KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN :: SILCHAR REGION

ACADEMIC YEAR : 2022-23

ROLL NUMBER CODE No. 043

Candidates must write the ROLL

No. on the title page of the question
paper

INSTRUCTIONS :

● Please check that this question paper contains 8 printed pages.

● Please check that this question paper contains 35 questions.
● Please write down the Serial Number of the question before attempting it.
● 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper will be distributed
at 08:45 a.m. From 08:45 a.m. to. 09:00 a.m., the student will read the question paper only and will
not write any answer ·on the answer script during this period:

SECOND PRE BOARD EXAMINATION

CLASS : XII
CHEMISTRY ( THEORY )

TIME ALLOWED : 3.00 HOURS MAXIMUM MARKS : 70

General Instructions:

Read the following instructions carefully.

a) There are 35 questions in this question paper with internal choice.

b) SECTION A consists of 18 multiple-choice questions carrying 1 mark each.
c) SECTION B consists of 7 very short answer questions carrying 2 marks each.
d) SECTION C consists of 5 short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
e) SECTION D consists of 2 case- based questions carrying 4 marks each.
f) SECTION E consists of 3 long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g) All questions are compulsory.
h) Use of log tables and calculators is not allowed.
 SECTION : A

The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each question carries 1
mark. There is no internal choice in this section.

1. Propanol and 2-propanol can be best distinguished by

a. Oxidation with KMnO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution?
b. Oxidation with acidic dichromate followed by reaction with Fehling solution.
c. Oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with Fehling solution.
d. Oxidation with cones. H2SO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution.

2. The decreasing order of boiling points of alkyl halides is

a. RF > RCl > RBr > RI
b. RBr > RCl > RI > RF
c. RI > RBr > RCl > RF
d. RCl > RF > RI > RBr

3. The transition element with lowest atomic number is

a. Scandium
b. Titanium
c. Zinc
d. Lanthanum.

4. Concentration of either ‘A’ or ‘B’ were changed keeping the concentrations of one of the reactants
constant and rates were measured as a function of initial concentration. The following results were
obtained. Choose the correct option for the rate equations for this reaction.

Options :
a. Both b and c
b. b only
c. c only
d. a , b and c

5. What will happen during the electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO4 by using platinum electrodes?
a. Copper will deposit at cathode.
b. Copper will deposit at anode.
c. Oxygen will be released at anode.
d. Copper will dissolve at anode.

6. The rate of a chemical reaction

a. Increases as the reaction proceeds
b. Decreases as the reaction proceeds
c. Decreases or increases
d. Remains constant as the reaction proceeds
7. Identify Z in the following reaction:

a. Cyanoethane
b. Ethanamide
c. Methanamine
d. Ethanamine

8. One among the following is not an organometallic compound

a. Trimethylboron
b. Trimethylaluminum
c. Trimethoxy titanium chloride
d. Tetracarbonyl nickel.

9. In the following compounds:

The order of acidity is

a. III > IV > I > II
b. I > IV > III > II
c. II > I > III > IV
d. IV > III > I > II

10. When acetamide is converted to methylamine, what is the name of the reaction?
a. Friedel-Crafts reaction
b. Hofmann reaction
c. Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction
d. Hinsberg reaction

11. Which of the following reaction can be used for the reduction

a. Clemmensen reaction
b. Wolft-Kishner reaction
c. Wurtz reaction\
d. HI and red phosphorus

12. The potential energy diagram in the reaction R → P is given. ∆H° of the reaction corresponds to the
energy.

a. b
b. a
c. a+b
d. c
13. The colour of the coordination compounds depends on the crystal field splitting. What will be the
correct order of absorption of wavelength of

Choose the correct options :

a. Both (a) and (b)
b. (c) only
c. Both (c) and (d)
d. (b) only

14. Which of the following is not a formaldehyde application?

a. Preservation of biological specimens
b. Preparation of acetic acid
c. Silvering of mirrors
d. Manufacturing of bakelite

15. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion (A): An ether is more volatile than an alcohol of comparable molecular mass.

Reason (R): Ethers are polar in nature.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true.

16. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Proteins are found to have two different types of secondary structures viz alpha-helix
and beta-pleated sheet structure.

Reason (R): The secondary structure of proteins is stabilized by hydrogen bonding.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true.

17. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion(A) : Magnetic moment values of actinides are lesser than the theoretically predicted values.

Reason (R) : Actinide elements are strongly paramagnetic.

 Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.

18. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion (A): Tertiary amines are more basic than corresponding secondary and primary amines in
gaseous state.

Reason (R): Tertiary amines have three alkyl groups which cause +I effect.

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true.

SECTION : B

This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following questions are
very short answer type and carry 2 marks each.

19. Analyse the given graph, drawn between concentration of

reactant vs. time.

(i) Predict the order of reaction.

(ii) Theoretically, can the concentration of the reactant

reduce to zero after infinite time ? Explain.

20. Define the following terms :

(i) Oligosaccharides
(ii) Invert sugar

OR

Differentiate between the following :

(i) Amylose and Amylopectin

(ii) Peptide linkage and Glycosidic linkage
21. (i) Which alkyl halide from the following pair is chiral and undergoes SN2 reaction faster?

(ii) Out of SN1 and SN2 , which reaction occurs with

a. Inversion of configuration?
b. Racemisation

OR

(i) Which alkyl halide from the following pairs would you expect to react more rapidly by an SN2
mechanism? Explain your answer.

(ii) Briefly describe the SN2 mechanism.

22. (i) Write the IUPAC name of the following complex :

[cr(NH 3 )2 Cl 2 (en)Cl

(ii) Write the formula of the following complex :

Pentaamminenitrito–o–cobalt (III)ion

23. Mention the reaction occurring at

(i) anode
(ii) cathode , during the working of mercury cell.

Why does the voltage of a mercury cell remain constant during its operation ?

24. For a first order reaction, show that time required for 99% completion is twice the time required for the
completion of 90% reaction.

25. Name the different reagents to perform the following reactions :

(i) Phenol to benzene.

(ii) Dehydration of propan-2-ol to propane.
(iii) Friedel- craft acetylation of anisole.
(iv) Oxidation of primary alcohol to aldehyde.
 SECTION : C

This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in two questions. The following questions are short
answer type and carry 3 marks each.

26. Write the main product(s) in each of the following reactions:

27. (i) State Henry’s law . Mention any two applications .

(ii) Calculate the solubility of carbon-di-oxide in water at 298 K under 760 mm Hg.
( K H for CO 2 in water at 298 K is 1.25 x 10 6 )

28. For the complex [ Fe (en)2 Cl 2 ] Cl , identify the following

(i) Oxidation number of iron.

(ii) Hybrid orbitals and shape of the complex.
(iii) Magnetic behaviour of the complex.
(iv) Number of its geometrical isomers.
(v) Whether there may be optical isomers also?
(vi) Name the complex.

29. Give reasons for any 3 of the following observations:

(i) Aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by Garbriel phthalimide.

(ii) Aliphatic amines are stronger bases than aromatic amines.
(iii) Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not.
(iv) Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines.

30. (i) Write an equation for preparation of 1- iodobutane from 1- chlorobutane .

(ii) Out of 2- bromopentane , 2- bromo -2 methylbutane and 1- bromopentane. Which compound is

most reactive towards elimination reaction and why ?
OR
How do you convert the following :
(i) Chlorobenzene to biphenyl
(ii) Propane to 1- iodopropane
(iii) 2-bromobutane to but-2-ene
 SECTION : D

The following questions are case-based questions. Each question has an internal choice and carries 4
(1+1+2) marks each. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

31. The following diagram explains the DNA structure representing the different parts of the DNA. DNA
comprises a sugar-phosphate backbone and the nucleotide bases (guanine, cytosine, adenine and
thymine).

The DNA structure can be thought of as a twisted

ladder. This structure is described as a
double-helix, as illustrated in the figure . It is a
nucleic acid, and all nucleic acids are made up of
nucleotides. The DNA molecule is composed of
units called nucleotides, and each nucleotide is
composed of three different components such as
sugar, phosphate groups and nitrogen bases.
The basic building blocks of DNA are nucleotides, which are composed of a sugar group, a phosphate
group, and a nitrogen base. The sugar and phosphate groups link the nucleotides together to form each
strand of DNA. Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Guanine (G) and Cytosine (C) are four types of nitrogen
bases.
DNA replication is an important process that occurs during cell division. It is also known as
semi-conservative replication, during which DNA makes a copy of itself.

(i) Name the base that is found in nucleotides of RNA only.

(ii) If one strand of DNA has the sequence of bases on mRNA molecules synthesized on the following
strand of DNA ?
TATCTACCTGGA
(iii) What do you understand by the term DNA replication ? Briefly describe its mechanism.

OR
(iii) (a) Write the main functional differences between DNA and RNA .
(b) Of the four bases, name those which are common in both DNA and RNA.
32. Henna is investigating the melting point of different salt solutions. She makes a salt solution using 10
mL of water with a known mass of NaCl salt. She puts the salt solution into a freezer and leaves it to
freeze. She takes the frozen salt solution out of the freezer and measures the temperature when the
frozen salt solution melts. She repeats each experiment.

S.No. Mass of the salt Melting point in 0 C

used in g
Readings Set 1 Reading Set 2

1- 0.3 - 1.9 - 1.9

2- 0.4 - 2.5 - 2.6

3- 0.5 - 3.0 - 5.5

4- 0.6 - 3.8 - 3.8

5- 0.8 - 5.1 - 5.0

6- 1.0 - 6.1 - 6.3

Assuming the melting point of pure water as 0 0 C, answer the following questions:

(i) One temperature in the second set of results does not fit the pattern. Which temperature is that?
Justify your answer.

(ii) Why did Henna collect two sets of results?

(iii) In place of NaCl, if Henna had used glucose, what would have been the melting point of the
solution with 0.6 g glucose in it?

OR

(iii) What is the predicted melting point if 1.2 g of salt is added to 10 mL of water? Justify your answer.

SECTION : E

The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. Two questions have an internal
choice.

33. (i) Define the term degree of dissociation. Write an expression that relates the molar conductivity of a
weak electrolyte to its degree of dissociation. Graphically discuss the variation of molar
conductivity with concentration .

(ii) The conductivity of the 0.20 M solution of KCl is 0.0248 S cm –1. Calculate its molar conductivity.
 OR

Consider the figure and answer the following questions :

(i) Cell ‘A’ has Ecell = 2 V and cell ‘B’ has Ecell = 1.1 V which of the two cells ‘A’ or ‘B’ will act as
an electrolytic cell. Which electrode reactions will occur in this cell?

(ii) If cell ‘A’ has Ecell = 0.5 V and cell ‘B’ has Ecell = 1.1 V, what will be the reactions at anode and
cathode?

(iii) Define standard electrode potential. The standard electrode potential for Daniell cell is 1.1 V.
Calculate the standard Gibbs energy for the reaction :

34. Write the structures of A , B , C , D and E in the following reaction :

OR

(i) Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved in Cannizzaro reaction.
(ii) Draw the structure of the semicarbazone of ethanal.
(iii) Why is the pKa of F−CH2 −COOH lower than that of Cl−CH2 −COOH?
(iv) How can you distinguish between propanal and propanone?
(v) Write the product in the following reaction:

35. Answer the following :

(i) Name the element of 3d-transition series which shows the maximum No. of oxidation state. Why?
(ii) Which of the metals of 3d-series has positive value for E⊖(M2+/M) ? Why ?
(iii) Out of cr 3+ and Mn 3+, which is a stronger oxidising agent and why ?
(iv) Name a member of the lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +2 oxidation state.
(v) Complete the following reaction : MnO–4 + 8H + + 5e – → ?