All-In-One-Keys (1) 20201215095853

Compliance Keys
Question 1
Setting Compliance Culture is responsibility of _________
A) Everyone in the organisation

B) Top Management in the organisation
C) Unit Heads/ Departmental heads
D) Board of Directors
Question 2
As per RBI guidelines, what is the maximum loan that can be sanctioned against balance held in
EEFC account?
A) 60%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) No loan be can be sanctioned against such balance.
Question 3
RBI has indicated that the Bank to have a separate organisational structure for RBS. Which of
the following organisational structure has been created by the bank?
A) Compliance Department
B) Compliance Risk Management Committee
C) Post of Group Compliance Officer
D) Post of Senior Supervisory Manager
Question 4
Who among the following is ultimately responsible for ensuring compliance
A) Top Management
B) Board of Directors
C) Heads of the Business Unit
D) Audit Function
Question 5
Compliance Risk Assessment is carried out at
A) Monthly Interval
B) Quarterly Interval
C) Annual Interval
D) As and when RBI directs
Question 6
Which of the following is not missseling?
A) Non-disclosure of grievance redressal mechanism

B) Consent of Customer not taken.
C) Omission of key information
D) None of these
Question 7
Compliance with Banking Regulation Act 1949 is part of
A) Regulatory Compliance
B) Statutory Compliance
C) Other Compliance
D) None of these
Question 8
Which of the following require greater oversight from the perspective of compliance?
A) Regulatory Reporting
B) Board level reviews on compliance functions
C) Incident Management
D) None of these
Question 9
Which of the following statements regarding role of top management in compliance is correct?
A) The top management is responsible for overseeing the management of compliance risk.
B) The top Management responsible for providing adequate staff and resources to the
Compliance Function to enable it to discharge its responsibilities effectively.
C) The top management is responsible for overseeing implementation of compliance policy
in the bank
D) None of the above
Question 10
Which of the following will help to establish compliance culture
A) Awareness of compliance obligation

B) Factoring compliance in performance appraisal
C) Honesty & Integrity
D) All of these
Question 11
Compliance risk management involves three lines of defence. What is the role of 2nd line of
defence?
A) Reviews compliance function

B) Primarily responsible for compliance
C) Provides feedback to management
D) Assists with policy development
Question 12
In normal course, information to an applicant under RTI Act 2005 shall be supplied within
_______ and if the informaton sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, it shall be supplied
within _______ from the receipt of application by the public authority. from the receipt of
application by the public authority.
A) Fifteen days & 24 hours
B) Thirty days & 48 hours
C) Thirty days & 1 week
D) Fiften dyas & 48 hours
Question 13
Full form of SPARC _____
A) Supervisory Program for Assessment of Risk & Capital

B) Supervisory Process for Assessment of Risk & Capital
C) Supervisory Process of Assessment of Risk & Compliance
D) Supervisory Program for Assessment of Risk & Compliance
Question 14
Domestic Systemically Important Banks (DSIB) are required to live up to ___________
A) Stringent Regulatory Oversight

B) Standard Regulatory Oversight
C) Relaxed Regulatory Oversight
D) Normal Regulatory Oversight
Question 15
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is maintained with reference to
A) Deposits
B) Liability
C) Net demand and time liability
D) Any of the above
Question 16
_____________ shall ensure SEBI related compliance in the Bank under Code of Conduct,
Insider Trading Regulations and necessary reporting to Stock Exchanges.
A) Group Compliance Officer
B) GM (Compliance SEBI)
C) Vice President (Compliance-SEBI)
D) DGM (Compliance-SEBI)
Question 17
Compliance with PFRDA guidelines is part of
C) Other Compliance
D) None of these
Question 18
Which of the following will not cause regulatory violation in case of Liberailised Remittance
Scheme (LRS).
A) If LRS is made availble to Indiviaduals only

B) If LRS is made availble to Individuals & HUFs
C) If LRS is made availble to Individulas, HUFs, Corporates
D) Non of these
Question 19
Which of the following is not true about SPARC ?
A) The bank may require to bring additional capital if available capital is found to be
inadequate as per RBI"s assessment
B) Compliance is not asessed in SPARC
C) Risks due to gaps in the Governance & Oversight in a bank is also taken to arrive at
aggreagate risk
D) Non of the above.
Question 20
Which is not one of the reason for focussing on compliance?

A) Unexpected loss arising out of non-adherence to Policies/Controls/ SOPs.
B) Capital Budgeting & Profit Planing
C) Non-adherence to controls set by the bank in handling business activities leads to
substantial loss reflected in provision for loan loss and frauds
D) Regulators are becoming more and more stringent
Question 21
Which of the following is not an appropriate measure to ensure compliance______________
A) Report and prevent unethical activities

B) Avoid false compliance
C) Reward compliant behaviour
D) Not penalising compliance infraction
Question 22
Which of following statement regarding Compliance Policy is not correct?
A) The Compliance policy shall be applicable mandatorily across the whole Bank covering
both Domestic and Overseas.
B) In case of overseas operations,the regulatory requirements of the resident country must be
adhered to.
C) The basic principles are to be followed by all staff of the Bank.
D) Compliance Policy represents the best standards of guidance
Question 23
Which of the following has been constituted for focussed attention on managing Compliance
risk.
A) Audit Committee of the Baord

B) Compliance Risk Managemnet Committe
C) Compliance Department
D) Internal Audit Department
Question 24
Expand CRILC
A) Central Repository of Information on Large Credits

B) Credit Regulation and Information on Large Credit
C) Central Registry of Institutional Lender"s Code
D) None of these
Question 25
Compliance Risk arise due to non compliance with ________
A) Prescribed Practices
B) Internal policies and procedures
C) Codes of conduct of self-regulatory organisations applicable to all of that Bank"s varied
business activities and functions.
D) All of these
Question 26
Which of the following is not true regarding Compliance Function & Internal Audit?
A) The Internal Audit function should not inform the Compliance Function regarding audit
findings related to compliance.
B) As per RBI requirement, the activities of the Compliance Function should be subject to
annual review by the internal audit.
C) The Compliance Function and the Internal Audit function shall be separate.
D) All of the above
Question 27
Banks will be subjected to accelerated provisioning in which of the cases?
A) banks fail to report SMA status of the accounts to CRILC

B) resort to methods with the intent to conceal the actual status of the accounts
C) Both of these
D) None of these
Question 28
Which of the following statement is NOT correct regarding Beneficial Owner of an legal entity?
A) Beneficial Owner is an Individual, who ultimately owns or controls a client of a reporting

entity
B) Beneficial Owner is an Individual, on whose behalf a transaction is being conducted
C) Beneficial Owner includes a natural person who exercises ultimate effective control over
a juridical person.
D) Beneficial Owner also includes a non-individual person who exercises ultimate effective
control over a juridical person.
Question 29
What is the periodicity for updation of KYC for Low risk individuals and entities?
A) Every 2 Years
B) Every 8 Years
C) Every 6 months
D) Every 10 Years
Question 30
Which of the following is not an element of Compliance Function
A) Internal Audit
B) Compliance Testing
C) Compliance Monitoring
D) Compliance Risk Assesment
Question 1
Compliance risk management involves three lines of defence. Which line of defence is primarily responsible
for compliance?
A) 1st Line of Defence
B) 2nd Line of Defence
C) 3rd Line of Defence
D) All are equally responsible
Question 2
The regulatory norms on single borrower exposure is ____________
A) common for all banks.
B) prescribed as per size of the banks
C) prescribed as per NPA level of the bank
D) as per Capital Adequacy Ratio
Question 3
Identification of Beneficial Owner must be ensured ________
A) After opening of acount but before allowing any debit in the account.
B) At the time of Onboarding of customer.
C) When the credit summations in the account reach the threshoold limit.
D) Only for those accounts identified by RBI.
Question 4
Compliance with Banking Regulation Act 1949 is part of
C) Other Compliance
D) None of these
Question 5
Which of the following is not an OVD for KYC purpose?
A) Proof of Possession of Aadhar
B) Passport
C) PAN
D) Driving License
Question 6
Which of the following will not cause regulatory violation in case of Liberailised Remittance Scheme (LRS).
A) If LRS is made availble to Indiviaduals only
B) If LRS is made availble to Individuals & HUFs
C) If LRS is made availble to Individulas, HUFs, Corporates
D) Non of these
Question 7
_____________ shall ensure SEBI related compliance in the Bank under Code of Conduct, Insider Trading
Regulations and necessary reporting to Stock Exchanges.
Question 8
What is the periodicity for updation of KYC for High risk individuals and entities?
A) Every 2 Years
B) Every 8 Years
C) Every 6 months
D) Every 10 Years
Question 9
Compliance with PFRDA guidelines is part of
C) Other Compliance
D) None of these
Question 10
In compliance with RBI guidelines, what is timeline within which bank shall credit the amount involved in the
unauthorised electronics transaction to the customers account in case customer has Zero Liablility / Limited
Liability
A) 10 working days from the date of notification
B) 10 working days from the date of transaction
C) 7 working days from the date of notification
D) 7 working days from the date of transaction
Question 11
Which of following statement regarding Compliance Policy is not correct?
A) The Compliance policy shall be applicable mandatorily across the whole Bank covering both Domestic
and Overseas.
B) In case of overseas operations,the regulatory requirements of the resident country must be adhered to.
C) The basic principles are to be followed by all staff of the Bank.
D) Compliance Policy represents the best standards of guidance
Question 12
Which of the following is not an element of Compliance Function
A) Internal Audit
B) Compliance Testing
C) Compliance Monitoring
D) Compliance Risk Assesment
Question 13
Which of the following statements regarding control is/ are true?
A) Banks are required to put in place controls only for some selected risk paramters
B) Controls on selected risk will be uniform for all banks irrespective of size, voume and complexity of
buisiness
C) Controls wiill be in commensurate with risk in a bank and may vary from bank to bank.
D) The level of internal controls required for mitigating risk is indirectly related to the inherent risk
assumed by the bank
Question 14
As per RBI guidelines, what is the maximum loan that cn be sanctioned against balance held in EEFC
account?
A) 60%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) No loan be can be sanctioned against such balance.
Question 15
In compliance with RBI guidelines, 100 percent provision will be made for aggregate net debit under all
categories of unreconciled entries in inter-branch account outstanding for more than _____________
A) 6 months
B) 3 months
C) 9 month
D) 12 months
Question 16
A note in which some portion is missing is called
A) Soiled Note
B) Imerfect Note
C) Mutilated Note
D) Non of these
Question 17
Which of the following is one of the reaosn for SBI being subjected to stringent regulatory oversight and
monitoring?
A) SBI has the largest customer base
B) Public trust in SBI is the highest as compared to other banks
C) SBI is a D -SIB
D) All of these
Question 18
Which of the following is/ are compliance philosophy of our SBI
A) Compliance is most effective in a corporate culture that emphasizes standards of honesty and integrity.
B) It concerns everyone in the organisation and should be viewed as an integral part of the business.
C) Both of these
D) None of these
Question 19
What is the periodicity for updation of KYC for Low risk individuals and entities?
A) Every 2 Years
B) Every 8 Years
C) Every 6 months
D) Every 10 Years
Question 20
Compliance risk management involves three lines of defence. What is the role of 3rd line of defence?
A) Primarily responsible for compliance
B) Monitors Compliance Risk
C) Advises management
D) Provides feedback to management
Question 21
Under Regulatory compliance bank has to ensure strict compliance of all regulatory guideline. Which of the
following are the sectoral regulators?
A) RBI, SEBI, IRDA
B) RB , SEBI, IRDA , FEMA
C) RBI, SEBI, IRDA, FEMA, FIMDAA, FEDAI
D) RBI, SEBI, IRDA , FEMA, FIMDAA, FEDAI, BCSBI,
Question 22
Under SPARC, which of the following is not taken in to considearion while arriving at aggregat risk
A) Risks due to gaps in controls for the inherent risks,
B) Risks due to gaps in the Governance & Oversight
C) Culture & degree of compliance to regulatory requirements
D) None of the these
Question 23
The level of internal controls put in place for inherent risks _________________
A) must be common for all the banks
B) must commensurate with level of risk in the banks
C) are not assessed by RBI
D) ared advised by RBI to banks separately
Question 24
As per BCSBI Banks are required to settle the claims in respect of deceased depositors and release payments to
survivor(s) / nominee within a period not exceeding _______ from the date of receipt of the claim subject to
the production of proof of death of the depositor and suitable identification of the claimant(s), to the bank's
satisfaction.
A) 15 days
B) 30 days
C) 45 days
D) Three weeks
Question 25
C) Codes of conduct of self-regulatory organisations applicable to all of that Bank"s varied business
activities and functions.
D) All of these
Question 26
Feeding of 'Occupation' of the customer is required _____________
A) in certain categories of CIFs
B) invariably in all CIFs.
C) based up Annual Income as declared by customers
D) Non of these
Question 27
Which of the following has been constituted for focussed attention on managing Compliance risk.
A) Audit Committee of the Baord
B) Compliance Risk Managemnet Committe
C) Compliance Department
D) Internal Audit Department
Question 28
Which of the following statements regarding Tranche data is false?
A) Tranche I is for Non financial parameters given by RBI.
B) Tranche II is for gaps in control and oversight Information
C) Tranche III is for compliance testing information
D) All are false
Question 29
Banks are required to report to CRILC information on all borrowers having exposure limit of _______
A) Rs.5 million and above
B) Rs.50 million and above
C) Rs. 10 million and above
D) Above Rs.5million
Question 30
Question 1
C) Codes of conduct of self-regulatory organisations applicable to all of that Bank"s varied business
activities and functions.
D) All of these
Question 2
Which of the following statement regarding Compliance Testing is/ are True? i.While the compliance to RBI
guidelines is the responsibility of the operational departments, the monitoring of the same is the responsibility
of the Compliance Function. ii.While the compliance to RBI guidelines is the responsibility of the Compliance
Function, the monitoring of the same is the responsibility of the Audit Function. iii.Compliance Testing is
aimed in identifying the weaknesses / deficiencies in controls, from compliance perspective. iv.The objective
of Compliance Testing is to find out the persons responsible for non compliance and false compliance
A) Only i & iv
B) Only ii
C) Only i & iii
D) Only iii
Question 3
Legal Entity Identifier has been introduced for large corporate borrowers having exposure of __________
A) Rs.5 million and above
B) Rs.50 million and above
C) Rs. 10 million and above
D) For all corporates irrespective of exposure limit.
Question 4
Which of the following statement on compliance is wrong?
A) Compliance is the commitment stemming from an individual to follow rules, regulations and various
codes of conduct including the voluntary ones every day, every transaction.
B) Ensuring compliance with regulations, policies and processes is the responsibility of Compliance
Department.
C) Compliance culture is epitomized by collective commitment to nurture and protect organisation"s
reputation and live organisation"s values, every day, everywhere.
D) The level of internal controls required for mitigating risk is directly related to the inherent risk
assumed by the bank
Question 5
Who among the following exercise oversight on the Bank's compliance with applicable statutes, regulations &
ethical standards
A) The Board of Directors
B) Audit Committee of the Board
C) Top Management
D) Both 1 & 2
Question 6
Who is responsible for managing Compliance Risk in the bank
A) The Board
B) The Top Management
C) Departmental Heads
D) Everyone in the organisation
Question 7
Which of the following is not true about SPARC ?
A) The bank may require to bring additional capital if available capital is found to be inadequate as per
RBI"s assessment
B) Compliance is not asessed in SPARC
C) Risks due to gaps in the Governance & Oversight in a bank is also taken to arrive at aggreagate risk
D) Non of the above.
Question 8
Which of the following is not a common defeciencies due to which RBI imposes penalty on banks ?
A) Discrepancies in Asset Classification
B) Not monitoring end use of funds in respect of borrower account
C) Delay in reporting of frauds
D) Not achieving priority sector lending target
Question 9
Which of the following is not a consequence of Non Compliance
A) Regulatory Sanctions
B) Substantial loss reflected in provisions for loan loss and frauds
C) Expected Loss arising out of non-adherence to Policies/Controls/ SOPs.
D) None of these
Question 10
Which of the following statement is true regarding compliance to regulatory prescription?
A) These regulatory prescriptions are required to be complied with by all banks irrespective of their size,
complexity and volume of business.
B) Compliance assessment involves assessing bank?s adherence to these regulatory prescriptions with
respect to the complexity, size of business or level of risk in a bank.
C) For compliance assessment, the control instituted by the bank for ensuring compliance would not be
assessed by RBI
D) All are true.
Question 11
The objective of Compliance Testing is to ensure:
A) That the controls are adequate and effective to ensure compliance with RBI directives.
B) Imrovement in Customer Service
C) Compliance of auditor"s observation
D) All the above.
Question 12
A listed bank is not regulated by
A) RBI
B) SEBI
C) IRDA
D) None of these
Question 13
Time norm for reporting of frauds after it is detected to RBI is _____
A) 4 weeks
B) 2 weks
C) 3 weeks
D) 1 week
Question 14
Which of the following is not an appropriate measure to ensure compliance______________
A) Report and prevent unethical activities
B) Avoid false compliance
C) Reward compliant behaviour
D) Not penalising compliance infraction
Question 15
Which of the following is primarily responsible for compliance
A) Business Unit/ Operating Unit
B) Top Management
C) Board of Directors
D) All of these
Question 16
Banking is the most regulated industry in the world. Which of the following is one of the reason for the same?
A) Bank failure may lead to systemic risk
B) Banks deal with public money and control large part of the money.
C) Banks are primarily purveyors of credit allocation
D) All of these
Question 17
As per BCSBI Banks are required to settle the claims in respect of deceased depositors and release payments to
survivor(s) / nominee within a period not exceeding _______ from the date of receipt of the claim subject to
the production of proof of death of the depositor and suitable identification of the claimant(s), to the bank's
satisfaction.
A) 15 days
B) 30 days
C) 45 days
D) Three weeks
Question 18
In compliance with RBI guidelines, 100 percent provision will be made for aggregate net debit under all
categories of unreconciled entries in inter-branch account outstanding for more than _____________
A) 6 months
B) 3 months
C) 9 month
D) 12 months
Question 19
Question 20
Which of the following statements regarding Tranche data is false?
A) Tranche I is for Non financial parameters given by RBI.
B) Tranche II is for gaps in control and oversight Information
C) Tranche III is for compliance testing information
D) All are false
Question 21
RBI imposes monetary penalties on a bank based on deficiencies in regulatory compliance. Such actions are
________
A) Intended to pronounce upon the validity of any agreement entered by the banks with its customer
B) Intended to pronounce upon the validity of any transaction
C) Not intended to pronounce upon the validity of any transaction or agreement entered by the banks with
its customer
D) Both 1 & 2
Question 22
For ensuring uniform reporting, RBI has classified frauds in ________ categories
A) 10
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Question 23
In compliance with RBI guidelines, what is timeline within which bank shall credit the amount involved in the
unauthorised electronics transaction to the customers account in case customer has Zero Liablility / Limited
Liability
A) 10 working days from the date of notification
B) 10 working days from the date of transaction
C) 7 working days from the date of notification
D) 7 working days from the date of transaction
Question 24
Compliance Risk Assessment is carried out at
A) Monthly Interval
B) Quarterly Interval
C) Annual Interval
D) As and when RBI directs
Question 25
Identification of Beneficial Owner must be ensured ________
A) After opening of acount but before allowing any debit in the account.
B) At the time of Onboarding of customer.
C) When the credit summations in the account reach the threshoold limit.
D) Only for those accounts identified by RBI.
Question 26
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Compliance Function?
A) Compliance Function would be responsible for identifying emerging areas of Compliance risk .
B) The Compliance Function shall ensure prompt dissemination of regulatory guidelines/instructions
along with the compliance obligations to various business units/verticals after vetting.
C) The Compliance Function would also be responsible for developing and maintaining the compliance
calendar for all regulatory reporting,
D) Compliance Function shall also seek expert advice from business units on key compliance issue
Question 27
RBI has indicated that the Bank to have a separate organisational structure for RBS. Which of the following
organisational structure has been created by the bank?
A) Compliance Department
B) Compliance Risk Management Committee
C) Post of Group Compliance Officer
D) Post of Senior Supervisory Manager
Question 28
Which of the following will help to establish compliance culture
A) Awareness of compliance obligation
B) Factoring compliance in performance appraisal
C) Honesty & Integrity
D) All of these
Question 29
The Compliance Policy may be updated with the approval of ________ in case a need arises due to changes in
regulatory environments including amendments to laws, rules and regulations, as applicable.
A) Compliance Risk Management Committee
B) Board of Directors
C) Audit Committee of the Board
D) MD in charge of Compliane
Question 30
_____________ shall ensure SEBI related compliance in the Bank under Code of Conduct, Insider Trading
Regulations and necessary reporting to Stock Exchanges.
Risk Keys
Question 1
What is Reputation Risk?
A) Risk of fluctuations in Net Interest Income and value of assets and liabilities arising from
internal factors ( composition of asset and liabilities portfolio, maturity, interest rate, re-pricing
period etc.) and external factors ( general economic conditions).
B) Risk of damage to the reputation, name or brand arising directly from the organization or
indirectly from the actions of the employees and associated parties such as joint ventures /
subsidiaries, resulting in an adverse impact on the earnings, capital, image and trust.
C) Risk of current or prospective impact on bank"s earnings, capital or standing arising from
the strategic decisions, improper implementation of decisions or failure to respond to changes in
the competitive environment, business cycles, customer preferences, product innovations,
execution and / or other intrinsic risks of business impacting the ability to meet the objectives.
D) Inability to maintain statutory prescriptions, meet contractual and maturing cash outflows
and profitably deploy surplus cash.
Question 2
Major additions in Basel II were ________
A) Market Risk & The Three Pillars

B) Operational Risk & The Three Pillars
C) Operational Risk & Market Risk
D) Market risk & Liquidity Risk
Question 3
Interest Rate Risk in Banking Book is assessed under_________
A) Basel Pillar 1
B) Basel Pillar 2
C) Basel Pillar 3
D) Not assessed under Basel Pillars
Question 4
Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) is maesured as a ratio of__________

A) Available Stable Finding (ASF) to Required Stable funding (RSF) over one year
B) Required Stable funding (RSF) over one year to Available Stable Finding (ASF)
C) Available Stable Finding (ASF) to Required Stable funding (RSF) over 6 months
D) Required Stable funding (RSF) over 6 months to Available Stable Finding (ASF)
Question 5
For CRAR, capital is to be maintained as a percentage of_________
A) Requisite Assets
B) Risk Weighted Assets
C) Requisite Liabilities
D) Risk Weighted Liabilities
Question 6
The Drivers for Credit Risk are as under
A) Default Risk
B) Recovery Risk
C) Complexity of Exposure
D) All of the above
Question 7
Which of the following is included under Risk Management-
A) exercise of identifying the potential risks

B) analysing and measuring/evaluating the potential risks
C) taking measure to minimize the risks
D) All of the above.
Question 8
How many members are part of Basel Committee On Banking Supervision (BCBS)
A) 27
B) 74
C) 28
D) 45
Question 9
Which of the following is not a cause of Operational Loss
A) People
B) Process
C) Systems
D) Strategy
Question 10
Market risk is defined as the risk that the value of____________________
A) on balance sheet positions will be adversely affected by movements in market variables.

B) off-balance sheet positions will be adversely affected by movements in market variables.
C) on or off-balance sheet positions will be adversely affected by movements in market
variables.
Question 11
Great Financial Crisis or Subprime Mortgage Crisis was the trigger for _________
A) Basel I
B) Basel II
C) Basel III
Question 12
Tier 2 capital absorbs losses_____________

A) only when the bank is a Going Concern.
B) only when the bank is a Gone Concern i.e. insolvent.
C) Bank is either a Going Concern or a Gone Concern.
Question 13
Which of the following statement best defines liquidity Risk
A) Inability to maintain statutory prescriptions, meet contractual and maturing cash outflows
and profitably deploy surplus cash)
B) Risk of fluctuations in Net Interest Income and value of assets and liabilities arising from
internal factors ( composition of asset and liabilities portfolio, maturity, interest rate, re-pricing
period etc.) and external factors ( general economic conditions).
C) Risk of loss arising from an uneven distribution of credit exposure in terms of number of
borrowers, segments, industries, geographies.
D) Risk due to inappropriate valuation, deterioration in quality or unclear title to the
properties accepted as collateral
Question 14
Basel I accord primarily catered to____________
A) Operational Risk
B) Credit Risk
C) Liquidity Risk
D) Market Risk
Question 15
EGRM stands for
A) Exclusive Group Risk Management

B) Enterprise & Group Risk Management
C) Essential Group Risk Management
D) None
Question 16
Market risk is the possibility of loss due to movement in market variables. Which of these
market variables is/ are not relevant for Indian Banks? a) Interest Rate b) Exchange Rate c)
Equity price d) Commodity price
A) only b
B) only c
C) only d
D) b & c
Question 17
Standardised Measurement Method (SMM) is being used by Indian Banks since__________
A) 31st March 2004

B) 31st March 2005
C) 31st March 2006
D) 31st March 2007
Question 18
What is not the role of board in our Bank in connection with Governance of risk?
A) to identify the principal risks facing by the organisation and assures itself on an ongoing
basis that senior management is responding appropriately to these risks.
B) The board provides direction to senior management by setting the organisation"s risk
appetite.
C) The board provides direction to senior management by setting the organisation"s risk
capacity.
D) To ensure the effectiveness of an organisation"s risk management framework, the board
and senior management need to be able to rely on adequate line functions- including monitoring
and assurance functions - within the organisation.
Question 19
Individuals and businesses have three choices when it comes to dealing with risk- Denial, Fear
and______.
A) Passion.
B) Acknowledgement of the existence of risk.
C) Avoidance.
D) Inaction.
Question 20
In the context of Capital Requirements for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True:
Statement I Capital is segregated in to Tier 1 and Tier 2. Tier 2 is further segregated in to
Common Equity Tier 1 and Additional Tier 1 capital. Statement II Tier 1 is called Gone Concern
capital and Tier 2 as Going Concern Capital.
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
C) Both I & II are True
D) None of I & II are True
Question 21
Equity Price Risk is the risk arising on account of_______
A) Change in market price volatility

B) Change in market value due to market price volatility
C) Change in market value due to change in interest rate volatility
Question 22
If the sum of Tier 1 and Tier 2 Capital for the Bank is 9% of Risk Weighted Assets, then Tier 2
capital can be maximum___________
A) 1.50%
B) 2.00%
C) 2.50%
D) No such restriction
Question 23
Which Risk is part of pillar II

A) Counter Party Risk
B) Credit Risk
C) Market Risk
D) All of the above
Question 24
Market disclosure is part of
A) Pillar I
B) Pillar II
C) Pillar III
D) None
Question 25
Market disclosure is meant for ?
A) Board of Directors
B) Employees of the bank
C) Regulator
D) Market Participants
Question 26
The Standarised approach for Operational Risk Capital calculation a beta factor is used for
different business line. The beta factor is in the range of
A) 12% to 18%
B) 15% to 18%
C) 12% to 15%
Question 27
ICAAP is submitted to
A) Ministry of finance
B) SEBI
C) RBI
D) Not submitted to anyone one. It is for internal consumption.
Question 28
In the context of Credit risk Drivers, syndication exosure is part of_________
A) Default Risk
B) Recovery Risk
D) All of the above
Question 29
Which committee has set out the requirements for an effective risk management system in
Banks?
A) The Basel committee

B) International Monetary Fund
C) Reserve Bank of India
D) Risk Management Committee
Question 30
Which is not part of ICAAP?
A) Strategic Risk
B) Stress Testing
C) Product pricing
D) Product Risk
Question 1
Capital is kept for unexpected losses, whereas for expected loss, Banks make ____________ for
expected losses.
A) estimation
B) provision
C) revision
D) vision
Question 2
B) SEBI
C) RBI
Question 3
Quality of Credit Risk Rating Model is related to
A) Default Risk
B) Recovery Risk
D) All of the above
Question 4
Risk can be defined as the possibilty of loss, which would have an adverse impact________________.
A) either on a bank"s earnings or its capital.
B) on a Bank"s earnings only.
C) on a Bank"s Capital only.
D) on a bank"s earnings or capital or both.
Question 5
Which of the following is not a input under Advanced Measurement Approach for Operational Risk
management
A) Internal Loss Data
B) Scenario Analysis
C) External Loss Data
D) Ratings
Question 6
The success and failure of a banking institution heavily depends on the strength of the
_________________ in the current environment.
A) Risk management system
B) Customer management system
C) Queue management system
D) Cash management system
Question 7
"Sacrifice in compromise"cases will come under
A) Default Risk
B) Recovery Risk
D) Concentration Risk
Question 8
Risk Management is being aware of the ____________________ and taking advantage of this
knowledge to gain competitive advantage.
A) risks inherent in business
B) number of customers in bank
C) profiles of the customers in bank
D) quality of customer service at branches
Question 9
Risk arises from the______________ regarding an entity's future losses as well as future gains.
A) certainity
B) uncertainity
C) surity
D) security
Question 10
Which of the following is not correct about the third line of defence
A) Internal audit has no role in the corporate governance structure to assure the effective
management of risk.
B) The internal audit function provides assurance to the organisation"s board of directors and senior
management.
C) The assurance covers effectiveness of risk assessment and management by the organisation
D) Internal audit encompasses all elements of risk management framework and organisational
objectives: strategic, ethical, operational reporting and compliance.
Question 11
ICAAP stands for?
A) Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process
B) Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Procedure
C) International Capital Adequacy Assessment Process
D) None
Question 12
The inability or unwillingness of borrowers to meet their repayment obligations and honor their
commitments.
A) Credit Risk
B) Market Risk
C) Operational Risk
D) Liquidity Risk
Question 13
In the context of Leverage Ratio for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True: Statement I It is
meant to serve as a backstop to the risk-based capital requirement. Statement II It helps contain
systemwide build-up of leverage.
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 14
In the context of Leverage Ratio for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True: Statement I
Since failure of a Domestic Systemically Important bank would cause significant disruption to the
banking system and the overall economy, the rigour of oversight by the regulator and capital
requirement prescribed for them are more stringent than others. Statement II Minimum Leverage Ratio
mandated by RBI is 4% for Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 15
Tier 2 capital absorbs losses_____________
A) only when the bank is a Going Concern.
B) only when the bank is a Gone Concern i.e. insolvent.
C) Bank is either a Going Concern or a Gone Concern.
Question 16
Which group was instrumental in creation of Basel Committee On Banking Supervision (BCBS)
A) G-7
B) G-10
C) G-20
D) BRICS
Question 17
There is a natural trade-off between risk and_____________.
A) speed
B) balance
C) failure
D) reward
Question 18
BCBS was set up under the auspices of
A) BIS
B) BRICS
C) ADB
D) IMF
Question 19
Internal fraud is considered an Operational Loss Data. Identify the cause as per Operational Risk
Defenition
A) Process
B) People
C) Systems
D) External Events
Question 20
Under Basel III Banks are required to maintain_______________
A) More capital of higher quality to cover expected losses.
B) More capital of higher quality to cover unexpected losses.
C) More capital of higher quality to cover uexpected & expected losses.
D) Higher quality capital to cover expected losses.
Question 21
Risk is the ________ of uncertainty of results.
A) effect
B) result
C) reason
D) logic
Question 22
ICAAP Takes in to account
A) Pillar I Risks
B) Pillar II Risks
C) Both Pillar I and Pillar II Risk
D) None
Question 23
Which of the following is not correct regarding Risk Identification as per Risk Management Process?
A) Identify which are the inherent risks in the activity
B) Identification of major contributing factors to the Risk being assessed.
C) It is carried out across the Bank at a granular level.
D) This requires that Risk should be identified only at Risk Management Department Corporate Centre
level.
Question 24
Equity Price Risk is the risk arising on account of_______
A) Change in market price volatility
B) Change in market value due to market price volatility
C) Change in market value due to change in interest rate volatility
Question 25
____________ is further segregated in to Common Equity Tier 1 and Additional Tier 1 capital.
A) Tier 1 Capital
B) Tier 2 Capital
C) Total Capital
D) Buffer Capital
Question 26
Higher the risk, higher will have to be the _________requirement for a bank.
A) capital
B) cash
C) asset
D) liability
Question 27
under Advance internal Rating Based (AIRB) approach EAD is provided by
A) RBI
B) Bank
C) IDBI
D) DFS
Question 28
C) on or off-balance sheet positions will be adversely affected by movements in market variables.
Question 29
Which of the following is not a cause of Operational Loss
A) People
B) Process
C) Systems
D) Strategy
Question 30
What is Credit Concentration Risk?
A) Risk of loss arising from an uneven distribution of credit exposure in terms of number of borrowers,
segments, industries, geographies
B) Risk due to inappropriate valuation, deterioration in quality or unclear title to the properties accepted
as collateral
C) Risk of legal or regulatory sanctions, material financial loss or loss of reputation as a result of failure
to comply with laws, regulations, rules and cores of conduct applicable
D) The risk of inaccurate assessment of underlying risks arising from inappropriate model development,
calibration weaknesses or incorrect application of the model(s).
Question 1
Which committee has set out the requirements for an effective risk management system in Banks?
Question 2
The three pillars of Basel regulation are
A) Independent
B) Mutually reinforcing
C) Mutually antagonistic.
D) None
Question 3
Which of the following is correct regarding Risk Monitoring as per Risk Management Process?
A) Monitoring for breach of limits and policy guidelines
B) Reporting to Top Management and Regulator
C) Setting up of Risk Governance structure
D) Both 1 & 2
Question 4
Which statement is correct in respect of Risk Management?
A) Risk management is not about avoiding Risk.
B) Risk Management is about being aware of the Risks inherent in business and take advantage of this
knowledge to gain competitive advantage and enhance shareholder value.
C) Risk Management refers to exercise of identifying the potential risk, analysing and
measuring/evaluating those risks and taking measure to minimize those risks.
D) All of the above statements are correct.
Question 5
In the context of Capital Requirements for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True: Statement I
Capital is segregated in to Tier 1 and Tier 2. Tier 2 is further segregated in to Common Equity Tier 1 and
Additional Tier 1 capital. Statement II Tier 1 is called Gone Concern capital and Tier 2 as Going Concern
Capital.
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 6
Which of the following is second line of defense for Governance of Risk?
A) Functions that provide dependent assurance on functioning of the other two lines.
B) functions that own and manage risk
C) functions that oversee risks
D) Functions that provide independent assurance on functioning of the other two lines.
Question 7
The Denominator in CRAR caluculation comprises of Risk Weighted Assets for_________
A) Only Credit Risk
B) Credit Risk + Operational Risk
C) Credit Risk + Operational Risk + Market Risk
D) Credit Risk + Market Risk
Question 8
Which of the following is not correct regarding Risk Idenetification as per Risk Management Process?
A) Identify which are the inherent risks in the activity
B) Identification of major contributing factors to the Risk being assessed.
C) It is carried out across the Bank at a granular level.
D) This requires that Risk should be identified only at Risk Management Department Corporate Centre
level.
Question 9
Bank is currently computing Capital for Market Risk as per the__________
A) Standardised Measurement Method (SMM)
B) Internal Models Approach (IMA)
C) Revised Minimum Capital Requirements for Market Risk (Jan" 2019)
Question 10
The Drivers for Credit Risk are as under
A) Default Risk
B) Recovery Risk
D) All of the above
Question 11
EGRM stands for
A) Exclusive Group Risk Management
B) Enterprise & Group Risk Management
C) Essential Group Risk Management
D) None
Question 12
Which of the following is not a line of defense to achieve the objectives for Governance of Risk?
Question 13
Internal fraud is considered an Operational Loss Data. Identify the cause as per Operational Risk Defenition
A) Process
B) People
C) Systems
D) External Events
Question 14
Enterprise Risk management manges risks at which level?
A) Individual Company level
B) Group level
C) Both Group and entity level
D) None
Question 15
Leverage ratio includes________
A) Only on-balance sheet exposures
B) Only off-balance sheet exposures
C) Both on-balance sheet & off-balance sheet exposures
D) Limited to Derivative exposures
Question 16
Which of the following is first line of defense for Governance of Risk?
Question 17
Which group was instrumental in creation of Basel Committee On Banking Supervision (BCBS)
A) G-7
B) G-10
C) G-20
D) BRICS
Question 18
Which of the following is not correct regarding Risk Assessment as per Risk Management Process?
A) It can be assessed or measured by using quantitative and qualitative tools.
B) It cannot be assessed or measured by using quantitative and qualitative tools.
C) VaR, RCSA etc. are quantitative tools.
D) Some risk like exchange risk, interest rate risk etc can be easily quantified.
Question 19
A) capital
B) cash
C) asset
D) liability
Question 20
Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) aims at to __________
A) reduce over dependence on short term whole-sale funding during time of buoyant market liquidity .
B) reduce over dependence on short term whole-sale funding during time of stressed market liquidity .
C) increase dependence on short term whole-sale funding during time of buoyant market liquidity .
D) reduce over dependence on long term whole-sale funding during time of stressed market liquidity .
Question 21
Risks are.........
A) Interdependent
B) Independent
C) Dependent
D) Adaptable
Question 22
What percentage of average of three years Gross Income is set aside as Operational Risk capital under the BIA
approach
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 18%
D) 12%
Question 23
The Basel committee has set out the requirements for an effective risk management system. which of the
following is correct in respect of these requirements?
A) Active board and senior management oversight
B) Appropriate policies, procedures and limits
C) Comprehensive and timely identification, measurement, mitigation, controlling, monitoring and
reporting risks
D) All are correct
Question 24
There is a natural trade-off between risk and_____________.
A) speed
B) balance
C) failure
D) reward
Question 25
Default Risk is the risk arising on account of________
A) quality of secured exposure
B) high unrated exposures
C) high level of Write Offs
D) All of the above
Question 26
The board provides direction to senior management by setting the organisation's
A) Risk tolerance
B) Risk appetite
C) Risk Capacity
D) Risk adaptability
Question 27
B) SEBI
C) RBI
Question 28
Gross Income under BIA includes
A) Net Profit
B) Operational Expenses
C) Provisiosn
D) All of the above
Question 29
The Numerator in CRAR calculation comprises of_________
A) Eligible Tier 1 Capital
B) Eligible Tier 2 Capital
C) Eligible Total Capital
D) Eligible CET1 Capital
Question 30
What is Residual Risk arising from Credit Risk Mitigants?
A) Risk arising out of Political, Social and Economic factors which can impinge on a country"s capacity,
ability and willingness to honor its international off- shore obligations
as collateral
C) Risk of loss arising from an uneven distribution of credit exposure in terms of number of borrowers,
D) Risk of legal or regulatory sanctions, material financial loss or loss of reputation as a result of failure
Question 1
How many jurisdictions does Basel Committee On Banking Supervision (BCBS) comprise
A) 45
B) 74
C) 28
D) 47
Question 2
Under Basel III Systemically Important Banks (SIBs) are_______________
A) subject to additional capital requirements.
B) subject to lower capital requirements.
C) subject to higher quality capital requirements.
D) Systemically Important Banks (SIBs) are not covered under Basel III
Question 3
Banks are required to maintain CRAR of _________
A) 8% (9% in India) on an ongoing basis (excluding Capital Conservation Buffer).
B) 8% (9% in India) on an ongoing basis (including Capital Conservation Buffer).
C) 11% (11.50% in India) on an ongoing basis (excluding Capital Conservation Buffer).
D) 11% (11.50% in India) on an ongoing basis (including Capital Conservation Buffer).
Question 4
What is Talent Risk ?
A) Inability to maintain statutory prescriptions, meet contractual and maturing cash outflows and
profitably deploy surplus cash.
B) Talent (Human Resources) Risk is the risk arising for the Bank from the following: Talent gap/surplus,
employee attrition, employee infidelity, employee productivity, lack of good training infrastructure etc.
C) Risk of fluctuations in Net Interest Income and value of assets and liabilities arising from internal
factors ( composition of asset and liabilities portfolio, maturity, interest rate, re-pricing period etc.) and
external factors ( general economic conditions).
D) Risk of loss arising from an uneven distribution of credit exposure in terms of number of borrowers,
Question 5
Enterprise Risk management looks at ?
A) Individual risk level
B) Group risk level
C) risks of the entity in a holistic manner
D) None
Question 6
Market risk is the possibility of loss due to movement in market variables. Which of the below are the market
variables: a) Interest Rate b) Exchange Rate c) Equity price d) Commodity price
A) a, b & c
B) a, b & d
C) a, c & d
D) a, b, c & d
Question 7
When was Basel III accord released
A) 2004
B) 1988
C) 2010
D) 2006
Question 8
Risk arises from the______________ regarding an entity's future losses as well as future gains.
A) certainity
B) uncertainity
C) surity
D) security
Question 9
Which of the following does not comes under pillar 1(Primary Risk)
A) Credit Risk
B) Market Risk
C) Operational Risk
D) Liquidity Risk
Question 10
A leverage Ratio_____________
A) enhances the build-up of debt to fund banks" investment and activities, reducing the risk of a
deleveraging spiral during downturns.
B) constrains the build-up of debt to fund banks" investment and activities, reducing the risk of a
C) constrains the build-up of capital to fund banks" investment and activities, reducing the risk of a
D) enhances the build-up of capita to fund banks" investment and activities, reducing the risk of a
Question 11
Capital Charge for Credit Risk under Foundation internal Rating Based (FIRB) is computed based on
A) Probability of Default(PD)
B) Loss Given Default
C) Exposure at Default
D) All of the above
Question 12
Which risk is not part of Pillar III
A) Reputation Risk
B) Liquidity Risk
C) Strategic risk
D) All the above
Question 13
Market disclosure is meant for ?
A) Board of Directors
B) Employees of the bank
C) Regulator
D) Market Participants
Question 14
Which of the following is not correct regarding Risk Control as per Risk Management Process?
A) Setting up of Risk Governance structure
B) Setting up policies and limits
C) Setting up of exposure & risk limits
D) Setting up of Customer Relationship Management
Question 15
_____________ is further segregated in to Common Equity Tier 1 and Additional Tier 1 capital.
A) Tier 1 Capital
B) Tier 2 Capital
C) Total Capital
D) Buffer Capital
Question 16
The Numerator in Levearge Ratio calculation comprises of_________
A) Tier 1 Capital
B) Tier 2 Capital
C) Total Capital
D) Additional Tier 1 Capital
Question 17
In the context of Capital Buffers for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True: Statement I Banks
retain earnings to build up capital buffers during periods of high economic growth so that they can draw them
down during periods of economic stress. Statement II The two capital Buffers are Capital Conservation Buffer
(CCB) and Countercyclical Capital Buffer (CCyB).
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 18
A) capital
B) cash
C) asset
D) liability
Question 19
In the context of Capital Requirements for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True: Statement I
Capital is segregated in to Tier 1 and Tier 2. Tier 2 is further segregated in to Common Equity Tier 1 and
Additional Tier 1 capital. Statement II Tier 1 is called Gone Concern capital and Tier 2 as Going Concern
Capital.
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 20
Capital is kept for unexpected losses, whereas for expected loss, Banks make ____________ for expected
losses.
A) estimation
B) provision
C) revision
D) vision
Question 21
Which of the following is not related to three pillars of Basel
A) Minimum capital
B) Supervisory Review Process
C) Market Discipline
D) Capital budget
Question 22
What is Interest Rate Risk in Banking Book (IRRBB)?
A) Risk due to inappropriate valuation, deterioration in quality or unclear title to the properties accepted
as collateral
B) Risk of legal or regulatory sanctions, material financial loss or loss of reputation as a result of failure to
comply with laws, regulations, rules and cores of conduct applicable
C) Risk of damage to the reputation, name or brand arising directly from the organization or indirectly
from the actions of the employees and associated parties such as joint ventures / subsidiaries, resulting in an
impact on the earnings, capital, image and trust.
D) Risk of fluctuations in Net Interest Income and value of assets and liabilities arising from internal
Question 23
How many members are part of Basel Committee On Banking Supervision (BCBS)
A) 27
B) 74
C) 28
D) 45
Question 24
Interest Rate Risk is present in________________________
A) Trading Book
B) Banking Book
C) Either Trading Book or Banking Book
D) Both Trading Book & Banking Book
Question 25
Risks are.........
A) Interdependent
B) Independent
C) Dependent
D) Adaptable
Question 26
The physical assets were damaged at a branch due to fire in the premises . The losses due to fire would be
reported as its is an
A) Operational Risk
B) Compliance Risk
C) Talent Risk
D) Regulatory Risk
Question 27
Interest Rate Risk in Banking Book is assessed under_________
A) Basel Pillar 1
B) Basel Pillar 2
C) Basel Pillar 3
D) Not assessed under Basel Pillars
Question 28
Which of the following is included under Risk Management-
A) exercise of identifying the potential risks
B) analysing and measuring/evaluating the potential risks
C) taking measure to minimize the risks
D) All of the above.
Question 29
Individuals and businesses have three choices when it comes to dealing with risk- Denial, Fear and______.
A) Passion.
B) Acknowledgement of the existence of risk.
C) Avoidance.
D) Inaction.
Question 30
Basel I accord primarily catered to____________
A) Operational Risk
B) Credit Risk
C) Liquidity Risk
D) Market Risk
Question 1
Capital is kept for unexpected losses, whereas for expected loss, Banks make ____________ for expected
losses.
A) estimation
B) provision
C) revision
D) vision
Question 2
Which of the following is not involved in Risk management Process?
A) Risk Identification, Risk Assessment
B) Risk Appetite and adaptability
C) Risk Mitigation/ Control
D) Risk Monitoring & Reporting
Question 3
Banks are required to maintain CRAR of _________
A) 8% (9% in India) on an ongoing basis (excluding Capital Conservation Buffer).
B) 8% (9% in India) on an ongoing basis (including Capital Conservation Buffer).
C) 11% (11.50% in India) on an ongoing basis (excluding Capital Conservation Buffer).
D) 11% (11.50% in India) on an ongoing basis (including Capital Conservation Buffer).
Question 4
In the context of Leverage Ratio for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True: Statement I It is meant
to serve as a backstop to the risk-based capital requirement. Statement II It helps contain systemwide build-up
of leverage.
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 5
Which of the follwing statement best defines Strategic Risk
A) Risk of current or prospective impact on bank"s earnings, capital or standing arising from the strategic
decisions, improper implementation of decisions or failure to respond to changes in the competitive
environment, business cycles, customer preferences, product innovations, execution and / or other intrinsic
risks of business impacting the ability to meet the objectives
B) Risk of loss arising from an uneven distribution of credit exposure in terms of number of borrowers,
C) Talent (Human Resources) Risk is the risk arising for the Bank from the following: Talent gap/surplus,
employee attrition, employee infidelity, employee productivity, lack of good training infrastructure etc.
D) Risk of fluctuations in Net Interest Income and value of assets and liabilities arising from internal
Question 6
What is Residual Risk arising from Credit Risk Mitigants?
A) Risk arising out of Political, Social and Economic factors which can impinge on a country"s capacity,
as collateral
C) Risk of loss arising from an uneven distribution of credit exposure in terms of number of borrowers,
D) Risk of legal or regulatory sanctions, material financial loss or loss of reputation as a result of failure
Question 7
When did Bankhaus Herstatt in Germany collapse
A) 1974
B) 1975
C) 1978
D) 1976
Question 8
On a positive note, Risk is also___________.
A) an obstacle.
B) an opportunity.
C) an obsession.
D) an offer.
Question 9
In the context of Credit risk Drivers, syndication exosure is part of_________
A) Default Risk
B) Recovery Risk
D) All of the above
Question 10
The board provides direction to senior management by setting the organisation's
A) Risk tolerance
B) Risk appetite
C) Risk Capacity
D) Risk adaptability
Question 11
Which of the following is not a Pillar II risk
A) Compliance
B) Liquidity
C) Operational
D) Talent
Question 12
"Sacrifice in compromise"cases will come under
A) Default Risk
B) Recovery Risk
D) Concentration Risk
Question 13
Which is not among objectives of BCBS:
A) Monitoring and ensuring the capital adequacy of banks
B) To enhance financial stability by improving the quality of banking supervision.
C) Enhance profitability of banks
D) prudential regulation of banks
Question 14
Which is not part of ICAAP?
A) Strategic Risk
B) Stress Testing
C) Product pricing
D) Product Risk
Question 15
Which committee has set out the requirements for an effective risk management system in Banks?
Question 16
Which of the following is not a input under Advanced Measurement Approach for Operational Risk
management
A) Internal Loss Data
B) Scenario Analysis
C) External Loss Data
D) Ratings
Question 17
In the context of Internal Models Approach (IMA) for Market Risk Capital Charge, which of the below
statement/s is/ are True: Statement I Allows Banks to use their own Internal Models. Statement II Is a
combination of Value at Risk (VaR) and Stressed VaR.
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 18
In the context of Leverage Ratio for Banks which of the below statement/s is/ are True: Statement I Since
failure of a Domestic Systemically Important bank would cause significant disruption to the banking system
and the overall economy, the rigour of oversight by the regulator and capital requirement prescribed for them
are more stringent than others. Statement II Minimum Leverage Ratio mandated by RBI is 4% for Domestic
Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).
A) Only I is True
B) Only II is True
Question 19
Under Basel III Banks are required to maintain_______________
A) More capital of higher quality to cover expected losses.
B) More capital of higher quality to cover unexpected losses.
C) More capital of higher quality to cover uexpected & expected losses.
D) Higher quality capital to cover expected losses.
Question 20
under Advance internal Rating Based (AIRB) approach EAD is provided by
A) RBI
B) Bank
C) IDBI
D) DFS
Question 21
When did Franklin National Bank in the United States collapse
A) 1978
B) 1975
C) 1974
D) 1976
Question 22
B) SEBI
C) RBI
Question 23
When was Basel III accord released
A) 2004
B) 1988
C) 2010
D) 2006
Question 24
Which statement is correct in respect of Risk Management?
A) Risk management is not about avoiding Risk.
B) Risk Management is about being aware of the Risks inherent in business and take advantage of this
knowledge to gain competitive advantage and enhance shareholder value.
C) Risk Management refers to exercise of identifying the potential risk, analysing and
measuring/evaluating those risks and taking measure to minimize those risks.
D) All of the above statements are correct.
Question 25
The Denominator in CRAR caluculation comprises of Risk Weighted Assets for_________
A) Only Credit Risk
B) Credit Risk + Operational Risk
C) Credit Risk + Operational Risk + Market Risk
D) Credit Risk + Market Risk
Question 26
What is not the role of board in our Bank in connection with Governance of risk?
A) to identify the principal risks facing by the organisation and assures itself on an ongoing basis that
senior management is responding appropriately to these risks.
B) The board provides direction to senior management by setting the organisation"s risk appetite.
C) The board provides direction to senior management by setting the organisation"s risk capacity.
D) To ensure the effectiveness of an organisation"s risk management framework, the board and senior
management need to be able to rely on adequate line functions- including monitoring and assurance functions -
within the organisation.
Question 27
Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) is maesured as a ratio of__________
A) Available Stable Finding (ASF) to Required Stable funding (RSF) over one year
B) Required Stable funding (RSF) over one year to Available Stable Finding (ASF)
C) Available Stable Finding (ASF) to Required Stable funding (RSF) over 6 months
D) Required Stable funding (RSF) over 6 months to Available Stable Finding (ASF)
Question 28
Leverage ratio includes________
A) Only on-balance sheet exposures
B) Only off-balance sheet exposures
C) Both on-balance sheet & off-balance sheet exposures
D) Limited to Derivative exposures
Question 29
Which of the following defines Compliance Risk
A) Risk of loss arising from an uneven distribution of credit exposure in terms of number of borrowers,
as collateral
C) Risk of legal or regulatory sanctions, material financial loss or loss of reputation as a result of failure to
comply with laws, regulations, rules and cores of conduct applicable
D) Risk arising out of Political, Social and Economic factors which can impinge on a country"s capacity,
Question 30
C) on or off-balance sheet positions will be adversely affected by movements in market variables.
Data Analytics Keys
Question 1
How many risk categories branches are divided into in Fraud prone model?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 9
D) 3
Question 2
How Recommendation Engine will help branches
A) Targeting Right customers at right time
B) Help recovering the NPA
C) Reduce the risk
D) Introducing New Product
Question 3
Who can access the Leads on the PAPL Dashboard?
A) Branch Functionaries
B) Regional Manager
C) DGM and above
D) All of the above
Question 4
The alerts of suspicious chargeback are generated on the basis of
A) CCTV footage
B) Historical data and various variables
C) ATM location
D) Both a and b
Question 5
The proactive action of which Circle resulted in reduction on its suspicious chargeback?
A) Delhi
B) Lucknow
C) Jaipur
D) Ahmedabad
Question 6
The final risk category of a branch in Fraud prone dashboard is
A) Highest of ORM and CRM
B) Lowest Of ORM and CRM
C) ORM
D) CRM
Question 7
What is meant by "Footfall" at a branch?
A) No.of Cash Deposits
B) No.of Cash Withdrawals
C) No.of Vouchers
D) No.of customers visiting branch for any service or transaction
Question 8
How many months historical data is used for developing the machine learning model for suspicious
chargeback
A) 12 months
B) 9 months
C) 6 months
D) 3 months
Question 9
What are the categories of leads based on the chances of getting converted in PAPL?
A) High, Medium and Low
B) Hot, Warm and Cold
C) Green, Amber, and Red
D) There is no lead categorization
Question 10
Which customers are eligible for availing the PABL from our Bank?
A) All current account holders are eligible for availing for the loan amount opened under Proprietor
B) All current account holders, who had availed our POS machine, with CINB facility
C) All saving Bank customers.
Question 11
How many data points have been used as input to the EWS-P machine learning model?
A) 10
B) 50
C) 100
D) 200
Question 12
What are the different categories available in UPDATE column of Agri Gold Loan leads in Analytics
Dashboard?
A) Contacted
B) Interested
C) Not Interested
D) All of the above
Question 13
Txn per day per staff for branch A is higher than the threshold for its cluster.Branch A is a High Footfall
Branch.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 14
What are the categories of P-seg Gold Loan leads based on the chances of getting converted?
Question 15
Products included in Recommendation Engine
A) Assets
B) Liabilities
C) Alternate Channels
D) Cross-sell
E) All of the above
Question 16
What are the categories of alerts based on the chances of defaulting in EWS-P RG0 to 1 dashboard ?
B) Persistent Irregularity
C) Hot, Warm and Cold
D) Green, Amber, and Red
E) Both b and c
Question 17
What method is used by the Analytics Department for generating Agri Gold Loan leads?
A) Business Rules
B) Statistical Algorithms
C) Advanced Machine Learning
Question 18
What does the latest Shikhar model deal with?
A) Spend
B) Activation
C) Spend and Activation
D) Spend, Activation and Risk
Question 19
What action Home Branch should take on receiving suspicious chargeback claims?
A) KYC check
B) Block Card if found fraudulent
C) Close account if found fraudulent
D) All of the above
Question 20
Recommendation Engine is used for which customers
A) Corporate Salary Package
B) HNI
C) Wealth
D) NRI
E) All the above
Question 21
How many types of term loan products are included in the EWS-P segment Dashboard?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 8
D) 10
Question 22
Who can check the ISMOVVR?
A) Branch Head
B) Cashier
C) Accountant
D) Any one of the above
Question 23
What type of data is considered by the Analytics Department for categorizing the leads in Shikhar Model?
A) Only deposit data
B) Customers current liabilities
C) Vintage of the customer
D) Complete 360-degree view of the customer
Question 24
Where can BM find the list of customers eligible for ATM/ INB in Footfall Dashboard?
A) Branch Profile
B) Impact Analysis
C) Distribution of accounts
D) Enablers Page
Question 25
The approximate ____ % of OVVR at the Bank level comes in ISMOVVR for checking
A) 1%
B) 4%
C) 12%
D) 15%
Question 26
How many categories of branches are there in Footfall Reduction Model?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 3
Question 27
Objective of the Recommendation Engine model is:
A) Reduce NPA
B) Increase Product per Customer
C) Target New Customers
D) Customer Awareness
Question 28
Recommendation Engine Leads are available on
A) Analytics Dashboard
B) CRM
C) YONO
D) Both a & b
E) All of the above
Question 29
What actions to be taken by ATM linked branches on receiving suspicious chargeback claims?
A) Refer to CCTV footage
B) File FIR in fraudulent cases
C) Refer to home branch for KYC
D) All of the above
Question 30
In Fraud prone dashboard,number of risky branches are available at :
A) Region wise
B) Circle wise
C) Module wise
D) All of the above
Question 1
To illustrate the reason behind alert generation in EWS-SME, how many months transactional data
behaviour shown on dashboard?
A) 6 months
B) 12 months
C) Not provided
Question 2
The EWS-SME dashboard is developed for customers with total exposure of
A) Rs.1 Cr and above
B) Rs.25 lacs and above
C) Rs.25 lacs and below
D) Rs.10 Cr and above
Question 3
Which of the following external data is shown for alerted customer in EWS-SME model?
A) Defaulters at other Bank from CRILC data
B) Downgrade in External Rating from CRISIL
C) RBI"s RFA and Fraud Customers list
D) All of the above
Question 4
Over the past three years (FY'18, FY'19 & FY'20), the ATM interchange fee is:
A) Decreasing
B) Increasing
C) Constant
D) Fluctuating
Question 5
How can the P-seg Gold Loan leads be accessed?
A) info.sbi>>Quick Links>>Analytical Leads B) FTP Location of the Circle C) Leads will be received by
Branches through email D) RMs to disseminate leads received by LHO
Question 6
Which type of loans are covered under EWS - P segment?
A) Cash Credits B) Overdraft accounts C) Term Loans D) LC Bills
Question 7
In Fraud Prone Dashboard, Risk Indicators for CRM and ORM separately are available-
A) Region wise B) Branch wise C) Both D) None
Question 8
Products included in Recommendation Engine
A) Assets
B) Liabilities
C) Alternate Channels
D) Cross-sell
E) All of the above
Question 9
External data (viz.Credit Bureau) is used by Analytics Department for generating the leads in Shikhar
Model?
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 10
IAD issued a circular that based on risk category of branches in Fraud prone dashboard, following may
be conducted
A) Onsite Audit
B) Offsite Audit
C) Trigger based Audit
D) None
Question 11
Txn per day per staff for branch A is higher than the threshold for its cluster.Branch A is a High Footfall
Branch.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 12
What are the categories of P-seg Gold Loan leads based on the chances of getting converted?
Question 13
What action Home Branch should take on receiving suspicious chargeback claims?
A) KYC check
B) Block Card if found fraudulent
C) Close account if found fraudulent
D) All of the above
Question 14
Do customers need to visit the branch for availing the loan for PABL?
A) No branch visit is required for availing the loan amount
B) Branch visit is required for Sanction, Assessment and documentation
C) Branch visit is required only for minimal documentation.
D) None of these
Question 15
On which parameter, branches have been categorised into High / Low Footfall?
A) No.of Cash Deposits
B) No.of staff
C) No.of working days
D) Avg.txn per day per staff

Question 16
How often are the P-seg Gold Loan leads updated on the Analytics Dashboard?
A) Daily
B) Weekly
C) Monthly
D) Quarterly
Question 17
What method is used by the Analytics Department for generating Agri Gold Loan leads?
A) Business Rules
B) Statistical Algorithms
C) Advanced Machine Learning
Question 18
Who can check the ISMOVVR?
A) Branch Head
B) Cashier
C) Accountant
D) Any one of the above
Question 19
Which of the following statement is not correct for PABL?
A) Eligible customers are identified after analysing the 36 months of the customer data
B) 1400+ features and variables are used for identifying the eligible customers
C) Loan accounts are monitored centrally by Analytics department.
D) Customer needs to visit the branch for sanction, assessment and documentation.
Question 20
What is the Project Shikhar share in cards issued through BANCA?
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 55%
D) 45%
Question 21
How many data points have been used as input to the EWS-P machine learning model?
A) 10
B) 50
C) 100
D) 200
Question 22
The proactive action of which Circle resulted in reduction on its suspicious chargeback?
A) Delhi
B) Lucknow
C) Jaipur
D) Ahmedabad
Question 23
What are the categories of alerts based on the chances of defaulting in EWS-P SMA2 to NPA dashboard
?
Question 24
Is there a separate identifier for repeat leads in PAPL ?
A) Yes
B) No
Question 25
The sample of daily vouchers in ISM OVVR is available on ______ basis
A) T+1
B) T+2
C) T+3
D) T+4
Question 26
Where can BM find the list of customers eligible for ATM/ INB in Footfall Dashboard?
A) Branch Profile
B) Impact Analysis
C) Distribution of accounts
D) Enablers Page
Question 27
What are the different categories available in UPDATE column of Agri Gold Loan leads in Analytics
Dashboard?
A) Contacted
B) Interested
C) Not Interested
D) All of the above
Question 28
The dashboard of ISM OVVR is available at
A) CBS
B) CRM
C) None of the above
D) Analytics department website
Question 29
Machine Learning based EWS for Corporate and SME Customers helps branch functionaries in ________
A) Credit monitoring
B) Prevention of slippage
C) Both of the above
Question 30
KYC Update, Mobile Update, Cheque Book Request, A/c transfer request, etc.are examples of Financial
transactions.
A) TRUE
B) False
Digital Products Keys
Question 1
What is Visit report?
A) Information about the customers visited to the branch
B) Information about the visits made by the BM to RBO
C) Information about the Customer calls
D) It is creating and digitising record of observations during customer visits
Question 2
Routing and escalation of complaints are part of which functional area?
A) Marketing
B) Sales
C) Service
D) Any of the above
Question 3
Financial products from financial superstore section in YONO enable to explore?
A) Mutual Funds & Securities
B) Credit Cards
C) Insurance: Life & General
D) All
Question 4
Contactless banking is initiated in YONO through which of the wearable gadget?
A) Smart Watch
B) Fitness-band
C) Smart-Ring
D) Smart buds
Question 5
Which one of the following is NOT an Indian Fintech startup?
A) PhonePe
B) Paytm
C) PayPal
D) Policy Bazaar
Question 6
The posted queries and their responses can be accessed from
A) my queries
B) My tickets
C) Both of the above
D) none of the above
Question 7
Campaign response will come under the following functional area
A) Sales,
B) Service
C) Marketing
D) Any of the above
Question 8
Which one of the following is a Fintech innovation under Insurance category?
A) Insurance Agents
B) Insurance Aggregators
C) Insurance Advisors
D) Insurance Underwriting
Question 9
Fintech in Banking services does NOT apply to which one of the following.
A) Products
B) Processes
C) Business Applications
D) Business Strategies
Question 10
Fintech Startups are able to _____________ the lumbering behemoths.
A) Follow
B) Replicate
C) Disrupt
D) Destroy
Question 11
What is CRM?
A) Customer Related Marketing
B) Customer Relationship Management
C) Consumer Relationship Marketing
D) Consumer Relationship Management
Question 12
What is Customer 360 degree page?
A) Provides information about summary of relationship, contact information, product holdings, leads,
cases visits, last 10 transactions
B) Provides information about customer relation only
C) Provides information about customer products only
D) Provides information about leads only
Question 13
Which one of the following is a Fintech innovation under Investments category?
A) Relationship Managers
B) Door-to-door Marketing
C) Robo Financial Advisors
D) Financial Consultants
Question 14
Fintech has the potential to make current processes more _________.
A) Redundant
B) Complex
C) Repetitive
D) Efficient
Question 15
SBI is exploring Blockchain technology to help ease various banking processes.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 16
What Is full form CVE products of FSS in YONO?
A) Consumer Volume Enhancement
B) Client Value Enhancement
C) Customer Value Exchange
D) Customer Value Enhancement
Question 17
eLearning portal was first launched on ______.
A) 31.12.2011
B) 05.04.2011
C) 01.01.2015
Question 18
What is OMP in YONO?
A) Online Merchant Place
B) Online Market Place
C) Online Merchant Point
D) Online Market Point
Question 19
When was SBI eGyanashala was launched?
A) 15th March 2018
B) 15th March 2019
C) 15th March 2017
D) none of the above
Question 20
Fintech can help in Financial inclusion of Poor and unbanked.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 21
Introduction of ATMs is also one of the early forms of Fintech idea.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 22
What is CDIF in opening of Regular Account using e-KYC of YONO?
A) Customer Data Input Form
B) Customer Data Input Field
C) Customer Data Import Form
D) Customer Data Import Field
Question 23
Fintech is the use of technology in which one of the following sectors?
A) Consumer goods
B) Automobiles
C) Financial Services
D) E-Commerce
Question 24
The new nomenclature of OMP in YONO mobile application is______.
A) Online Market Place
B) Shop and Order
C) Book and Order
D) Shop
Question 25
Important announcements in Gyanodaya eLearning are published to users using which of the following
features?
A) Dedicated Courses for different employee groups
B) Live Tracking of User"s Reading Progress
C) Option to provide feedback
D) All the above
Question 26
What is the workflow for DAC?
A) e-DAC
B) e-PAC
C) e-DMS
D) e-CMS
Question 27
In CMS technical complaints are assigned to which role holder?
A) Resolver at the Branch
B) Resolver at LHO
C) GITC Resolver
D) None of these
Question 28
SBI does NOT invest in Fintech companies.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 29
Which one of the following is NOT a Fintech innovation under Loans Category?
A) Peer-to-Peer lending
B) Credit scoring
C) Loan Marketplace
D) Loan recovery
Question 30
The eLessons in eLearning portal covers which of the following domains?
A) SME
B) Marketing
C) Soft Skills
D) All the above
Office 365 Keys

Question 1
TEAMS Calender is independent from Outlook Calender
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 2
One Drive application, provides additional file storage primarily due to which one of the
following feature of Office 365?
A) Exchange Online
B) Cloud Service
C) Device agnostic
D) Platform agnostic
Question 3
Which application in Office 365 may be used to quickly register participants of a SME Townhall
meeting?
A) TEAMS
B) One Note
C) One Drive
D) Forms
Question 4
Rules can be created in Outlook with multiple Conditions/Actions/Exceptions
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 5
Sections of One Note notebook are again organized into which of the folloiwing?
A) Pages
B) Notes
C) Pamphlets
D) Pictures
Question 6
Delve shows files shared by users with others and also those marked as private
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 7
Sync client in One Drive does which one of the following?
A) Saves a local copy of file to computer

B) Saves file to cloud
C) Saves file to other computer of the user
Question 8
E3 Profile in Office 365 at SBI is available to which of the following category of employees?
A) Name based email ids of DGMs and below

B) Designation based email ids of Chief Manager and above
C) Name based email ids of Chief Managers and above
Question 9
Files stored on One Drive can be accessed from any device which are connected to Bank's
intranet
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 10
Vendor Profile holders in Office 365 at SBI, have access to which one of the following
applications?
A) One Drive
B) TEAMS
C) Outlook Web
D) SharePoint
Question 11
Which Office 365 data analytics tool can be utilized for better visualization of date captured on
FORMS?
A) Power BI
B) Dynamics 365
C) Delve
D) To Do
Question 12
Delve changes file permission settings to include them in search results
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 13
Which of the following option is NOT available in TEAMS group chat?
A) Audio call
B) Video call
C) Screen sharing
D) Screen recording
Question 14
F3 Profile holders in Office 365 at SBI, can access email through which of the following
applications?
A) Outlook Desktop application

B) Outlook Web application
C) Both Outlook Desktop and Web applications
Question 15
Which of the following application helps to add documents from across Office 365 to Boards?
A) Delve
B) Forms
C) Streams
D) One Note
Question 16
Which of the following is an Office 365 application?
A) Note One
B) Note Pad
C) One Note
D) One Doc
Question 17
All the files shared in TEAMS application across all the teams, are available under which option
in the main menu?
A) Activity
B) Calls
C) Chat
D) Files
Question 18
Which of the following is NOT a valid benefit of RULES option in Outlook?
A) Manage Emails efficiently

B) Organize emails into various folders
C) Set up Rules for all email users of the organization
D) Set up specific Actions for emails
Question 19
Which of the following is NOT a valid feature of One Note
A) Helps instant Note taking

B) Notes stored digitally
C) Notes can be accessed from various devices
D) Notes can be shared to Social media sites directly
Question 20
K1 Profile in Office 365 at SBI is available to which of the following category of employees?
A) Name based email ids of all officers

B) Name based email ids of officers on probation
C) Name based email ids of all Award staff
D) Name based email ids of officers on probation and award staff
Question 21
Which of the following is Office 365 Security Feature?
A) Exchange Offline Protection

B) Disaster Recovery
C) Selective Data Backup
Question 22
Office 365 is NOT available on which of the following software platforms?

A) Android
B) Windows
C) iOS
Question 23
Which one of the following Designation based email ids at SBI are eligible for F3 profile in
Office 365?
A) Designation based email ids of Chief Manager and above

B) Designation based email ids up to AGMs
C) All Designation based email ids
Question 24
E3 Profile holders can install Office 365 application on Desktops, Laptops, Tablets and Mobile
phones
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 25
SharePoint allows to search for sites, people and documents across the company
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 26
Chat option in TEAMS main menu allows only one-to-one conversation between users.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 27
E3 Profile holders can NOT install traditional office applications like Word and Excel on their
laptops
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 28
Designation based email ids are NOT eligible to access Office 365
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 29
F3 Profile holders can install Office 365 application on Desktops, Laptops, Tablets and Mobile
phones
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 30
Compared to MS Office , Office 365 can be installed on Multiple Computers.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 5
A) Pages
B) Notes
C) Pamphlets
D) Pictures
Question 6
Delve shows files shared by users with others and also those marked as private
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 7

Question 9
Files stored on One Drive can be accessed from any device which are connected to Bank's
intranet
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 10
Vendor Profile holders in Office 365 at SBI, have access to which one of the following
appplications?
A) One Drive
B) TEAMS
C) Outlook Web
D) SharePoint
Question 12
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 14
F3 Profile holders in Office 365 at SBI, can access email through which of the following
applications?

Question 19

Question 1
Microsoft Outlook has settings option to block specific email ids
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 2
It is possible to create a form compatible with Mobile device on FORMS
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 3
Which one of the following advantages of Office 365 is due to it's Cloud based feature?
A) Strong Antivirus
B) Larger Mailbox
C) Online File storage space
D) Spam Protection
Question 4
SBI has categorized Office 365 users into how many profiles?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Question 5
Question 6
K1 Profile holders can install Office 365 applications on Mobile phones
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 7
Where can we can find the @mentions and unread message notifications in TEAMS?
A) Activity
B) Calls
C) Chat
D) Calender
Question 8
Which one of the following is NOT a valid profile in Office 365 at SBI?
A) E3
B) V1
C) K1
D) F3
Question 9
"Undo Send" is a feature of which Outlook application?
Question 10
Which application in Office 365 may be used to quickly register participants of a SME Townhall meeting?
A) TEAMS
B) One Note
C) One Drive
D) Forms
Question 11
To Co-author simultaneously, in which of the following modes , shared documents are required to be opened
in TEAMS?
A) Open in Desktop App
B) Edit in Teams
C) Download the File
D) Email the File
Question 12
Which of the following is not possible while taking notes on One Note
A) Sketch on Tablets
B) Record audio
C) Scan Barcodes
D) Add picture
Question 13
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 14
Which one of the following is NOT a valid web address to access Office 365?
A) portal.office.com
B) email.co.in
C) outlook.office365.com
D) office.com
Question 15
Which of the following is NOT a part of the Office 365 suit of applications?
A) Enterprise & Team Applications
B) File storage & Search Applications
C) Video Applications
D) Complaint Management Applications
Question 16
E3 Profile holders can install Office 365 application on Desktops, Laptops, Tablets and Mobile phones
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 17
Which one of the following employees of SBI are eligible to access Office 365?
A) All employees with valid personal email id
B) All employees with any valid name based email id
C) All employees with valid name based email id in SBI domain
D) All employees with valid Outlook email id
Question 18
K1 Profile holders in Office 365 at SBI, can access email through which one of the following applications?
Question 19
Microsoft Outlook does NOT include which one of the following feature?
A) Calender
B) Contacts/People
C) Quick Note
D) To Do
Question 20
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 21
Question 22
Automatic replies in Outlook Web App can be setup to which of the following recepients?
A) People Inside the organization
B) People outside the organization
C) Separately to both people inside and outside the organization
Question 23
Question 24
Which one of the following is NOT a valid feature of Outlook Client (Desktop app)?
A) Available only if User"s profile permits
B) Accessible as an application on Desktop/Laptop
C) Provides limited functionality
D) Advanced features than web app
Question 25
A) Note One
B) Note Pad
C) One Note
D) One Doc
Question 26
Documents shared in the Channel conversations in TEAMS can also be tagged as a separate Tab
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 27
It is NOT possible to preview the form while creating a FORMS quiz
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 28
Notebook can be organized into sections but we can have only one notebook on One Note
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 29
Bank provides Vendor profile to some Non-SBI users in Office 365 for which one of the following purpose?
A) Secured Transaction
B) Secured File Transfer
C) Secured Data Upload
D) Secured Communication
Question 30
It is possible to move notes like text and pictures, freely on a One Note page
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 1
Which one of the following is NOT possible inside the Channel of a Team?
A) Hold on-the-spot meetings
B) Conversations
C) Share Files
D) One-to-one chat
Question 2
Which of the following is not possible while taking notes on One Note
A) Sketch on Tablets
B) Record audio
C) Scan Barcodes
D) Add picture
Question 3
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 4
Which application in Office 365 may be used to quickly register participants of a SME Townhall meeting?
A) TEAMS
B) One Note
C) One Drive
D) Forms
Question 5
Question 6
Microsoft Outlook does NOT include which one of the following feature?
A) Calender
B) Contacts/People
C) Quick Note
D) To Do
Question 7
Which application in Office 365 helps to store files at one place and access them from multiple devices?
A) Stream
B) Forms
C) One Drive
D) One Note
Question 8
A) Pages
B) Notes
C) Pamphlets
D) Pictures
Question 9
TEAMS application is very similar to which one of the following Office 365 applications?
A) Stream
B) Skype for Business
C) SharePoint
D) Forms
Question 10
Automatic Replies option is available only in Outlook Web Application
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 11
SharePoint sites can be customized with which one of the following items?
A) web sites
B) web parts
C) web tools
D) web links
Question 12
E3 Profile holders in Office 365 at SBI, can access email through which of the following applications?
Question 13
Which one of the following Designation based email ids at SBI are eligible for E3 profile in Office 365?
A) Designation based email ids of DGMs and above
C) All Designation based email ids
Question 14
Delve upon search, shows documents from which of the following Office 365 applications?
A) One Drive
B) One Note
C) Sharepoint
D) All of the above
Question 15
Email Signature can be setup to include in which of the following type of mails?
A) New email message
B) Reply mail message
C) Forward mail message
D) All of the above
Question 16
Question 17
E3 Profile holders can NOT install traditional office applications like Word and Excel on their laptops
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 18
While Co-authoring or colloborating on a document, members can also have conversations simultaneously in
the same screen.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 19
K1 Profile in Office 365 at SBI is available to which of the following category of employees?
A) Name based email ids of all officers
B) Name based email ids of officers on probation
C) Name based email ids of all Award staff
D) Name based email ids of officers on probation and award staff
Question 20
Which option allows for reverting the changes in a document, collaborated and co-authored on TEAMS?
A) Version Control
B) Version History
C) File history
D) File version
Question 21
A) Note One
B) Note Pad
C) One Note
D) One Doc
Question 22
Rules can be created in Outlook with multiple Conditions/Actions/Exceptions
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 23
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 24
Office 365 applications allows access to contacts, emails and documents from multiple devices
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 25
SharePoint is also available as Mobile application
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 26
A) Strong Antivirus
B) Larger Mailbox
D) Spam Protection
Question 27
Question 28
Automatic replies in Outlook Web App can be setup to which of the following recepients?
A) People Inside the organization
B) People outside the organization
C) Separately to both people inside and outside the organization
Question 29
One Drive application, provides additional file storage primarily due to which one of the following feature of
Office 365?
A) Exchange Online
B) Cloud Service
C) Device agnostic
D) Platform agnostic
Question 30
B) email.co.in
D) office.com
Question 1
Documents shared in the Channel conversations in TEAMS can also be tagged as a separate Tab
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 2
It is possible to create a form compatible with Mobile device on FORMS
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 3
Notebook can be organized into sections but we can have only one notebook on One Note
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 4
Which one of the following is NOT a valid feature of Outlook Web App?
A) Available on Web
B) Accessible only through Microsoft Internet Explorer
C) Requires Intranet/Internet connection
D) Best for times when a User access email through shared computers
Question 5
Vendor Profile holders in Office 365 at SBI, have access to which one of the following appplications?
A) One Drive
B) TEAMS
C) Outlook Web
D) SharePoint
Question 6
Chat option in TEAMS main menu allows only one-to-one conversation between users.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 7
K1 Profile holders in Office 365 at SBI, can access email through which one of the following applications?
Question 8
One Note notebook can be shared with other users in the organization with which of the following rights?
A) View rights
B) Edit rights
C) Both View and Edit rights
D) Notebook can not be shared
Question 9
Question 10
Which of the following is NOT a part of the Office 365 suit of applications?
A) Enterprise & Team Applications
B) File storage & Search Applications
C) Video Applications
D) Complaint Management Applications
Question 11
E3 Profile in Office 365 at SBI is available to which of the following category of employees?
A) Name based email ids of DGMs and below
C) Name based email ids of Chief Managers and above
Question 12
Office 365 is NOT available on which of the following software platforms?
A) Android
B) Windows
C) iOS
Question 13
A) Strong Antivirus
B) Larger Mailbox
D) Spam Protection
Question 14
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 15
Email Signature can be setup to include in which of the following type of mails?
A) New email message
B) Reply mail message
C) Forward mail message
D) All of the above
Question 16
A) Pages
B) Notes
C) Pamphlets
D) Pictures
Question 17
While Co-authoring or colloborating on a document, members can also have conversations simultaneously in
the same screen.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 18
Office 365 offers applications to meet the needs of which of the following users?
A) Business Users
B) Home Users
C) Business and Home Users
D) Government offices
Question 19
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 20
B) email.co.in
D) office.com
Question 21
Question 22
By using which one of the following options, we can change the look of a survey in FORMS?
A) Format
B) Color
C) Theme
D) Design
Question 23
Question 24
Which one of the following is NOT a valid feature of Outlook Client (Desktop app)?
A) Available only if User"s profile permits
B) Accessible as an application on Desktop/Laptop
C) Provides limited functionality
D) Advanced features than web app
Question 25
F3 Profile holders in Office 365 at SBI, can access email through which of the following applications?
Question 26
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 27
All the files shared in TEAMS application across all the teams, are available under which option in the main
menu?
A) Activity
B) Calls
C) Chat
D) Files
Question 28
Which one of the following types of documents can be shared in TEAMS Channel conversations?
A) Word
B) Excel
C) PPT
D) All of the above
Question 29
F3 Profile holders can install traditional office applications like Word and Excel on their desktops
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
Question 30
A) Note One
B) Note Pad
C) One Note
D) One Doc

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Compliance Keys

Setting Compliance Culture is responsibility of _________

A) Everyone in the organisation

Who among the following is ultimately responsible for ensuring compliance

Compliance Risk Assessment is carried out at

Which of the following is not missseling?

A) Non-disclosure of grievance redressal mechanism

Compliance with Banking Regulation Act 1949 is part of

Which of the following will help to establish compliance culture

A) Awareness of compliance obligation

A) Reviews compliance function

Full form of SPARC _____

A) Supervisory Program for Assessment of Risk & Capital

Domestic Systemically Important Banks (DSIB) are required to live up to ___________

A) Stringent Regulatory Oversight

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is maintained with reference to

Compliance with PFRDA guidelines is part of

A) If LRS is made availble to Indiviaduals only

Which of the following is not true about SPARC ?

Which is not one of the reason for focussing on compliance?

Which of the following is not an appropriate measure to ensure compliance______________

A) Report and prevent unethical activities

Which of following statement regarding Compliance Policy is not correct?

A) Audit Committee of the Baord

A) Central Repository of Information on Large Credits

Compliance Risk arise due to non compliance with ________

Banks will be subjected to accelerated provisioning in which of the cases?

A) banks fail to report SMA status of the accounts to CRILC

A) Beneficial Owner is an Individual, who ultimately owns or controls a client of a reporting

Which of the following is not an element of Compliance Function

What is Reputation Risk?

Major additions in Basel II were ________

A) Market Risk & The Three Pillars

Interest Rate Risk in Banking Book is assessed under_________

Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) is maesured as a ratio of__________

For CRAR, capital is to be maintained as a percentage of_________

The Drivers for Credit Risk are as under

Which of the following is included under Risk Management-

A) exercise of identifying the potential risks

Which of the following is not a cause of Operational Loss

Market risk is defined as the risk that the value of____________________

A) on balance sheet positions will be adversely affected by movements in market variables.

Tier 2 capital absorbs losses_____________

Which of the following statement best defines liquidity Risk

Basel I accord primarily catered to____________

EGRM stands for

A) Exclusive Group Risk Management

Standardised Measurement Method (SMM) is being used by Indian Banks since__________

A) 31st March 2004

Equity Price Risk is the risk arising on account of_______

A) Change in market price volatility

Which Risk is part of pillar II

Market disclosure is part of

Market disclosure is meant for ?

In the context of Credit risk Drivers, syndication exosure is part of_________

A) The Basel committee

Which is not part of ICAAP?

D) None of the above

The EWS-SME dashboard is developed for customers with total exposure of

A) Rs.1 Cr and above

B) Rs.25 lacs and above

C) Rs.25 lacs and below