NEET FRESH 2022-23

Mark Group Date : 11/01/2023

360 Bio COMBINE EXAM Time : 1:40 Hours
Question Booklet Version Roll No. Question Booklet Sr. No

P (Write this number on

your Answer Sheet) 4322

This is to certify that, the entries of NEET-2023 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and verified.

Date :11/01/2023
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

General Instruction
1. The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2022 comprises of two Sections. Each subject will consist of two sections.
Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out of these 15 Questions,
candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions. So, the total number of questions and utilization of time
will remain the same. Total No. of Questions (100 ), The duration of the test would be 1 :30 hours.
2. Tile questions paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the
examination.
3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Questions Booklet and Answer Sheet and
make the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheet are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK
READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be
taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, SERIAL No. and NEET-IIB-2022-23 Roll . accurately. The candidate
must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.
5. Determine the one correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question,
6. dfdf– 2022 is a Pen & Paper-based Test, to be answered on the specially designed machine gradable
NEET (UG)
OMR sheet using Ball Point Pen.
7. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
8. Rough work should be done only one the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should
not be done on the Answer Sheet.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over. the Question Booklet and Answer sheet is to be
returned to the invigilator. Confirm that both the candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet
and Answer Sheet.

Test Syllabus ( All Batches Only Bio )

Biology : NCERT Unit - III (Cell the Unit of Life, Cell Cycle & Cell Division, Biomolecules)

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 NEET FRESH 2022-23 P
08. Plasma membrane is fluid structure due to
PART-I presence of :–
SECTION - A (35 Questions) (1) Carbohydrates
01. When R group in an amino acid is hydrogen it is (2) Lipid
called (3) Glycoprotein
(1) Alanine (4) Polysaccharides
(2) Serine 09. Generally, proteins & carbohydrates components
are found in cow milk are…
(3) Glycine
(1) Albumin, lactose
(4) Cysteine
(2) Globulin, casein
02. The sequence of amino acids i.e., the positional
(3) Casein, lactose
information of amino acid is known as ………..
structure? (4) Casein, fructose
(1) Primary 10. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?
(2) Secondary (1) Cellulose
(2) Inulin
(3) Tertiary
(3) Starch
(4) Quaternary
(4) Glycogen
03. Number of alpha and beta polypeptide chain in
11. Which one of the following is non-reducing

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human haemoglobin is
suagr?
(1) 1 alpha, 3 beta
(1) Maltose
(2) 2 alpha, 2 beta
(2) Sucrose
(3) 3 alpha, 1 beta
(3) Lactose
(4) None of these.
(4) Glucose
04. The interphase nucleus (nucleus of cell when it 12. Mitochondria and Chloroplasts are similar in
is not dividing) has highly extended and having–
elaborate nucleoprotein fibres called :-
(a) two membranes
(1) Chromatin
(b) Cristae
(2) Nuclear matrix
(c) DNA
(3) Chromosomes
(d) Ribosomes
(4) Nucleoli
(e) Thylakoids
05. Nucleolus is the site for :-
(1) a, c and d
(1) More than one option is correct
(2) a, b and d
(2) Ribosomal RNA synthesis
(3) a and d
(3) Messenger RNA synthesis (4) a, c, d and e
(4) Assembly of ribosomal subunits. 13. The main lipid components of the human RBC
06. The fluid nature of the membrane is helpful in cell membrane are :-
function of :- (1) Phosphodiester
(1) Cell growth (2) Glycocalyx
(2) Cell division (3) Peptidoglycan
(3) Endocytosis (4) Phosphoglyceride
(4) All the above 14. Which one is not the significance of mitosis.
07. Plasma membrane is :– (1) Growth of multicellular organisms
(1) Selectively permeable (2) Restore the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(2) Permeable (3) Continuous growth of plants throughout their
(3) Impermeable life.
(4) Semipermeable (4) It creates the raw material for evolution.

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15. Which of the following would be found in an 23. Bacterial genome is :-
animal cell but not in a bacterial cell? (1) Naked
(1) DNA
(2) Circular, convoluted
(2) Cell wall.
(3) Double stranded DNA
(3) Ribosomes
(4) more than one option is correct.
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum
16. If the haploid number for a species is three each 24. Cells which are metabolically more active, have–
dividing diploid cell during mitosis will have how (1) Less number of mitochondria
many chromatids at anaphase? (2) More number of mitochondria
(1) 3 (3) No relation between metabolic activities and
(2) 6 number of mitochondria
(3) 9 (4) No mitochondria, to provide more space in
(4) 12 cytoplasm for metabolic activities
17. A plant cell has 12 chromosomes at the end of 25. There are some nucleic acids that behaves like
mitosis. How many chromosomes would it have
enzymes and are called
in the G2 phase of its next cell cycle
(1) 6 (1) DNase
(2) 8 (2) RNase
(3) 12 (3) Endonuclease

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(4) 24 (4) Ribozymes
18. Nuclear membrane, nucleous, ER, GB 26. Select the incorrect statement from the following
reappears in :– (1) Most of the enzymes are protein.
(1) Late prophase
(2) ‘Hb’ is an example of quaternary structure
(2) Early prophase of protein.
(3) Metaphase
(3) In the primary structure of protein, the left
(4) Telophase hand is N-terminal and the right hand is C-
19. During cell division, spindle fibers attach to terminal.
which part of chromosome?
(4) In protein or polypeptide, the amino acids
(1) Primary constriction
are linked by glycosidic bond.
(2) Secondary constriction
27. Apoenzyme is
(3) Telomere
(1) protein
(4) Satellite
20. Which of the two events maintain the constant (2) lipid
number of chromosomes across generations? (3) sugar
(1) Mitosis and Meiosis (4) vitamin
(2) Meiosis and fertilisation 28. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
(3) Fertlisation and mitosis homologous chromosomes in zygotene of
(4) Only meiosis prophase-1 of meiosis is called:
21. The chemical substance abundantly present in (1) Axoneme
middle lamella is :–
(2) Equatorial plate
(1) Cutin
(3) Kinetochore
(2) Chitin
(3) Lignin (4) Bivalent
(4) Pectin 29. Find out the Miss matched pairs:
22. Smooth E.R. not responsible for:- (1) Arachidonic acid – 20 Carbon
(1) Protein synthesis (2) Palmitic acid – 16 carbon
(2) Detoxification (3) Amino acid – an amphoteric compound
(3) Lipid synthesis (4) Enzymes – some are carbohydrates & some
(4) Cholesterol synthesis are lipids

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30. Coenzyme NAD and NADP contains vitamin 38. Haem is a prosthetic group of _________
(1) Niacin enzyme
(2) Thiamine (1) Peroxidase
(3) Pyridoxine (2) Catalase
(4) Riboflavin (3) Both (1) and (2)
31. The longer and shorter arms of a submetacentric (4) None of these
chromosome are referred to as :-
39. Zn is an activator of _________ enzyme.
(1) s-arm and l-arm respectively
(1) Carbonic anhydrase
(2) p-arm and q-arm respectively
(2) Carboxypeptidase
(3) q-arm and p-arm respectively
(4) m-arm and n-arm respectively (3) Carboxylases
32. A cell organelle containing almost all types of (4) All of these
hydrolytic enzymes is:- 40. The percentage of oxygen in human body is
(1) Ribosome (1) 65%
(2) Mesosome (2) 46.6%
(3) Lysosome
(3) 18.5%
(4) Microsome
(4) 3.3%
33. Synaptonemal complex is a nucleoprotein
structure. It is visible or found from- 41. How many amino-acids are used to form

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(1) Zygotene to pachytene protein?
(2) Leptotene to diplotene (1) 18
(3) Zygotene to metaphase (2) 20
(4) Pachytene to diplotene (3) 21
34. In which order, cytokinesis occurs in plants :- (4) 22
(1) Centripetal 42. In which order, cytokinesis occurs in animals :-
(2) Centrifugal
(1) Centripetal
(3) Oblique
(2) Centrifugal
(4) Equatorial
35. Enzymes which catalyse transfer of group other (3) Oblique
than hydrogen belongs to the class (4) Equatorial
(1) Oxidoreductase 43. Almost all enzymes are
(2) Transferase (1) Proteins
(3) Hydrolase (2) Nucleic acid
(4) Ligase
(3) Carbohydrates
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) (4) Vitamins
36. Enzymes which catalyse hydrolysis of ester, 44. Enzymes catalysing the linking together of two
ether, peptide, glycosidic bond belongs to the compounds, for example enzymes which
class
catalyse the joining of C-O, C-S, C-N, P-O,
(1) Oxidoreductase etc., bonds, belongs to the class of
(2) Transferase (1) Isomerases
(3) Hydrolase
(2) Transferases
(4) Ligase
(3) Hydrolases
37. Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from
substrates by mechanisms other than hydrolysis (4) Ligases
leaving double bonds is known as 45. Cofactors are
(1) Oxidoreductase (1) Prosthetic groups
(2) Transferase (2) Co-enzymes
(3) Hydrolase (3) Metallic ions
(4) Lyase (4) All of these

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46. What is an apoenzyme? 54. In which stage of meiosis, chromosomes are

(1) Protein (2) Lipid double thread like?
(3) Metallic ions (4) Vitamins (1) Zygotene
47. Which does not occur in prophase? (2) Leptotene
(1) De-condensation of chromatin (3) Pachytene
(2) Condensation of chromatin (4) Diplotene.
(3) Appearance of compact mitotic form of 55. In meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate
chromosome while sister chromatids remain at their
(4) Disappearance of nuclear membrane and centromere during-
nucleolus (1) anaphase of meiosis-II
48. In which stage of cell division, number of
(2) metaphase of meiosis-I
chromosomes best counted?
(3) anaphase of meiosis-I
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) Telophase (4) Interphase (4) prophase of meiosis-II
49. _________ of an enzyme is a crevices or 56. Nuclear envelope reappears at :-
pocket into which substrate fit. (1) Metaphase
(1) Inactive site (2) Prophase
(2) Active site (3) Anaphase

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(3) Allosteric site (4) Telophase
(4) Any of these 57. Nuclear envelope completely disappear at:-
50 The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is
(1) Pro-metaphase
formed by the polymerization of
(2) Early Prophase
(1) D-glucosamine
(2) lipoglycans (3) Anaphase
(3) N – acetyl glucosamine (4) Telophase
(4) keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate 58. Living state is
(1) Non-equilibrium, non-steady state

PART-II (2) Equilibrium, steady state

(3) Non-equilibrium, steady state
SECTION - A (35 Questions) (4) Equilibrium, non-steady state
51. In primary structure of protein, the first amino 59. Example of plant cement is
acid is called
(1) Pectin
(1) N-terminal amino acid
(2) heparin
(2) C-terminal amino acid
(3) S-terminal amino acid (3) Hyaluronic acid
(4) H-terminal amino acid (4) Starch
52. Which one of the following is not correctly 60. The given structures A, B, C is of
matched?
(1) Insulin – polymer fructose
(2) NAD & NADP - Coenzyme
(3) PGAL – phosphate triose sugar
(4) Oleic acid – unsaturated fatty acid
53. Protein is
(1) Homopolymer (1) A-Glycine, B-Alanine, C-serine
(2) Heteropolymer (2) A-Alanine, B-serine, C-glycine
(3) Polypeptide (3) A-Alanine, B-glycine, C-Serine
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) A-Alanine, B-serine, C-lysine

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61. In meiosis, centromeres of chromosomes divide 68. Here ‘S’ (Svedberg’s unit) stands for
during- sedimentation coefficient then what are [A] &
(1) anaphase of meiosis-II [B] for eukaryotic cell
(2) metaphase of meiosis-I
(3) anaphase of meiosis-I
(4) prophase of meiosis-II
62. Which cell organelle synthesizes lipid like
steroidal hormones in animal cells?
(1) SER.
(2) Golgi body
(3) Peroxisomes (1) A – 40S B – 60S
(4) Lysosomes (2) A – 60S B – 40S
63. Cilia and flagella both - (3) A – 80S B – 60S
(1) have 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules (4) A – 40S B – 80
69. Middle lamella is composed mainly of :-
(2) are protective structure of cells
(1) Phosphoglycerides
(3) are only present in protozoa Animals
(2) Hemicellulose
(4) are outgrowth structures of cytoplasm
(3) Muramic acid

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64. Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70 S, S refers to :-
(4) Calcium pectate
(1) Svedberg unit 70. The concept of “ Omnis cellula-e cellula”
(2) Smallest unit regarding cell division was first proposed by:
(3) Smooth (1) Rudolf Virchow
(4) Speed (2) Theodore Schwann
(3) Matthias Schleiden
65. Part of chromosome after secondary constriction
(4) Aristotle
is called :–
71. Find out the incorrect statement from the
(1) Centromere following
(2) Telomere (1) Elemental analysis of living tissues gives
(3) Satellite elemental composition of living tissue.
(4) Nucleolar organizer (2) Analysis of chemical compound of living
tissue gives idea of organic and inorganic
66. If the centromere is slightly away from the middle constituent of living tissue.
and the two arms are unequal then the
(3) Weight of small amount of living fresh tissue
chromosome is called as:- is known as wet weight.
(1) Metacentric (4) Acid soluble pool contains lipids, nucleic acid,
(2) Submetacentric polysaccharide only
(3) Acrocentric 72. Select incorrect statement w.r.t cell theory-
(1) In 1837, Matthias Jakob Schleiden viewed
(4) Telocentric
and stated that all plant is formed from different
67. Polysome is formed by:- types of cells, which in turn form tissue.
(1) A ribosome with several subunits (2) In 1855, pathologist Rudolf Virchow posed
(2) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear the maxim “Omnis cellula e cellula” that every
arrangement cell arises from pre-existing cells.
(3) Schwann’s famous microscopic
(3) Several ribosomes attached to a single
investigations declared that “All living things are
mRNA
composed of cells and cell products”.
(4) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of (4) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek first saw and
endoplasmic reticulum described a live cell.
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73. Prophase which is the first stage of karyokinesis 78. Select the wrong statement
of mitosis follows the: (1) Protein is a heteropolymer and not a
(1) S and G 2 phases of interphase homopolymer
(2) G1and G 2 phases of interphase (2) Proteins are linear chains of amino acids
(3) G2 and G S phases of interphase linked by peptide bonds
(4) S and G 0 phases of interphase (3) Proteins, Nucleic acids & polysaccharides
74. Identify the following diagram- are the only three types of macromolecules
found in living system
(4) Collagen is the most abundant protein in the
whole biosphere and RuBisCO is most
abundant protein in the animal world
79. In which stage of cell nucleus become in intact
form?
(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(1) Transition to Metaphase
(4) Interphase
(2) Transition to Anaphase-II
80. Diakinesis represent:

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(3) Transition to Metaphase-I
(1) transition to prophase
(4) Transition to Anaphase
(2) transition to metaphase
75. Select the incorrect statement from the following:
(1) Prophase is marked by the initiation of (3) transition to anaphase
condensation of chromosomal material (4) transition to telophase
(2) The centriole, which had undergone 81. Separation of homologous chromosomes during
duplication during S phase of interphase, begins anaphase-I is called:
to move towards opposite poles of the cell in (1) Synapsis
early prophase. (2) Disjunction
(3) The centriole, which had undergone (3) Nondisjunction
duplication during S phase of interphase, begins
(4) Crossing over
to move towards opposite poles of the cell in
late prophase. 82. In meiosis dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(4) Cell at the end of prophase when viewed is characterized by which phase-
under the microscope, do not show golgi (1) Pachytene
complexes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and (2) Leptotene
nuclear envelope. (3) Zygotene
76. Which of the following is incorrect about amino (4) Diplotene
acid?
83. Main function of golgi complex is :–
(1) It is a compound containing amino and acidic
(1) Fermentation
group
(2) Phosphorylation
(2) It is a substitute and is methane.
(3) It is based on the nature of ‘R’ group they (3) Respiration
are of many types. (4) Packaging of materials for secretion
(4) Amino acids found in acid insoluble fraction. 84. Which type of chromosome is present in the
77. Arrangement of microtubules in centriole is :- prophase of cell cycle?
(1) 9 + 2 (1) single chromosomes with 2 chromatids
(2) 2 + 9 (2) Single chromosomes with 1 chromatid
(3) 11 + 0 (3) Single chromosomes with 4 chromatids
(4) 9 + 0 (4) Two chromosomes with 1 chromatid
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85. First gap phase in cell cycle is :- 93. An elaborate network of filamentous ..........
(1) interval between mitotic phase and DNA structures present in the cytoplasm is collectively
replication phase referred to as the .............
(2) interval between DNA replication phase and (1) Cytoskeleton, proteinaceous
DNA separation phase (2) Proteinaceous, Cytoskelaton
(3) interval between karyokinesis and cytokinesis (3) Lipoidal, Mitochondria
(4) interval between DNA replication phase and (4) Lipoidal, plasma membrane
second gap phase 94. Macromolecule chitin is
SECTION - B (Attempt Any 10 Questions) (1) Sulfur containing polysaccharide
86. In which stage of meiosis, chromosomes are thin, (2) Phosphorous containing polysaccharide
long, thread like? (3) Simple Polysaccharide
(1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene (4) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
(3) Pachytene (4) Diakinesis 95. The function of GLUT-4 is
87. Centromeres are present over the equator or (1) it promotes glucose transport
metaphase plate while arms facing towards the
poles, this statement is correct for which phase (2) it protects the body from infectious agents
of mitosis. (3) it acts as an enzyme
(1) Anaphase (4) none of the above

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(2) Metaphase 96. Enzymes catalysing linking of two compounds
(3) Late prophase are called
(4) Not concluded (1) Dehydrogenase (2) Transferase
88. Cells in Quiescence phase: (3) Ligases (4) Lyase
(1) exit the cell cycle 97. Metabolic intermediates found in living system
(2) enter the cell cycle which are essential for growth and development
(life) is called___________
(3) suspend the cell cycle
(1) Saponins
(4) terminate the cell cycle
89. Which of the following plastids store Fat? (2) Tannins
(1) Chromoplast (2) Elaioplast (3) Secondary metabolite
(3) Leucoplast (4) Amyloplast (4) Primary metabolites
90. Which of the following plastids store protein? 98. A competitive inhibitor of succinate
(1) Chromoplast dehydrogenase is
(2) Elaioplast (1) Citrate (2) Acetate
(3) Leucoplast (3) Alpha ketogluterate (4) Malonate
(4) Aleuroplast. 99. Which one of the following is wrongly matched
91. The ribosomes of the E- coli cells are – ?
(1) Smaller than the cytoplasmic ribosomes of (1) Enzyme – carbohydrates
eukaryotes (2) Phospholipid – Plasma membrane
(2) Bigger than the cytoplasmic ribosomes of (3) Toxin - Ricin
eukaryotes (4) Antibody – Glycoprotein, fight against
(3) Of similar size to that of cytoplasm’s of infectious organisms
eukaryotes 100. Which one of the following are secondary
(4) Size of ribosomes cannot be measured metabolites?
92. The ribosomes of the chloroplasts are – (1) Flavonoids and rubber
(1) Smaller than the cytoplasmic ribosomes (2) Antibiotics, coloured pigments and essential
(2) Bigger than the cytoplasmic ribosomes oils
(3) Of similar size to that of cytoplasm’s (3) Scents, gums, spices
(4) Size of ribosomes cannot be measured (4) All the above

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