INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.

Mark only one answer for

each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED

MULTIPLE CHOICE: SET A

1. Three capacitors C1=3 micro-farad C2=6 micro-farad, C3=9 micro-farad are connected in parallel.
Find the equivalent capacitance in micro-farad
A. 1.6 B. 3 C. 18 D. 9
2. What is the resistivity of a wire having a resistance of 0.127 ohm, length is 200 ft and diameter is
0.3 inch?
A. 9.5 x 10-8 Ωm B. 8.5 x 10-8 Ωm C. 5.9 x 10-8 Ωm D. 5.8 x 10-8 Ωm
3. In an RLC circuits, the current at series resonance is
A. maximum B. infinity C. minimum D. zero
4. What is the equivalent of 5GWHR?
A. 5,000 kWHR B. 50,000 KWHR C. 5 x 106 W H D. 5,000 MWHR
5. The lowest value attained during one half of the cycle is
A. peak value B. average value C. r.m.s. value D. zero value
6. Power in a three phase delta system with balanced load is equal to
A. VL X |Lx power factor C. 1.732 x Vph x |ph x power factor
B. 3 x Vph x |L x power factor D. √𝟑 x VL X |L x power factor
7. In delat connected system, the line current is
A. 1.414 times phase current C. phasor sum of the two phase current
B. equal to the phase current D. 1.732 times the phase current
8. In two wattmeter method, the one wattmeter indicated 100 kW readings, the other is also 100 kW.
What is the power factor of the balanced 3-phase load?
A. 80% B. 0% C. 50% D. 100%
9. In parallel circuit, the current across the resistor _______.
A. same C. is sometimes constant
B. different from the current source D. is always constant
10. What is the counterpart of emf in magnetic circuit?
A. reluctance B. flux density C. mmf D. Flux
11. Comparing the magnetic circuit with an electric circuit the equivalent for the magnetic flux is
A. conductivity of the line C. voltage of the source
B. current in the line D. Resistance of the loop
12. Two resistances R1=30 ohms and R2=40 ohms are connected in parallel. Find the total current if
the current of 30Ω resistor is 4 amperes.
A. 3A & 4A B. 5A & 2A C. 7A D. 4.4A & 2.6A
13. A 400 volts, 60 Hz system is supplying a balanced star connected load. The phase current is 20
ampere at an angle of 45 degrees lagging. Find the load inductance.
A. 0.0375 B. 0.0217 C. 0.065 D. 0.075
14. The law that induces emf and current always opposes the cause producing them was discovered
by
A. Faraday B. Lenz C. Maxwell D. Ohm
15. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
A. Magnetic potential C. Flux density.
B. Magnetic field density D. Relative permeability
16. A certain length of wire with resistance R is divided into 4 equal lengths. It is placed side by side.
What is the new resistance of the wires?
A. R/9 B. R/3 C. R/16 D. R/27
17. Two equal resistance are connected in parallel has a total current of I across a source voltage.
What is the current of one of the resistances?
A. I B. 2I C. I/2 D. I/4
18. Two batteries, 12 volts with internal resistance of 0.6 ohm and 12.8 volts with internal resistance of
0.8 ohms are connected in parallel with load resistance of 9 ohms. What is the value of current
supplied the load?
A. 1.43 A B. 1.32 A C. 1.95 A D. 1.71 A
19. Two equal resistor R are connected in parallel and in series with another equal resistor R across
240 volts supply. If the total power is 1920 watts, what is the value of R?
A. 72 Ω B. 60 Ω C. 20 Ω D. 45 Ω
20. When two identical resistors are connected in series, the total power is 20 watts. What is the total
power of the two resistors when connected in parallel across the same supply?
A. 40W B. 10W C. 80W D. 5W
21. Determine the resistance of a 10 km long solid cylindrical aluminum conductor with a diameter of
250 mils at 20oC. Take resistivity of 2.83 micro-ohm-cm and temperature coefficient of resistance
is 0.0039/oC at 20oC
A. 8.15 B. 7.69 C. 8.93 D. 8.45
22. For balance wye-connected impedance, Van=230cis 30o volts. What is the Vbc. Use positive
sequence?
A. 199.2+j345 B. -199.2-j345 C. 199.2-j345 D. none of these
23. The conductor with length of 150cm and carrying a current of a 40 Amp perpendicular to the
magnetic field 1.5 Wb/sq. mts. What is the power in Watts in which the velocity is 5m/sec?
A. 3 B. 30 C. 300 D. 450
24. What will happen to an insulating medium with voltage more than breakdown voltage is applied?
A. it will get punctured C. it will melt
B. it will become magnetic D. its molecular structure will change
25. In a balanced 3-phase voltage system, the phase voltage are 230 volts, what is the line to line
voltage?
A. 121 V B. 208 V C. 400 V D. 173.2 V
26. What is the equivalent of 1kWHR?
A. 1,000 kWHR B. 1,000 W Hr C. 680 kCal D. 3413 BTU
27. A inductor of 200mH is connected in series with a resistance of 100Ω. The time constant of the
circuit is _____.
A. 0.2 sec B. 0.02 sec C. 0.002 sec D. 2 sec
28. The wattmeter method is applied in measuring power of the three phase motor, indicated readings
are 40kW and 60kW respectively. Calculate the power factor angle of the motor.
A. 19.1 degrees B. 29.3 degrees C. 30.8 degrees D. 32.6 degrees
29. In the test of a 10-Amp watt-hour meter having a constant of 0.4, the disk makes 40 revolutions in
56 sec. the average volts and amperes during this period are 120 volts and 9.0 Amps. What is the
error of the meter at this load.
A. 4.8% faster B. 1.4% slower C. 3.2% faster D. 4.8 slower
30. Capacitors are said to ______.
A. Block AC and pass DC C. Pass AC and DC
B. Block DC and pass AC D. Block AC and DC
31. A series RL circuit with R = 100 ohms and L = 100mH is suddenly connected to 100 volts DC
supply. What is the time constant of the circuit?
A. 0.1 ms B. 10 sec C. 1 ms D. 1 sec
32. The voltage across the capacitor ____ the current through it by ____.
A. lags, 45 degrees B. lags, 90 degrees C. leads, 0 degrees D. leads, 90 degrees
33. A voltage of V= 220sin(wt+60deg) is applied across an impedance of 3+j4 ohms. Find the power
in watts.
A. 5839 watts B. 5808 watts C. 5848 watts D. 5856 watts
34. Find the force induced to a coil with 500 turns, 20cm side and 20cm axial length moving
perpendicular with the field of 0.5 Tesla flux density and 2 ampere current flows.
A. 100N B. 400N C. 200N D. 500N
35. In parallel circuit, the voltage across the resistor _______.
A. varies C. is sometimes constant
B. different from the voltage source D. is always constant
36. A shunt generator delivers 120 A at 220 V and the resistance of the shunt field and armature are
44 Ω and 0.03 Ω respectively. Calculate the generated e.m.f.
A. 216.55 B. 261.55 C. 243.56 D. 234.65
37. In case of DC machines, mechanical losses are primary function of
A. current B. voltage C. speed D. none of above
38. Determine the torque established by the armature of a four-pole D.C.motor having 774 conductors,
two paths in parallel, 30 milli-webers of pole-flux and the armature current is 50 Amps.
A. 295.65 N-m B. 395.65 N-m C. 369.56 N-m D. 495.65 N-m
39. The speed of a salient pole machine is nearly
A. Resistive B. Capacitive C. Inductive D. None of the above
40. Where the terminal voltage of an alternator falls on throwing of the load, it indicates that the load
is purely
A. Resistive B. Capacitive C. Inductive D. None of the above
41. A 250-V shunt motor runs at 1000 r.p.m. at no-load and takes 8A. The total armature and shunt
field resistances are respectively 0.2 Ω and 250 Ω. Calculate the speed when loaded and taking
50 A. Assume the flux to be constant.
A. 966.21 rpm B. 885.76 rpm C. 669.1 rpm D. 869.1 rpm
42. Iron losses in a DC machine are independent of variation in
A. speed B. load C. voltage D. speed and voltage
43. A d.c. series motor takes 50 A at 220 V and runs at 800 r.p.m. If the armature and field resistance
are 0.2 Ω and 0.1 Ω respectively and the iron and friction losses are 600 W, what will be the
efficiency of the motor?
A. 79.3% B. 87.73% C. 88.9% D. 78.9%
44. Which of the following D.C. motor would be suitable for drives requiring high starting torque but
only fairly constant speed such as crushers?
A. shunt B. compound C. permanent magnet D. series
45. which of the following is the common synchronous speed in r.p.m between 50Hz and be 60Hz
alternators
A. 200 B. 600 C. 300 D. 900
46. If the field circuit of a loaded shunt motor is suddenly opened
A. it would race to almost infinite speed
B. it would draw abnormally high armature current
C. torque developed by the motor would be reduced to zero
D. circuit breaker or fuse will open the circuit before too much damage is done to the motor
47. When load is removed …... motor will run at the highest speed.
A. shunt C. differential compound
B cumulative-compound D. series
48. A transformer has positive voltage regulation when its load power factor is
A. Zero B. Unity C. leading D. lagging
49. A transformer supplies a load with 40A at 2400V. If the primary voltage is 240V, find the primary
current?
A. 4A B. 0.4A C. 40A D. 400A
50. Transformer rating are usually expressed in terms of
A. kVA B. kW C. kWh D. kVAR
51. The full-load copper loss of a transformer is 1600 W. at half-load, the copper loss will be
A. 6400 W B. 1600 W C. 800 W D. 400 W
52. Three single phase, 167kVA transformer connected delta-delta supply a balanced 3-phase wye-
connected load of 300kVA. One transformer is removed for repair. Find the kVA load of each
remaining transformers.
A. 100 B. 139 C. 173.2 D. 73.2
53. The armature of DC generator is laminated to
A. reduce the bulk C. insulate the core
B. provide passage for cooling air D. reduce eddy current loss
54. The output current corresponding to maximum efficiency for a transformer having core loss of 200
W and equivalent resistance referred to secondary of 0.5 Ω is
A. 5 A B. 10 A C. 15 A D. 20 A
55. The rotor preferred for alternators applied to hydraulic turbines are
A. Salient pole type C. Solid rotor type
B. Cylindrical rotor type D. Any of the above
56. A 750hp, 2400V, 3-phase motor of 90 percent power factor and 95 percent power factor and 95
percent efficiency is to be operated from a 13.2kV utility service through a delta-delta connected
transformer bank. What shall be the voltage rating of each transformers?
A. 13200/2400 B. 7621/2400 C. 13200/1385.6 D. 7621/1385.6
57. The chemical used in breather is
A. asbestos fiber C. sodium chloride
B. silica sand D. silica gel
58. A 75 MVA threee phase, 20 kV, 60 Hz alternator has an effective armature resistance of 0.5 ohm
per phase and an armature leakage reactance of 1.25 ohm. Calculate the %VR when supplying
rated load at unity pf.
A. 5.5% B. 12 % C. 10% D. 24%
59. In DC generators, current to the external circuit from armature is given through
A. commutator B. solid connection C. slip rings D. none of above
60. A 100 MVA, 34.5 kV, 3, Y-connected alternator will have a per phase nominal impedance of …...
A. 7.5 ohms B. 2.9 ohms C. 1.9 ohms D. 11.9 ohms
61. A transformer transforms
A. voltage B. current C. power D. frequency
62. A generator is rated 100 MVA, 13.8 kV and 90 % power factor. The effective resistance to ohmic
resistance is 1.5. The ohmic resistance is obtained by connecting two terminals to a d.c.source.
The current & voltage are 87.6 Amperes and 6 Volts respectively. What is the percent resistance?
A. 3 B. 2 C. 4.2 D. 2.7
63. The color of fresh dielectric oil for a transformer is
A. Dark brown B. White to grey C. pale yellow D. colourless
64. For a 3-phase winding with 5 slots per pole per phase and with coil span of 12 slot pitch, the
value of pitch factor is
A. 0.851 B. 0.98 C. 0.951 D. 1.05
65. The transformer oil used in transformers provide
A. Cooling and lubrication C. insulation and lubrication
B. Insulation and cooling D. insulation, cooling and lubrication
66. A single phase, 100 kVA, 7967/240V, 60Hz transformer has the full-load copper loss of 3000
Watts. What is the % resistance?
A. 3% B. 4% C. 5% D. 6%
67. Buchholz’s relay is used in
A. generator protection C. Motor protection
B. transformer protection B. Line protection
68. A single phase, 100kVA, 20000/240 Volt, 60Hz transformer has a primary resistance and
secondary winding resistance of 0.828 ohms and 0.001 ohms respectively. Calculate the
equivalent resistance referred to primary.
A. 7.6 ohms B. 8.37 ohms C. 7.77 ohms D. 8.46 ohms
69. Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation?
A. conservator B. breather C. Buchholz relay D. exciter
70. For a 3-phase winding with 6 slots per pole per phase and with coil span of 15 slot , the value of
pitch factor is
A. 0.851 B. 0.966 C. 0.951 D. 1.05
71. Decreasing the speed of alternator, what will happen?
A. Decrease MW C. Increase MVAR
B. Increase frequency D. Decrease MVAR
72. A pole 1500 r.p.m. Alternator will generate e.m.f at
A. 20Hz B. 50Hz C. 40Hz D. 60Hz
73. The power factor of an alternator operating inparallel to large system is 75 %. The operator is
ordered to increase the power factor to 80 %. What shall he do?
A. increase the voltage C. increase the excitation
B. operate the governor D. decrease excitation
74. A generator at no-load operates 63 Hz, slope 1mW/Hz. Load 1= 3.0 MW and load 2=0.8MW are
connected. Find the frequency before and after adding the load 2.
A. 60 Hz & 59 Hz C. 60 Hz & 59.2 Hz
B. 60 Hz & 59.1 Hz D. 60 Hz & 59.3 Hz
75. A wye-connected alternator was tested for its effective resistance. The ratio of the effective
resistance to ohmic resistance was previously determine to be 1.35. A 12-V battery was connected
across two terminals and the ammeter read 120 amperes. What is the per phase effective
resistance of the alternator?
A. 0.135 ohms B. 0.117 ohms C. 0.0675 ohms D. 0.0234 ohms
76. A generator is rated 100 MW, 13.8 kV and 90 % power factor. The effective resistance to ohmic
resistance is 1.5. The ohmic resistance is obtained by connecting two terminals to a 12 volts d.c.
source. If the current 40 Amperes, what is effective resistance per phase?
A. 0.15 B. 0.225 C. 1.5 D. 0.45
77. In DC generators, lap winding is used for
A. high voltage, high current C. high voltage, low current
B. low voltage, high current D. low voltage, low current
78. A dc resistance test is conducted on a 3-phase 200 kva, 240 volts, delta connected generator.
When the two terminals are connected from 6 volts dc source, the ammeter inserted in the line
reads 150 amperes. The effective resistance to ohmic resistance is 1.25. What is the percent
resistance?
A. 7.5% B. 8.7% C. 26% D. 4.6%
79. Permeance is the reciprocal of
A. flux density B. reluctance C. ampere-turns D. resistance
80. Find the synchronous impedance of a 3-phase synchronous generator in which a given field current
produces an armature current of 200 amperes on short circuit and a generated emf of 1050 volts
on open circuit.
A. 1.72 ohms B. 5.25 ohms C. 9.1 ohms D. 3.0 ohms
81. The speed of a 4 -pole 60Hz synchronize machine will be
A. 1800 r.p.m. B. 3000 r.p.m. C. 2400 r.p.m. D. 3600 r.p.m.
82. The no-load current drawn by transformer is usually what per cent of the full-load current?
A. 0.2 to 0.5 percent C. 12 to 15 percent
B. 2 to 5 percent D. 20 to 30 percent
83. Synchronous impedance test is taken on a 3-phase generator. Under short circuit condition, the
currents in the three lines are 30 A, 25 A, and 35 A. What current should be used for the test?
A. 30 A B. 25. A C. 35 A D. 60 A
84. The dielectric strength of transformer oil is expected to be
A. 1 kV B. 33 kV C. 100 kV D. 330 kV
85. A 100 MW, 13,800 volts 90% power factor synchronous generator has an ohmic resistance of 0.1
ohm and synchronous reactance of 0.42 ohm is operating at rated condition. Find the angle
between the voltages.
A. 9.55 deg B. 7.45 deg C. 6.72 deg. D. 3.25 deg.
86. Tubes are preferred to transistors in the following applications EXCEPT one.
A. High power B. High voltage C. High frequency D. Long life
87. The ripple factor of a power supply is a measure of _____.
A. its filter efficiency C. diode rating
B. its voltage regulation D. purity of power output
88. A transformer supplying a full-wave rectifier circuit has a secondary voltage of 220 V MAX on each side of the
center tap. What is the average value of the load current in Amp if the load resistance is 900 ohms?
A. 0.1592 B. 0.333 C. 0.2159 D. 0.156
89. A current transformer is ________ of voltage.
A. step up B. step down C. step up or step down D. step up and step down
90. To produce one kWh a power plant burns 0.8 lb of coal with a heating value of 13,000 BTU per lb. What is the
heat rate of the plant?
A. 11700 BTU/ kW-hr B. 10400 BTU/ kW-hr C. 10800 BTU/ kW-hr D. 8700 BTU/ kW-hr
91. Which of the following generating station has the minimum running cost?
A. Nuclear power B. Diesel plant C. Thermal plant D. Hydro-electric plant
92. A diesel power plant is best suited as _____.
A. Base load B. Peak load C. Stand by D. General purpose
93. Presence of ozone as a result of corona is harmful because
A. it gives bad odor C. it transfer energy to the ground
B. reduces power factor D. it corrodes the materials
94. For 66 kV lines, the number of insulator disc used is
A. 8 B. 5 C. 12 D. 3
95. The following are advantages of motor-generator set over rotary converter. EXCEPT:
A. It can be used for power factor correction purposes
B. DC output voltage can be controlled easily by adjusting the field regulator
C. It has a comparatively high efficiency
D. Provided supply voltage
96. It is computerized data gathering, monitoring and switching equipment.
A. supervising control C. remote control
B. SCADA D. Control and monitoring system
97. A germanium diode which has an offset voltage of 0.3 volt and an incremental resistance of 25 ohms is
connected in series with a 10,000 ohm resistor across a 120 volt DC source. What is the current?
A. 9.98 mA B. 9.78 mA C. 11.9 mA D. 9.96 mA
98. Estimate the average power output of a wind turbine having a blade diameter of 35 ft if the wind velocity ranges
from 10 to 30 mph?
A. 3.014 kW B. 24.11 kW C. 81.364 kW D. 42.20 kW
99. What is the relay that can detect overload in the line?
A. fuses B. overcurrent relay C. differential relay D. magnetic switch
100. A 69kV/13.8 kV, 75 MVA transformer has 9% impedance. What is its impedance at base 100 MVA,70kV
A. 103.64% B. 11.7% C. 8% D. 106.7%
101. The following are the essential parts of a hydroelectric power station. EXCEPT:
A. spiral case B. surge tank C. throttle valve D. impeller
102. A Generator rated 500 MVA, 20 kv has an impedance of 0.4 per unit. If the generator is supplying 425 kW
load at 20 kV, unity power factor and a fault occurs at the load. What will be the per unit value of the fault
current with respect to the bases, 500 MVA and 20 kV.
A. 4.0 B. 5.0 C. 2.5 D. 3.0
103. The principle of operation of the induction motor is based on
A. faraday’s law C. rotating magnetic field
B. Fleming’s right hand rule D. ohm’s law
104. The rotor of an induction motor gets its power from
A. he line voltage B. a centrifugal switch C. slip rings D. magnetic induction
105. The induction motor are designed for
A. three phase B. single phase C. two phase D. all of the above
106. A semiconductor with doping is called ______.
A. doped B. contaminated C. intrinsic D. extrinsic
107. The net energy required of a certain country in yr 2005 was approximately 4 x106 GWh. What is the equivalent
value in quad?
A. 12.42 B. 13.65 C. 10.24 D. 102.4
108. The percent impedance of a line is 10% at 34.5 kV and 110 MVA bases. What is the ohmic impedance?
A. 2.32 B. 3.0 C. 0.72 D. 1.08
109. Transmission line insulators are made of
A. glass B. porcelain C. iron D. PVC
110. The transformer that supplies a full wave rectifier delivers 220-Vrms on each side of the secondary center
tap. What is the direct/average voltage applied to the load in volts.
A. 108 B. 135 C. 198 D. 122
111. A live room one whose interior finishing is such that reverberation time of sound is ____ sec.
A. 0 B. less than 1 C. more than 5 D. more than 1
112. Out of the following, which ONE is not unconventional source of energy?
A. tidal power B. nuclear power C. geothermal power D. wind energy
113. A thermal power plant consumes 3000 tons of coal per day. If coal has an average energy content of 12,000
BTU/lb, what is the plant’s power output? Assume an overall efficiency of 20%.
A. 211 MW B. 112 MW C. 671 MW D. 176 MW
114. In fusion, energy is produced when ______.
A. fuel burns C. nuclear particle divide
B. chemical compounds fused together D. nuclear combines’ particle
115. With which of the following is enthalpy associated?
A. coal B. steam C. electrostatic filter D. oil
116. A diesel power station has a fuel consumption of 0.30 lb/kWh, the calorific value of fuel being 45000 BTU/lb.
Determine the engine efficiency if the generator efficiency is 90% neglect brake power on the engine.
A. 29% B. 28% C. 32% D. 34%
117. Semiconductor materials have _____ bond.
A. metallic B. covalent C. ionic D. mutual
118. A short 220 kV transmission line has an impedance of 5 cis 53.13 o
ohms. The sending end power is 100 MW
at 230 kV and 80% power factor. What is the percent regulation of the line?
A. 0.77% B. 5.5% C. 1.25% D. 77%
119. A diversity factor of 2.4 gives a savings of ____ percent in the generating equipment.
A. 80 B. 58 C. 40 D. 76
120. A resistor is connected across an AC supply of 220 Volts. The power drawn is 500 Watts, if a diode was
connected in series with a resistor, what would be the power absorbed by the resistor?
A. 850 Watts B. 250 Watts C. 200 Watts D. 500 Watts
121. Daytime capacity when only 200 MW pump storage plant and 500 MW Nuclear Plant is operating ____.
A. 500 MW B. 700 MW C. 900 MW D. 300 MW
122. The following are advantages of motor-generator set over rotary converter. EXCEPT:
A. It can be used for power factor correction purposes
B. DC output voltage can be controlled easily by adjusting the field regulator
C. It has a comparatively high efficiency
D. Provided supply voltage
123. It is a protective relay which compares the sum of incoming currents against the sum of the outgoing currents.
It operates when there is unbalance.
A. Relay balance B. Differential relay C. Current relay D. Over current relay
124. The type of switchgear assembly commonly selected for use in a turbine-generator power plant is _____.
A. Vertical switchboard C. Duplex benchboard
B. Dual benchboard D. Enclosed switchboard
125. The velocity of propagation is 1.75 x108 meter/sec and the frequency is 50 MHz? Find the wavelength.
A. 2.5 m B. 3.5 m C. 0.25 m D. 250 m
126. Which of the following element is a radioactive?
A. Cobalt B. Californium C. Uranium D. Plutonium
127. If the power level of an amplifier reduces to one half, the dB gain will fall by _____.
A. 0.5 dB B. 3 dB C. 2 dB D. 10 dB
128. Behind a certain point in a system network the equivalent Thevenin’s impedance is 0.2 p.u. at 100 MVA
base. A 115 kV/34.5 kV, 15 MVA transformer of 5% impedance is tapped at this point. If a three phase fault
should occur at the secondary of the transformer, what is the maximum fault current?
A. 6692 amperes B. 2390 amperes C. 3138 amperes D. 1590 amperes
129. The type of the motor that does not have a commutator
A. repulsion motor B. dc shunt motor C. induction motor D. ac series motor
130. A certain motor is driven by a 1750 rpm dc shunt motor. If the power supply is to be changed to three phase,
50 cycles, ac the most suitable replacement motor would be
A. synchronous motor C. AC commutator motor
B. capacitor motor D. squirrel cage induction motor
131. The surge impedance of overhead lines is taken as
A. 50 – 60 ohms B. 1000 – 2000 ohms C. 10 – 20 ohms D. 100 – 200 ohms
132. The effect of corona is
A. increased reactance B. increased energy loss C. increased inductance D. all of the above
133. The current drawn by the line due to corona is
A. non-sinusoidal B. sinusoidal C. square D. none of these
134. A transformer supplying a full-wave rectifier circuit has a secondary voltage of 250 VRMS on each side of the
center tap. What is the average value of the load current in Amp if the load resistance is 1000 ohms?
A. 0.289 B. 0.333 C. 0.256 D. 0.225
135. If a 1, half-wave (HW) rectifier has a ripple voltage of 15 Volts. What will be its value in a 1, full-wave (FW)
rectifier?
A. 7.5 Volts B. 10 Volts C. 12.5 Volts D. 30 Volts