Enamel (2) Dentalium (3) Crown (4) Root of tooth
Ans. 2
Sol. Tooth enamel is the hard, outer surface layer of your teeth that serves to protect against tooth decay. In fact, tooth enamel
is considered the hardest mineral substance in your body, even stronger than bone.

Dentalium is a kind of mollusca.

172. The name of Mary Mallon was associated with

(1) the transmission of typhoid (2) the first typhoid patient (3) renowned physician (4) the family health worker
Ans. 1
Sol. Mary Mallon was born in 1869 in Ireland and emigrated to the US. She had worked in a variety of domestic positions for
wealthy families prior to settling into her career as a cook. As a healthy carrier of Salmonella typhi her nickname of "Typhoid
Mary" had become synonymous with the spread of disease.

173. Which of the following is a feature of genetic equilibrium?

 (1) The gene pool remains constant (2) Alleles frequency of a population is stable
(3) The total sum of all the allele frequency is (A) (4) All of the above
Ans. 4
Sol. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a principle stating that the genetic variation in a population will remain constant from
one generation to the next in the absence of disturbing factors. When mating is random in a large population with no disruptive
circumstances, the law predicts that both genotype and allele frequencies will remain constant because they are in equilibrium.

174. Which of the following is a phospholipid?

(1) Sterol (2) Cholesterol (3) Lecithin (4) Steroid
Ans. 3
Sol. Lecithin is the most abundant phospholipid present in the cell membrane. It is made up of one molecule of glycerol to
which two fatty acid molecules are attached and one phosphoric acid.

175. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant DNA by:
(1) EcoRI (2) Taq polymerase (3) DNA polymerase III (4) DNA ligase
Ans. 4
Sol. Ligase is a class of enzymes that catalyse the formation of covalent bonds using the energy released by the cleavage of
ATP. Ligases are important in the synthesis and repair of many biological molecules, including DNA ligase and used in genetic
engineering to insert foreign DNA into cloning vectors.

176. The partial pressure of oxygen at alveoli ( (A)) and blood capillary of lungs ( (B)) will be:
(1) A : 104 mm H g; B : 95 mm H g (2) A : 159 mm H g; B : 95 mm H g (3) A : 104 mm H g; B : 40 mm H g
(4) A : 159 mm H g; B : 95 mm H g
Ans. 1
Sol. The partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air is about 104 mm Hg, whereas the partial pressure of the oxygenated
pulmonary venous blood is about 95 to 98 mm Hg.

177. Which of the following organ is C shaped?

(1) Duodenum (2) Pancreas (3) Liver (4) Jejunum
Ans. 1
Sol. The small intestine is distinguishable into three regions, a ‘C’ shaped duodenum, a long coiled middle portion jejunum
and highly coiled ileum. The opening of the stomach into the duodenum is guarded by the pyloric sphincter.

178. The duration of inhalation is shortened by signals from

(1) pneumotaxic centre (2) apneuic area (3) inspiratory area (4) expiratory area
Ans. 1
Sol. The function of pneumotaxic centre present in dorsal part of brain is to limit inspiration.

179. Which of the following factors is not favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin?
(1) High PO 2
(2) Low temperature (3) Less H concentration
+
(4) High PCO 2

Ans. 4
Sol. Low PCO
favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
2

180. The function of renin is

(1) stimulation of corpus luteum (2) vasodilation (3) to reduce blood pressure
(4) conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin-l
Ans. 4
 Sol. The function of renin is to convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin I and further to angiotensin II in response to fall in
glomerular blood flow/glomerular blood pressure/GFR. Angiotensin II, being a powerful vasoconstrictor, increases the
glomerular blood pressure and thereby GF. It also
R activates adrenal cortex to release aldosterone. Aldosterone causes reabsorption
of Nand
a water from distal parts of the tubule, This also leads to an increase in blood pressure and GF R
+

181. In spermatogenesis, reduction division of chromosomes occurs during conversion of

(1) Primary spermatocytes to secondary spermatocytes (2) Spermatogonia to primary spermatocytes (3) Spermatids to sperms
(4) Secondary spermatocytes to spermatids
Ans. 1
Sol. In spermatogenesis, reduction division of chromosomes occurs during conversion of primary sper matocytes to secondary
spermatocytes.

182. In the adolescent male or female premature closure of the growth centres of the long bone may result in
(1) Increased aggressiveness (2) Kidney and liver dysfunction (3) Mood swings (4) Stunted growth
Ans. 4
Sol. In the adolescent male or female premature closure of the growth centres of the long bone may result in stunted growth.

183. Route of reflex arc is

(1) Effectors, grey matter, motor fibres, sensory fibres and receptors(2) Receptors, sensory fibres, grey matter and motor fibres
(3) Receptors sensory fibres, grey matter, motor fibres and effectors
(4) Sensory fibres, grey matter, motor fibres, receptors and effectors
Ans. 3
Sol. Route of reflex arc is receptors, sensory fibres, grey matter, motor fibres and effectors.

184. The absorbed substances finally reach the tissues which utilise them for their activities. This process is called
(1) Defaecation (2) Metabolism (3) Catabolism (4) Assimilation
Ans. 4
Sol. The absorbed substances finally reach the tissues which utilise them for their activities. This process is called assimilation

185. In a stratified cubodial epithelium

(1) all the cellular layers are of cuboidal nature
(2) lower cell layers are of columnar type but topmost layer is of cuboidal nature
(3) lower cell layers are of cuboidal nature and topmost layer of cells is of any type (4) none of these
Ans. 2
Sol. The stratified epithelium is known by the shape of cells present in its topmost layer. It is also known as compound
epithelium. It has more than one layer of cells, deepest layer is made up of columnar or cuboidal cells.

Zoology - Section B

186. How many of the following structures are found in the primary sex organ of a male?

(I) The network of small tubules

(II) Leydig cells

(III) Blood vessels

(IV) Seminiferous tubules

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Ans. 4
 Sol. The network of small tubules, blood vessels, seminiferous tubules, the interstitial cells of Leydig, are located in the
connective tissue surrounding the sperm-producing tubules of the testes, are responsible for the production and secretion of
testosterone.

187. How many of the following hormones are synthesised by the hypothalamus?

(I) growth hormone releasing hormone

(II) prolactin inhibitory hormone

(III) Thyroid stimulating hormone

(IV) aldosterone

(V) luteinizing hormone

(VI) follicle stimulating hormone

(1) Two (2) Three (3) Six (4) One
Ans. 1
Sol. Out of the six given hormones, four of them are synthesized by the hypothalamus: growth hormone-releasing hormone,
prolactin inhibitory hormone, FSH and LH. Thyroid-stimulating hormone or TSH is secreted by the thyroid gland while
aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid which is secreted by the adrenal gland.

188. Select the incorrect statement in the following.

(1) Multipolar neurons are found in Cerebral cortex. (2) Unipolar neuron had cell body with one axon only.
(3) The myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped with Schwann cells.
(4) The post synaptic neurons are filled with neurotransmitter containing vesicles.
Ans. 4
Sol. At a chemical synapse, the membranes of the pre- and post-synaptic neurons are separated by a fluid-filled space called
synaptic cleft. Chemicals called neurotransmitters are involved in the transmission of impulses at these synapses. The axon
terminals of the pre-synaptic neuron contain vesicles filled with these neurotransmitters. When an impulse (action potential)
arrives at the axon terminal, it stimulates the movement of the synaptic vesicles towards the membrane where they fuse with
the plasma membrane and release their neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft. The released neurotransmitters bind to their
specific receptors, present on the post-synaptic membrane.

189. The connective tissue having the presence of abundant fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells is:

Type of connective tissue Location

A Adipose tissue Beneath the skin
B Areolar tissue Beneath the skin
C Dense connective tissue Tendons
D Specialised connective tissue Cartilage

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Ans. 2
Sol. Areolar connective tissue: A type of connective tissue consisting of a gel-like matrix incorporating strands of protein
fibres (collagen and elastin) and such cells as fibroblasts, mast cells, macrophages, and fat cells. This tissue is found
throughout the body under the skin and linking organs and other tissues.

190. Select the incorrect statement regarding the cockroach.

(1) In females, the 7th sternum is boat-shaped.(2) Males bear a pair of short, threadlike anal styles which are absent in females.
(3) In both sexes, the 9th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci.
(4) The abdomen in both males and females consists of 10 segments.
Ans. 3
 Sol. The abdomen in both males and females consists of 10 segments. In females, the 7th sternum is boat shaped and together
with the 8th and 9th sterna forms a brood or genital pouch whose anterior part contains female gonopore, spermathecal pores
and collateral glands. In males, genital pouch or chamber lies at the hind end of abdomen bounded dorsally by 9th and 10th
terga and ventrally by the 9th sternum. It contains dorsal anus, ventral male genital pore and gonapophysis. Males bear a pair of
short, threadlike anal styles which are absent in females. In both sexes, the 10th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous
structures called anal cerci.

191. Read the following four statements (A − D) and select the option with the incorrect statement.

(A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched.

(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macromolecules.

(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of rDNA technology.

(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in the transfer of rDNA into the host.

(1) B and C (2) C and D (3) A and C (4) A and B

Ans. 4
Sol. In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein enriched milk. The milk contained the human
alphalactalbumin and was nutritionally a more balanced product for human babies than natural cow milk. Isolation of DNA
from other macromolecule is achieved by treating the bacterial cells/plant or animal tissue with enzymes such as lysozyme
(bacteria), cellulase (plant cells), chitinase (fungus).

192. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding Plasmodium falciparum?

(1) It causes malignant malaria (2) It is transmitted by mosquito (3) It is a helminth (4) It may be fatal
Ans. 3
Sol. Falciparum malaria is the most severe form of malaria, caused by Plasmodium falciparum, with severe constitutional
symptoms and sometimes causing death.

193. Which of the following help to increase the volume of the thoracic chamber during the mechanism of breathing?
(1) The contraction of diaphragm the (2) Contraction of external intercostal muscle (3) The up lifting of sternum
(4) All of the above
Ans. 4
Sol. Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of diaphragm which increases the volume of thoracic chamber in the
anteroposterior axis. The contraction of external intercostal muscles lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the
volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis. The overall increase in the thoracic volume causes a similar increase
in pulmonary

volume.

194. Which of the following is most likely to cause an increase in the glomerular filtration rate?
(1) Blockage of ureter (2) Dilation of the afferent arterioles (3) Release of renin from the juxtaglomerular apparatus
(4) Volume depletion
Ans. 2
Sol. The GFR is proportional to the glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure. Dilation of the afferent arteriole causes an
increase in glomerular capillary pressure. This increases the glomerular filtration rate.

195. Which one of the following statements about morula in human is correct ?
(1) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote
(2) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
(3) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote
 (4) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
Ans. 4
Sol. A morula is an embryo at an early stage of embryonic development, consisting of cells (called blastomeres) in a solid ball
contained within the zona pellucida. The morula is produced by embryonic cleavage, the rapid division of the zygdte. The
increase in number of cells doesn't change the size of the original mass. The divisions are rapid because there is no net growth
of the embryo-thecell cycle alternates between DNA replication and mitosis. In the absence of growth, the cell number in the
embryo increases while the cell size decreases. Thus, it has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but
much more DNA.

196. Fill in the blanks according to the process of reflex action.

1. The reflex pathway comprises at least one a_____ neuron (receptor) and one b_____ (effector or excitor) neuron

appropriately arranged in a series.

2. The a_____ neuron receives signal from a sensory organ and transmit the impulse via a c_____ nerve root into the CNS (at

the level of spinal cord).

3. The b_____ neuron then carriers signals from CNS to the effector.

4. The stimulus and response thus form a reflex d_____

(1) a—afferent, b—efferent, c—dorsal, d—arc (2) a—afferent, b—efferent, c—ventral, d—arc
(3) a—efferent, b—afferent, c—dorsal, d—pathway (4) a—efferent, b—afferent, c—ventral, d—action
Ans. 1
Sol. 1. The reflex pathway comprises at least one afferent neuron (receptor) and one efferent (effector or excitor) neuron
appropriately arranged in a series

2. The afferent neuron receives signal from a sensory organ and transmit the impulse via a dorsal nerve root into the CNS (at
the level of spinal cord).

3. The efferent neuron then carriers signals from CNS to the effector.

4. The stimulus and response thus form a reflex arc.

197. Select the mismatched pair from the following.

(1) Insulin — Gluconeogenesis (2) Glucagon — Glycogenolysis (3) Oxytocin — Contraction of uterine muscles
(4) Prolactin — Milk production in mammary glands
Ans. 1
Sol. Gluconeogenesis is the process of synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources such as fat and protein. Insulin
promotes glycogenesis, i.e., it enables the liver and muscles to convert glucose into glycogen and to store it. It also enables the
tissues to take up and use glucose as a source of energy. This lowers the blood-glucose level.

198. Consider the following statements :

(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group.

(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.

Select the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are false. (2) (A) is false but (B) is true. (3) Both (A) and (B) are true. (4) (A) is true but (B) is false.
Ans. 4
Sol. Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group. A complete catalytically active
enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called holoenzyme.

199. The applications of Biotechnology include,

(A) Therapeutics (B) Diagnostics (C) GM crops for agriculture (D) Processed food

(E) Bioremediation (F ) Waste treatment (G) Energy production

(1) A, B, C, E only (2) C only (3) B, C, D, E only (4) All of these

 Ans. 4
Sol. Biotechnology essentially deals with industrial scale production of biopharmaceuticals and biological using genetically
modified microbes, plants and animals.

200. Which of the following matches is not true for the hormone and their functions?
(1) Thyroxine: maintenance of water and electrolyte balance (2) Cortisol: stimulate the formation of erythrocytes
(3) Melatonin: influences pigmentation and menstrual cycle (4) All of the above are correctly matched.
Ans. 4
Sol. Thyroxine: regulate basal metabolic rate, support RBC formation and also maintains water and electrolyte balance.
Cortisol hormone stimulates erythropoiesis that is the formation of erythrocytes. MSH influences pigmentation (formation of
melanin) and maintains the mentrual cycle.