Exam Booster

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Exam Booster
A gift to all students of ACC
Published by
D.K. Wadhwa
Agri Coaching Chandigarh 95-200-90-200

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Message for my students

Hello bacho, Student life is a beautiful, yet hectic part of life. Students go through
all kinds of struggles during this time and when a students will get selected then all
these struggle and pain will seem like a beautiful journey.
I have compiled this book with a view in my mind that students can revise after
studying 7 books that we have provided in complete set. After studying all those
books and data you will be getting more marks and it will increase your
confidence. If you guys want to clear exam, please make sure that you have done
these three things:
1. Stay positive and confident, Focus on giving 100% instead of selection.
2. Complete everything before 1 month of exam and in the last one month only
revision.
3. Must write the analysis of each mock test to identify your weaknesses.
Never think too much of a closed door, when one door closes, another one opens;
you might not see the opened door as your eyes are set on the closed door. Believe
in yourself and you will overcome any obstacle in life. The power to succeed lies
within you.
All the best champ!

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Index
S.No. Topic Page No.
1 General Agriculture 3
2 AFO-2021 Paper (Memory based) 32
3 RRB-SO 2020 (Memory based) 37
4 UPPSC-2021 (Actual paper) 41
5 Agronomy (Model paper)-1 52
6 Agronomy (Model paper)-2 58
7 Soil Science (Model paper)-1 64
8 SOIL SCIENCE (Model Paper)-2 70
9 Horticulture Test (Model paper)-1 76
10 Horticulture Test (Model paper)-2 82
11 Seed Science (Model paper)-1 88
12 Animal Husbandry (Model paper)-1 94
13 Animal Husbandry (Model paper)-2 100
14 Animal Husbandry (Model Paper)-3 106
15 Plant Pathology (Model paper)-1 112
16 Plant Pathology (Model paper)-2 118
17 Entomology Test (Model paper) 125
18 Agricultural Engineering (Model paper) 132
19 Genetics Test (Model paper) 136
20 Overall Test (Model Paper)-1 141
21 Overall Test (Model Paper)-2 147
22 Overall Test (Practice set)-3 153
23 Overall Test (Practice set)-4 159

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IMPORTANT TERMS OF AGRICULTURE
1. Abscission: Detachment of fruit, leaf or other parts from a plant is called
abscission.
2. Acre foot water: The amount of water that would cover an area of land to a
depth of one foot assuming no seepage evaporation and run off.
3. Acre inch day: Term used principally in irrigated section of united states for
measuring quantity of flow of water. It is equal to a flow which will cover

one acre to a depth of one inch in a 24 hours period or 0.042 cubic feet per
second.
4. Acre inch: It is a measure of quantity of flow of water and is equal to the
flow which will cover one acre to a depth of one inch.
5. Acre: (43560 sq. ft) an area of land about 220 feet long and 198 feet wide.
6. Allelopathy: Phenomenon involving the release of certain chemicals from
plant parts into the environment which may when present in sufficient
amounts, inhibit or suppress the germination or growth of the plants in the
neighbourhood.
7. Altitude: Height from sea level
8. Arable farming: The term arable farming refers to system in which only
crops that require cultivation of the soil are grown.
9. Arboriculture: Intensive cultivation of individual trees possibly for fruits
gums and resins.
10. Arid region: The region where total rain fall is less than natural evapo –
transpiration rate.

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11. Aridity: It is the characteristic of a region where there is low average rain
fall or 100% available water. It is permanent feature of region.
12. Barani soil: When the source of irrigation to crop is only the rain water that
is known as Barani soil.
13. Base period: Period of time in days from the first watering of crop before
sowing and the last watering before harvesting.
14. Basic seed: Is the progeny of pre – basic seed produced so as to maintain
genetic purity and identity.
15. Basin: Flat area of land surrounded by low ridges or bunds
16. Biological yield: It is the total dry matter produced by a plant as a result of
photosynthesis and nutrient uptake minus that lost by respiration.
17. Catchment’s Area: The area which drains the rain water falling on it, via
streams and rivers, eventually to the sea or into a lake.
18. Certified Seed: It is the progeny of basic seed and is produced by registered
growers of seed producing agencies.
19. Climate: Aggregate of atmospheric condition over a long period of time.
20. Colluvial Soil: Are those which are form from the material transported by
the force of gravity.
21. Command Area: Area which can be economically irrigated by an irrigation
system.
22. Commercial Farming System: In this type of farming system, crops are
raised on a commercial scale for marketing.

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23. Companion Crops: The two crops grown together are called companion
crops. e.g. Berseem and barley.
24. Condiment Crops: Crops which are grown and consumed as condiments
e.g. coriander, mint.
25. Consumptive Use of Water: Evapo-transpiration plus the water assimilated
by various plant metabolic processes. As the water consumed in plant

metabolism is very small, consumptive use and evapo-transpiration are
considered almost equal.
26. Critical Threshold Level (CTL): A weed, insect pest density capable of
causing significant damage to crop is termed as critical threshold level.
27. Crop Rotation: Is the strategy of raising crops from a piece of land in such
an order or succession that the fertility of land suffers minimally and the
farmer’s profits are not reduced.
28. Crop Water Requirement: The amount of water required to raise a crop to
maturity with in a given period of time.
29. Delta of Water: The depth of irrigation water required for the full crop
period.
30. Duty: Duty is the area of land that can be irrigated with a unit volume
of water supplied across the base period.
31. Korwatering: The first watering which is given to a crop, when the crop is a
few centimeters high, is called Korwatering.
32. Palco irrigation: Sometimes, in the initial stages before the crop is sown,
the land is very dry. In such a case, the soil is moistened with water, so as to
help in sowing of the crops.

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33. Crop Water Requirement: The amount of water required to raise a crop to
maturity within a given period of time.
34. Dicots: Dicots have two cotyledons and reticulate leaf venation.
35. Diversified Farming: This is an expanded type of farming system in which
varieties of crops are produced and many types of animals are reared.
36. Dobari Crops: A crop grown on residual moisture after the harvest of rice.
37. Dormancy: Seed dormancy is the state of inhibited germination of seeds
with viable embryos in condition conducive to plant growth.
38. Economic yield: The economically important part for which a particular
crop is grown.
39. Effective rainfall: It is the part of the rainfall which forms a portion of the
water requirement of a crop or which can be used by crop.
40. Epigeal germination: It is derived from two words epi “above” and geas
“earth”. In this type of germination the cotyledons come out above the soil
surface and generally turn green and act as first foliage leaves. e.g.
bean,cotton.
41. Field carrying capacity: It is the field capacity. It is also called normal
moisture capacity.
42. Green manure crops: Some crops are grown and ploughed in the soil in
green form in order to improve soil fertility e.g. Berseem, Guara, Dhaincha
etc
43. Hydrophyte: Plant which grows in water, or which loves water.
44. Ideotype: An ideal plant type developed through breeding.

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45. Indeterminate plants: In these plants, the vegetative and reproductive
stages continue simultaneously e.g. okra, tomato. Soybean is the only crop,
which has determinate and indeterminate as well as semi – determinate
growing types.
46. Inoculant: The bacteria containing material used to introduce N – fixing
Rhizobium bacteria into soil.
47. Interception: When the drops of rainfall or precipitation are intercepted by
plant leaves it is called interception.
48. Lodging: The bending or breaking over of a plant before harvesting.
49. Nucleus seed: Seeds obtained from selected individual plants of a particular
variety which needs to be purified and multiplied in such a way as to maintain
its genetic purity.
50. Osmotic potential: It is also called solute potential. It is produced by

various solutes in soil water.
51. Scarification: Any physical or chemical treatment that makes the seed coat
permeable is known as scarification.
52. Seed certification: Is the process to secure, maintain and make available
high quality seed and propagating materials of superior crop varieties, so grown
and distributed as to ensure desirable standards of genetic identity, physical
purity and quality attributes.
53. Sett: A piece of seed cane with two – four buds (eyes).
54. Shifting agriculture: The forest land is cleared off and same crop
(generally rice) is grown year after year on same piece of land. For example:

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Assam, Jharkhand, Kerala, AP, Orissa, MP. It causes soil erosion mostly
practiced in northeast region. (JRF 2013)
55. Transpiration ratio: It is the ratio of the weight or volume of water

transpired by the plant during its growth period to the weight of dry matter
produced by the plant.
56. Transpiration: It is the process of loss of water from living plants.
57. Variety: In general the term variety has been used to refer to a group of
similar plant with in a particular species that is distinguished by one or more
than one character and given the name.
58. Vernalization and chilling: Many biennials and temperate annuals, as well
as certain fruit trees, require exposure to cold temperature before they can
flowers. This is known as Vernalization requirement for annuals and biennials
and chilling requirement for fruit trees.
59. Vines: Are plants, which have tender stems, and requires some support for
upward growth.
60. Harvest index: It is the ratio of economic yield to biological yield. It is

expressed in percentage in
61. H.I. = economic yield x 100 / Biological yield
62. Biological yield: It is the total dry matter produced by the crops after
synthesis minus respiration losses.
63. Economic yield: That part of the crop for which crop is grown e.g. stem in
sugarcane, root in the case of sugar beet.

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64. What is crop rotation? A definite succession of crops following one an

other in a specific order.
65. What is drought resistance? Characteristics of plants which are suitable

for cultivation in dry condition regardless of the inherent mechanism that
provides resistance.
66. What is effective rainfall? Precipitation which falls during the growing
period of the crop and is available to meet the Evapotranspiration requirements
of crops .
67. What is hybrid vigour? Qualities in a hybrid not present in either parent.
68. What is meant by autotrophe? Organism able to manufacture their own

food from inorganic materials. Using energy from outside sources. Most
green plants are completely autotrophe.’
69. What is meant by bolting? Formation of elongated stem or seed stalk, it

is usually takes place during the second season of the growth in biennial
plants.
70. What is meant by F1 and F2 generation? Genetic terms for the off spring
generations produced by a parental generation of plants or animals.
71. What is meant by soiling crops? Crops harvested when green and
succulent condition are fed to animals shortly after cutting, it is neither dried
nor stored for future feeding.
72. What is seed dressing? The chemical treatment of seeds particularly

cereals, with fungicides and sometime insecticides to protect them against soil
and seed borne disease and pest.

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73. What is truck gardening? Growing of crops like potato onion and cabbage
on large scale for distinct market.
74. What is trench layering? An asexual reproductive method of plant

propagation involving laying down the whole stem, the new shoots are thus
forced to push their way through a layer of soil which prevents the bark from
coloring and favors root formation.
75. Precision farming: Precision agriculture is the use of data analysis to help
farmers improve crop production practices. Farmers analyze data to help them
produce more on every square foot of every field, while using water, nutrients
and fuel more efficiently.
76. Sustainable agriculture: Sustainable agriculture is the long-term

production of plant or animal products using farming techniques that protect the
environment, public health, human communities and animal welfare year over
year.
TERMS RELATED TO DRYLAND AGRICULTURE
1. Agri-silviculture: Conscious and deliberate use of land for the concurrent

production of agricultural and forest crops is called agri-silviculture.
2. Agri-silvi-pastural system: System in which land is managed for the

concurrent production of agriculture and forest crops and for the rearing of
domesticated animals is called agri-silvi-pastural system.
3. Agroforestry: Self-sustaining land management system which combines

production of agricultural crops with that of tree crops as also with that of livestock
simultaneously or sequentially on the same unit of land is called agroforestry.
4. Atmospheric drought: Drought caused by low air humidity accompanied by

hot and dry winds and when the rate of transpiration is more than the rate of
moisture absorption by plants is called atmospheric drought.

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5. Basin listing: Tillage that forms lister furrows at regular intervals to create
small basins to capture and store rain or applied water.
6. Dead furrows: Plough furrows made between the crop rows at an interval of 3-
4 m depending on the crop as a means of moisture conservation are called dead
furrows.
7. Drought escaping: Plants escaping the drought by way of early maturity before
the available water is exhausted is called drought escaping.
8. Drought evading: Plant evading drought by way of limited amount of growth

giving reduced transpiring surface is called drought evading.
9. Drought year: When the annual rainfall is less than the normal by more than
twice the mean deviation, it is called drought year.
10. Minimal irrigation: Irrigation of rabi crops which do not receive rains after
sowing is called minimal irrigation.
11. Soil drought: Drought that occurs when the moisture present in the soil
absorbed by the plant is less than the potential evapotranspiration of the crop is
called soil drought.
12. Soil or dust mulch: Thin layer of loose soil surface that can be created by
frequently stirring the soil with surface tillage implements to conserve moisture is
called soil or dust mulch.
13. Watershed: Any surface area from which rainfall is collected and drains
through a common point is called watershed.
14. Watershed management: Integration of technologies within the natural

boundaries of a drainage area for optimum development of land, water and plant
resources to meet the basic needs of the people and animals in a sustained manner
is watershed management.
15. Wind breaks: Any structure that obstructs wind flow and reduce wind speed
for protection of crop fields are called wind breaks.
16. Wind shelter belts: Rows of trees planted across the direction of wind for
protection of crops against wind are called wind shelter belts.

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17. Year round tillage: Refers to tillage after harvest or as soon, thereafter, as is
possible, tilling with pre monsoon showers to finish seed bed work at optimum
time is referred to as a year round tillage.
18. Zing terracing: Practice to cut down the length of slope (3-10%) to harvest
run off from upper area for the benefit of crops grown in lower side and to ensure
adequate drainage during the periods of heavy down pours is called zing terracing.
ABOUT ICAR AND OTHER ORGANIZATIONS

➢ Who was the first deputy director general of horticulture, ICAR - Dr. K.L.
Chadha
➢ ICAR day is celebrated on 16 July
➢Union Minister of Agriculture and Farmer welfare is the ex-office President

of the ICAR society (President- Narendra Singh Tomar).
➢ Shri Kailash Choudhary and Shri Parshottam Rupala are Hon'ble Union
Minister of State for Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
➢Agro Ecological Zones in India is 8 (by NARP ICAR), 21 (by NBSSLUP)—

but now only 20 (Updated data)
➢Secretary, Department of Agricultural Research &Education Ministry of

Agriculture, Govt, of India & Director General, ICAR-the Principal
Executive Officer of the Council. (Present DG – Dr. T. Mohapatra)
➢Number of-
 KVKs -723 (Can be updated till your exam)
 Agricultural Universities-64
 Deemed Universities-4
 Central Agricultural Universities: 3
1. Central Agricultural University, Manipur,
2. Rani Laxmi Bai Central Agricultural University, Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh,

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3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad Central Agricultural University, Pusa, Bihar
 ICAR Institutes- 65 (Newly added ICAR-Indian Agricultural Research Institute,

Hazaribag, Jharkhand and ICAR-National Institute for Plant Biotechnology, New
Delhi)
 National Research Centers- 15 (Newly added: National Research Centre on

Integrated Farming (ICAR-NRCIF), Motihar) now named as Mahatma Gandhi
Integrated Farming Research Institute )
 National Bureaues-6
 Directorates-13
 AICRPs- 60
➢ Chairman of National Commission for Farmers- Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
1. AICRP on Nematodes, New Delhi

2. AICRP on Maize, New Delhi
3. AICRP Rice, Hyderabad
4. AICRP on Chickpea, Kanpur
5. AICRP on MULLARP, Kanpur
6. AICRP on Pigeon Pea, Kanpur
7. AICRP on Arid Legumes, Kanpur
8. AICRP on Wheat & Barley Improvement Project, Karnal
9. AICRP Sorghum, Hyderabad
10. AICRP on Pearl Millets, Jodhpur
11. AICRP on Small Millets, Bangalore
12. AICRP on Sugarcane, Lucknow
13. AICRP on Cotton, Coimbatore
14. AICRP on Groundnut, Junagarh
15. AICRP on Soybean, Indore
16. AICRP on Rapeseed & Mustard, Bharatpur
17. AICRP on Sunflower, Safflower, Castor, Hyderabad
18. AICRP on Linseed, Kanpur
19. AICRP on Sesame and Niger, Jabalpur
20. AICRP on IPM and Biocontrol, Bangalore
21. AICRP on Honey Bee Research & Training, Hisar
22. AICRP -NSP(Crops), Mau

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23. AICRP on Forage Crops, Jhansi

24. AICRP on Fruits, Bangaluru
25. AICRP Arid Zone Fruits, Bikaner
26. AICRP Mushroom, Solan
27. AICRP Vegetables including NSP vegetable, Varanasi
28 AICRP Potato, Shimla
29. AICRP Tuber Crops, Thiruvananthapuram
30. AICRP Palms, Kasaragod
31. AICRP Cashew, Puttur
32. AICRP Spices, Calicut
33. AICRP on Medicinal and Aromatic Plants including Betelvine, Anand
34. AICRP on Floriculture, New Delhi
35. AICRP in Micro Secondary & Pollutant Elements in Soils and Plants,
Bhopal
36. lAICRP on Soil Test with Crop Response, Bhopal
37. AICRP on Long Term Fertilizer Experiments, Bhopal
38. AICRP on Salt Affected Soils & Use of Saline Water in Agriculture, Karnal
39. AICRP on Water Management Research, Bhubaneshwar
40. AICRP on Ground Water Utilisation, Bhubaneshwar
41. AICRP Dryland Agriculture, Hyderabad
42. AICRP on Agrometeorology, Hyderabad including Network on Impact
adaptation & Vulnerability of Indian Agri. to Climate Change
43. AICRP Integrated Farming System Research, Modipuram including
Network Organic Farming
44. AICRP Weed Control, Jabalpur
45. AICRP on Agroforestry, Jhansi
46. AICRP on Farm Implements & Machinery, Bhopal
47. All India Coordinated Research Project on Ergonomics and Safety in
Agriculture
48. AICRP on Energy in Agriculture and Agro Based Indus.,Bhopal
49. AICRP on Utilization of Animal Energy (UAE), Bhopal
50. AICRP on Plasticulture Engineering and Technologies, Ludhiana
51. AICRP on PHT, Ludhiana
52. AICRP on Goat Improvement, Mathura
53. AICRP- Improvement of Feed Sources & Nutrient Utilisation for raising
animal production, Bangalore
54. AICRP on Cattle Research, Meerut
55. AICRP on Poultry, Hyderabad
56. AICRP-Pig, Izzatnagar

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57. AICRP Foot and Mouth Disease, Mukteshwar

58. AICRP ADMAS, Bangalore
59. AICRP on Home Science, Bhubaneshwar
NETWORK PROJECTS – 20:
1. All India Network Project on Pesticides Residues, New Delhi

2. All India Network Project on Underutilized Crops, New Delhi
3. All India Network Project on Tobacco, Rajahmundry
4. All India Network Project on Soil Arthropod Pests, Durgapura
5. Network on Agricultural Acarology, Bangalore
6. Network on Economic Ornithology, Hyderabad
7. All India Network Project on Rodent Control, Jodhpur
8. All India Network Project on Jute and Allied Fibres, Barrackpore
9. Network project on Improvement of Onion & Garlic, Pune
10. Network Bio-fertilizers, Bhopal
11. Network Project on Harvest & Post Harvest and Value Addition to Natural
Resins & Gums, Ranchi
12. Network project on Animal Genetic Resources, Karnal
13. Network Project on R&D Support for Process Upgradation of Indigenous
Milk products for industrial application Karnal
14. Network Programme on Sheep Improvement, Avikanagar
15. Network Project on Buffaloes Improvement, Hisar
16. Network on Gastro Intestinal Parasitism, Izatnagar
17. Network on Haemorrhagic Septicaemia, Izatnagar
18. Network Programme Blue Tongue Disease, Izatnagar
19. Network Project on Conservation of Lac Insect Genetic Resources, Ranchi
20. Network Project on Agricultural Bioinformatics and Computational
Biology, New Delhi
MILESTONES IN AGRICULTURE
➢ 1880 - Department of Agriculture was established

➢ 1905 - Imperial Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) was started at Pusa,
Bihar
➢ 1912 - Sugarcane Breeding Institute was established in Coimbatore

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➢ 1923: NDRI was Established in Bangalore as Imperial Institute of Animal

Husbandry and Dairying.
➢ 1929 - Imperial Council of Agricultural Research at New Delhi (then
ICAR) after independence becomes ICAR
➢ 1935: Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (DMI) was established to
implement the agricultural marketing policies and programs.
➢ 1936 - Due to earth quake (1934) in Bihar, IARI was shifted to New Delhi
and the place was called with original name Pusa.
➢ 1957: A premier Warehousing Agency in India, established during 1957
providing logistics support to the agricultural sector.
➢ 1958: National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India
Ltd. (NAFED) was established.
➢ 1960- First Agricultural University was started at Pantnagar.
➢ 1965: Food Corporation of India was established.
➢ 1965: The National Dairy Development Board was established at Anand,
Gujarat.
➢ 1965-67 - Green revolution in India due to introduction of HYVP –
Wheat, rice, use of fertilizers, construction of Dams and use of pesticides.
➢ 1975: The first RRB, the Prathama Bank was established with authorized
capital of Rs. 5 crore
➢ 1978: Indian Agricultural Statistics Research Institute (IASRI) was
established to assist ICAR in the areas of Agricultural Statistics and
Computer Applications
➢ 1982- NABARD established to refinance the rural sector.
➢ 1984: National Horticulture Board (NHB) was set up by Government of
India in April 1984 on the basis of recommendations of the "Group on
Perishable Agricultural Commodities", headed by Dr M. S.
Swaminathan.
➢ 1986: APEDA was established to promote agricultural export in India.

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➢ 1987: National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management

(MANAGE) was established with the headquarter at Hyderabad
➢ 2004: The National Commission on Farmers (NCF) was established to
decrease the farmers suicides in India and to improve the agriculture in
India.
INSTITUTIONS IN AGRICULTURE
Institution Location Establishment

Year
National Rice Research Institute Cuttack 23 April 1946
Indian Institute of Rice Research Hyderabad 1965
Indian Institute of Pulses Research Kanpur 1966, Shifted to
Kanpur in 1978
Central Tobacco Research Rajahmundry 1947
Institute
Indian Institute of Vegetable Varanasi 1971
Research
Indian Institute of Sugarcane Lucknow 1952
Research
Sugarcane Breeding Institute Coimbatore 1912
Sugarcane breeding Institute, Karnal 1932
Regional Centre
Indian Institute of Farming Meerut, UP 1968
Systems Research (IIFSR)
Indian Institute of Remote Sensing Dehradun, 1966
(IIRS) Uttarakhand
Central Institute for Women in Bhubaneshwar, 1996
Agriculture (CIWA) Odisha
Indian Institute of Seed Research Mau, Uttar Pradesh 2004
(IISR)
Central Institute of Cotton Nagpur 1976
Research
Central Research Institute for Jute Barrackpore 1953
and Allied Fibres
National Institute of Research on Kolkata 1939
Jute & Allied Fibre Technology
Indian Grassland and Fodder Jhansi 1962
Research Institute

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Indian Institute of Horticultural Bangalore 1967

Research
Central Institute of Sub Tropical Lucknow 1972, renamed
Horticulture as CISH in 1995
Central Institute of Temperate Srinagar 1994
Horticulture
Central Institute of Arid Bikaner 1994
Horticulture
Central Potato Research Institute Shimla 1949
Central Tuber Crops Research Trivandrum 1963
Institute
Central Plantation Crops Research Kasargod, Kerala 1974
Institute
Central Island Agriculture Port Blair, 1978
Research Institute Andaman and Renamed in
Nicobar Islands 2017
Indian Institute of Spices Research Calicut 1975
Indian Institute of Natural Resins Ranchi 1924
and Gums
ICAR–Indian Institute of Soil and Dehradun 1974
Water Conservation Renamed in
2015
Indian Institute of Soil Sciences Bhopal 1988
Central Soil Salinity Research Karnal 1969
Institute
ICAR Research Complex for Patna 2001
Eastern Region
Central Research Institute of Hyderabad 1985
Dryland Agriculture
Central Institute of Fisheries Cochin 1957
Technology
Central Arid Zone Research Jodhpur 1952, upgraded
Institute to CAZRI in
1959
ICAR -Central Coastal Goa 1976
Agricultural Research Institute Upgraded from
1st April, 2014
ICAR Research Complex for NEH Barapani, 1975
Region Meghalaya

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National Institute of Abiotic Stress Malegaon, 2009

Management Baramati
Maharashtra
Central Institute of Agricultural Bhopal 1976
Engineering
Central Institute on Post harvest Ludhiana 1989
Engineering and Technology
Central Institute of Research on Mumbai 1924
Cotton Technology
Indian Agricultural Statistical New Delhi 1930
Research Institute
Central Sheep and Wool Research Avikanagar, 1962
Institute Rajasthan
Central Institute for Research on Makhdoom, 1979
Goats Mathura
Central Institute for Research on Hissar 1985
Buffaloes
National Institute of Animal Bangalore 1995
Nutrition and Physiology
Central Avian Research Institute Izatnagar 1979
Central Marine Fisheries Research Kochi February 3rd
Institute 1947
Central Institute Brackishwater Chennai 1987
Aquaculture
Central Inland Fisheries Research Barrackpore 1947/1959
Institute
NATIONAL RESEARCH INSTITUTES
National Research Centre on Plant Biotechnology New Delhi
National Centre for Integrated Pest Management New Delhi
National Research Centre for Litchi Muzaffarpur
National Research Centre for Citrus Nagpur
National Research Centre for Grapes Pune
National Research Centre for Banana Trichy, TN

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National Research Centre Seed Spices Ajmer
National Research Centre for Pomegranate Solapur
National Research Centre on Orchids Pakyong, Sikkim
National Research Centre Agroforestry Jhansi
National Research Centre on Camel Bikaner
National Research Centre on Equines Hisar
National Research Centre on Meat Hyderabad
National Research Centre on Pig Guwahati
National Research Centre on Yak West Kemang, Arunachal

Pradesh
National Research Centre on Mithun Medziphema, Nagaland
National Research Centre on Integrated Farming Motihari

(ICAR-NRCIF)
Important International Institutions on Agricultural Research
AVRDC- Asian Vegetable Research and Taiwan (1971)

Development Centre
CIAT – Centro International de Agricultura Tropical Cali, Colombia

(International Centre for Tropical Agriculture)
CIP – International potato research institute Peru, South America (1971)
CIMMYT- International Centre for maize and Wheat Londress, Mexico

development
IITA –International Institute for Tropical Agriculture Ibadon in Nigeria, Africa
ICARDA – International Centre for Agricultural Beirut, Lebanon

Research in the Dry Areas

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ICRISAT – International Crops Research Institute Hyderabad, India

for the Semi Arid Tropics
IIMI- International Irrigation Management Institute Colombo, SRILANKA
IRRI – International Rice Research Institute Los Banos, Philippines
ISNAR- International Service In National The Hague, Netherlands

Agricultural Research
WARDA - West African Rice Development Africa

Association Ivory coast
IBPGR - International Board for Plant Genetic Rome, Italy

Resources
CGIAR – Consultative Group on International Montpellier, France

Agricultural Research
FAO – Food and Agricultural Organization Rome, Italy
WMO- World Meteorological Organization Geneva, Switzerland
REVOLUTIONS IN AGRICULTURE
Protein Revolution Higher Production (Technology driven 2nd Green revolution)
Yellow Revolution Oil seed Production (Especially Mustard and Sunflower)
Black Revolution Petroleum products
Blue Revolution Fish Production
Brown Revolution Leather/Cocoa
Golden Fiber Revolution. Jute Production (SSC-2017)
Golden Revolution Fruits / Honey Production / Horticulture Development
Grey Revolution Fertilizers.

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Pink Revolution Onion Production / Pharmaceuticals / Prawn Production.
Evergreen Revolution Overall Production of Agriculture
Silver Revolution Egg Production / Poultry Production
Silver Fiber Revolution Cotton
Red Revolution Meat Production / Tomato Production.
Round Revolution Potato.
Green Revolution Food Grains.
White Revolution/ Milk Production.

Operation Flood
Sweet Revolution Honey Production
International Years Related to Agriculture observed by UN:
➢ 2004- International year of rice
➢ 2005- International year of parthenium
➢ 2006- International year of desert and desertification
➢ 2007- International year of water
➢ 2008 - International year of potato
➢ 2009- International year of natural fibres
➢ 2010- International year of biodiversity
➢ 2011- International year of forest
➢ 2012- International year of cooperative (Also celebrated as National year of

horticulture)
➢ 2013- International year of water cooperation

24 | P a g e
➢ 2014- International year of family farming
➢ 2015- International year of soil and Light
➢ 2016- International year of pulses (theme- nutritious seed for sustainable

agriculture)
➢ 2017- International year of sustainable tourism
➢ 2018- Recommended for International year of millets (Declared as National

year of millets)
➢2019: International year of Indigenous language
➢2020: International Year of Plant Health
➢2021: International Year of Fruits and Vegetables
➢2022: International Year of Artisanal Fisheries and Aquaculture
➢2023: International year of Millets
IMPORTANT DAYS IN AGRICULTURE:
Important Days Date

WTO Foundation day 1st January
World wetland day 2nd February
World Pulse Day 10th February
World Wildlife Day 3rd March
International women’s day 8 March
World Consumers Day 15th March
World Forest Day/ International day 21st March
of Forest
World Water Day 22nd March
World Meteorological Day 23rd March
World Health Day 7th April
World Earth Day 22nd April
Panchayat Raj Day 24th April
World Veterinary Day Last Saturday of April
International Labour Day 1st May
World Tuna Day 2nd May

25 | P a g e
World Bee Day 20th May

International Tea Day 21 May
International Biodiversity Day/ 22nd May
International Day for Biological
Diversity
World Milk Day 1st June
World Environment Day 5th June
World Food Safety Day 7 June
Worlds Ocean Day 8 June
World Day to Combat Desertification June 17
Micro-, Small and Medium-sized June 27

Enterprises Day
National Fish Husbandry Day 10th July
World Population Day 11th July
NABARD Foundation Day 12th July
ICAR Foundation Day 16th July
National Nutrition Week 1-7 September
World Coconut Day 2nd September
World Ozone Day September 16
World Bamboo Day September 18
World Coffee Day 1 October
World Wildlife Week 1-7 October
World Animal Husbandry Day 4th October
World Egg Day 2nd Friday of October
National Women Farmer Day/ 15th October
International Day of Rural Woman
World Food Day 16th October
World Fish Day 21st November
National Milk Day 26th November
National Agriculture Education Day 3rd December
Babu Rajendra Prasad birthday)
Agriculture Women Day 4th December
World Soil Day 5th December
Farmers Day 23rd December
Jai Kisan Jai Vigyan Week 23-29 December

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About Kisan Divas:
➢ Kisan Diwas was observed across the country on 23 December 2013 to

celebrate the birthday of Chaudhary Charan Singh.
➢ Chaudhary Charan Singh (23 Dec 1902 - 29 May 1987) was the fifth Prime
Minister of India. He served as the Prime Minister from 28 July 1979 to 14
January 1980.
➢ Chaudhary Charan Singh holds the record of being the only Prime Minister
of India who did not face the Parliamentary floor for a single day after
assuming the office.
Famous name of crops:
S.No. Famous Crop Crop

1 King of cereals Wheat
2 Queen of cereals Maize
3 King of coarse cereals Sorghum
4 King of pulses Gram
5 Queen of pulses Pea
6 King of fruits Mango
7 Queen of fruits Mangosteern
8 King of temperate fruits Apple
9 King of spices Black Pepper
10 Queen of spices Cardamom
11 King of vegetables Potato
12 Poor man's meat/ boneless meat Soybean
13 Wonder crop Soybean
14 Famine reserves Millets
15 Camel crop Sorghum
16 Queen of oilseeds Sesame
17 King of oilseeds Mustard
18 King of fodder crops Berseem
19 Queen of fodder crops Lucerne
20 Poor man's fruit Jackfruit, Ber

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21 King of arid and semi-arid fruits Ber

22 Poor’s grain Pearl Millet
23 King of Weeds Congress Grass or Carrot
Grass
24 Glory of east Chrysanthemum
25 Wonder tree Azadirachta indica
26 Night's queen Cestrum nocturnum
27 Organic oil plant Jatropha
28 Drosophila of crops maize
29 Butter fruit Avocado
30 Queen of beverages Tea
31 Tree of heaven Coconut
INSTRUMENTS USED IN AGRICULTURE:
Instrument Measure
Pyranometer Total insolation (incoming
radiation)
Pyreheliometer Direct solar radiation
Spectroradiometer Solar radiation in narrow wave
length
Pyrgeometer Solar radiation in Long wave length
Pyradiometer Both Long and short wave length
Shading Pyranometre Diffused radiation
Albedometer Radiation reflectivity or albedo
Spectrophotometer Wavelength of light
Net radiometer Net radiation
Quantum sensor Photosynthetically active
radiation
Campbell-Stroke sunshine recorder Duration of bright sunshine hours
(used in India)
Heliograph Duration of bright sunshine hours
Maximum thermometer Max. air temperature during day (2
pm) (mercury used)
Minimum thermometer Min. air temperature during day (5
am) (alcohol used)
Dry Bulb thermometer Air Temperature
Wet Bulb Thermometer Saturated air temperature
28 | P a g e
Thermograph Continuous air temperature

Aneroid barometer and barograph Atmospheric pressure
Anemometer Wind velocity
Wind vane Wind direction
Beaufort scale Wind force/speed
Psychrometer/Hygrometer Indirect measurement of relative
humidity (RH)
Assmann Psychrometer RH in open and crop canopy
Hygrograph Continuous record of RH
Rain gauge Rainfall
Aerometer Density of gases
Piezometer Pressure of ground water
(hydrostatic pressure)
Pycnometer Specific gravity of soil
Hydrometer Specific gravity of liquid
Penetrometre Strength of Soil
Crescograph Plant growth (invented by J. C.
Bose)
Auxanometer Plant growth .
Manometer Root pressure
Photometer Transpiration or stomata behaviour
Porometer Stomatal behaviour
Potometer Transpiration
Evaporimeter/Atmometer/Atmidometer Evaporation
Osmometer Osmosis
Lysimeter ET and percolation & leaching
Tensiometer/ lrrometer losses,
Soil i.e., water
moisture loss (SMT)
tension
IMPORTANT ACT
Act Year
DIPA: - Destructive insect pest act Feb. 1914 (madras)
Essential Commodity Act 1955
Seed Act 1966, enforce in 1969
Insecticide Act 1968, enforce in 1971

29 | P a g e
Fertilizer control order 1957 (redefined 1985)

Seed control order 1983
Seed policy 2002
TYPES OF CHEMICAL TOXICITY:
S.No. Poison color Type of poisoning

1- Red Extremely toxic
2- Yellow Highly toxic
3- Blue Moderately toxic
4- Green Less toxic
Particle size in spraying chemicals (DROPLET SIZE):
For the control of flying insects 10 to 50 microns

For the control of surface living 1- 30 to 150 microns
insects
For the control of plant diseases 30 to 150 microns
For the control of weeds 100 to 300 microns
❖ ICAR AWARDS RELATED TO AGRICULTURE:
➢ Sardar Patel Outstanding ICAR Institution Award

➢ National and Zonal Krishi Vigyan Kendra Awards
➢ ICAR Norman Borlaug Award
➢ Panjabrao Deshmukh Outstanding Woman Scientist Award
➢ Jagjivan Ram Abhinav Kisan Puraskar/ Jagjivan Ram Innovtive Farmer
Award (National/Zonal)

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➢ N. G. Ranga Farmer Award for Diversified Agriculture

➢ Chaudhary Devi Lal Outstanding All India Coordinated Research Project
Award
➢ Jawaharlal Nehru Award for P.G. Outstanding Doctoral Thesis Research
in Agricultural and Allied Sciences
➢ Lal Bahadur Shastri Outstanding Young Scientist Award
➢ Vasantrao Naik Award for Research Application in Dryland Farming
System
➢ Rafi Ahmed Kidwai Award for Outstanding Research in Agricultural
Sciences
➢ Swami Sahajanand Saraswati Outstanding Extension scientist
➢ Dr. Rajendra Prasad Award for technical books in agriculture and allied
sciences in hindi
IMPORTANT POINTS:
➢ Fertiliser Association of India (FAI) was established in 1955 with the

objective of bringing together all concerned with the production, marketing
and use of fertilisers.
➢ National Academy of Agricultural Research Management is located at
Hyderabad, Telangana, India. It was established by the Indian Council of
Agricultural Research in 1976, to address issues related to agricultural
research and education management, in India.
➢ Chairman of National Commission for Farmers- Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
➢ Often cross pollinated crops: Cotton, sorghum, arhar.
➢ 2,4 D is used as herbicide. (Less than 20 ppm: PGR)
➢ Finger millet (is having highest water use efficiency: 13.4%).
➢ Precursor of ethylene is Methionine.
➢ Erosion avoiding crops: Cowpea, Groundnut, lobia, grasses.
➢ Mode of germination in pulses:
• Rabi pulses shows hypogeal kind of germination in which cotyledons
remain in soil (except rajma).
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• Kharif pulses shows epygeal kind of germination in which cotyledons

emerge out from soil (except arhar)
➢ Most of the legumes fulfil their 75% nitrogen requirement through root
nodule (symbiosis).
➢ Highest consumption of phosphorus in pulses.
➢ Recommended N:P:K for cereals is 4:2:1.
➢ Recommended N:P:K for legumes is 1:2:1.
➢ Recommended N:P:K for oilseeds is 4:1:4
➢ Payable interest rate on KCC is 7%. (After subvention it will be 4%)
➢ Seed rate of Bt cotton is 1.5 kg/Ha.
➢ Common crop grown in paira & utera system is lathyrus.
➢ Nutrient needed for peg formation in groundnut is calcium.
➢ Rotavator is used for primary and secondary tillage implement.
➢ Seed require light for germination are known as positive photoblastic.
➢ Beusening practice is related to rice done at 30-45 days after sowing (to
reduce straw and increase grain).
➢ Nutrient require for biological N fixation is Molybdenum
➢ Most outstanding crop for green manuring is Sunhemp.
➢ 2.471 Acres=1 hectare or 1 acre = 0.405 hectare, 1 Kanal = 0.051 ha.
➢ 1 Hectare Meter: A volume of 10 000 cubic meters created by flooding an

area of one hectare to a depth of one meter, thus creating a volume one
hectare by one meter. 1 ha m = 10 000 m3.
सपनों को हमेशा ज िंदा रखना चाजहए क्योंजक महान

लोगों का कहना है अगर आपने सपनों का दमन कर
जदया तो समझो आप ने खदु कुशी कर ली

32 | P a g e
AFO-2021 Paper (Memory based)

1. Which bee is best for domestication. This bee is also known as Italian bee
a. Apis mellifera b. Apis dorsata c. Apis florea d. Apis cerana
e. None of these
2. The bond which is formed between parallel and non-parallel strands of DNAs
a. Hydrogen bond b. Phosphodiester bond c. Covalent bond
d. Ionic bond e. Metallic bond
3. Chemical used in polyploidy breeding
a. Colchicine b. NAA c. IAA d. Gibberellins e. Cytokinin
4. Which of the following is silk protein
a. Sericin b. Keratin c. Oryzin d. Albumin e. Zein
5. Annamox is one of the steps of
a. Nitrogen cycle b. Nitrogen cycle c. Hydrogen cycle d. Carbon cycle
e. Phosphorus cycle
6. Antherea mylita is
a. Tropical Muga b. Temperate Muga c. Eri Silk d. Mulberry silkworm
e. Tropical Tasar silkworm
7. In innovation, rate of adoption is negatively affected by
a. Compatibility b. Trialability c. Complexity d. Observability
e. Confirmation
8. Protoplasmic fusion between plants of different species
a. Intergeneric Hybridization b. Interspecific hybridization
c. Somatic hybridization d. Intrageneric hybridization
e. Intraspecific hybridization
9. Unwinding of silk cocoon is called?
a. Reeling b. Weaving c. Ginning d. De linting e. Retting
10.The principle of this technique is the generation of nitrogen cycle by maintaining
higher C: N ratio through stimulating heterotrophic microbial growth, which assimilates
the nitrogenous waste that can be exploited by the cultured spices as a feed?
a. Hydroponics b. Bio floc fish farming c. Composite fish farming
d. Integrated fish farming e. None of these
11. In which of the following systems agriculture crop, Trees, Pasture
a. Agrisilvi Pastoral b. Agrisilviculture c. Silvi Pastoral d. Agri Pastoral e. None of
these
12. What is the family of mustard?
a. Cruciferae b. Malvaceae c. Apiaceae d. Solanaceae e. Rosaceae
13. What is the scientific name of Paddy?
a. Oryza sativa b. Triticum durum c. Zea mays d. Avena sativa
e. Secale cereale

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14. PM Kisan is a Central Sector scheme with 100% funding from Government of India.
Under the scheme an income support of 6,000/- per year will be provided to all
institutional land holders?
a. PMKISAN b. PMFBY c. NFSM d. PMKSY e. PMMDY
15. What is the premium rate in PMFBY for rabi crops, oilseeds and…….
a. 2.0% of SI or Actuarial rate, whichever is less
b. 1.5% of SI or Actuarial rate, whichever is less
c. 5.0% of SI or Actuarial rate, whichever is less
d. 3.0% of SI or Actuarial rate, whichever is less
e. 4.0% of SI or Actuarial rate, whichever is less
16. Which of the following instrument used to measure soil moisture
a. Tensiometer b. Hygrometer c. Anemometre d. Aerometre
e. Pycnometre
17. Which agency helps in the price policy of major agricultural crops for Government?
a. NAFED b. CACP c. FCI d. Agmark e. APEDA
18. Seeds are dropped in furrows in continuous flow and are covered with soil?
a. Drilling b. Dibbling c. Broadcasting d. Transplanting e. Planting
19. The credit of success for KVK goes to ?
a. Chandrika Prasad b. Swaminathan c. R.S. Paroda d. Dr. Mangal Rai
e. Mohan Singh Mehta
20. What is smother crop?
a. crop which suppresses weeds growing under it with quick growing ability and dense foliage
b. crops is one which is planted as a second crop after the first crop has reached its reproductive
stage of growth but before it is ready for harvest.
c. Crop which conserves the soil moisture
d. Crops which prevent the soil from erosion
e. None of these
21. Pungency in onion is due to
a. Allyl propyl disulphide b. Allyl disulphide c. Melanin d. Ethephon
e. None of these
22. What is the fruit type of Pineapple?
a. Berry b. Pome c. Drupe d. Sorosis e. Balusta
23. Rose fruit type is known as
a. Hip b. Balusta c. Berry d. Drupe e. Syconus
24. Blossom End Rot is in________ and is due to the deficiency of______
a. Tomato, Fe b. Tomato, Ca c. Onion, Fe d. Onion, Ca
e. Potato, P
25. What is the ICMR recommendation of Vegetables (g/day)?
a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 400 e. 500

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26. Disorder in Pomegranate in which arils are disintegration, where arils become soft,
light creamy – brown to dark blackish brown and unfit for consumption and the
deficiency is not seen externally?
a. Fruit crack b. Granulation c. Internal breakdown d. Uneven ripening e.
Gummosis
27. Symptoms of Powdery mildew of pea are first seen on which part of the plant?
a. Stem b. Leaves c. Fruits d. Roots e. Flower
28. Late blight is the disease of?
a. Potato b. Tomato c. Brinjal d. Capsicum e. Cucumber
29. Which of the following chemical is used for reclamation of alkaline soil?
a. Gypsum b. Lime c. Calcium Carbonate d. Sodium e. Iron sulfate
30. Water holding capacity decreasing order?
a. Clay> silt> sand b. Sand> silt> clay c. Silt> Sand> Clay d. Clay> sand> silt
e. Silt> Clay> sand
31. Which one is not sedimentary rock?
a. Granite b. Gneiss c. shale d. conglomerate e. limestone
32. Act of Parturition in sow?
a. Farrowing b. Lambing c. Kidding d. Covering e. Spaying
33. Zoonosis is?
a. transmission of disease from Animal to human
b. transmission of disease from Human to human
c. transmission of disease from animal to animal
d. transmission of disease from human to animal
e. None of these
34. Pendimethalin is a?
a. Fungicide b. Weedicide c. Insecticide d. Rodenticide e. PGR
35. 2,4-D is used as hormone and it is also used as?
a. Fungicide b. Weedicide c. Insecticide d. Rodenticide e. Acaricide
36. These features are of which buffalo:
This buffalo has sickle shaped horns. This buffalo is greyish brown or black in colour
a. Surti b. Bhadawari c. Jaffarbadi d. Murrah e. Mehsana
37. For which of the following R.M. test is used?
a. Ghee b. Whole milk powder c. Paneer d. Butter e. Curd
38. Mandis is a type of market
a. Local b. Primary c. Secondary d. Tertiary e. Fair
39. Discovery of_______ mosaic in 1886 by Mayer?
a. Tobacco b. Tomato c. Potato d. Chilli e. Capsicum
40. Bordeaux mixture is ?
a. Copper fungicide b. zinc fungicide c. iron fungicide

35 | P a g e
d. Sodium e. None of these

41. Piercing and sucking type mouth part in which order?
a. Hemiptera b. Isoptera c. Lepidoptera d. Orthoptera
e. Zeroptera
42. Beetle having horn like projection on head, black body and attacks on open terminal
portion?
a. Rhinoceros beetle b. Black headed caterpillar c. Red palm weevil
d. Cockcater beetle e. None of these
43. A process in which large fat globules are broken in smaller particles is known as
a. Homogenization b. Emulsification c. Centrifugation d. Pasteurization
e. Breaking
44. Amplifier host of Japanese encephalitis is?
a. Pig b. Horse c. Mosquito d. Cattle e. Dog
45. Mould board instrument is used for
a. Ploughing b. Weeding c. Sowing d. Intercultural Operation
e. Irrigation
46. Scratching, rubbing and softening seed coat to make it permeable for water?
a. Scarification b. Stratification c. Scratching d. Dilution e. Removing
47. Which of the following housing system is used in commercial layer farming Cage
system in poultry having dimensions of 14×16 inches or height 17 inches?
a. Free range b. semi- intensive c. battery cage d. deep litter
e. Folding cage system
48. Progeny of breeder seed which should maintain certain germination standards and
should be approved by certification agency?
a. Breeder b. Nucleus c. Foundation seed d. Certified e. Truthful Labeled
49. As per FSSAI Standards, SNF of cow milk is?
a. 9 b. 8.5 c. 8 d. 7 e. 9.5
50. Removing off type plant of same species but different variety that affect genetic purity,
physical purity of seed lot. This is the most important operation in seed production.
a. Rouging b. Weeding c. Plucking d. eradication e. None of these
51. Buffalo milk is more whiter than cow milk?
a. Because Carotene is converted into colorless vitamin A
b. Because Buffalo milk has more fat
c. presence of riboflavin in buffalo milk
d. Presence of carotene in buffalo milk which is not present in cow milk
e. None of these
52. Due to which deficiency the following symptoms are seen:
i) Rickets in children, Osteomalacia in adults

36 | P a g e
ii) Milk fever

iii) Reduction in milk yield
a. Calcium b. Phosphorus c. Zinc d. Sulphur e. Nitrogen
53. Increased performance of F1 hybrid over parent is called?
a. Dominance b. Heterosis c. Inbreeding depression d. Test cross
e. Back Cross
54. Two well developed breeds are crossed Alternatively will be known as?
a. Triple cross b. Double cross c. Criss Cross d. Test cross e. Back cross
55. Secretion of milk by glandular secretory tissue of milk animals & their collection in
the various system terminating its let down – specific stimuli?
a. Galactopoietic b. Galactosidase c. Lactation d. Dry period
e. Intercalving
1. a 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. e 7. c 8. c 9. a 10. b
11. a 12. a 13. a 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. b 18. a 19. a 20. a
21. a 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. c 26. c 27. b 28. a 29. a 30. a
31. a 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. a
41. a 42. a 43. a 44. a 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. c 49. b 50. a
51. a 52. a 53. b 54. c 55. c
If you have never made a mistake that

means that you have never tried anything,
don’t fear trying out things because once
you fall you will rise again.

37 | P a g e
RRB-SO 2020 (Memory based)

1. Which among the following operation is conducted in pseudo stem of banana after
bunch harvesting?
a. Clinching b. Ablation c. Propping d. Dehaulming e. Mettocking
2. Deposition of soil by gravity-
a. Colluvial Soil b. Alluvial soil c. Aeolian soil d. Red Soil e. Black Soil
3. Boar which is fattened for market should be castrated at which age?
a. 1 to 2 weeks b. 2 to 4 weeks c. 4 to 6 weeks d. 6 to 9 weeks
e. After 6 months
4. Which of the following essential nutrient is considered as micronutrient?
a. Ca b. Mg c. K d. Fe e. None of these
5. Which among the following crop is hexaploid and developed by using outcrossing? –
Wheat
a. Banana b. Potato c. Mango d. Barley e. Wheat
6. Mehsana is the cross of? –
a. Murrah× Surti b. Surti×Murrah c. Brown Swiss× Sahiwal
d. Hariyana x Brown Swiss e. Sahiwal x Holstein
7. A Cow in heat can be bred in which phase?
a. Oestrum phase b. Proestrus c. Metestrus
c. Diestrus d. Ovulation
8. Which of the following is used to map subdivisions of land and gives length and
direction to owners land and boundaries?
a. Cadastral map b. Google map c. Land records
d. Soil map e. Agriculture map
9. What is the SNF content for recombined toned milk?
a. 8.5 % b. 8.0% c. 9% d. 3% e. 1.5%
10. When to harvest gerbera flower?
a. Few florets open b. When bud fully mature
c. Outer florets furl out d. When bud is immature
e. Only one petal is open
11. The index used to determine the effect on intercropping on suppression of weeds in
comparison to sole crop stand?
a. Weed Smothering efficiency b. Weed index
c. Weed control efficiency d. Weed control index
e. Weed comparison index
12. Which among the following is the most serious pest of cotton which eat cotton boll
and boll will fall down after attack and remaining unable to open properly and moth
will be brown in colour and larvae will be pink in colour which puncture into the boll?
a. Pink bollworm b. Red cotton bug c. Spotted bollworm

38 | P a g e
d. American bollworm e. Cotton aphid

13. Which among the following scheme is related to organic farming in the country?
a. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojna
b. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
c. National Mission For Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)
d. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)
e. Integrated watershed management programme
14. A system in which agriculture crops, trees and fruit trees or ornamental trees are
grown together in same land?
a. Agri horticulture b. agri silvi culture c. Agri silvi pastoral
d. silvi horticulture e. Agri silvi horticulture
15. Which fish is having highest cost and highest demand in market?
a. Striped murrel b. Giant murrel c. Spotted murrel
d. Singhi e. Magur
16. Retting is related to which crop?
a. Jute b. Cotton c. Mesta d. Jowar e. Wheat
17. Farming system which provides more time to absorb runoff water and later it is
supplied to crops?
a) Contour farming b) Run-off farming c) Inter cropping
d) Mixed cropping e) Multiple cropping
18. Characteristics of Mastitis disease in goat?
a. Large, hot swollen udder with blood flakes in milk
b. Severe lameness
c. Hot swollen joints, weight loss, and fever
d. Animals develop diarrhea and increased respiratory rates
e. None of these
19. This is the practice of mating of animals within the same breed but having no
common ancestors on either side of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations.
a. Outcrossing b. Inbreeding c. Outbreeding d. Cross Breeding
e. Inbreeding depression
20. Which among the following fish lives in fresh water and bred in salt water?
a. Catadromous b. Anadromous c. Salmonids d. Lampreys e. Shad
21. Which among the following silkworm which have more than three generations in a
year?
a. Multivoltine b. Univoltine c. Quadravoltine d. Trivoltine e. Bivoltine
22. Poultry- boiler per bird sq ft floor space:
a. 0.8-1 Sq. Ft. b. 0.5-0.8 Sq. Ft. c. 1-1.5 Sq. Ft.
d. 1.5-2 Sq. Ft. e. 2-2.5 Sq. Ft.

39 | P a g e
23. Grafting method in which germinating seeds less than 2 weeks are wedge or splice
graft on success depends on temperature and high RH:
a. Stone Grafting b. Saddle grafting c. Veneer grafting
d. Bridge grafti ng e. None of these
24. Coorg honey dew variety of? –
a. Papaya b. Mango c. Orange d. Grapes e. Sapota
25. Which is correct Bacterial wilt of tomato symptom?
a. Leaves do not turn yellow but wilting is seen. Vascular bundles show brownish
discoloration
b. Water-soaked spots c. Rotting of plant
d. Circular lesions on leaves later turn necrotic e. None of these
26. Which is NOT correct about Saline soil?
a. In saline soil due to precipitation Salt content increase
b. EC of saline soil is more than 4
c. ESP of saline soil is less than 15
d. Accumulation of Na & Ca chloride in saline soil
e. In saline soil even if water available in root zone but plant can't uptake it
27. Find the correct match of seed colour and seed tag? –
a. Breeder seed-golden yellow b. Foundation seed – blue tag
c. Certified seed- white tag d. Nucleus seed- red seed
e. None of these
28. Which of the following organic material has lowest C: N ratio?
a. Rye straw b. Wheat straw c. Saw dust d. Solid cattle manure
e. Soil microbes
29. Which of the following matching is correct with respect to its site of synthesis
1) ABA- Old leaf
2) gibberellin- root
3) cytokinin- young fruits
a. 1 and 2 b. 1,2 and 3 c. only 1 d. 1 &3 e. only 2
30. Which of the following is not correct regarding fertilizer?
a) soil having same available nutrient may not supply same amount of nutrient even if to the
same crop
b) same amount of fertilizer to same soil
c) Organic fertilizers are not the only route to plant nutrition
d) Hidden hunger is seen in plantation crops liked tea, coffee for Zn,
e) None of these
31. Hormone which induces and maintains seed dormancy?
a. Gibberellin b. Cytokinin c. ABA d. Ethylene e. Auxin

40 | P a g e
32. Calculate the plant population for hexagonal system of orchard if Plant to plant
spacing -10m, row to row- 8.66 m ?
a. 115 b. 98 c. 137 d. 198 e. 221
33. Implement used for harrowing having several rotating discs fitted on the common
shaft?
a. Cultivator b. Disc harrow c. Rotavator d. Wooden ploughs
e. Inversion ploughs
34. Which is natural mutant variety of coffee?
a. Kent b. Caturra c. Heirloom d. SL28 e. Catimor
35. Interest rate of Kisan Vikash Patra?
a. 6.9% Per annum b. 7.1% Per annum c. 8.2% Per annum
d. 9% Per annum e. 12% Per annum
36. In which h crop pair there is least isolation distance:
a. Wheat and rice b. Cabbage and cauliflower
c. Chillies and tomato d. Safflower and sunflower e. Cotton and jute
37.What is International seed certificate colour, sampling is done in one country and
analysis in other country? (RRB-SO)
a. Orange b. Green c. Blue d. White e. None of these
38. Which is not true about soil health card:
a) It provides financial assistance to farmers for amelioration of problematic soil
b) In every 5 years soil health card issued to all farmers
c) it gives deficiency-based fertilizer recommendation district wise
d) it is launched with objective of reducing fertilizer consumption to 20%
e) None of these
39. In genetic engineering which bacteria is known as work horse?
a. Diplococcus b. E. coli c. Rhizobium d. Agrobacterium
e. Actinomycetes
40. Yellowing starts from terminal portion and later moves towards older leaves due to
which among the following?
a. Aphid attack b. Water stress c. N deficiency d. Fe deficiency
e. Mn deficiency
1. E 2. A 3.B 4.D 5. E 6.A 7. A 8.A 9.A 10.A
11.A 12. A 13. A 14.E 15. A 16.A 17.A 18.A 19. A 20. A
21. A 22.A 23. A 24.A 25.A 26.A 27. A 28. E 29.C 30. A
31. C 32. A 33.B 34.B 35. A 36. A 37. B 38. B 39. B 40.

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UPPSC-2021 (Actual paper)
Q1. Which one of the soil component has highest CEC?

(a) Kaolinite (b) Montmorillonite
(c) Vermiculite (d) Organic matter
Q2. Which of the following preservative is used for coloured juices?
(a) sodium benzoate (b) Potassium metabisulphite
(c) Vinegar (d) Potassium benzoate
Q3. Match List-I with List -II and select the correct answer using codes given below the
lists.
List-I List-II
(Gene Action) (Ratio)
A. Duplicate 1. 9 : 3 : 4
B. Inhibitory 2. 13 : 3
C. Complementary 3. 15 : 1
D. Supplementary 4. 9 : 7
Codes
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1
Q4. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
Crop Minimum isolation distance (m) for certified seed
(a) Wheat - 3 (b) Cotton - 50
(c) Tomato - 25 (d) Cauliflower – 1000
Q5. The following operations are practiced in the cultivation of tobacco
1. Priming 2. Topping 3. Desuckring
The correct sequence of these operations in the field is:
(a) 2, 3, 1 (b) 3, 2, 1
(c) 2, 1, 3 (d) 3, 1, 2
lists.
List-I List-II
(Herbicidal group) (Major process affected by herbicides)
A. Triazines 1. Photosynthesis
B. Bipyridilium 2. Nucleic acid and protein synthesis
C. Carbamates 3. Membrane function
D. Sulfonyle ureas 4. Cell division
A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 3 1 2 4
Q7. Grassy shoot disease of sugarcane is caused by
42 | P a g e
(a) Fungi (b) Bacteria

(c) Virus (d) Mycoplasma
Q8. National centre for integrated Pest Management is situated at
(a) Dehradun (b) Lucknow
(c) Pant Nagar (d) None of these
Q9. Bolting is related to __________ crop.
(a) Sugarcane (b) Mustard
(c) Sugarbeet (d) Barley
lists.
List-I List-II
(Types of test) (Usage)
A. 'Z' test 1. Test of homogeneity
B. chi-square 2. To test proportion and variance
C. 'F' test 3. Small sample
D. Student 't' test 4. Large sample
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 3 2 4 1
Q11. Arrange the following activities of plant breeding in correct order and select answer
from the codes given below:
1. Selection 2. Evaluation 3. Creation of variantion
4. Distribution 5. Multiplication
(a) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(c) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 (d) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
Q12. Which of the following is NOT the part of principle of cooperation?
(a) Principle of open and Voluntary Association
(b) Principle of Democratic Organisation
(c) farmer's service societies (d) Principle of services
Q13. H.A.N.P.V. is used for the biological control of
(a) Aphid (b) Gram pod borer
(c) Jassid (d) Rice stem borer
Q14. Which of the following pair is NOT correctly matched?
Name of Institute Place
(a) N.C.I.P.M. - New delhi
(b) N.B.A.I.R. - Coimbatore
(c) D.P.P.Q.S. - Faridabad
(d) N.I.P.H.M. - Hyderabad
Q15. which one of the following is Not correctly matched?
Name of disease Related crop
(a) Charcoal rot - Sugarcane

43 | P a g e
(b) Black rust - Barley

(c) Bacterial leaf blight - Paddy
(d) Sterility - Pigeon pea
Q16. In the process of communication which of the following is audio aid?
(a) Puppet show (b) slides show
(c) Drama (d) Public Address system
Q17. What is nutriponics?
(a) Cultivation in soil (b) Cultivation in water
(c) Cultivation in nutrients (d) None of these
Q18. 'Sindhu' variety of mango is a cross of
(a) Nellam x Dasheri (b) Dasheri x Ratna
(c) Ratna x Alphanso (d) Alphanso x Ratna
Q19. Two statements are given below on labelled as assertion (A) and other as Reason ®
Assertion (A): Insect resistant transgenic cotton varieties has been produced by transfering the
cry gene
Reason (R): The cry gene is derived from Bacterium.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Q20. Roguing is performed to
(a) Control disease in plants (b) Control of weeds in crops
(c) Removal of plants other than the desired plants (d) None of the above
Q21. Marginal utility of money can NOT be
1. Positive 2. Negetive 3. Zero
Which of above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 2
Q22. Molya disease of wheat is caused by __________ nematode.
(a) Anguina tritici (b) Heterodera avenae
(c) Root not nematode (d) Heterodera corotae
Q23. What is the irrigation efficiency in check and basin flooding method of irrigation?
(a) 60-65% (b) 50-55%
(c) 40-45% (d) 10%
lists.
List-I List-II
(Soil conditon) (energy level)
A. Field capacity 1. 0.33 to 15 bars
B. PWP 2. 0.33 bars
C. Available water 3. 50 bars

44 | P a g e
D. Hygroscopic water 4. 15 bars

A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 3 4 1
Crop Disease
(a) Potato - Late blight
(b) brinjal - Red rot
(c) Tomato - Early blight
(d) Okra - Yellow vein mosaic
Q26. Galleria mellonella is a insect pest of
(a) Silk worm (b) Lac insect
(c) honey bee (d) cotton crop
Q27. At pH 9.0 of alkali soil, the concentration of CH- is
(a) 10-5 mole/litre (b) 10-6 mole/litre
(c) 10-7 mole/litre (d) 10-8 mole/litre
lists.
List-I List-II
(Plants) (Propagation method)
A. Grape 1. Runner
B. Banana 2. Soft wood cutting
C. Tea 3. Hard wood cutting
D. Strawberry 4. Sword sucker
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 4 3 1 2
Q29. Male sterility is used for hybrid seed production in many crops because
(a) it enhances heterosis (b) it increases yield
(c) It is a means of genetic emasculation (d) It helps in acclimatization
Q30. Baby corn is harvested at the stage of
(a) 2-3 days after silking (b) 2-3 days after tasseling
(c) Milk stage (d) R4 stage
Q31. Which of the following is NOT a Kharif season weed?
(a) Chenopodium album (b) Amaranthus viridis
(c) Echynochloam colonum (d) Commelina benghalensis
Q32. With reference to farm planning and optimum resource use consider the following:
1. Monopolistic competition 2. Perfect competition
3. Oligopoly 4. Monopoly
What is the correct arrangement of these market as per the number of seller is ascending
order?

45 | P a g e
(a) 3, 4, 2 and 1 (b) 4, 3, 1 and 2

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 1 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
lists.
List-I List-II
(Disease) (Control)
A. Loose smut of wheat 1. Sulphex
B. Powdery mildew of pea 2. Zinc sulphate
C. Damping off in vegetables 3. Vita vax
D. Khaira disease 4. Soil Solarisation
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 1 4 2
Q34. ATIC is component of
(a) N.A.T.P. (b) N.A.A.P.
(c) I.R.D.P. (d) I.A.A.P.
Q35. The most young alluvial soils are locally called as
(a) Bhangar (b) Khadar
(c) both a and b (d) None of the above
Q36. Litchi plant are commercially multiplied by
(a) seeds (b) Budding
(c) Air layering (d) Veneer grafting
Q37. Which of the following is simple and eco-friendly technique of hybrid seed
production?
(a) Genetic male sterility (b) Transgenic male sterility
(c) Temperature sensitive genetic male sterility (d) Chemically induced male sterility
Q38. With reference to crop rotation which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. legume must be followed by a non-legume.
2. Deep rooted crops should be followed by the same type of crop.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q39. Minimum support Price (MSP) is fixed on the basis of
(a) Average cost of production (b) equal to average cost
(c) Marginal cost of production
(d) Total cost of production
Q40. Most damaging form of soil erosion is
(a) Rill erosion (b) Splash erosion
(c) sheet erosion (d) waterfall erosion
Q41. Which one of the following is a double cross hybrid variety of Mango?
(a) Sindhu (b) Alphanso

46 | P a g e
(c) Neelam (d) Arka suprabhat (H-14)

Q42. Vertical selection of soil is called as
(a) Soil profile (b) Soil horizon
(c) Soil column (d) Regolity
Q43. Consider the following statement:
In paddy crop, fertilizer application should be directed to be
1. Oxidised zone
2. Reduced zone
3. Surface
(a) Only 1 is correct (b) Only 2 is correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
lists.
List-I List-II
(Fruit) (Variety)
A. Aonla 1. Hari chhal
B. Banana 2. Hathi jhool
C. Chiku 3. Kheera
D. Ber 4. Banglore
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 2 1 4 3
lists.
List-I List-II
(Term/Theory) (Name of scientist)
A. Genetics 1. Bateson, W
B. Theory of inheritance 2. G. Mendel
C. Mutation 3. Hugo de viries
D. Genes in the chromosome 4. Morgan
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2
Q46. Consider the following statements:
1. Maize is C4 plant 2. Karnz anatomy present in C4 plant.
3. Photorespiration does not occur in C3 parts
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
Q47. The rate expressed as the depth in cm of water out from a given area in 24 hrs. is
called as

47 | P a g e
(a) Run of coefficient (b) Irrigation coefficient

(c) Drainage coefficient (d) Crop coefficient
lists.
List-I List-II
(Fungal Genus) (Fruiting bodies)
A. fusarium sp. 1. Pycnidium
B. Collectotrichum sp. 2. Apothecia
C. Sclerotinia sp. 3. Acervulus
D. Phoma sp. 4. Sporodochium
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 3 4 2 1
Q49. Which of the following is known as nano nutrients?
(a) Boron (b) Molybdenum
(c) Zinc (d) Iron
Q50. Flame photometer is used in the determination of
(a) Nitrogen (b) Phosphorous
(c) Potassium (d) Boron
Q51. Central institute of Arid Horticulture was located at
(a) Jodhpur (b) jaipur
(c) Bikaner (d) Lucknow
Q52. The central AGMARK Lab is located at
(a) new Delhi (b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur (d) Bhopal
Name of insect Order
(a) House fly - Coleoptera
(b) Fruit fly - Diptera
(c) Mustard saw fly -Hymenoptera
(d) Dgragon fly - Odonata
Q54. Micro water shed has an area of
(a) Less than 400 hectare (b) Less than 500 hectare
(c) Less than 600 hectare (d) Less than 700 hectare
Q55. Fruit fly lays eggs under the skin of ____ fruit.
(a) Okra (b) Brinjal
(c) Pumpkin (d) Tomato
lists.
List-I List-II
(Organization) (Year)

48 | P a g e
A. Directorate of marketing and inspection 1. 1963

B. Food corporation of India 2. 1965
C. Internatinal oranisation for standardization 3. 1935
D. Codex alimentarium commission 4. 1947
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 3 2 1 4
Q57. Anaerobic respiration is called as
(a) intracellular respiration (b) Molecular respiration
(c) Extra molecular respiration (d) Intramolecular respiration
Q58. According to soil taxonomy medium black soils are grouped in ______ order.
(a) Alfisols (b) Entisols
(c) Vertisols (d) Oxisols
Q59. Among the following liming materials, ______ has highest neutralizing value.
(a) Basic slag (b) Dolomite
(c) Calcium hydroxide (d) Calcium oxide
Q60. Beneficial bacteria for fruit preservation industries is
(a) Clostridium botulinum (b) Bacteria aceti
(c) Clostridium sporogenes (d) Clostridium pasteurianum
lists.
List-I List-II
(Chemicals) (Function)
A. Calcium chloride 1. Seed germination
B. 2,3,5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride 2. Seed dormancy
C. Thiourea 3. Seed viability
D. Indole acetic acid 4. Seed longevity
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 4 3
Q62. Which weedicide is used to kill broad leave weeds in legumes?
(a) MCPA (b) 2, 4 - D
(c) MCPB (d) 2, 4, 5-T
Q63. Which soil has highest water use efficiency?
(a) Sandy soil (b) Clay soil
(c) Loamy soil (d) None of the above
Q64. ______ has propounded that "output is a function of labour and capital
(a) Cobb-Douglas (b) John Fei and Gustav Ranis
(c) Lewis (d) Kaldor
(a) Chick pea - Pod borer
(b) Sugarcane - Brown plant hopper

49 | P a g e
(c) Onion - Thrips

(d) Paddy - Stem borer
Q66. Match the following extension schemes with starting year.
Name of scheme Year
A. Integrated Rural Development programme I. 1980
B. Jawahar Rozgar Yojna II. 1989
C. National Rural employment Guarantee Act III. 2005
D. Employment Assurance Scheme IV. 1993
A B C D
(a) III II IV I (b) II III IV I
(c) I II III IV (d) IV III II I
Q67. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A): Phosphorous availability is poor in acid soils.
Reason (R): Phosphorous is leached from acidic soils.
(a) (A) is true but (R) is wrong
(b) (R) is true but (A) is wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false
Q68. Riceyness is physiological disorder related to _________ crop.
(a) Chilli (b) Cauliflower
(c) Brinjal (d) Tomato
lists.
List-I List-II
(Plants name) (Flower colour)
A. Adonis 1. Yellow
B. Aster 2. Blue
C. Lilium 3. Purple
D. Alstroemeria margaret 4. Red
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
Q70. Consider the following pairs:
Class of seed- Colour of tag
1. Breeder seed- Golden yellow
2. Foundation seed- White
3. Certified seed- Purple
4. T.L. seed - Blue
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
lists.
List-I List-II
A. Indicator crop 1. Berseem
B. Silage crop 2. Sunflower
C. Avenue crop 3. Pegeonpea

50 | P a g e
D. Ware crop 4. Potato

A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 4 2 1
Q72. Which of the following are damaging stage of Aphid?
(a) Adult (b) Nymph
(c) Adult and Nymph (d) None of these
lists.
List-I List-II
(Type of product) (Example)
A. Complementary 1. Wheat and Barley
B. competitive 2. Wheat and Dairy
C. Supplementary 3. Wheat grain and straw
D. Joint 4. Wheat and poultry
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 2 1 4 3
lists.
List-I List-II
(product) (Protein)
A. Egg I. Casein
B. Milk II. Kerotin
C. Meat III. Myosin
D. Wool IV. Albumen
A B C D
(a) IV III II I (b) III II IV I
(c) I II III IV (d) IV I III II
Q75. Which material contain maximum amount of sulphur?
(a) Ammonium Sulphate (b) Potassium sulphate
(c) Single super phosphate (d) Gypsum
Q76. The Oxidation of xanthine is catalyzed by xanthine dehydrogenase contain ________
element.
(a) Zinc (b) Manganese
(c) Boron (d) Molybdenum
Q77. Which is an illuststration of relay cropping?
(a) Paddy – wheat (b) Soyabean - wheat
(c) Maize – Toria – wheat
(d) Maize – Potato – wheat – Moong
Q78. Which method of breeding is NOT appropriate for cross pollinated crops?
(a) Mass selection (b) Back cross method
(c) Heterosis breeding (d) Recurrent selection
lists.
List-I List-II
(Crop) (Centre of Origin)

51 | P a g e
A. Bottle Guard 1. South America

B. Okra 2. Indo-China
C. Cauliflower 3. Africa
D. Amaranthus 4. Mediterranean region
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 2 3 4 1
lists.
List-I List-II
(Condition) (Example)
A. Floating aquatic weed 1. Eichhornia
B. Emergent aquatic weed 2. Typha
C. Marginal aquatic weed 3. Rumex sp.
D. Absolute weed 4. Scirpus
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 2 1 3 4
1.D 2.A 3. D 4. B 5.A 6.B 7. D 8.D 9. C 10.C
11.D 12.C 13.B 14.B 15. A 16. D 17.C 18. C 19. A 20.C
21.C 22.B 23. C 24.B 25. B 26. C 27. A 28.B 29.C 30.A
31.A 32.B 33.D 34.A 35. B 36.C 37. A 38.A 39. A 40.C
41. D 42.A 43.B 44. D 45.A 46.D 47.C 48. B 49.B 50.C
51.C 52.C 53. A 54.A 55. C 56.A 57.D 58.C 59.D 60. A
61.C 62.C 63.B 64.A 65.B 66.C 67.A 68.B 69. 70.A
71.B 72.C 73.D 74.D 75.A 76.D 77.D 78.D 79.D 80.A
You are smarter than you think; stronger than you can
ever imagine, all you need is to go for that dream.
Start today and you will reach the destination.

52 | P a g e
Agronomy (Model paper)-1

Q1. The highest area under rice cultivation in India is in the state of:
(a) West Bengal (b) Punjab (c) Bihar
(d) Haryana (e) Uttar Pradesh
Q2. Most suitable crop for dry land farming in heavy black soils is:
(a) Chickpea (b) Safflower (c) Linseed
(d) Mustard (e) Rice
Q3. Besides oil, soybean also contains protein amounting to about _____ percent.
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 40
(d) 50 (e) 60
Q4. On sloppy land, the best cropping system to be followed is:
(a) Cover cropping (b) Catch cropping (c) Strip cropping
(d) Multiple cropping (e) Mono cropping
Q5. Most extensively grown rabi pulse in India is:
(a) Lentil (b) Chickpea (c) Black gram
(d) Horse gram (e) Rajma
Q6. A farmer has provision of one irrigation of wheat crop. At what stage he should
irrigate the crop:
(a) Crown root initiation (CRI) (b) Tillering (c) Flowering
(d) Milk stage (e) None of these
Q7. Delinting of cotton seed may be done with:
(a) H2So4 (b) NaOH (c) NH4Cl
(d) HNO3 (e) H2O
Q8. The inflorescence of sugarcane is called?
(a) Spike (b) Tassel (c) Panicle
(d) Arrow (e) Flower
Q9. Glyphosate is a __________ herbicide:
(a) Non-selective, contact (b) Selective, contact (c) Non-selective, translocative
(d) Selective, translocative (e) None of these
Q10. Milling recovery in rice is about _______ percent.
(a) 45 (b) 60 (c) 75
(d) 85 (e) 90
Q11. A short duration crop in between two main crops is called:
(a) Cash crop (b) Companion crop (c) Catch crop
(d) Inter crop (e) Strip Crop
Q12. Water requirement of the crops is euqal to:
(a) Evapo-transpiration losses of water
(b) Consumptive use of water (c) Rainfall + irrigation requirement
(d) Irrigation requirement (e) None of these

53 | P a g e
Q13. Triticale is a cross between:

(a) Wheat x barley (b) wheat x Oat (c) Barley x Rye
(d) Wheat x rye (e) None of these
Q14. The crop used for the production of both oil and fibre is:
(a) Linseed (b) castor (c) Mesta
(d) Jute (e) Pineapple
Q15. The most suitable soil for groundnut cultivation is:
(a) Sandy and Sandy loam (b) Clay Loam (c) Loamy clay
(d) Silty loam and clay loam (e) Black Soil
Q16. The dwarf varieties of wheat were introduced in India from:
(a) USA (b) Philippines (c) Mexico
(d) Japan (e) None of these
Q17. Which among the following has the highest irrigation efficiency?
(a) Flooding (b) Channel irrigation (c) Drip irrigation
(d) Sprinkler irrigation (e) Ridge and furrow
Q18. Phalaris minor, a weed is associated with which crop?
(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Sugarcane
(d) Pulses (e) maize
Q19. The term Agriculture is derived from ________ words:
(a) Latin (b) Greek (c) French
(d) Russian (e) English
Q20. In gully erosion, the practice of gully plugging reduces erosion by:
(a) Slowing down the velocity of running water
(b) Spread of water in larger area
(c) Increasing percolation of water
(d) All of the above (e) None of these
Q21. The seed rate (kg ha-1) of Isabgol (Plantago ovata) grown for medicinal purpose
will be:
(a) 3-5 (b) 6-8 (c) 9-10
(d) 12-13 (e) None of these
Q22. The drip irrigation was introduced in India from:
(a) Israel (b) USA (c) Australia
(d) Canada (e) China
Q23. Striga is an important parasitic weed in the field of:
(a) Sorghum (b) Bajra (c) Sugarcane
(d) All of these (e) None of these
Q24. Orobanche is an example of:
(a) Obligate root parasite (b) Obligate stem parasite
(c) Partial root parasite (d) Partial stem parasite (e) None of these

54 | P a g e
Q25. Which one of the following river basins has maximum utilizable flow:
(a) Indus (b) Ganges (c) Brahmaputra
(d) Luni and Ghaggar (e) None of these
Q26. Which one of the following states has maximum geographical area?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Rajasthan (c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh (e) Punjab
Q27. Which one of the following crops has maximum water requirement?
(a) bajra (b) Maize (c) Cotton
(d) Rice (e) Wheat
Q28. Which of the following can be grown both the kharif and rabi season in northern
India:
(a) Sorghum (b) Maize (c) Cotton
(d) Rice (e) Wheat
Q29. The most important food grain crop of the world is:
(a) Rice (b) Maize (c) Sorghum
(d) Wheat (e) Bajra
Q30. Hulling percentage of common rice is:
(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 65
(d) 80 (e) 90
Q31. It is necessary for runoff to occur so that the precipitation must satisfy the
demand of:
(a) Evaporation (b) Interception (c) Infiltration
Q32. The crops classified as erosion resistant crops include:
(a) Groundnut (b) Sugar beet (c) Small grain crops
(d) Potato (e) None of these
Q33. The process of entry of water into the soil has been termed as:
(a) permeability (b) Infiltration (c) percolation
(d) Hydraulic conductivity (e) None of these
Q34. The estimated range of water requirement of wheat crop is:
(a) 300-450 mm (b) 250-350 mm (c) 500-1200 mm
(d) 500-700 mm (e) 700-1200 mm
Q35. The optimum pH range of 4 to 6 has been found suitable for:
(a) Maize (b) Sugarcane (c) Berseem
(d) Tea (e) Rose
Q36. The yield advantage in an intercropping system can be measured by:
(a) land equivalent ratio (b) Competition coefficient
(c) Allelopathy index (d) Durability coefficient (e) None of these

55 | P a g e
Q37. The detrimental effect of one species of higher plants on other higher plants is
known as:
(a) Antibiotic (b) Phytonzides (c) Marasmines
(d) Allelopathy (e) Allopathy
Q38. The cropping intensity and gestation period of crops grown are:
(a) Inversely related (b) Directly related (c) Linearly related
Q39. The largest producer of cumin (cuminum cyaminum) in India is?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujrat (c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal (e) Punjab
Q40. Which of the following is the noble cane:
(a) Saccharum officinarum
(b) Saccharum Spontaneum
(c) Saccharum barberi (d) Saccharum robustum (e) None of these
Q41. A bale of cotton contains how many kg of lint:
(a) 170 (b) 180 (c) 178
(d) 200 (e) 210
Q42. Which one of the following is desi cotton:
(a) Gossypium arboretum
(b) Gossypium hirusutum
(c) Gossypum barbadense
Q43. Dough stage in wheat refers to:
(a) when the stem is swollen prior to ear emergence
(b) The seed is swollen prior to germination
(c) when the white fluid in grain is just hardening up
(d) The grain stage just before the harvest of the crop
(e) None of these
Q44. Net sown area in the country is about 142 million hectare. What is the
approximate net area (million ha) covered by irrigation:
(a) 30 (b) 68 (c) 80
(d) 58 (e) 86
Q45. The most common type of flood water harvesting structure is:
(a) Check dam (b) Farm pond (c) Tanka
(d) Khadins (e) Percolation pond
Q46. Crop logging is generally used in
(a) Maize (b) Cotton (c) Potato
(d) Sugarcane (e) wheat
Q47. The example of augmentation cropping is

56 | P a g e
(a) Maize + Cucurbits (b) Pearl millet + green gram

(c) Berseem + forage brassica
(d) Wheat + chickpea (e) None of these
Q48. Khaira in rice is a disease of……?
(a) Maturity stage (b) Nursery stage (c) Pre tillering stage
(d) storage (e) None of these
Q49. Which crop is the only commercially GM crop approved in Indian?
(a) Mustered (b) Cotton (c) Soybean
(d) Millet (e) A and b both
Q50. Removal of suckers is known as de-suckering. it is performed in.......... and...........
(a) potato and tobacco (b) tobacco and banana
(c) Litchi and mango
(d) Banana and guava (e) None of these above
Q51. Test weight of soybean is....
(a) 55g (b) 45g (c) 35g
(d) 25g (e) 65 g
Q52. The critical stage of irrigation for maize is
(a) Prior to tasselling and grain filling.
(b) Flowering and grain filling (c) Crown-root initiation
(d) Tillering and booting (e) None of these above
Q53. ______ is the irrigation method suitable for undulating lands and sandy soils.
(UPSSSC-TA 2018)
(a) Border strip (b) Sprinkler (c) Check basin
(d) Furrow method (e) Drip Irrigation
Q54. Which of the following is an instrument used to measure root pressure?
(a) Potometer (b) Hydrometer (c) Pycnometer
(d) Aerometer (e) Manometer
Q55. Popping in groundnut occurs due to the deficiency of which of the following
nutrient?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Phosphorus (c) Potassium
(d) Calcium (e) Sulphur
Q56. What is the minimum temperature requirement of barley (in degree Celsius)?
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 8
(d) 10 (e) 13
Q57. What is the oil percentage can be extracted from Sesame crop?
(a) 12 (b) 22 (c) 32
(d) 40 (e) 50
Q58. What is cardinal temperature for the germination of wheat and barley crop?
(a) 4-5 0c (b) 5-10 0c (c) 8-10 0c

57 | P a g e
(d) 12 0c (e) 3-4.5 0c

Q59. What is the chromosome number in Cajanas cajan?
(a) 42 (b) 38 (c) 32
(d) 22 (e) 16
Q60. What is the ideal soil pH range for Mustard cultivation?
(a) 3-4 (b) 4-5 (c) 5-6
(d) 6-7 (e) 7-8.5
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. A 8.D 9. C 10. B
11. C 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. A 16. C 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. D
21. B 22. A 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. B 27. D 28. B 29. D 30. C
31. D 32. A 33.B 34. D 35. D 36. A 37. D 38. A 39. B 40. A
41. A 42. A 43. C 44. B 45. A 46. D 47. C 48. B 49. B 50. B
51. A 52. A 53. B 54. E 55. D 56. B 57. E 58. E 59. D 60. D
ो इतने पागल होते हैं जक उन्हें लगता है

वे दजु नया बदल सकते है
अक्सर बदल देते हैं।

58 | P a g e
Agronomy (Model paper)-2

Q1. Dapog method of rice nursery raising is introduced in India from:
(a) Japan (b) China (c) Philippines
(d) USA (e) Malaysia
Q2. Nursery area required to provide seedlings of rice for one hectare field is:
(a) 0.05 ha (b) 0.10 ha (c) 0.15 ha
(d) 0.20 ha (e) 0.25 ha
Q3. One cusec of water is equal to how many litres of water per second:
(a) 28.4 (b) 24.8 (c) 48.2
(d) 84.2 (e) 92.4
Q4. The alkaloid that is present in sorghum leaves during hot dry summer season is
commonly called as?
(a) Tanin (b) morphine (c) Theobromine
(d) Dhurin (e) None of these
Q5. If a herbicide available as 75 WP is to be sprayed at the rate of 1.5 kgha-1 a.i. in 2
hectares. Calculate the commercial product:
(a) 2.0 kg (b) 4.0 kg (c) 6.0 kg
(d) 8.0 kg (e) 10.0 kg
Q6. Which one of the following crops contributes the maximum to the production of
vegetable oils in country?
(a) Sesamum (b) Soybean (c) Coconut
(d) Groundnut (e) Rice
Q7. Which one of the following is an inorganic mulch?
(a) Straw residue (b) Saw dust (c) Paper
(d) Crop residue (e) All of these
Q8. The process of burning of trashes, weeds or any organic refuse on the soil surface in
tobacco for sterlization of nursery beds is known as:
(a) Rabbing (b) Stratification (c) Scarification
(d) Scrapping (e) None of the above
Q9. What is the sugar content in sugarcane?
(a) 12% (b) 30% (c) 8%
(d) 20% (e) 25%
Q10. Among the following crops which one has the maximum capacity to tolerate salinity
in the growth medium such as soil:
(a) Barley (b) Rice (c) Potato
(d) Beans (e) Apple
Q11. It has been observed that wind erosion is more severe in:
(a) Sub-humid climate (b) Humid climate (c) Arid climate
(d) Temperate climate (e) All of these
Q12. Cropping under dryland farming areas of arid and semi-arid regions of India is
referred to as:

59 | P a g e
(a) Multiple cropping (b) Relay cropping (c) Barani

(d) Alternate cropping (e) Wet cropping
Q13. The influence of soil moisture stress during grain maturation is far less marked than
that during.
(a) Booting stage (b) Tillering stage (c) Flowering stage
(d) jointing stage (e) Germination stage
Q14. In dryland conditions, the best identified planting pattern is
(a) Single row (b) Paired rows (c) Treble rows
(d) Broadcast sowing (e) Ridge and furrow
Q15. Percentage of lint in seed cotton is:
(a) 33 (b) 60 (c) 80
(d) 10 (e) 2
Q16. Which of the following rotation under dryland situation will be more remunerative:
(a) Rice-barley (b) Sesamum-gram (c) Millet barley
(d) Rice-wheat (e) Sugarcane
Q17. Contingent planning refers to:
(a) Crop planning to increase production
(b) Change in normal crop planning to meet weather abnormalities
(c) Change is crop planning for higher production under normal situation
(d) Cropping strategy under normal situation by increasing input management
(e) None of these
Q18. Percentage of gur production in sugarcane is:
(a) 25 (b) 10 (c) 15
(d) 22 (e) 11-12
Q19. Name the state in India with the highest area and production of wheat:
(a) Punjab (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Haryana (e) Uttar Pradesh
Q20. An average mean temperature of _________ oC is best suited for the growth of
sugarcane:
(a) 10-20 (b) 25-35 (c) 40-45
(d) 50-60 (e) 5-10
Q21. Which crop belongs to Leguminosae family:
(a) Spinach (b) Lettuce (c) Fenugreek
(d) Rubber (e) Wheat
Q22. The term monsoon is derived from ___________ word:
(a) Latin (b) Arabic (c) Greek
(d) Roman (e) English
Q23. In northern India, Autumn cane requires on an average __________ irrigations:
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7
(d) 10 (e) 12

60 | P a g e
Q24. When annual rainfall in an area is 1200 mm, then how much evaporation has to occur
to be classified as dry land area:
(a) 750 mm (b) 1000 mm (c) 1500 mm
(d) 2000 mm (e) None of these
Q25. The crop rotation having 200% rotational intensity is?
(a) Rice-wheat (b) Rice-Wheat-moong
(c) jowar-toria-wheat-moong (d) Rice-pea-sugarcane (e) All of these
Q26. Dry land areas are those which receive an average annual rainfall of:
(a) <500 mm (b) < 800 mm (c) > 800 mm
(d) > 1125 mm (e) > 1000 mm
Q27. The most commonly cultivated maize in India is:
(a) Zea mays everta (b) Zea mays indurate
(c) Zea mays indentata (d) Zea mays saccharate (e) None of these
Q28. The seed rate (kg/ha) of direct seeded rice in rainfed upland will be
(a) 20-30 (b) 40-50 (c) 80-100
(d) 140-150 (e) More than 150
Q29. At the time of transplanting, a depth of …… cm of water is adequate in transplanted
low rice?
(a) 2 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 8 cm
(d) 10 cm (e) 10-12 cm
Q30. When monsoon is delayed up to last week of August to mid-September, which crop
should be grown by the farmer:
(a) Forage crop (b) green gram (c) Black gram
(d) Gram (e) Rice
Q31. Irrigation water would be injurious to crops if the boron content is:
(a) 0-1 ppm (b) 1-2 ppm (c) 2-3 ppm
(d) > 3 ppm (e) All are safe
Q32. Tensiometers or Irrometers can be used to measure soil moisture potential upto
(bar)?
(a) 0-0.85 (b) 0.9-1.0 (c) 1.1-1.2
(d) 1.3-1.4 (e) 1.5-2.0
Q33. The India Meteorological Department (IMD), pune was established in:
(a) 1850 (b) 1875 (c) 1950
(d) 1975 (e) 1995
Q34. The crop rotation having 150% rotational intensity is:
(a) Rice-pea-sugarcane (b) Maize-Potato-wheat-rice-wheat
(c) Sorghum-gram-sugarcane-wheat-urdbean
(d) Rice-Wheat (e) None of these
Q35. The albedo of dry lands varies from:
(a) 75-90% (b) 20-25% (c) 30-40%
(d) 0-15% (e) More than 90%

61 | P a g e
Q36. Ratooning is practiced as a matter of routine in?

(a) Sugarcane and sugarbeet (b) Sugarcane and maize
(c) Sugarcane and napier grass (d) Sugarcane only
(e) Napier grass only
Q37. A bale of Jute and mesta contains how many kg of lint:
(a) 160 (b) 170 (c) 190
(d) 200 (e) 180
Q38. In most of the crops, due to water logging there is development of:
(a) Crown roots (b) Adventitious roots (c) Tap roots
(d) Seminal roots (e) Deep root
Q39. Blind hoeing is possible in which among the following crop?
(a) Rice (b) Maize (c) Sugarcane
(d) Potato (e) Wheat
Q40. The crop grown on degraded land for Improvement is called?
(a) Conservation crop (b) Pioneer crop (c) Contingency crop
(d) Cover crop (e) Nurse crop
Q41. Botanical name of proso millet ?
(a) Pennisetum Americanum (b) Panicum miliaceum
(c) Elusine coracana (d) Triticum durum (e) Setaria italica
Q42. In which of the centuary use of iron plough has started?
(a) 1500 BC (b) 2200 BC (c) 1400 BC
(d) 1000 BC (e) 1600 BC
Q43. Chromosome no of chickpea ( gram )?
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 42
(d) 36 (e) 14
Q44. What is suitable moisture content of wheat at harvesting stage ?
(a) 23 % (b) 27 – 30% (c) 21 – 24 %
(d) 20 – 25% (e) 30- 40 %
Q45. When kernel ( edible part ) is not developed in pod of groundnut , occurred due to
calcium deficiency called popping . term earthing up related to
(a) Groundnut (b) Potato (c) Sunflower
(d) Both a and b (e) All of the above
Q46. Test weight of basmati rice ?
(a) 24 (b) 25 (c) 21
(d) 30 (e) 72
Q47. 40 to 60 % relative humidity is suitable for most of the crop plants. What is suitable
wind speed for most of the plants?
(a) 2 – 4 km/hr (b) 4 – 6 km/hr (c) 2 – 3 km/hr
(d) 4 – 8 km/hr (e) None of the above
Q48. Cultivation of pomegranate is started
(a) 1000 B.C (b) 3000 B.C (c) 1400 A. D

62 | P a g e
(d) 1500 A. D (e) 1600 A. D

Q49. What is the moisture content in pearlmillet at harvesting stage?
(a) 10 % (b) 15% (c) 20%
(d) 25% (e) 30%
Q50. What is the optimum temperature in sugarcane at formative stage for good crop
growing?
(a) 10-degree celcious (b) 16-degree celcious (c) 20-degree celcius
(d) 26-degree celcious (e) 34-degree celcious
Q51. Which state comes under East Coast Plains and Hills Region in Agro climatic zones?
(a) UP, Orissa & West Bengal
(b) MP, Rajasthan, UP (c) Orissa, AP, TN & Pondichery
(d) TN, Kerala, Goa, Karnataka, Maharastra (e) None of these
Q52. Which crop have lowest test weight (In term of seed)
(a) Pearl millet (b) Mustard (c) Lucerne
(d) Safflower (e) Linseed
Q53. Which of the following crop having highest water use efficiency ?
(a) Maize (b) Pearl millet (c) Rice
(d) Wheat (e) Sorghum
Q54. The thumb rule for sowing depth of seeds is approximately 3 to 4 times diameter of
the seed. What is the optimum depth ( mm ) of sowing for most of the field crops ?
(a) 30 – 50 (b) 30 – 40 (c) 3 – 5
(d) 40 – 60 (e) 4 – 6
Q55. What is Isolation distance for foundation seed of barley crop ?
(a) 25 (b) 10 (c) 50
(d) 3 (e) 100
Q56. Which of the following crop is highly water sensitive ?
(a) Wheat (b) Maize (c) Beans
(d) Tomato (e) Citrus
Q57. Earthing up is done in sugarcane after –
(a) 3 – 4 weeks (b) 4 – 5 weeks (c) 6 – 8 weeks
(d) 5 – 6 weeks (e) 8 – 9 weeks
Q58. Which of the following crop is temperate crop?
(a) Rice (b) Cotton (c) Sorghum
(d) Oats (e) Both c & d
Q59. What is the suitable relative humidity (Percentage) for most of the crop plant?
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 50
(d) 70 (e) 90
Q60. What is the number of agro climatic zone under NARP?
(a) 15 (b) 127 (c) 8 (d) 20 (e) 60

63 | P a g e
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. C 8.A 9.A 10. A
11. C 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. A 16.B 17. B 18.E 19. E 20. B
21. C 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. A
31. D 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. B 36. C 37. E 38. B 39. C 40. A
41. B 42. D 43. E 44. B 45. D 46.C 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. D
51. C 52. C 53. D 54. A 55. D 56. D 57.C 58. D 59. C 60.B
Success comes as a result of hard

work, persistence, learning from
failure, and perfection.

64 | P a g e
Soil Science (Model paper)-1

Q1. CEC is the Cation exchange capacity of soil. What happens to the CEC of soil when
clay content of soil increases?
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Same
(d) First increase then decrease (e) First decrease then increase
Q2. Sylvite is the source of which among the following mineral?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Calcium (c) Potassium
(d) Aluminium (e) Silica
Q3. Which among the following are not the advantages of minimum tillage over
conventional tillage?
(a) The cost and time for field preparation is reduced
(b) Soil compaction is comparatively less
(c) Water storage in the plough layer is decreased
(d) Soil structure is not destroyed
(e) Water loss through runoff and erosion is minimum
Q4. Which among the following is important factor to determine the number of ploughings
required to bring the soil to favourable tilth?
(a) Soil condition (b) Optimum moisture level (c) Transpiration
(d) Both a & b (e) All of these
Q5. Which among the following can be related to wet tillage?
(a) Ploughing repeatedly in standing water
(b) Impervious layer below the surface (c) Done only in one direction
Q6. Tillage done after seeding or planting the crop either at the pre-emergence stage of the
crop plants or while they are in the early stages of growth will be referred to?
(a) Clean Tillage (b) Year-round tillage (c) Blind Tillage
(d) Dry tillage (e) Conventional tillage
Q7. Biological oxidation by which the ammonia (NH4) form of N converts to nitrate (NO3-)
form of Nitrogen will be which among the following
(a) Denitrification (b) Nitrification (c) Volatilization
(d) Ammonification (e) Ammonization
Q8. How much clay content in soil exhibit extremely high plasticity?
(a) 10 % (b) 15 % (c) 20 %
(d) 25 % (e) > 35 %
Q9. Which among the following have a good thermal conductivity?
(a) Compact soil (b) Natural structures (c) Organic soil
Q10. Which among the following is not a reason for reduction in Porosity?
(a) Continuous cropping (b) Conventional tillage (c) Virgin soil
(d) Both b & c (e) Both a & b

65 | P a g e
Q11. Rotting of centre of stem in cauliflower is due to the deficiency of which among the
following nutrient?
(a) Ca (b) Mn (c) Boron
(d) Zinc (e) Mo
Q12. Speckled yellows in sugar beet and Little leaf in apple is due to the deficiency of which
among the following nutrients?
(a) Zn, Mn (b) B, Zn (c) Mn, Zn
(d) Zn, B (e) Mo, Mn
Q13. Which among the following nutrient is the most immobile nutrient in plants and soil
respectively?
(a) Calcium, Zn (b) B, Ca (c) B, S
(d) Ca, B (e) K, B
Q14. The principal veins as well as the smaller veins are green. The interveinal portion is
yellowish, not tending towards whiteness. Dead spots also appear at a later stage. There is a
chequered appearance to the leaf. This is a symptoms of deficiency symptom of which
nutrient?
(a) Fe (b) Mn (c) S
(d) Cu (e) K
Q15. Which beneficial element can replace the Major element K in C4 plants having
dicarboxylic photosynthetic pathway?
(a) Va (b) K (c) Na
(d) Si (e) Co
Q16. Which nutrient promotes seed germination and speeds plant maturity and plays an
important role in photosynthesis by contributing to chlorophyll production.
(a) Cl (b) Mg (c) S
(d) Mn (e) N
Q17. A free-living heterotroph bacterium found in aerobic upland soils?
(a) Azotobacter (b) Beijerinckia (c) Anabaena
Q18. A non-leguminous bacterium which forms nodules is which among the following?
(a) Azospirillium (b) Rhizobium (c) Actinomycetes
(d) Azorhizobium (e) Azotobacter
Q19. Abscisic acid can be produced in which parts of a plant?
(a) Leaves (b) Stems (c) Green fruits
(d) Both a & c (e) All of these
Q20. What is the primary precursor of Gibberellins?
(a) Methionine (b) Zeatin (c) Acetate
(d) IAA (e) Thiobenzoic acid
Q21. Which among the following can favour fixation of Potassium in soil?
(a) Addition of gypsum (b) Iron Pyrite (c) Liming
(d) Urea (e) CAN

66 | P a g e
Q22. Which among the following is a denitrifying bacteria?

(a) Pseudomonas (b) Bacillus (c) Frankia
(d) Both a & b (e) Both b & c
Q23. Which among the following is an Obligatory anaerobic free living bacterium?
(a) Klebsiella (b) Gluconacetobacter (c) Clostridium
(d) Burkholdria (e) Both a & c
Q24. Which among the following green manure crop accumulates the most Nitrogen and
dry matter?
(a) Sesbania aculeata (b) Cow pea (c) Sun hemp
(d) Sesbania rostrata (e) Cluster pea
Q25. Which among the concentrated organic manure has highest P content?
(a) Blood meal (b) Fish meal (c) Raw bone meal
(d) Steamed bone meal (e) Sludge
Q26. When there is sodicity hazard ion soil then a high sodium hazard occurs in which
class of sodicity hazard
(a) S3 (b) S4 (c) S2
(d) C3 (e) C4
Q27. How much sulphate concentration is excellent for good irrigation water (MeL-1)?
(a) <4 (b) 4-7 (c) 7-11
(d) 11-18 (e) >20
Q28. A tolerant crop can have how much Boron concentration in its irrigation water (ppm)
foe safely use?
(a) <0.33 (b) <0.67 (c) <1
(d) >1.25 (e) >2.50
Q29. What is the pore space in clay soil?
(a) 40 % (b) 43 % (c) 47 % (d) 50 % (e) 58 %
Q30. What is the pH of cat clay soils?
(a) 1-4 (b) 4-5 (c) 5-6
(d) >4 (e) Any of these
Q31. World Soil Day is observed on which date?
(a) 5 November (b) 5 April (c) 25 December
(d) 15 December (e) 5 December
Q32. Which among the following is slow-release N fertilizer?
(a) Ureaform (b) Methylene urease
(c) sulfur-coated urea (d) Polymer coated urea (e) All of these
Q33. What is the nitrogen percentage in Potassium nitrate?
(a) 5 (b) 13 (c) 17
(d) 44 (e) 47
Q34. Which among the following green manure has highest nitrogen content?
(a) Sunnhemp (b) Dhaincha (c) Sesbania
(d) Green weeds (e) Forest tree leaf

67 | P a g e
Q35. Rock phosphates are used in the reclamation of?

(a) Saline soil (b) Sodic soil (c) Acidic soil
(d) Neutral soil (e) All of these
Q36. In which condition roller is used:
(a) Where soil is sandy (b) Where soil has clods
(c) Where soil is wet (d) Where soil is friable (e) All of these
Q37. Indian Institute of Soil Science (IISS)has been sanctioned a project for preparation of
Geo-Referenced Soil Fertility maps including interlinking of soil fertility status with Soil
Test Crop Response (STCR) data to generate site specific recommendations for use of
chemical fertilizers in 19 major states. Where is it located?
(a) Pune (b) New Delhi (c) Bhopal
(d) Mysore (e) Dehradun
Q38. A soil which has pH less than 8.5, ESP less than 15 and EC more than 4 mhos/cm at
25 oC is called:
(a) Saline soil (b) Alkaline soil (c) Saline-alkali soil
(d) Acidic soil (e) None of these
Q39. What is the percentage of nitrogen in DAP?
(a) 19 (b) 46 (c) 33
(d) 48 (e) 82
Q40. Which among the following factor is responsible for black colour of soil?
(a) Humus (b) Mg (c) Wetting of soil
(d) calcite (e) Both A and C
Q41. According to ISSS, what is the size of fine sand (in MM)?
(a) 0.0002-0.002 (b) 0.002-0.02 (c) 0.02-0.2
(d) 0.2-2 (e) None of these
Q42. What is the particle density of silt?
(a) 2.655 (b) 2.659 (c) 2.798
(d) 2.837 (e) None of these
Q43. What is the bulk density and pore space of sand?
(a) 1.6, 50 (b) 1.6, 40 (c) 1.4, 47
(d) 1.3, 50 (e) 1.1, 58
Q44. What is the pF range at field capacity?
(a) 1.34 (b) 2.54 (c) less than 2.54
(d) 4.20 (e) 4.50
Q45. The oven dry weight of a unit volume of soil inclusive of pore spaces is called bulk
density. What is the pore space of loam (In percent)?
(a) 40 (b) 47 (c) 50
(d) 58 (e) 65
Q46. Which of the following manure found highest amount of sulphur?
(a) Poultry (b) Duck (c) Goat
(d) Sheep (e) Cow

68 | P a g e
Q47. Basic slag (Indian) has P percentage of?

(a) 3 (b) 13 (c) 18
(d) 26 (e) 31
Q48. Which among the following is not a micronutrient?
(a) Cu (b) Ca (c) Zn
(d) Fe (e) Mn
Q49. What is the Clay percentage in sandy textural soil?
(a) 0-15 (b) 85-100 (c) 0-30
(d) 0-50 (e) 0-10
Q50. Soil erosion accounts for________ (kg/ha/yr) of nitrogen losses.
(a) 15-18 (b) 23-32 (c) 5-8
(d) 8-14 (e) 18-22
Q51. Phosphorus uptake in acidic soil in the form of…
(a) H2PO4– (b) HPO42– (c) PO43–
(d) H3PO4 (e) H2P03
Q52. The process of deposition of soil materials (removed from the eluvial horizon) in the
Lower layer (or horizon of gains having the property of stabilizing translocated clay
materials) is termed as
(a) Illuviation (b) Horizonation (c) Eluviation
(d) Calcification (e) Both a & c
Q53. Which among the following phosphatic fertilizer is water soluble or monocalcium
phosphate fertilizer?
(a) Raw bone meal (b) Rock phosphate (c) Basic – slag
(d) Ammonium phosphate (e) Dicalcium phosphate
Q54. Calcium Ammonium Nitrate contain 26 % Nitrogen & CAN fertilizer is
(a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Neutral
(d) both a & b (e) None of these
Q55. Straight fertilizers are those which supply only one primary plant nutrient, Complex
fertilizer is a
(a) Urea (b) Diammonium phosphate
(c) Ammonium phosphate (d) Nitro phosphates (e) All except A
Q56. What is the Nitrogen content in thiourea?
(a) 46% (b) 36.8% (c) 22.5%
(d) 33% (e) None of these
Q57. Which among the following is aerobic free-living bacteria?
(a) Azotobacter (b) Anabaena (c) Beijerinckia
(d) Clostridium (e) All except D
Q58. Which among the following is known as Associative symbiotic?
(a) Azospirillum (b) Beijerinckia (c) Anabaena
(d) Clostridium (e) None of these
Q59. Urea should not be mixed with which among the following?

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(a) Calcium ammonium nitrate (b) KCL (c) SSP

(d) TSP (e) All of these
Q60. Citrate Soluble fertilizer but water insoluble fertilizer is:
(a) DCP (b) MAP (c) Rock Phosphate
(d) Ammonium Phosphate (e) DAP
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. B 8.E 9. D 10. D
11.C 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. D 17. D 18. C 19. E 20. C
21. C 22. D 23. C 24.C 25. D 26. A 27. A 28. C 29. E 30. A
31. E 32. E 33.B 34. B 35. C 36. B 37.C 38. A 39. A 40. E
41.C 42.C 43.B 44. B 45. B 46. A 47. A 48. B 49. E 50. D
51. A 52. A 53. D 54. C 55. E 56.B 57. E 58. A 59. E 60. A
“3 ची ों को बदलो,
बहानों को अपने प्रयत्नों से, आलस को जनश्चय
और समस्या को मौको में”

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SOIL SCIENCE (Model Paper)-2

Q1. The index of irrigation water or soil water used to indicate the alkalinity hazard for
soil will be referred as?
(a) EC (b) ESP (c) RSC
(d) Pf (e) pH
Q2. Zinc is absorbed in which form by plants?
(a) Zn+ (b) Zn3+ (c) Zn2+
(d) Zn - (e) Zn 2-
Q3. The source of Silica mineral is which kind of mineral
(a) Primary mineral (b) Secondary mineral
(c) Tertiary mineral (d) Accessory mineral (e) None of these
Q4. When the CEC increases which among the following factor does not occur?
(a) pH increases (b) fineness of particles
(c) clay content increases (d) Less lime required (e) None of these
Q5. Gypsum is the source of which among the following mineral element?
(a) Cu (b) B (c) N
(d) Ca (e) P
Q6. What is the major objective of conservation tillage?
(a) Conserve soil moisture (b) Improve soil physical property
(c) Improve soil chemical property
(d) both b & c (e) All of these
Q7. Zero tillage is applicable to which kind of soils?
(a) Coarse textured surface horizons
(b) Good internal drainage soils
(c) High biological activity soils
(d) Only a & b (e) all of these
Q8. Which among the following is a category of minimum tillage?
(a) Row zone tillage (b) Plough plant tillage (c) Reduced tillage
(d) Both a & b (e) None of these
Q9. What is the effect of puddling:
(a) It reduces deep percolation loss
(b) It increases percolation losses
(c) It improves soil structure
(d) Makes the soil crumby (e) increases the porosity
Q10. Clean tillage is done to achieve which among the following objective?
(a) Control weeds (b) Control soil borne pathogens
(c) Reduce erosion (d) Both a & b (e) All of these
Q11. Off season tillage includes which among the following?
(a) Summer tillage (b) Fallow tillage (c) Post harvest tillage
(d) Winter tillage (e) All of these
Q12. What is the Bulk density of problematic soil ( in g/ cm3)

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(a) <1 (b) 2 (c) 2.65

(d) 3.66 (e) >4
Q13. The conversion of inorganic forms of C, N, P and S by the soil organism into organic
forms is known as?
(a) Mineralization (b) Immobilization (c) Mobilization
(d) Volatilization (e) Ammonification
Q14. Decay or corking of the flesh under the skin in apple occurs due to the deficiency of
which among the following mineral?
(a) Boron (b) Mn (c) Ca
(d) Mo (e) Zn
Q15. Which among the following nutrient is very mobile in plants and immobile in soil?
(a) Ca (b) S (c) Cu
(d) P (e) Zn
Q16. Tiny brown spots appear on the lower leaves of rice starting from tips and spreading
towards bases. Leaves usually remain green is due to
(a) Deficiency of iron (b) deficiency of nitrogen (c) Toxicity of iron
(d) Deficiency of Mn (e) Toxicity of Mn
Q17. Yellowing or chlorosis which starts from the base to tip. The tip becomes very much
elongated into a whip like structure and becomes brownish or blackish brown occurs due
to the deficiency of which among the following nutrients?
(a) Ca (b) Cu (c) S
(d) B (e) Mg
Q18. When there is excess of Phosphorus it results into the deficiency of which nutrient?
(a) Zn (b) Ca (c) B
(d) Cl (e) Cu
Q19. Which among the following element plays an imp role in synthesis of protein enzymes
and growth hormone?
(a) Cl (b) Cu (c) Mo
(d) Fe (e) Zn
Q20. Which among the following micro organism is nodule forming in legumes?
(a) Actinomycetes (b) Azorhizobium (c) Beijerinckia
(d) Bradyrhizobium (e) None of these
Q21. Which among the following hormone Stimulates stomatal closure?
(a) Ethylene (b) ABA (c) Gibberellin
(d) Cytokinin (e) Auxin
Q22. Which among the following is a growth retardant?
(a) CCC (b) MH (c) TIBA
Q23. Which among the following conditions favours fixation of Potassium?
(a) Dry condition (b) Liming (c) 2:1 type clay mineral
(d) Freezing (e) All of these

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Q24. Which among the following is a systemic fungicide?

(a) Zineb (b) Mancozeb (c) carbendazim
(d) Fluchloralin (e) Butachlor
Q25. Application of gaseous NH3 directly to the field by using special devices is called?
(a) Nitrogation (b) Nitrojection (c) Aminization
(d) Nitrification (e) None of these
Q25. Application of gaseous NH3 directly to the field by using special devices is called?
(a) Nitrogation (b) Nitrojection (c) Aminization
(d) Nitrification (e) None of these
Q26. Calcium cynamide has how much percentage of Nitrogen?
(a) 20.6 (b) 25 (c) 26
(d) 24 (e) 44
Q27. Based on solubility of phosphate, which among the following is citric soluble
phosphate?
(a) Basic slag (b) Super phosphate (c) Ammonium phosphate
(d) Rock Phosphate (e) Raw bone meal
Q28. Which among the following fertilizer has basic residual nature?
(a) Ammonium nitrate b) ammonium sulphate
(c) Anhydrous ammonia (d) DCP (e) urea
Q29. Which among the following soil has the most canker nodules?
(a) Black soil (b) Laterite soil (c) Bhangar soil
(d) Khadar soil (e) None of these
Q30. Which edible oil cake has the least nitrogen percentage in it?
(a) Cotton seed cake (b) Coconut cake (c) Niger cake
(d) Groundnut cake (e) Neem cake
Q31. Which concentration (dS m-1) of soluble salts in irrigation water Cannot be used for
irrigation purposes at all?
(a) 0.25-0.75 (b) 0.75-1.5 (c) 1.5- 2.25
(d) 2.25-5.00 (e) None of these
Q32. Which among the following fruit tree has the maximum tolerance to sodicity?
(a) Pomegranate (b) lemon (c) date palm
(d) jack fruit (e) Grape
Q33. Which among the following can be used for reclamation of saline soil?
(a) FYM (b) Flooding (c) Iron Pyrite
(d) Gypsum (e) Both a & b
Q34. Which among the following can be an ideal example for Aquifuge?
(a) Quartz (b) Mica (c) Solid granite
(d) Muscovite (e) Orthoclase
Q35. When two strips of land are finished, the last furrows cut leave a trench about twice
the width of one bottom will be referred to as?
(a) Dead furrow (b) Back furrow (c) Basin Listing

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(d) Furrow (e) Trench

Q36. According to U.S.D.A. soil classification, the size of fine sand should be in between
(a) 0.10 – 0.25 mm (b) 0.02 – 0.2 mm (c) 0.50 - 1.00
(d) 0.002 – 0.02 mm (e) 0.002 – 0.05
Q37. Which of the following is nitrogen fixation bacteria?
(a) Aspergillus awamori (b) Rhizoctonia solani (c) Bacillus subtilis
(d) Klebsiella (e) Pseudomas striata
Q38. Cation exchange capacity of soil is expressed as:
(a) Percentage (b) Parts per million
(c) Millequivalent per 100 gm (d) Milligram per 100 gm
(e) Both b&d
Q39. Which one of the following factor is responsible for higher yield under protected
cultivation?
(a) High photosynthetic efficiency (b) High O2 availability
(c) High temperature (d) All of the above
(e) None of these
Q40. Laterite soils are poor in
(a) Nitrogen, Lime and Magnesium
(b) Zinc & Iron (c) Cooper & Cobalt
(d) Phosphorous & Aluminum
(e) Both a&b
Q41. What is the particle density of most mineral soils?
(a) 1.60 to 1.75 Mg m-3 (b) 2.60 to 2.75 Mg m-3
(c) 2.80 to 2.95 Mg m-3 (d) 3.60 to 3.75 Mg m-3 (e) None of these
Q42. Based on the type of microorganisms, fungal biofertilizer is :
(a) BGA (b) Azolla (c) Mycorrhizae
(d) both A & B (e) all of these
Q43. Oil cakes are concentrated organic manures, out of these edible oil cakes which one
has highest percentage?
(a) Cotton seed (b) Groundnut (c) safflower
(d) coconut (e) castor
Q44. Ammonium chloride (NH4Cl)has ………. % Of nitrogen ?
(a) 16 (b) 20.6 (c) 26
(d) 32 (e) 44
Q45. Phosphorus uptake in alkali soil in the form of…
(a) H2PO4– (b) HPO42– (c) PO43–
(d) H3PO4 (e) Both b and c
Q46. Which of the following state has highest percentage wise acidic soil ?
(a) Kerala (b) Orissa (c) Karnatka
(d) Maharastra (e) Madhya Pradesh
Q47. Which one of the following fertilizers is least hygroscopic?

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(a) Urea (b) (NH4)2SO4 (c) DAP

(d) CAN (e) None of these
Q48. The fertilizers which have two or more than two major plant nutrients in their
chemical composition are called:
(a) Double fertilizer (b) Complex fertilizer (c) Mixed Fertilizer
(d) Organic fertilizer (e) Straight fertilizer
Q49. Which among the following is not affecting the soil pH?
(a) Adsorbed basic cations (b) Climate (c) Soil solution
(d) Flooding (e) None of these
Q50. Which among the following is low salt tolerant crop?
(a) Gram (b) Mustard (c) Turnip
(d) Radish (e) Barley
Q51. Which of the following is not a soil texture classification
(a) Loamy sand (b) Sandy loam (c) Sandy clay loam
(d) Sandy silt (e) None of these
Q52. Depth of small gully (G2) falls in range of
(a) 0 to 1 m (b) More than 100 cm (c) Less than 300 cm
(d) 3 to 4 m (e) None of these
Q53. Pf value at field capacity is
(a) 4.5 (b) 1 (c) 2.5
(d) 4.2 (e) 0.33
Q54. SAR is used to assess the alkali related hazards of the water. Which of the following
SAR range is termed as SAR class S2?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 14
(d) 23 (e) more than 26
Q55. Which among the elements is also called as fertilizer elements
(a) N (b) S (c) Ca
(d) Mg (e) Ni
Q56. P and K is absorbed by plant mainly through
(a) Mass flow (b) diffusion (c) Root interception
(d) Fertigation (e) None of these
Q57. World's first nano urea is launched by?
(a) Chambal Fertilizer (b) Coromandel International
(c) KRIBHCO (d) Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited
(e) Madras fertilizers limited
Q58. What is the optimum pH required for nitrification is?
(a) 6.5 (b) 7 (c) 6-7
(d) 7.5 (e) 8.5
Q59. Which among the following nutrient is responsible for eutrophication
(a) N (b) P (c) K
(d) Ca (e) Both N & P

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Q60. Which among the following fertilizer has higher acidic equivalent?
(a) Ammonium phosphate (b) Ammonium sulphate nitrate
(c) Ammonium sulphate (d) Amonium chloride
(e) Anhydrous ammonia
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. D 5.D 6. A 7. E 8.D 9. A 10. D
11.E 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. D 16. C 17. D 18. A 19. E 20. D
21. B 22. D 23. E 24.C 25. B 26. A 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. B
31. D 32. C 33.E 34. C 35. A 36. A 37. D 38. C 39. A 40. A
41. B 42.C 43. B 44. C 45.C 46. A 47.D 48. B 49.E 50. A
51. D 52. C 53. C 54. C 55. A 56.B 57. D 58.E 59. E 60.E
“5 AM इस समय को हमेशा याद रखना

क्योंजक यही समय है
ब सफल जवधार्थी ागता है या सोने ाता है”

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Horticulture Test (Model paper)-1

Q1. Horticulture contributes about 33% of Agricultural GDP. Which of following fruit
crop shows triple sigmoid growth curve?
(a) Kiwi fruit (b) Mango (c) Sweet orange
(d) Date palm (e) Avocado
Q2. Which of the following state or UT is leading producer of Fruits in India.?
(a) Kerala (b) Tamilnadu (c) Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra (e) Andhra Pradesh
Q3. Development of Seedless fruits is called as Parthenocarpy which of the following crop
exhibit Stimulative type of Parthenocarpy?
(a) Watermelon (b) Grape (c) Papaya
(d) Mango (e) Both A and B
Q4. It is the Simplest and most common method of Planting, also called as Ubiquitous
system of planting?
(a) Rectangular system (b) Triangular system
(c) Square system (d) Hexagonal system (e) Cluster system
Q5. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Smudging- mango (b) Root pruning - mandarin
(c) Girdling – Grape (d) leaf pruning - date palm (e) Notching – sapota
Q6. Mango is called King of Fruits in India, which of the following is the off-season variety
of Mango?
(a) Niranjan (b) Madhulica (c) Rumani
(d) MDCH2 (e) All of the above
Q7. Arka Gaurav is the improved variety of which of the following horticultural crop?
(a) Chili (b) Tomato (c) Onion
(d) Carrot (e) Capsicum
Q8. All cucurbits are monoecious. Which of the following cucurbit is dioecious in nature?
(a) cucumber (b) pumpkin (c) muskmelon
(d) pointed gourd (e) watermelon
Q9. According to ICMR, for a balanced diet daily Consumption of vegetables is...?
(a) 200g (b) 300g (c) 400g
(d) 275g (e) 280g
Q10. Quick freezing is advised when the Temperature of food possess through the zone of
Maximum crystal Formation in?
(a) 20min (b) 30min (c) 40min
(d) 50min (e) 60min
Q11. The most sensitive vitamin that is lost during the processing of fruits and Vegetables
is...?
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C (c) Vitamin E
(d) Vitamin D (e) None
Q12. For Raisin purpose the grape berry should contain TSS of…..in Brix?

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(a) 17 (b) 22 (c) 30

(d) 12 (e) 20
Q13.Tea is considered as the queen of Beverages; Red rust of Tea is caused by...?
(a) Algae (b) Fungi (c) Bacteria
(d) virus (e) Viroid
Q14. Which of the following is wrong as per ICMR guidelines for RDA per capita
availability?
(a) Fruits - 208gm (b) Vegetables- 394gm (c) Milk - 407gm
(d) Food grain- 488.7 gm (e) All are correct
Q15. USA is the Top Producer of Gherkin; the term Gherkin is Associated with?
(a) Tomato (b) Cucumber (c) Spice
(d) coconut (e) Bitter gourd
Q16. Calyx splitting is physiological disorder of which flower crop?
(a) Chrysanthemum (b) Rose (c) Gaillardia
(d) Carnation (e) Marigold
Q17. Rose hip is the Richest source of Vitamin C and the Fruits of Rose Hip is actually a ?
(a) Berry (b) Drupe
(c) Etaerio of achenes (d) Pome (e) Siliqua
Q18. Largest garden in India is.............
(a) Rose garden, Chandigarh
(b) Mughal garden, Pinjore
(c) Madhur garden, Jodhpur
(d) Lalbagh Botanical Garden, Bangalore
(e) Mughal garden, Lucknow
Q19. Vegetables are processed at a temperature of.........?
(a) 100°c (b) 80-90°c (c) 150-175°c
(d) 115-121°c (e) 60-90°c
Q20. Kniffin system of training is also called ...?
(a) 6 cane system (b) 4 cane system (c) 8 cane system
(d) bower system (e) none of these
Q21. The national horticulture fair 2021 has been recognized in which city?
(a) Kolkata (b) Ludhiana (c) Bengaluru
(d) Chennai (e) New Delhi
Q22. Recently Piyush Goyal launched a platform for providing a platform for connecting
aquaculture farmer and buyer what is the name of that platform?
(a) e-aquaculture (b) e-fishery culture (c) e-marketing
(d) e-Santa (e) e-Chopala
Q23. Which of the Following is outstanding grape Cultivar for making Kishmish ?
(a) Bangalore blue (b) Kishmish beli (c) Arkavati
(d) Thompson seedless (e) Pusa Krishna
Q24. Which of the Following is incorrect with its fruit type?

78 | P a g e
(a) Bael, wood apple- Amphisarca

(b) Citrus – Hesperidium (c) Fig - Synconus
(d) Litchi - Nut (e) All are correct
Q25. Cross pollination which takes place with the help of birds is called Ornithophily.
Ornithophily mode of pollination is seen in which fruit Crop?
(a) Fig (b) Banana (c) Durian
(d) Cocoa (e) Apple
Q26. Which of the Following is false statement?
(a) Apple, pear, Apricot, Strawberry belongs to Rose family.
(b) pineapple is variety of Sweet Orange.
(c) BER (blossom end rot) is disorder of Tomato
(d) Behat coconut is seedless variety of Guava (e) All are correct
Q27. Edible part of Custard apple, Ber, Date palm and Avocado......?
(a) mesocarp (b) fleshy thalamus (c) Pericarp
(d) Endosperm (e) fleshy aril
Q28. In India Date palm is harvested at which stage?
(a) Dang (b) Doka (c) Tamar
(d) Tapka (e) Rutab
Q29. Which of the following system of training of grapes has high-cost benefit ratio?
(a) Bower (b) Head (c) Kniffin
(d) Trellis (e) Telephone
Q30. Recently ICAR-IISR got patent for_____________ which it had submitted application
in 2013.
(a) Garlic Micronutrient foliar formulation
(b) Black pepper micronutrient foliar formulation
(c) New technology of hybrid production
(d) Ginger formulation (e) None of these
Q31. Quickest method of lawn establishment is....?
(a) Dibbling (b) Turf plastering (c) Drilling
(d) Turfing (e) Seed sowing
Q32. 'Spears' are edible part which of the following vegetable?
(a) Radish (b) Beetroot (c) Amaranthus
(d) Asparagus (e) Brussel sprouts
Q33. Hardwood cutting is commercial method of Propagation in ...?
(a) Grape (b) Fig (c) Pomegranate
(d) A and B (e) All of these
Q34. Mango is a tropical fruit, The temperature between 24 and 27°C is ideal for its
cultivation. Gulab khas is an indigenous variety of which region?
(a) Southern Karnataka (b) West Bengal (c) Bihar
(d) Kashmir (e) Both b & c
Q35. Totapari variety of Mango belong to which state? (AFO-2018)

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(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) U. P.

(d) Bihar (e) Karnataka
Q36. What is the Pattern of Assistance for Hi-tech Nursery under MIDH
(a) 25% (b) 33% (c) 40%
(d) 50% (e) 75%
Q37. Apis mellifera is known as European bee/Italian bees or Western bee. What is the
number of worker bees per colony in Apis mellifera?
(a) 10000 to 20000 (b) 20000 to 40000 (c) 30000 to 50000
(d) 50000 to 80000 (e) 70000 to 90000
Q38. Apple colour is a variety of guava while pineapple is the variety of?
(a) Apple (b) Citrus (c) Guava
(d) Mango (e) Blueberry
Q39. Mango tree is a national tree of which country
(a) Bangladesh (b) Rome (c) India
(d) France (e) Both a & b
Q40. Banana is one of the tropical fruits. What is the optimum temperature for banana
production?
(a) 15-20 (b) 28-35 (c) 30-35
(d) 20-30 (e) 35-40
Q41. Which of the following variety a mutant variety of mango?
(a) Niranjan (b) Sindhu (c) Rosica
(d) Manjira (e) Pusa lalima
Q42. Which pest is not related for the banana crop?
(a) Fusarium oxysporum
(b) Mycosphaerella musicola
(c) Pseudomonas solanacearum
(d) Erwinia carotovora (e) Deudorix Isocrates
Q43. Based on relative acid tolerance litchi is categorized as medium tolerant crop. Which
among the following is not highly acid tolerant plant?
(a) Bael (b) Fig (c) Plum
(d) Raspberry (e) None of these
Q44. Plants which always grow in sun are known as obligate heliophytes. Facultative
heliophytes are?
(a) Plants which grow best in sun but can also grow fairly well under shade
(b) Plant which always grow in shade
(c) Plants which grow in shade
(d) Plants which grow in open sunny situation (e) None of these
Q45. Opening of flower only after the completion of pollination is known as
(a) Cleistogamy (b) Chasmogamy (c) Polyandry
(d) Allogamy (e) Homogamy

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Q46. Mangosteen is queen of fruits bearing beautiful at the same time very delicious
globose deep purple fruits, start bearing in-
(a) 7 years (b) 5 years (c) 4 years
(d) 8 years (e) 9 years
Q47. The ideal soil pH for growth of okra plants is
(a) 4-5 (b) 5-6 (c)5.5-6.5
(d) 6-8 (e)More than 8
Q48. What is the example of pepo?
(a) Pumpkin (b) Litchi (c) Orange
(d) Sapota (e) Strawberry
Q49. Arunachal Pradesh, Nilgiris and Pulney hills in Tamil Nadu are the part of which
fruit growing regions? (TNAU Website)
(a) North western subtropical zone
(b) Temperate zone (c) North Eastern subtropical zone
(d) Central tropical zone (e) Southern tropical zone
Q50. Which among the following state has first rank in onion production?
(a) Gujarat (b) Rajasthan (c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh (e) Maharashtra
Q51. Horticultural crops have been classified in to three main groups and these are
tropical, sub-tropical and temperate. Peach is a
(a) Tropical (b) Sub- Tropical (c) Temperate
(d) Arid (e) Semi-arid
Q52. A fruit is the seed-bearing structure in flowering plants formed from the ovary after
flowering. Fruit type of date palm is
(a) Nut (b) Drupe (c) Berry
(d) Pome (e) Syconus
Q53. Which of the following crop is Moderate salt tolerance
(a) Peach (b) Grape (c) Aonla
(d) Khair (e) Apricot
Q54. Which crop is heavy feeder of Potassium?
(a) Mango (b) Guava (c) Aonla
(d) Apple (e) Banana
Q55. What is the family of Pineapple
(a) Musaceae (b) Arecaeae (c) Bromeliaceace
(d) Rosaceae (e) Annonaceae
Q56. Mulberry is the host plant of mulberry silk (bombyx mori) the most widely used
silkworm. What is the fruit type of mulberry ?
(a) Syconus (b) Berry (c) Capsule
(d) Sorosis (e) Fleshy calyx
Q57. Sapota ( Achras zapota ) is a tropical fruit, native of south Mexico while phalsa
(Grewia subinequalis ) is a native of –

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(a) Central America (b) South east Asia (c) India

(d) Iran (e) France
Q58. Which of the following varieties of mandarin type orange is cultivated in Karnataka
state?
(a) Kinnow Orange (b) Khasi Orange (c) Darjeeling orange
(d) Coorg orange (e) None of these
Q59. Edible part of pear, loquat, quince is
(a) Mesocarp (b) Thalamus (c) Pericarp
(d) Endosperm (e) Placenta
Q60. Which of the following is Dioecious papaya variety?
(a) Pusa Majesty (b) Solo (c) Taiwan
(d) Pusa nanha (e) All are gynodioecious
1. A 2. E 3. E 4.C 5. E 6. E 7. E 8.D 9. B 10.B
11.B 12. A 13. A 14. E 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. B
21. C 22. D 23. B 24.E 25.B 26.E 27. C 28.B 29. A 30. B
31. D 32. D 33.E 34.C 35. E 36. C 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. D
41. C 42.C 43. E 44. A 45.B 46. A 47.D 48. A 49.B 50. E
51. C 52. B 53. B 54. E 55. C 56.D 57. C 58.D 59. B 60. D
As a student, always remember

hard work always pays. It should
be your best friend.

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Horticulture Test (Model paper)-2

Q1. An increase in the proportion of carbon dioxide and/or a reduction in the proportion of
oxygen within specified limits maintains the original product quality and extends the
product shelf life, which is called as?
(a) Controlled Atmospheric Storage
(b) Controlled Temperature Storage
(c) Controlled Gas storage
(d) All of the above (e) None of the above
Q2. Polyploidy is a condition in which the cells of an organism have more than two paired
sets of chromosomes. Which of the following fruit is an example for 'Allo-octoploid' ?
(a) 'Gola ' of Ber (b) Kiwi fruit (c) Strawberry
(d) jackfruit (e) Persimmon
Q3. Which of the following compound is responsible for aroma in 'Ripe banana'?
(a) Hexanal (b) Isopentanal (c) Eugenol
(d) Nootakatone (e) Ethyl -2 methyl butyrate
Q4. Acid which is Present in Strawberry...?
(a) Gallic acid (b) Citric acid (c) Mallic acid
(d) Ellagic acid (e) Quincic acid
Q5. Recently, Gholwad sapota get GI tag of which state/UT.......???
(a) Tamilnadu (b) Kerala (c) Maharashtra
(d) Karnataka (e) Gujrat
Q6. Bromalin Is found in pineapple. What is the harvesting period for Pineapple?
(a) December-January (b) September-October (c) June -July
(d) May – August (e) August – September
Q7. Which of the following is incorrect with its commercial mode of propagation?
(a) Persimmon - Crown grafting
(b) Bael - patch budding (c) Rubber - forket budding
(d) Cashew nut - soft wood grafting
(e) None of these
Q8. In Tomato, which of the following crops is commonly used as trap crop to attract
tomato fruit borer?
(a) Marigold (b) Cucumber (c) Sesame
(d) Either 1 and 2 (e) Either 2 and 3
Q9. The precocious and continuous growth of the offspring when still attached to the
maternal parent. example for vivipary fruit?
(a) Sapota (b) Mango (c) Citrus
(d) Jackfruit (e) Cashew
Q10. As per the APEDA reports, which of the following Vegetables have been exported
highest for the year 2019-20?
(a) Tomato (b) Potato (c) Onion
(d) Okra (e) None of the above

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Q11. What is the suitable age for transplanting of Onion?

(a) 3-4 weeks (b) 4-5 weeks (c) 2-3 weeks
(d) 6-8 weeks (e) 8-12 weeks
Q12. What is the Toxic substance which is present in Pumpkin?
(a) Serotonin (b) Trypsin inhibitor
(c) Hemagglutinin
(d) Choline esterase (e) Sinigrin
Q13.Which of the following is incorrect with its common name.
(a) Wolf apple – tomato (b) vegetable of immense value- Pumpkin
(c) Baby potato- Lima bean (d) Vegetable of 21st century - chekurmanis
(e) Vilayati Baigan – Brinjal
Q14. Which of the following is CAM plant?
(a) Pineapple (b) Orchids
(c) Snake Plant (d) Cactus (e) All of these
Q15. Which of the following is most ancient type of garden?
(a) Market gardening (b) Truck gardening
(c) kitchen gardening (d) wholesale gardening
(e) None of these
Q16. Which of the following is incorrect with its varietal prefix?
(a) Arka series - IIHR Banglore
(b) Pusa series -IARI newdelhi
(c) Kashi series - IIVR varsanasi
(d) Kufri series- CTCRI Tiruvanatpurum.
(e) Sree series - CTCRI.Tiruvantpurum
Q17. Dehydration ratio of Onion in India?
(a) 6:1 (b) 10:1 (c) 4:1
(d) 2:1 (e) 12:1
Q18. In fresh fruits which fruit is exported the most?
(a) Grape (b) Mango (c) Banana
(d) Papaya (e) Pomegranate
Q19. What is the best time for inarching in fruit plants in heavy rainfall areas?
(a) At the beginning of summer season
(b) at the end of summer season
(c) at the end of monsoon season
(d) at the beginning of monsoon season
(e) None of the above
Q20. Snowball group of cultivars are resistance to Inflorescence blight and rot in
Cauliflower, self-Blanching variety of Cauliflower is/are ?
(a) Pusa Himani (b) Himjyoti (c) Pusa Deepali
(d) All of the Above (e) None of the Above
Q21. Which of the following orchard crops are best cultivated in Alkaline soils?

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(a) Aonla (b) Guava (c) Sapota

(d) Mango (e) All of the above
Q22. Kesar also called saffron, it is valued for it's quality stigma and floral parts, which of
the following family does saffron belongs?
(a) Iridaceae (b) Malvaceae (c) Grass family
(d) Asteraceae (e) Orchid family
Q23. Banana is values for it's delicious desert quality for table purpose, Banana is the
seedless fruit because ?
(a) diploidy (b) Embryo abortion (c) Double fertilization
(d) Haploidy (e) Environmental effect
Q24. Leaves of the Bael have religious importance and used for Lord shiva, Bael is the
Richest source of...?
(a) Vit B2 (b) Vit B1 (c) Vit B3
(d) Vit C (e) Vit K
Q25. Centre of origin of Bael, Kagzi lime, Phalsa, Brinjal, Moong, Black gram,,,,is....?
(a) India (b) China (c) Brazil
(d) Russia (e) USA
Q26. Potatoes are the richest source of carbohydrates, Luffa cylindirica is the Botanical
name of which of the following Horticulture Crop...?
(a) Sponge gourd (b) Ridge gourd (c) Gherkin
(d) Pumpkin (e) Watermelon
Q27. Karonda is the richest source of Iron, in which flower arrangement fruit, flower, and
foliage are used?
(a) Morimona (b) Moribana (c) Ikibana
(d) Sogesto (e) None
Q28. Citruses are the Most Dominating Fruit crop in terms species wealth, most promising
Rootstock for Mandarins and Sweet orange is...?
(a) Tahiti lime (b) Rangpur Lime (c) Citrange
(d) Nagpur Mandarin (e) Acid Lime
Q29. Upper part of stem used for Grafting is called as scion, Hand pollination is most
useful in...?
(a) Oil palm (b) Date palm (c) Coconut
(d) Arecanut (e) Guava
Q30. Scarlet gold and Red Fuzi, are the high yielding varieties of?
(a) Guava (b) Pineapple (c) Plum
(d) Date palm (e) Apple
Q31. According to the Vavilov classification of center of origin, center of origin of Isabgol
and Sarpagandha is?
(a) China (b) USA (c) Brazil
(d) Russia (e) India
Q32. Which of the following is true regarding Smudging process?

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(a) Practice of smoking the tree by burning brush wood on the ground and allowing smoke to
pass through the centre of the crown of the tree
(b) Commonly employed to produce off-season crop
(c) Smoking containing ethylene gas, which is responsible for initiation of flowering
Q33. Sugary disease of the fennel is caused by...?
(a) Virus (b) Fungi (c) Bacteria
(d) Nematode (e) MLOs
Q34. Which of the following fruit is used mostly by the Processing industries in India ?
(a) Apple (b) Grape (c) Cashew apple
(d) Pine apple (e) None
Q35. According to the fruit type, Lomentum is the Edible part or Fruit type of...?
(a) Tamarind (b) Arecanut (c) Groundnut
(d) Coconut (e) Oil palm
Q36.In which of the following plants is ring budding practiced?
(a) Ber (b) Mulberry (c) Peach
Q37. Cotton is also called as White Gold, which of the following crop also known by Name
Century Plant...?
(a) Coconut (b) Dateplam (c) Arecanut
(d) Banana (e) Oil palm
Q38.Pergola system of training in Grape is commercially practiced in India, 6- cane system
in grape is also called as...?
(a) Head System (b) Kniffin system
(c) Telephone system (d) Y trellis (e) None
Q39. Plant population of grape in 6000 m2 area, at spacing of 2m ×1.5m is...?
(a) 2500 (b) 3000 (c) 2000
(d) 2200 (e) 4000
Q40. BABU virus or Bunchy top virus of Banana is transmitted by ?
(a) Aphid (b) Mite (c) Thrips
(d) white fly (e) None
Q41. Mottle leaf of Citrus is due to the deficiency of Zinc, In the same way Little leaf of
citrus is caused due to ?
(a) Zinc (b) Copper (c) MLOs
(d) Virus (e) Mosaic symptom
Q42. Ber is also called as King of Arid Fruits, pollen sterile and Triplet variety of Ber is...?
(a) Illaichi (b) Umran (c) Gola
(d) seb (e) None
Q43. Infested plants have pale green leaves and whitish cotton patches on stem and
Branches, Characteristic galls or Knots are formed on Roots, is the symptom of ?
(a) Wooly aphid (b) Sanjose scale (c) BHC

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(d) Coconut Mite (e) Red palm Weevil

Q44. Which of the following is/are the Biennial vegetable crop?
(a) Radish (b) Carrot (c) Onion
(d) Cabbage (e) All of the above
Q45. Athalia proxima lugens , is important pest of order Hymenoptera, It is the important
pest of?
(a) Mustard saw fly (b) Wooly Aphid (c) White fly
(d) Cabbage head borer (e) Cabbage semi looper
Q46. What is the position of India in production of fruits and vegetables?
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third
(d) Fifth (e) Seventh
Q47. Cow pea is called as Guar crop, seed rate Required for the Fodder purpose Cow
pea..?
(a) 20-25kg (b) 35-40kg (c) 50-60kg
(d) 15-20kg (e) 25-35kg
Q48. Fruit type of cabbage is called Siliqua, Cabbage has anticancer property due to the
presence..?
(a) Indole-3-Carbinol (b) Esteres (c) iso pentnyal
(d) Sulphur compound (e) Iso thiocynates
Q49. Propagation of Pointed gourd is mostly done by which of the following methods?
(a) Seeds (b) Budding (c) Grafting
(d) Stem cuttings (e) None of the above
Q50. It is a kind of Processed food product, made by covering fruit with sugar and glucose
subsequently grinded and Dried?
(a) Preserve (b) Candy (c) Sharbat
(d) Jam (e) Jelly
Q51. Which of the following fruit/vegetable has high respiration rate post-harvest?
(a) Almonds (b) Mango (c) Apple
(d) Strawberry (e) None of the above
Q52. Chromosome number of kiwi fruit ?
(a) 56 (b) 58 (c) 38
(d) 36 (e) 34
Q53. Which of the following grafting techniques is used in bracing of horticulture trees?
(a) Inarch grafting (b) Wedge grafting (c) Cleft grafting
Q54.Which of the following is true regarding T trellis/Telephone system of training in
Grapes?
(a) It is an improvement over 'bower' system
(b) The vines are allowed to grow straight up to a height of 1.5-1.6m.
(c) Suitable for moderately vigorous varieties with more apical dominance
(d) Suitable for Thompson Seedless and other seedless varieties of Grapes

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(e) All of the above

Q55. Indian horticulture magazine published by ?
(a) ICAR (b) IIHR (c) IIVR
(d) FAO (e) IFFCO
Q56. Which of the following operation can be performed by the farmer in highly vigorous
mango trees to induce flowering?
(a) Ringing and Girdling (b) Notching (c) Nicking
(d) Bending (e) None of the above
Q57. Plant Growth Regulators are used in fruit crops for which of the following functions?
(a) Rooting (b) Blossom thinning
(c) Preventing fruit drop (d) Increase in fruit set
(e) All of the above
Q58. As per the FPO specification of jam, which of the following is not true (per 100 gm of
the prepared product)?
(a) 68.5% TSS (b) 45% of fruit pulp
(c) 0.5-0.6% of citric acid (d) All of the above
Q59. The process of sealing food stuffs hermetically in containers and sterilizing them by
heat for long storage is known as __________.
(a) Exhausting (b) Syruping (c) Blanching
(d) Canning (e) Linseed
Q60. As part of preservation of fruits and vegetables, the most common method of
preserving fruits with the help of Sulphur is known as
(a) Sulphuring (b) Sulphiting
(c) Sulphing (d) Sulphication (e) None of the above
1. A 2. C 3. C 4.D 5. C 6. D 7. E 8.D 9.D 10.C
11.D 12. D 13. E 14.E 15. C 16. D 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. D
21. E 22.A 23. B 24.A 25.A 26.A 27. A 28. B 29.B 30. E
31. E 32. D 33.B 34.D 35. A 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. C 40. A
41. B 42.A 43. A 44. E 45.A 46. B 47.B 48. A 49.D 50. B
51. D 52. B 53. A 54. E 55. A 56.A 57.E 58.E 59. D 60. A

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Seed Science (Model paper)-1

Q1. Seed lot certificate colour is
(a) Orange (b) Green (c) Purple
(d) orange or Green (e) Black
Q2. Seed sample certificate colour is-
(a) Blue (b) Orange (c) Purple
(d) White (e) Grey
Q3. A fertilized mature ovule consisting of embryo, stored food material and
protective coats is known as?
(a) Egg (b) Seed (c) true seed
(d) Fertilized seed (e) None of these
Q4. How many primary samples will be taken from 3 containers of 100 kg?
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 15
(d) 9 (e) 21
Q5. Difference between seed and grain is
(a) Seed processing (b) Genetic purity
(c) Seed quality (d) Cost (e) All of these
Q6. National Nematode collection of India is located at
(a) New Delhi (b) Dharwad (c) Anand
(d) Bangalore (e) Hyderabad
Q7. If a flower has either male (staminate flower) or female (pistillate flower) part
is known as?
(a) Imperfect flowers (b) Monoecious
(c) Unisexual flowers (d) Both A and C
(e) None of these
Q8. In India, normally how many generation system seed are produced?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) 6
Q9. Monocarpic flower is:
(a) Mango (b) Agave (c) Amaranthus
(d) Mulberry (e) None of these
Q10. When pollen grains are transferred from an anther to the stigma of the same
flower the process is known as?
(a) autogamy (b) cross-pollination
(c) allogamy (d) Both B and C (e) All of these
Q11. Seed coat peroxidase test is used for:
(a) Sorghum (b) Wheat (c) Soybean

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(d) Groundnut (e) Rice

Q12. Sequence of cell division phases on duration bases. Which one is correct?
(a) Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase
(b) Metaphase → Prophase → Telophase → Anaphase
(c) Prophase → Metaphase → Telophase → Anaphase
(d) Anaphase → Prophase → Metaphase → Telophase
(e) None of these
Q13. Acid scarification of seed can be done by using?
(a) H2SO4 (b) HNO3 (c) CH3COOH
(d) H3BO3 (e) None of these
Q14. Harvesting index is maximum in
(a) Carrot (b) Pigeon pea (c) Rice
(d) Wheat (e) Pulses
Q15. % of absorbed water used in photosynthesis is
(a) 10% (b) 0.2% (c) 9.7%
(d) 33% (e) 45%
Q16. Seed which is produced from nucleus seed is known as?
(a) Market seed (b) Truthful label seed
(c) Certified seed (d) Breeder seed
(e) None of these
Q17. In maize, a foundation single cross production field must be isolation by not
less than _________ mts from maize with internal colour or texture different from
that of seed part.
(a) 400 mts (b) 600 mts (c) 200 mts
(d) 250 mts (e) 350 mts
Q18. A group of similar plants in structural features and performance is known as
(a) variety (b) Clone (c) Pure line
(d) Inbred line (e) Species
Q19. Possible reasons for seed dormancy is
(a) Presence of pathogens (b) cracking of hulls
(c) Immature embryo (d) Green distortion (e) All of these
Q20. What is the purity percentage of Breeder seed
(a) 99% (b) 99.99% (c) 97.5%
Q21. The seed which farms generally used are called
(a) Breeder seed (b) Foundation seed
(c) Certified seed (d) Nucleus seed
(e) Truthful labelled seed

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Q22. Mode of pollination in maize is

(a) Self-Pollination (b) Vegetative propagation
(c) Cross-Pollination (d) Autogamy (e) Both A and D
Q23. Seed drying is very important to maintain its
(a) Viability and vigour (b) Protein content
(c) Oil content (d) Chemical composition
(e) All of these
Q24. Argemone mexicana is an objectional weed in
(a) Wheat (b) Barley (c) Rice
(d) Chick pea (e) None of these
Q25. The two most important factors influencing the life spam of seeds under
storage are:
(a) Relative humidity and temperature
(b) Rainfall and RH (c) Climate and temperature
(d) Seed size and moisture content
(e) None of these
Q26. The chemical seed treatment is given to control
(a) Fungi & bacteria (b) Soil insects (c) Storage insects
(d) Seed Disease (e) All of these
Q27. Maximum moisture content for safe storage in wheat seed is
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 7
(d) 16 (e) None of these
Q28. Seed coat is derived from
(a) Testa (b) Embryo (c) Outer part
(d) Nucellus (e) None of these
Q29. The factors affecting the final marketing price of crops seed are
(a) Input costs (b) Supply and demand
(c) Prices of other farm produce & time trend
(d) None of these (e) All of these
Q30. Basic input of Agriculture is
(a) Seed (b) Fertiliser (c) Soil
(d) Irrigation (e) Plant
Q31. Seed certification Involves:
(a) 1 phase (b) 3 pahse (c) 5 phase
(d) 7 phase (e) 9 phase
Q32. Slow drying seed is
(a) Cereals (b) Rapeseed and mustard
(c) Grass (d) Pulses (e) Wheat

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Q33. The minimum germination (%) in paddy seed for meeting certification
requirement must be
(a) 60% (b) 70% (c) 80%
(d) 90% (e) 99.5%
Q34. Seed dormancies are shown by
a) Nigella b) Xanthium c) Tomato
d) Lettuce
(a) Only a and b (b) Only a, b and c
(c) Only a, b and d (d) only b (e) None of these
Q35. +ve photoblastic seeds are
(a) Nigella (b) Silene (c) Nemophills
(d) Arraranutum (e) None of these
Q36. Tag colour of certified seed is
(a) Red (b) Green (c) azure blue
(d) Violet (e) Orange
Q37. Epigeal germination is found in
(a) Pea (b) Gram (c) Cucumber
(d) Mango (e) None of these
Q38. Germination is inhibited by
(a) Red light (b) Blue light (c) IR light
(d) UV light (e) None of these
Q39. Average Wight (in grans) of 100 paddy seeds is
(a) 15-20 Grams (b) 20-25 Grams (c) 25-30 Grams
(d) 35-40 Grams (e) 45-50 Grams
Q40. Indian cotton is
(a) G. herbaceium (b) G. arboretum (c) G. hirsutum
(d) G. barbadense (e) All of these
Q41. Central Seed Testing and Referral Laboratory (CSTL) is located at?
(a) New Delhi (b) Jaipur (c) Varanasi
(d) Hyderabad (e) Bhopal
Q42. REAL VALUE of seed usually preferred for sowing purpose should be
(a) 50% (b) 60% (c) >70%
Q43. Nutrient helpful for the transfer of sugar is
(a) K (b) Ca (c) P
(d) Mg (e) N
Q44. The dwarf variety of rice released in India is
(a) IR-8 (b) TN-4 (c) Jaya

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(d) PR-10 (e) All of these

Q45. Seed of Rubber is viable for
(a) 1 year (b) 3 years (c) 5 years
(d) 7 Years (e) 10 Years
Q46. During germination radical and plumule develop from
(a) Seed (b) seed coat (c) Embryo
(d) Testa (e) From soil only
Q47. Production of seedless grapes require:
(a) Gibberellins (b) NAA (c) Ethylene
(d) IAA (e) IBA
Q48. First super fine aromatic Basmati hybrid released in India is
(a) GEB 24 (b) PUSA RH-23
(c) PUSA RH – 10 (d) PUSA Basmati – 1 (e) None of these
Q49. In seed technology the term ’’ Ear” means
(a) Ear of seed (b) Quality of seed
(c) Type of inflorescence (d) Vigor of seed (e) All of these
Q50. Seed priming improves the
(a) Ear of seed (b) Quality of seed (c) Vigor of seed
(d) Condition of seed (e) All of these
Q51. Pusa snow ball is variety of
(a) Sapota (b) Cauliflower (c) Ber
(d) Cabbage (e) Apple
Q52. ISTA was established in the year
(a) 1871 (b) 1876 (c) 1921
(d) 1924 (e) 1948
Q53. While sampling from a seed lot of 50 bags, the minimum number of primary
sample should be
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15
(d) 20 (e) 27
Q54. Certified seed of cotton should have minimum germination of
(a) 50% (b) 60% (c) 70%
(d) 80% (e) 90%
Q55. Male sterility is used to develop
(a) Inbreds (b) Hybrids (c) Synthetics
(d) More number of seed (e) None of these
Q56. Occurrence of more than one embryo in seed is known as
(a) Polysomy (b) Polyembryony (c) Apogamy
(d) Cleistogamy (e) Chasmogamy

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Q57. Seedlessness in fruit is called as

(a) Parthenogenesis (b) Parthenocarpy (c) Apomixis
(d) Hybridization (e) None of these
Q58. First hybrid of pegionpea in the world is
(a) ICPH -8 (b) ICPH -10
(c) PUSA – Arhar (d) PUSA HR -1 (e) None of these
Q59. The moisture content for safe storage of cereals is
(a) 12-14% (b) 14-16% (c) 16-18%
(d) 18-20% (e) 28-30%
Q60. Percent oil content is highest in
(a) Sesamum (b) Groundnut (c) Castor
(d) Soybean (e) Rice
1. D 2. A 3. C 4.D 5. B 6. A 7. D 8.C 9. B 10. A
11.C 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. A 18. A 19.C 20. E
21. C 22. C 23. A 24.E 25.A 26.E 27. A 28. A 29. D 30. A
31. C 32. D 33.C 34.A 35. D 36. C 37. C 38. C 39. B 40. B
41. C 42.C 43.A 44. C 45.D 46. C 47.A 48. C 49.C 50. C
51. B 52. D 53. B 54. B 55. B 56.B 57. B 58.A 59. A 60. A
Never give up, it might be hard today,

but tomorrow will be better. Study hard
for a better tomorrow.

94 | P a g e
Animal Husbandry (Model paper)-1

Q1. A male calf under one year of age will be referred to which among the among the
following?
(a) Calf (b) Bull calf (c) Bull
(d) Bullock (e) All of these
Q2. Which among the following feed contains less than 18% crude fiber?
(a) Grains (b) Oilcakes (c) Hay
(d) Silage (e) Both a & b
Q3. Which among the following parasite is being removed during Deticking?
(a) Luke worm (b) Round worm (c) Coccidia
(d) Lice (e) All of these
Q4. The time interval between date of drying off the cow to the date of next calving will
be known as?
(a) Lactation length (b) Gestation period
(c) Heat Period (d) Dry period
(e) Intercalving period
Q5. A ration given daily to the animal to maintain in resting nonproduction condition
with good health is known as?
(a) Production Ration (b) Protein supplement
(c) Maintenance ration (d) Balance ration
(e) Ideal Ration
Q6. Mating of a crossbred back to its recessive parent will be known as?
(a) Criss crossing (b) Test cross (c) Back cross
(d) Out crossing (e) Cross breeding
Q7. In the rumen the feed is subjected to microbial fermentation. What is the
temperature ( in degree Celsius)of rumen?
(a) 25- 30 (b) 30-34 (c) 35-38
(d) 38-40 (e) >40
Q8. What is the body temperature of Sheep (in degree Fahrenheit)
(a) 39.1 (b) 41.7 (c) 101
(d) 102.4 (e) 38.3
Q9. The oestrus cycle of swine is of how many days?
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 18
(d) 21 (e) 25
Q10. Which among the following are symptoms of heat in animal?
(a) The animal will reduce the intake of feed
(b) Frequent maturation (urination) will be observed
(c) Swelling of the valva (d) Milk production will be slightly decreased
(e) All of these

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Q11. What is the Intercalving period of Exotic cow?

(a) 15 months (b) 24 months (c) 18-24 months
(d) 12-13 months (e) 30 months
Q12. Which Secondary nutrient is lowest in Pig?
(a) Ca (b) S (c) Mg
(d) Mn (e) P
Q13.In which of the oestrus cycle the female is ready to receive male?
(a) Proestrum (b) Oestrum (c) Metoestrum
(d) Diestrum (e) None of these
Q14. Feed to the new born calf. What is daily weight gain of well-fed crossbreed calf?
(a) 400 gms (b) 325 grams (c) 200 grams
(d) 250 grams (e) 180 grams
Q15. What is the age at first calving of heifers?
(a) 20-24 months (b) 25-28 months (c) 28-30 months
(d) 30- 32 months (e) 32-35 months
Q16. What is the open area floor space requirement (m2) of buffaloes?
(a) 3 (b) 3.5 (c) 4
(d) 8 (e) 12
Q17. In double row type of housing how many animals can stay in tail to tail system?
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 17
(d) 20 (e) 28
Q18. Which among the following breeds of cattle is a draft purpose breed?
(a) Kankrej (b) Tharparkar (c) Deoni
(d) Kangyam (e) Mewati
Q19. Which among the following is true about Gir breed of Cattle?
(a) Horn curved (Half-moon appearance)
(b) AFC: 45-54 months (c) Origin is Gujrat
Q20. Which among the following is the heaviest Indian cattle breeds?
(a) Kngayam (b) Holstein Friesian (c) Tharparkar
(d) Kankrej (e) Karan swiss
Q21. Which among the following buffalo breed belongs to Gujrat group on
geographical location?
(a) Nili-ravi (b) Bhadawari (c) Jaffarbadi
(d) Godavari (e) Tarai
Q22. Which among the following is a non specific disorder in animals?
(a) Deficiency of protein (b) FMD (c) Anthrax
(d) Milk fever (e) calf scours
Q23. What is the Gestation period of Brown swiss in days?

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(a) 275 (b) 279 (c) 284

(d) 286 (e) 290
Q24. Cattle first develop 20 temporary teeth, known also as deciduous, milk, or baby
teeth. How many permanent teeth are there in cattle dentition?
(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30
(d) 28 (e) 32
Q25. Which among the following is an exotic breed of Pig?
(a) Ghungroo (b) Ankamali (c) Tany-Vo
(d) Large White York Shire (e) Agonda Goan
Q26. Which among the following is related with NDDB?
(a) Operation Flood (b) White revolution
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri (d) both a & b (e) All of these
Q27. Which among the following has least fat in its composition?
(a) Colostrum of Cow milk (b) Colostrum of Buffalo milk
(c) Sheep Milk (d) Buffalo milk (e) Both b & d
Q28. According to 20th Livestock census, Which state has highest buffalo population?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujrat (c) U.P.
(d) Madhya Pradesh (e) Bihar
Q29. In evaporated milk how much water is evaporated?
(a) 20-30 % (b) 30-40 % (c) 40-50 %
(d) 50-60 % (e) > 80 %
Q30. Which among the following is a Non-fermented product of Milk?
(a) Shrikhand (b) Yogurt (c) Butter milk
(d) Colustrum (e) Yogurt
Q31. What is the optimum temperature for Layers (in degree Celsius)?
(a) 13-20 (b) 20-23 (c) 24-26
Q32. The lightest body weighed goat is ?
(a) Beetal (b) Jamnapari (c) Toggenburg
(d) Barbari (e) Nellore
Q33. Bhadawari is the synonym of which of the following cow breed?
(a) Sahiwal (b) Red Sindhi (c) Gir
(d) Deoni (e) Rathi
Q34. Which of the following buffalo breed is best for milk production?
(a) Murrah (b) Bhadawari (c) Jaffarbadi
(d) Nili Ravi (e) Pandharpuri
Q35. Funnel shaped teats are found in which of the following breed?
(a) Nili ravi (b) Jaffarbadi (c) Surti
(d) Toda (e) Pandharpuri

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Q36. Crazy chick disease is caused by the deficiency of?

(a) Vit-A (b) Vit-B (c) Vit-C
(d) Vit-E (e) Minerals
Q37. Temperature required pasteurization in HTST method?
(a) 55-60°c (b) 71-76°c (c) 148°c
(d) 90-105°c (e) 100 °c
Q38. Parturition of pig is called.
(a) Calving (b) Lambing (c) kidding
(d) Farrowing (e) Covering
Q39. Body temperature of cow (Degree F) is?
(a) 100 (b) 101.5 (c) 102
(d) 107 (e) 100
Q40. Which of the following is viral disease of cattle?
(a) Anthrax (b) FMD (c) Riderpest
(d) Both B and C (e) None of these
Q41. In which of the following species milk having highest solid not fat?
(a) Cow (b) Buffalo (c) Goat
(d) Sheep (e) Camel
Q42. What is the average specific gravity of milk fat
(a) 0.93 (b) 1.346 (c) 1.666
(d) 4.12 (e) 1.616
Q43. If solid not fat percentage is deducted from total solid, what will be the remaining
part?
(a) TS (b) SNF (c) Fat
(d) Water (e) Milk
Q44. Three tier milk model is related to?
(a) Nestle (b) AMUL (c) Mother dairy
(d) Creamline Dairy Products (e) None of these
Q45. What is the percentage of total solid in condensed milk?
(a) 21 (b) 45 (c) 58
(d) 73 (e) 99
Q46. What is the moisture percentage in Skim milk powder?
(a) 8 (b) 3 (c) 2
(d) 1 (e) 0
Q47. Colostrum is the first secretion after parturition. The yellow colour of colostrum is
due to…………?
(a) Casein (b) Carotene (c) Lysine
(d) Globulin (e) Albumin
Q48. National livestock mission was launched in which year?

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(a) 2014-15 (b) 2015-16 (c) 2013-14

(d) 2012-13 (e) 2010-11
Q49. Colostrum is very good source of energy and antibodies. Colostrum is very rich
source of
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin B (e) A And B Both
Q50. What is the heat cycle/period of dairy cow?
(a) 25-30 Hours (b) 18-24Hours (c) 12-16 hours
(d) 14-18 Hours (e) B and D Both
Q51. Operation flood is related with milk production. It was completed in three phases.
Duration of third phase is?
(a) 1970-1978 (b) 1965-1970 (c) 1978-1985
(d) 1985-1995 (e) 1972-1978
Q52. What is the cover area (M2) requirement for bulls?
(a) 2 (b) 3.5 (c) 4
(d) 8 (e) 12
Q53. How many animals can be kept in Single row system?
(a) 8 (b) 15 (c) 22
(d) 30 (e) 35
Q54. What is the optimum lactation period (days) of dairy cattle?
(a) 203 (b) 220 (c) 260
(d) 305 (e) 380
Q55. Which among the following is a viral disease ?
(a) Milk fever (b) Bloat (c) FMD
(d) Anthrax (e) HS
Q56. According to 20th livestock census What is the total population of
Exotic/Crossbred cattle in India?
(a) 51 million (b) 82 million (c) 139 million
(d) 151 million (e) None of these
Q57. What is the average age of first calving/lactation for exotic/crossbred cows?
(a) 50 months (b) 40 months (c) 32 months
(d) 28 months (e) 22 months
Q58. White leghorn breed of chicken is best egg laying type breed. Which country is the
domestic place of this breed?
(a) Rod island in new England (b) India (c) England
(d) Brazil (e) Italy
Q59. Mastitis, a potentially fatal mammary gland infection, is the most common disease
in dairy cattle. Which of the following medicine is suitable for mastitis disease?
(a) Novalgin ( b) Esgipyrin (c) Replanta

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(d) Pendistrin (e) None of these

Q60. Lapinised swine fever and irradiated sheep lung worm vaccines developed were
developed by IVRI in which year?
(a) 1973 (b) 1992 (c) 2008
(d) 2012 (e) January 2021
1.B 2. E 3. D 4. D 5.C 6. B 7. D 8.D 9. D 10.E
11.D 12.C 13.B 14. A 15. B 16. D 17.E 18. D 19. E 20.D
21. C 22. D 23. E 24.E 25. D 26. E 27. A 28.C 29. D 30. D
31.A 32.D 33.C 34. A 35. B 36. D 37. B 38.D 39. B 40. D
41. D 42.A 43. C 44. B 45.D 46. B 47.B 48. A 49.A 50. B
51.D 52. E 53. B 54.D 55. C 56.A 57. D 58.E 59.D 60. A
Being successful depends on how you manage

your time. We all have 24 hours, how you use
your time is all that matters.

100 | P a g e
Animal Husbandry (Model paper)-2

Q1. Which breed of buffalo is famous by the name 'Panchkalyani'
(a) Murrah (b) Bhadawari (c) Toda
(d) Niliravi (e) Jafrabadi
Q2. Best method of age determination in cattle is-
(a) Nails (b) Height of cattle
(c) Dental formula (d) Hoofs (e) Tail
Q3. At NDRI 'Garima' a cloned buffalo calf was born on?
(a) 6th Jan, 2009 (b) 6 feb,2009
(c) 15th March, 2010 (d) 18th April, 2012
(e) 19th June, 2013
Q4. In cows first ring on horn appears at the age of?
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years (c) 5 years
(d) 6 years (e) 7 years
Q5. Calving interval in cows should not be more than?
(a) 10-12 months (b) 13- 15 months
(c) 6-7 months (d) 4-5 months
(e) 16-17 months
Q6. Which method is used for bloodless castration
(a) Reuff's method (b) Alternative method
(c) Burdizzo method (d) Both a & b
(e) All of these
Q7. The muscular structure hanging below the neck in cattle is called as
(a) Throat (b) Dewlap (c) Trunk
(d) Chest (e) Heart
Q8. Formulation used to prevent ascariasis in calves at age of 6 weeks?
(a) Piperazine salts (b) Phenothiazine
(c) Hexa chloro ethane (d) Thiabendazole
(e) None of these
Q9. How many temporary or deciduous molars are present in cattle?
(a) 0 (b) 8 (c) 12
(d) 20 (e) 32
Q10. Blue tongue takes how much time between exposure to an infection and the
appearance of the first symptoms?
(a) 1-4 days (b) 5-20 days
(c) 20-25 days (d) 26-30 days
(e) More than one month
Q11. Which among the following is an exotic breed of Pig/ swine?
(a) Agonda Goan (b) Tany-Vo
(c) Niang Megha (d) Hampshire
(e) All of these

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Q12. Good quality semen is produced at the age of ?

(a) 18-20 months (b) 20- 23 months
(e) 28-30 months
Q13. Lactose of milk can be digested by which enzyme in human body?
(a) Amylase (b) Chymosin (c) Lipase
(d) Lactase (e) Maltase
Q14. World milk day is celebrated on which date?
(a) 26 November (b) 14 December (c) 1st January
(d) 26 October (e) None of these
Q15. Total protein present in colostrum of buffalo milk is?
(a) 3.34 (b) 6 (c) 7.12
(d) 21.32 (e) 23.8
Q16. A concentrated sweetened product comprising several layers of clotted cream is
known as?
(a) Chhaina (b) Khoa (c) Rabri
(d) Colustrum (e) Shrikhand
Q17. The bacterial fermentation of fat is done by which of the following organism?
(a) Streptococcus lactis (b) Bacillus subtilis
(c) Lactobacillus thermophillus
(d) Pseudomonas fragi (e) None of these
Q18. In evaporated milk, the raw milk is clarified and concentrated in a vacuum at a
temperature of (in degree celcius)?
(a) 40- 50 (b) 50- 56 (c) 60- 70
(d) 74-77 (e) 77- 80
Q19. Centrifugal separation of microorganisms from milk is known as ?
(a) Microfiltration (b) Bactofugation
(c) Clarification (d) Homogenization
(e) Sterilization
Q20. Which among the following milking method is injurious to the teat of cattle while
milking?
(a) Stripping (b) Fisting
(c) Machine Method (d) Knuckling method
(e) None of these
Q21. According to FSSAI standards, how much minimum fat should be present in
Recombined milk?
(a) 3 % (b) 4 % (c) 4.5 %
(d) 5 % (e) 7 %
Q22. When all the cream is removed from the whole milk it is known as?
(a) Cream less Milk (b) Recombined Milk
(c) Skimmed milk (d) Toned milk

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(e) Standardized milk

Q23. How much whey content is present in milk protein?
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 50
(d) 70 (e) 80
Q24. Which among the following is not a characteristic of Concentrate given to cattle as a
feed?
(a) It contains 10 % moisture (b) Highly digestible
(c) It is bulky in nature (d) Keeping quality is high
(e) Crude fiber less than 18%
Q25. Young animals generally require more water than adult per unit of body weight.
Which among the following require high water requirement?
(a) Beef cattle (b) Sheep (c) Dairy cattle
(d) Goat (e) Chickens
Q26. Which among the following is true regarding Blue tongue disease?
(a) Non contagious (b) Insect-borne
(c) Viral disease of ruminants
(d) It occurs mainly in sheep and less frequently cattle, goats, buffalo
(e) All of these
Q27. Tendency to walk on hocks, dermatitis on corners of mouth, vent and foot pads is due
to the deficiency of which among the following nutrient?
(a) Vit A (b) Vit B1 (c) Vit B2
(d) Vit B12 (e) Zinc Deficiency
Q28. Deworming is practiced at which time in Layer birds?
(a) 3-10 days interval (b) At intervals of 45days
(c) Before RDVK (d) Both a & c
(e) Both b & c
Q29. What is the preferable humidity percentage for Layers?
(a) 50 % (b) 60 % (c) 75 %
(d) 80 % (e) 90 %
Q30. How much floor space is required for the layer management (in square feet)?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4
(d) 6 (e) 6.5
Q31. Which disease of pig is caused by intercellular parasite resulting in blood diarrhoea?
(a) Coccidiosis (b) Swine dysentery
(c) Pasteurellosis (d) Exudative dermatitis
(e) None of these
Q32. Which animal product is having highest Protein content?
(a) Cow milk (b) Eggs (c) Meat
(d) Fish (e) All of these
Q33. Which among the following drug is used for deworming of poultry birds?
(a) Antihistamines (b) Antihelminthic

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(c) Antibiotics (d) Antivirals (e) Ascaricides

Q34. New born horse is known as which among the following?
(a) Lamb (b) Kid (c) Foal
(d) Piglet (e) Capon
Q35. Which among the following is a dual-purpose Poultry breed?
(a) Leghorn (b) Cornish
(c) Rhode island red (d) Aseel (e) Kadaknath
Q36. A specially designed trough or utensil where feed for chicken is kept.
(a) Feed hopper (b) Brooder house (c) Layer house
(d) Laying nest (e) None of these
Q37. Which among the following treatment is used for Enterotoxemia?
(a) Sulphadimidine (b) Tetra cycline
(c) Streptomycin (d) Both a & b (e) All of these
Q38. The most common exotic dairy breeds are Friesian, Holstein, Ayrshire, Jersey and
Guernsey. What is the average yield rate for milk in India for indigenous cows?
(a) 3.41 (b) 11.21 (c) 7.33
(d) 2.16 (e) 3.80
Q39. According to NABARD how much covered area required for calves between the age
of 3-6 month's in meter square?
(a) 1.0 (b) 2.0 (c) 1.5
(d) 0.75 (e) 4.0
Q40. Age of the first calving is maximum in which of buffalo breed?
(a) Pandharpuri (b) Bhadawari (c) Murrah
(d) Mehsana (e) Surti
Q41. The Central Frozen Semen Production and Training Institute is one of the premier
Institute of Animal Husbandry, is located at (HQ)—
(a) Hessarghatta (Karnataka) (b) Sunabada (Orissa)
(c) Suratgarh (Rajasthan) (d) Andeshnagar (Uttarakhand)
(e) Dhamrod (Gujarat)
Q42. White leghorn breed of chicken is best egg laying type breed. Which country is the
domestic place of this breed?
(a) Rod island in new England (b) India (c) Argentina
(d) Brazil (e) Italy
Q43. What is the mode of transmission Calf diphtheria disease?
(a) Bacterial (b) Viral (c) Fungus
(d) Nematodes (e) None of these
Q44. Which breed of goat known for ultra-fine cashmere wool?
(a) Changthangi (b) Barbari
(c) Black Bengal (d) Kutchi
(e) None of these

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Q45. The Kadaknath or Kali Masi is an Indian breed of chicken local to Jhabua and Dhar
districts of western Madhya Pradesh, where it is known as "Kali masi". Due to its high
protein and very low fat and cholesterol levels, it is in high demand. Which place is the
origin of Kadaknath breed?
(a) M.P (b) Bihar (c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Tamilnadu (e) Hyderabad
Q46. Exotic breed of sheep for the purpose of mutton?
(a) Corridale (b) Merino (c) Dorset
(d) Pol worth (e) Karakul
Q47. Toda is a breed of which among the following
(a) Sheep (b) Goat (c) Cattle
(d) Buffalo (e) Swine
Q48. Which among the following is an important buffer component of milk?
(a) Lactose (b) Casein (c) Fat
(d) Protein (e) Mineral
Q49. Colostrum coagulates on heating due to the presence of which of the following?
(a) Lactose (b) Casein (c) Fat
(d) Protein (e) Mineral
Q50. How much open floor space is satisfactory for an adult cow in shed?
(a) 85-90 sq. feet (b) 15-20 sq. feet
(c) 20-25 sq. feet (d) 65-70 sq. feet
(e) None of these
Q51. In which month adult cattle is vaccinated for anthrax disease?
(a) January to February (b) March to April
(c) April to may (d) June to July
(e) August to September
Q52. A system of mating in which each male individual has an equal opportunity to mate
with the female individual and vice versa is known as?
(a) Random mating (b) Phenotypic disassortative mating
(c) Genetic assortative mating (d) Inbreeding
(e) Cross breeding
Q53. Which among the following has least dry period?
(a) Exotic Breed (b) Cross breed
(c) Indigenous breed (d) Non-descript breed
(e) None of these
Q54. Which among the following bull is used for breeding purposes?
(a) Scrub bull (b) Pedigree bull
(c) Stud Bull (d) Bull calf (e) None of these
Q55. In India, maximum amount of milk is utilized in.....? (FSO 2019)
(a) Ghee making (b) Khoa making
(c) Liquid milk (d) Powder making

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(e) Curd making

Q56. Milk is secreted from
(a) Teat cistern (b) Ducts of udder
(c) Blood vessels of udder (d) Alveolar cells of udder
(e) None of these
Q57. Calcium deficiency in blood causes _ in animals (MCEAR-2019)
(a) Mastitis (b) Anthrax (c) FMD
(d) Milk fever (e) Rabies
Q58. Temperature for artificial vagina in buffalo (in degree Celsius)
(a) 41 (b) 39 (c) 45
(d) 32 (e) 36
Q59. White scours usually occurs in ? (Raj pre pg-2014)
(a) Calves (b) Heifers
(c) Lactating cow (d) Pregnant cow (e) Buffalo
Q60. National Research Centre for horse is located at?
(a) Hisar (b) Ludhiana (c) Izatnagar
(d) New Delhi (e) Hyderabad
1.D 2. C 3. B 4. B 5.E 6. C 7. B 8.D 9. A 10.B
11.D 12. C 13.D 14. E 15. E 16. C 17.D 18. D 19.B 20.D
21. A 22.C 23. A 24.C 25. C 26. E 27. C 28.E 29. B 30.B
31.B 32.C 33.B 34.C 35. C 36. A 37. E 38.A 39. C 40. A
41. A 42.E 43.A 44. A 45.A 46.C 47.D 48. B 49.B 50. D
51.C 52. A 53. A 54.C 55. C 56.D 57. D 58.B 59.A 60. A
Study like this is the last day before your exams

because if you keep on postponing before you
realize it, it will be too late.

106 | P a g e
Animal Husbandry (Model Paper)-3

Q1. Colostrum is:
(a) Oil extracted from coconut (b) the blood corpuscles
(c) The fat derived from hog (d) Secretion of udder just after calving
(e) Secretion of udder before calving
Q2. Zebu is a term which refers to:
(a) Indian cattle as known in Europe (b) European cattle
(c) Breed of buffalo in China (d) Flock of sheep
(e) Herd of cows
Q3. The pulse rate per minute of sheep and goat is about:
(a) 70-80 (b) 80-100 (c) 120-140
(d) 140-160 (e) 160-180
Q4. The body temperature of cattle is:
(a) 100-1020 F (b) 104o F (c) 99-100o F
(d) 105-107o F (e) 115-127o F
Q5. The normal respiration rate per minute of cattle is?
(a) 8-16 (b) 20-25 (c) 12-20
(d) 5-7 (e) 50-52
Q6. In poultry, the part of digestive tract which acts as a reserve to hold the moistened feed
is known as:
(a) Gizzard (b) Pro-ventriculus (c) rumen
(d) Crop (e) None of these
Q7. Which of the following states has the largest goat population?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Rajasthan
(d) Bihar (e) Telangana
Q8. One of the best dual-purpose breed of cattle is?
(a) Jersey (b) Sahiwal (c) Sindhi
(d) Haryana (e) Tharparkar
Q9. Amongst the exotic breeds of cattle maximum milk is produced by:
(a) Holstein Friesian (b) Jersey (c) Red den
(d) Brown Swiss (e) Sahiwal
Q10. The breeding in which pure breed sires of given breed are used to grade females of
the same breed is called:
(a) Line breeding (b) Pure breeding c) Cross breeding
(d) Up-grading (e) None of these
Q11. Which one of the following is not a determining factor in selecting a dairy cattle?
(a) Pedigree record (b) Production record (c) Body capacity
(d) Physical appearance (e) None of these
Q12. Which one of the following disease of animals is caused by virus?
(a) Brucellosis (b) Tuberculosis (c) Pox
(d) Anthrax (e) None of these

107 | P a g e
Q13. The American class of exotic breeds of poultry are specially bred for the production
of?
(a) Meat (b) Meat and eggs (c) Eggs
(d) Broilers (e) Manure
Q14. The number of chromosomes in a somatic cell of buffalo is:
(a) 22 pairs (b) 24 pairs (c) 30 pairs
(d) 42 pairs (e) 46 pairs
Q15. The term flushing means:
(a) To clean the animals using a sprayer
(b) To drain the waste material
(c) Lambing in sheep (d) Feeding liberally before breeding of sheep
(e) Feeding liberally after breeding of sheep
Q16. The breed of buffalo which has great capacity to consume coarse feed is:
(a) Jaffarbadi (b) Mehsana (c) Nagpuri
(d) Murrah (e) Sahiwal
Q17. The breed of buffalo which produces milk containing the highest amount of fat is:
(a) Jaffarabadi (b) Bhadawari (c) Nagpuri
(d) Murrah (e) Haryana
Q18. The disease which is not caused by bacteria is:
(a) Anthrax (b) Tuberculosis (c) HS
(d) Rabies (e) All of these caused by bacteria
Q19. Sudden death without apparent cause may indicate the possibility of the disease of:
(a) Anthrax (b) Brucellosis (c) Rinderpest
(d) Tuberculosis (e) Rabies
Q20. The state in India where per capita availability of milk is the highest is:
(a) Rajasthan (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Punjab
(d) Himachal Pradesh (e) Haryana
Q21. Which of the following species has maximum amount of total solids in milk;
(a) Goat (b) Cow (c) Sheep
(d) Camel (e) Buffalo
Q22. The interval between one heat period to the next is known as;
(a) Gestation period (b) Oestrus cycle (c) Service period
(d) Intercalving period (e) None of these
Q23. Rumen is found in:
(a) Hog (b) Poultry (c) Cattle
(d) Dog (e) None of these
Q24. The meat of pig is known as:
(a) Chevon (b) Pork (c) Beef
(d) mutton (e) Chicken
Q25. The highest milk producing indigenous breed of cattle is:
(a) Sindhi (b) Haryana (c) Sahiwal

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(d) Tharparkar (e) Kankrej

Q26. The meat of calf is called as:
(a) Pork (b) Veal (c) Chevon
(d) Mutton (e) Chicken
Q27. The term let down of milk refers to
(a) Release of milk by contraction of alveoli
(b) Collection of milk in milk bucket
(c) Milk milked before calving (d) Colostrum (e) None of these
Q28. The maximum protein content is present in the milk of
(a) Sheep (b) Buffalo (c) Goat
(d) Cow (e) Pig
Q29. The maximum total solids are present in the milk of:
(a) Buffalo (b) Cow (c) Goat
(d) Sheep (e) Horse
Q30. The amount of feeds given to the animal during a period of 24 hours is defined as:
(a) Balanced ration (b) Optimum ration (c) Ration
(d) Ideal ration (e) Feed
Q31. The best dual purpose cattle amongst the following is:
(a) Sahiwal (b) Kankrej (c) Amritmahal
(d) Tharparkar (e) Gir
Q32. National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) is located at:
(a) Anand (b) Ludhiana (c) Karnal
(d) Hisar (e) Nashik
Q33. Central Arid Zone Research Institute (CAZRI) is located at:
(a) New Delhi (b) Hyderabad (c) Jodhpur
(d) Jaipur (e) Bhopal
Q34. Rise in temperature,. Lameness and painful swelling in well developed muscles in
cattle are the symptoms of:
(a) Black quarter (b) Rinderpest (c) Antrax
(d) Coccidiosis (e) FMD
Q35. Total digestible nutrients (TDN) required for production of one kg of milk by a cow
depends upon the:
(a) Weight of the animal (b) Age of the animal
(c) Percentage of fat in milk (d) Percentage of protein in milk
(e) None of these
Q36. Foot and mouth disease (FMD) does not occur in:
(a) Cattle (b) Buffalo (c) Sheep
(d) Poultry (e) Cow
Q37. Which one of the following fodders is generally not used for silage making:
(a) Maize (b) Sorghum (c) Wheat straw
(d) Bajra (e) All of these are used for fodder

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Q38. In Cows, the gestation period is of:

(a) 150 days (b) 280 days (c) 310 days
(d) 365 days (e) 301 days
Q39. Casting means:
(a) Making an animal sterile (b) Throwing the animal on the ground
(c) Securing the animal in travis (d) Restraining a bullock with rein ropes
(e) None of these
Q40. A normal dry period of cow should be:
(a) 60-65 days (b) 90-100 day (c) 100-120 days
(d) 120-150 days (e) 150-180 days
Q41. Intercalving period in normal cows should be:
(a) 13-15 months (b) 15-18 months (c) 24 months
(d) 24-30 months (e) More than 30 months
Q42. Milk from cows suffering from the following disease is unit for human consumption
as the diseases are communicable to man:
(a) Tuberculosis & Rinderpest (b) Tuberculosis & Brucellosis
(c) Brucellosis & Black quarter (d) Brucellosis & FMD
(e) None of these
Q43. A hormone released from the posterior pituitary required for milk let-down is:
(a) Vassopressin (b) Epinephrine (c) Oxytocin
(d) ADH (e) Prolactin
Q44. The signs of heat are shown by a cow during one of the phases of estrous cycle. The
phase is:
(a) Pro-estrus (b) Estrus (c) met-estrus
(d) Di-estrus (e) None of these
Q45. Heavy milkers will produce more milk if they are milked:
(a) Once a day (b) Twice a day (c) Thrice a day
(d) Four times a day (e) Five times a day
Q46. One of the common fungal diseases of livestock is:
(a) Rabies (b) Cowpox (c) Anthrax
(d) Ringworm (e) None of these
Q47. A male calf under one year of age will be referred to which among the among the
following?
(a) Calf (b) Bull calf (c) Bull
(d) Bullock (e) All of these
Q48. Which among the following feed contains less than 18% crude fiber?
(a) Grains (b) Oilcakes (c) Hay
(d) Silage (e) Both a & b
Q49. Which among the following parasite is being removed during Deticking?
(a) Luke worm (b) Round worm (c) Coccidia
(d) Lice (e) All of these

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Q50. The time interval between date of drying off the cow to the date of next calving will be
known as?
(a) Lactation length (b) Gestation period (c) Heat Period
(d) Dry period (e) Intercalving period
Q51. A ration given daily to the animal to maintain in resting nonproduction condition
with good health is known as?
(a) Production Ration (b) Protein supplement
(c) Maintenance ration (d) Balance ration (e) Ideal Ration
Q52. Mating of a crossbred back to its recessive parent will be known as?
(a) Criss crossing (b) Test cross (c) Back cross
(d) Out crossing (e) Cross breeding
Q53. In the rumen the feed is subjected to microbial fermentation. What is the temperature
( in degree Celsius)of rumen?
(a) 25- 30 (b) 30-34 (c) 35-38
(d) 38-40 (e) >40
Q54. What is the body temperature of Sheep (in degree Fahrenheit)
(a) 39.1 (b) 41.7 (c) 101
(d) 102.4 (e) 38.3
Q55. The oestrus cycle of swine is of how many days?
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 18
(d) 21 (e) 25
Q56. Which among the following are symptoms of heat in animal?
(a) The animal will reduce the intake of feed
(b) Frequent maturation (urination) will be observed
(c) Swelling of the valva (d) Milk production will be slightly decreased
(e) All of these
Q57. What is the Intercalving period of Exotic cow?
(a) 15 months (b) 24 months (c) 18-24 months
(d) 12-13 months (e) 30 months
Q58. Which Secondary nutrient is lowest in Pig?
(a) Ca (b) S (c) Mg
(d) Mn (e) P
Q59.In which of the oestrus cycle the female is ready to receive male?
(a) Proestrum (b) Oestrum (c) Metoestrum
(d) Diestrum (e) None of these
Q60. Feed to the new born calf. What is daily weight gain of well-fed crossbreed calf?
(a) 400 gms (b) 325 grams (c) 200 grams
(d) 250 grams (e) 180 grams

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1.D 2. A 3. A 4. A 5.B 6. D 7. C 8.D 9. A 10.D
11.C 12. C 13.B 14. C 15. D 16. C 17.B 18. D 19. A 20.C
21. C 22. B 23. C 24.B 25. C 26. B 27.A 28. A 29. D 30. C
31.D 32.C 33.C 34.A 35. C 36. D 37. C 38.B 39. B 40. A
41. A 42.B 43.C 44. B 45.C 46. D 47.B 48. E 49.D 50.D
51.C 52. B 53. D 54.D 55.D 56.E 57. D 58.C 59.B 60. A
Failure does not mean that’s the end of

the world. You need to stand up and
continue the journey, try again and again
until you make it.

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Plant Pathology (Model paper)-1

Q1. Malfunctioning process in plant body caused by continuous irritation by some
agent which results in some suffering or symptom production is called
(a) Healthy plant (b) Disease (c) Plant Pathology
Q2. In general sense, pathogen is
(a) Biotic factors (b) Abiotic factors
(c) Mesobiotic factors (d) Both a and c (e) None of these
Q3. ‘prevalent in’ or ‘confined to’ a particular area is called
(a) Endemic (b) Epidemic
(c) Sporadic (d) Pandemic (e) Disease
Q4. The disease responsible for long term poisoning due to Ergot is
(a) Early blight of potato (b) Late blight of potato
(c) Rice blast (d) Brown spot of rice (e) None of these
Q5. The oldest fungicide used for management of plant diseases
(a) Sulphur (b) Copper (c) Mercury
(d) Nickel (e) All of these
Q6. Study of living, non- living and environmental causes that induce disease in
plants is called
(a) Etiology (b) Epidemiology (c) Management
(d) Pathogenesis (e) Losses
Q7. Long term ergot poisoning is associated with
(a) Ralstonia solanacearum (b) Claviceps purpuea
(c) Clavibacter sp. (d) Phytophthora infestans
(e) Colletotrichum gloeosporioides
Q8. Total annual losses estimated worldwide
(a) 32.5% (b) 34.5% (c) 36.5%
(d) 38.5% (e) 31.5 %
Q9. Blossom end rot of tomato is caused due to deficiency of?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Boron (c) Calcium
(d) Silicon (e) Air pollution
Q10. In India, domestic quarantine is in force for which of the following banana
diseases?
(a) Moko disease (b) Panama wilt (c) Bunchy top
(d) Sigatoka disease (e) Anthracnose
Q11. Causal organism of Banana bunchy top disease is transmitted by
(a) Banana bunchy top virus (b) Bemisia tabaci

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(c) Pentalonia nigronervosa (d) Thrips (e) All of these

Q12. In Stem rust of wheat, repeated spores for secondary infection are due to
(a) Teliospores (b) Uredospores (c) Aeciospores
(d) Basidiospores (e) Spermatiospores
Q13. Southern corn leaf blight caused epidemic in US. It was caused
(a) Helminthosporium maydis
(b) Helminthosporium oryzae
(c) Ustilago scitaminea (d) Hemilia vestatrix (e) None of these
Q14. Rice tungro disease is transmitted by
(a) Myzus persicae (b) Bemisia tabaci
(c) Nepotettix virescens (d) Thrips tabaci (e) None of these
Q15. Apple scab is caused by
(a) Marsonnia coronaria (b) Venturia inaequalis
(c) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(d) Ralstonia solanacearum (e) Virus
Q16. Bacterial leaf blight is a serious disease of which of the following
(a) Wheat (b) Pea (c) Cotton
(d) Rice (e) Both c and d
Q17. Loose smut of wheat is
(a) Internally Seed-borne disease
(b) Externally seed borne disease
(c) Soil-borne disease (d) Air-borne disease
(e) Water borne disease
Q18. Rust belong to which of the following phylum
(a) Basidiomycota (b) Ascomycota (c) Zygomycota
(d) Chytridiomycota (e) Oomycota
Q19. In cotton, Bacterial leaf blight is also called
(a) Boll rot (b) Black Leg
(c) Angular leaf spot (d) Both A& c (e) All of these
Q20. Characteristic smell in field due to Karnal bunt of wheat is due to
(a) Trimethylamine (b) Triethylamine
(c) Dimethylamine (d) Diethylamine (e) All of these
Q21. Which of the following is called cancer of wheat
(a) Partial bunt (b) Flag smut (c) Karnal bunt
(d) Whip smut (e) Both a and c
Q22. Moko wilt in Banana is caused by
(a) Fungus (b) Nematode (c) Virus
(d) Phytoplasma (e) Bacteria

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Q23. Tundu disease of wheat is caused by:

(a) Nematode (b) Virus (c) Bacteria
(d) Fungi (e) Nematode & Bacteria
Q24. The causal organism of Orange rust in wheat is
(a) Puccinia striformis (b) P. graminis pv. tritici
(c) P. deconrita (d) P. graminis maydis
(e) None of these
Q25. Kresek symptom is produced
(a) Bacterial leaf blight of paddy
(b) Bacterial leaf blight of wheat
(c) Bacterial leaf blight of maize
(d) Bacterial leaf blight of Sugarcane
(e) Bacterial leaf streak of paddy
Q26. Word Phytopathology is derived from
(a) Greek word (b) Latin word (c) Arabic word
(d) Sanksrit word (e) None of these
Q27. Share of losses due to diseases in the world
(a) 15.1 % (b) 14.1% (c) 15.2%
(d) 10% (e) 20%
Q28. What is the meaning of Pathos ?
(a) Suffering (b) Diseases (c) Ailment
Q29. Examples of pathogens are
(a) Bacteria (b) Spiroplasma (c) Fungi
(d) Virus (e) All of these
Q30. Which of the following is dsDNA plant virus?
(a) Cauliflower mosaic virus
(b) Banana bunchy top virus
(c) Bacilliform DNA virus (d) All of these
(e) None of these
Q31. The uredia are arranged in rows on leaves in?
(a) black rust of wheat (b) brown rust of wheat
(c) yellow rust of wheat (d) rust of pea
(e) Smut of wheat
Q32. Which of the following is a sexual spore in fungi?
(a) Ascospore (b) Basidiospore (c) Oospore
Q33. Southern corn leaf blight was caused by

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(a) Race A (b) Race O (c) Race C

(d) Race T (e) None of these
Q34. Loose smut of wheat can be controlled by
(a) Soil application of vitavax
(b) Seed treatment with vitavax
(c) Spray of vitavax (d) Thiram (e) All of these
Q35. Specialized feeding hyphae are called:
(a) Arbuscules (b) Vesicles (c) Appressoria
(d) Haustoria (e) None of these
Q36. The symptom of this disease mainly occur on leaves then the leaf sheaths and
stem. Bright yellow pustules (Uredia) appear on leaves at early stage of crop and
pustules are arranged in linear rows as stripes. What is the name of the disease?
(a) Stem rust (b) Brown rust (c) Yellow rust
(d) Flag smut (e) All of these
Q37. The first book on Plant Pathology was written by
(a) Anton de Bary (b) Theophrastus (c) RS Singh
(d) Kuhn (e) Fischer
Q38. The first plant pathogenic bacterium was reported by
(a) TJ Burill (b) EF Smith (c) Woronin
(d) Fischer (e) None of these
Q39. The mass of Hyphae constitutes the fungus thallus is
(a) Mycelium (b) Rhizomorph (c) Stroma
Q40. The building block of plant virus is
(a) DNA and RNA (b) Only DNA (c) Only RNA
(d) DNA or RNA (e) Protein
Q41. Wart disease of potato is an example of
(a) Epidemic disease (b) Endemic disease (c) Sporadic disease
(d) Pandemic disease (e) Rare disease
Q42. Symptom of citrus canker appear on which of the plant parts
(a) Leaves (b) Fruits (c) Branch
Q43. Crop rotation is suggested against
(a) Air borne disease (b) Seed borne disease
(c) Aphid born disease (d) Soil born disease
(e) None of these
Q44. Causal agent of Black mildew in mango plant?
(a) Penicillium expansum (b) Botrytis cinereal

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(c) Meliola mangiferae (d) Aspergillus niger

(e) Xanthomonas campestris
Q45. Causal agent of Bacterial spot in citrus?
(a) Pseudomonas syringae (b) Xanthomonas campestris pv. citri
(c) Xanthomonas campestris pv. Citrumelo
(d) None of these (e) All of these
Q46. Which of the following is disease causing pathogen in citrus group?
(a) Oidium Caricae (b) Plasmopara viticola
(c) Colletotrichum gloeosporiodes
(d) Phytophthora parasitica (e) Cercospora spp
Q47. In which disease gall formation of root occurs:
(a) Root knot nematode (b) Bacterial blight
(c) Leaf rust (d) Powdery mildew
(e) Leaf spot
Q48. Cankerous spot formation occurs in which among the following disease?
(a) Bacterial canker (b) Leaf spot
(c) Root note nematode (d) Foot rot
(e) Leaf rust
Q49. Rotting of stem at ground level disease is known as
(a) Foot rot (b) Wilt (c) Leaf curl
(d) Molya disease (e) Leaf rust
Q50. Disease of rose grayish white powdery patches are seen on the tender leaves
and flower buds , mature leaves get malformed and flower bud fail to open and
plant present wilted appearance
(a) Powdery mildew (b) Down mildew
(c) Black spot (d) Rust (e) Crown gall
Q51. Aphid is responsible for which disease in tobacco
(a) Tobacco mosaic virus disease
(b) Tobacco leaf curl disease
(c) Tobacco wilt (d) Cucumber mosaic virus
(e) None of these
Q52. Which disease of groundnut is caused due to thrips?
(a) Stem rot (b) Bud necrosis (c) Root rot
(d) Alternaria (e) Leaf spot
Q53. Potato scab is commonly found in which kind of soil?
(a) Acidic soil (b) Calcareous soil
(c) Alkaline soil (d) Neutral soil
(e) None of these

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Q54. Pyricularia oryzae is related to which crop?

(a) Wheat (b) Maize
(c) Paddy (d) Banana (e) Mango
Q55. Fusarium wilt is commonly found in which kind of soil?
(a) Acidic soil (b) Calcareous soil
(c) Alkaline soil (d) Neutral soil
(e) None of these
Q56. Sooty or charcoal like powdery mass usually appearing on floral organs
particularly ovary, leaf, stem and roots is
(a) Bunt (b) Smut (c) Powdery mildew
(d) Downy mildew (e) Mottle
Q57. The presence of pathogen or its part on host plant
(a) Symptom (b) Sign (c) Syndrome
(d) Infection (e) Disease
Q58. Excessive development due to increase in number of cells
(a) Hyperplasia (b) Atrophy (c) Hypertrophy
(d) Hypotrophy (e) None of these
Q59. Father of modern experimental Plant Pathology
(a) EJ Butler (b) Anton de Bary
(c) Prevost (d) S. Nagarajan (e) Fischer
Q60. Most of the plant pathogenic bacteria are
(a) Rod shaped (b) Comma shaped (c) Circular
(d) Rectangular (e) filamentous
1. B 2. D 3. A 4.E 5. A 6.A 7. B 8.C 9.C 10.C
11.C 12. B 13. A 14.C 15. B 16. E 17. A 18. A 19. E 20. A
21. E 22.E 23. E 24.E 25.A 26.A 27. B 28. D 29.E 30. A
31. C 32.D 33.D 34.B 35. D 36. C 37. D 38. A 39.A 40. D
41. B 42.D 43. D 44. C 45.B 46. D 47.A 48. A 49.A 50. A
51. D 52. B 53. C 54.C 55. A 56.B 57.B 58.A 59. B 60. A

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Plant Pathology (Model paper)-2

Q1. Inhibition of an organism or its death by the action of toxic metabolites
produced by another organism is known as?
(a) Abiosis (b) Atrophy (c) Antibiosis
(d) Bacteriophage (e) None of these
Q2. Which among the following disease is caused by true bacteria?
(a) Brown Rot of Potato (b) Wilt of Potato
(c) Citrus canker (d) Both a & c
(e) All of these
Q3. Red rust of mango is which kind of disease?
(a) Bacterial (b) Fungal (c) Algal
(d) Protozoan (e) Metazoan
Q4. Which among the following is an externally seed borne disease?
(a) Loose smut of wheat (b) Peach leaf curl
(c) Tobacco ringspot
(d) Covered smut of barley (e) All of these
Q5. Ustilago nuda tritici is which kind of disease?
(a) Soil borne disease (b) Internal seed borne disease
(c) External seed borne disease
(d) Air borne disease (e) Water borne disease
Q6. In which among the following disease, the fungus mycelium may be present in
dormant state in the affected twigs?
(a) Downy mildew of grapevine
(b) Powdery mildew of grapevine
(c) Bunt of wheat (d) Both a & b (e) All of these
Q7. Tobacco ringspot is associated with which among the following nematode?
(a) Xiphinema americana (b) Polymyxa graminis
(c) Xanthomonas stewartia (d) Spongospora subterranea
(e) all of these
Q8. Which among the following is the causal agent of stem or foot rot of papaya?
(a) Xiphinema americana (b) Polymyxa graminis
(c) Pythium aphanidermatum (d) Spongospora subterranea
(e) None of these
Q9. Leaf hopper transmits which kind of viral disease?
(a) Rice tungro virus (b) Rice dwarf virus
(c) Beet curly top (d) Potato yellow dwarf
(e) All of these

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Q10. Chilli leaf curl and Papaya leaf curl is transmitted by which among the
following vector?
(a) Bamesia tabaci (b) Thrips tabaci
(c) Scirtothrips dorsalis (d) Both a & b
(e) Both a & c
Q11. When the yellowing of plants is due to lack of light occurs, it is called as?
(a) Chlorosis (b) Albinism (c) Chromosis
(d) Etiolation (e) None of these
Q12. When the resistance is effective against one or two specific races of the
pathogen it is known as?
(a) Horizontal resistance (b) Vertical resistance
(c) Polygenic resistance (d) Minor gene resistance
(e) Uniform resistance
Q13. Which structure in fungus produces asexual spores?
(a) Sporangium (b) Pycnospore (c) Spermatia
(d) Ascospore (e) All of these
Q14. Ergotism occurs due to which of the following fungus?
(a) Phytophthora parasitica
(b) Xyllella fastidiosa (c) Erwinia amylovora
(d) Claviceps purpurea (e) Phytophthora infestans
Q15. On which plant part the symptom of blast of rice occurs?
(a) Leaves (b) Nodes (c) Glumes
Q16. The fungus attacks the crop from seedling to milky stage in main field.
Symptoms appear as minute spots on the coleoptile, leaf blade, leaf sheath, and
glume, being most prominent on the leaf blade and glumes. The seedlings die and
affected nurseries can be often recognized from a distance by scorched appearance.
Dark brown or black spots also appear on glumes leading to grain discoloration.
These are the symptoms of?
(a) Rice blast (b) Brown Spot (c) Sheath rot
(d) Ubdatta disease (e) BLB
Q17. Kresek symptom is related to which Pathogen?
(a) Ephelis oryzae (b) Sarocladium oryzae
(c) Xanthomonas oryzae (d) Helminthosporium oryzae
(e) Claviceps purpurea
Q18. What is the sexual stage of Bakanae disease?
(a) Fusarium moniliforme (b) Gibberella fujikuroi
(c) Nephotettix cincticeps (d) N. nigropictus

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(e) Puccinia graminis

Q19. In which among the following disease the fungus attacks seedling of 8-10 days
old and become systemic and grows along the tip of shoot of wheat?
(a) Hill bunt (b) Stinking bunt (c) Karnal Bunt
Q20. In Karnal bunt the odour occurs due to the presence of which among the
following chemical?
(a) Diethylene (b) Tetramethylene
(c) trimethylamine (d) Triethylene
(e) None of these
Q21. Spray Wettable Sulphur 0.2% or Carbendazim @ 500 g/ha can be used as a
management for which among the following disease?
(a) Karnal bunt (b) Hill bunt (c) Loose smut
(d) Powdery mildew of wheat
(e) Yellow rust
Q22. Vascular wilt occurs in the soil having a soil pH of
(a) 5.5-6 (b) 6-6.5 (c) 6.5-7
(d) 7- 7.5 (e) 7.5- 8
Q23. Dahiya disease is related to which among the following crop?
(a) Maize (b) Jute (c) Cotton
(d) Pearl millet (e) Sugarcane
Q24. Which among the following is a bacterial disease of sugarcane?
(a) Ratoon stunting (b) Pokkah Boeng Disease
(c) Wilt (d) Red rot
(e) All of these
Q25. Pineapple set rot is related to which among the following crop?
(a) Pineapple (b) Sugarcane (c) Banana
(d) Orange (e) Jackfruit
Q26. In which of the following disease affected plants are stunted, show a bushy and
witches'-broom appearance and do not set fruits?
(a) RSD (b) Grassy shoot
(c) Sugarcane mosaic (d) Both a & b (e) all of these
Q27. Groundnut bud necrosis is transmitted by which among the following vector?
(a) Aphid (b) White fly (c) Thrips
(d) Plant hopper (e) None of these
Q28. Which among the following relates best to the Early blight of Potato
(a) Soil Borne fungus (b) Warm and wet periods favor the disease
(c) Spots characterized by concentric rings

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(d) Shot holes on fruits (e) All of these

Q29. Rhizoctonia solani is responsible for which of the following disease in Potato?
(a) Stem canker (b) Black Scurf (c) Damping off
Q30. Streptomyces scabies causes which among the following disease in Potato?
(a) Stem canker (b) Black scurf (c) Corkey scab
(d) Common scab (e) Both c & d
Q31. Bacterial wilt of banana is also known as?
(a) Anthracnose (b) Panama wilt (c) Moko Wilt
(d) Sigatoka wilt (e) None of these
Q32. A soil temperature of______ 0 C is favourable for Panama disease in Banana?
(a) 15-20 (b) 20-25 (c) 25-28
(d) 28-32 (e) >32
Q33. Which among the following variety is resistant for Moko Disease of Banana?
(a) Robusta (b) Grand naine (c) Nendran
Q34. Pentalonia nigronervosa is a vector which is related to the crop
(a) Citrus (b) Banana (c) Apple
(d) Mango (e) Papaya
Q35. Powdery mildew of grape is caused by which of the following pathogen?
(a) Plasmopara viticola (b) Xanthomonas campestris
(c) Uncinula necator (d) Elsinoe ampelina
(e) Nephotettix cincticeps
Q36. In grapes, the fungus produces white to grayish powdery patches on the
affected plant parts including fruits but young leaves are most susceptible and
develop small whitish patches both on upper as well as lower surface.it is a symptom
of?
(a) Downy mildew (b) Powdery mildew
(c) White blister (d) Blotch (e) Smut
Q37. Wilt in guava is caused due to which of the following pathogen?
(a) Physalospora psidii (b) Fusarium oxysporum f. sp. psidii
(c) Gloeosporium psidii (d) Collectotrichum psidii
(e) Cephaleuros virescens
Q38. Bunchy top of seedlings is related to which disease of mango?
(a) Anthracnose (b) Sooty mould
(c) Mango malformation
(d) Red rust (e) Dieback
Q39. Which among the following is a symptom of dieback of mango?

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(a) Twig Blight (b) Gummosis (c) Bark splitting

Q40. Which among the following is a post harvest disease of Papaya?
(a) Foot rot (b) Fruit rot
(c) Root rot (d) Anthracnose
(e) Powdery mildew
Q41. Which crop is heavily affected by powdery mildew?
(a) Onion (b) Potato (c) Okra
(d) Peas (e) Cabbage
Q42. Bengal famine incidence was caused by
(a) Potato late blight (b) Bacterial wilt
(c) Brown leaf spot (d) Crown Gall
(e) Bacterial Canker
Q43. Bunchy Top of Banana, a viral disease was introduced in India from which
country?
(a) Pakistan (b) USA (c) Sri Lanka
(d) China (e) Netherlands
Q44. Irish famine of potato is due to
(a) Potato late blight (b) Bacterial wilt (c) Brown leaf spot
(d) Crown Gall (e) Bacterial Canker
Q45. Symptoms characterized by rapid killing of leaves, flowers and stems are
known by?
(a) Blister (b) Disease (c) Heteroecious
(d) Blight (e) Etiology
Q46. A parasite that derives its nutrition from dead tissue is known as?
(a) Pathogenicity (b) Pathogenesis (c) Obligate saprophyte
(d) Primary infection (e) Roughing
Q47. Late blight of potato was introduced in India in which year from Europe?
(a) 1877 (b) 1883 (c) 1879
(d) 1902 (e) 1939
Q48. Removal of diseased plants or their affected organs from field, which prevent
the dissemination of plant pathogens is known as?
(a) Blister (b) Disease (c) Heteroecious
(d) Rouging (e) Etiology
Q49. Which among the following is wrong about IPM?
(a) Avoids chemical pollution of soil, water and air
(b) Avoids development of resistance in the plant pathogens against fungicides
(c) It is an eco-friendly strategy for management of plant diseases

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(d) It is not an economically feasible approach

(e) None of these
Q50. Choose the fungal pathogen, which is responsible for downy mildew of grape?
(a) Sclerospora graminicola
(b) Sclerospora sacchari (c) Plasmopara viticola
(d) Peronosclerospora phillippinensis
(e) None of these
Q51. Non-availability of zinc causes the disease
(a) Black tip of mango (b) Black heart of potato
(c) Khaira of rice (d) Tip burn of rice (e) White tip of mango
Q52. Mango Malformation was first observed in 1891 in
(a) Tamilnadu (b) Bihar (c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra (e) Andhra Pradesh
Q53. Sigatoka disease of banana caused by
(a) Sclerospora graminicola
(b) Sclerospora sacchari (c) mycosphaerella musicola
(d) Peronosclerospora phillippinensis (e) None of these
Q54. Yellow mosaic in soyabean spread by (NSC-2019)
(a) Oospores (b) Whitefly (c) Ascospores
(d) Potyvirus (e) Fungi
Q55. Peach leaf curl is caused by (IFFCO AGT-2019)
(a) Oospores (b) Fungi (c) Ascospores
(d) Potyvirus (e) Whitefly
Q56. Algae which is used in monitoring the water quality of estuaries is
(a) Stigeoclonium (b) Ulva
(c) Duniella teritolecta (d) Microscopium (e) All of these
Q57. Streaks called as morse code is the symptoms of following disease of banana:
(a) Panama disease (b) Banana wilt
(c) Cigar End Tip Rot (d) Bunchy top (e) Yellow Sigatoka
Q58. Tungro disease of rice is caused by
(a) Oospores (b) Virus (c) Ascospores
(d) Potyvirus (e) Fungi
Q59. Fungal disease of silkworm is
(a) Pebrine (b) Pepper disease (c) Muscardine
(d) Aspergillosis (e) Flacherie
Q60. Protozoan disease of silkworm
(a) Pebrine (b) Flacherie (c) Mascardine
(d) Aspergillosis (e) None of these

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1. C 2. E 3. C 4.D 5. B 6.D 7. A 8.C 9.E 10.A
11.D 12. B 13. A 14.D 15. E 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. D 20. C
21. D 22.E 23. C 24.A 25.B 26.B 27. C 28.E 29.E 30. E
31. C 32. D 33.D 34.B 35. C 36. B 37. B 38. C 39. E 40. D
41. D 42.C 43. C 44. A 45.D 46. C 47.B 48.D 49.D 50. C
51. C 52. B 53. C 54.B 55. B 56.B 57.D 58.B 59. C 60. A
Believe in yourself; ignore what other people say about

you. Always be positive in life and you will accomplish
anything you want in life.

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Entomology Test (Model paper)

Q1. Agricultural entomology concerns with the study of insects
(a) Directly related with the crops (b) Directly related with stored commodities
(c) Related with fosills of insects
(d) Both A and B (e) None of these
Q2. NPV is mostly used to control Lepidopteran insects. It is known as which type of
control-
(a) Chemical control (b) Physical control
(c) Mechanical control (d) Cultural control (e) Biological control
Q3. Process of shedding of outer layer of skin is called
(a) Moulting (b) Ecdysis
(c) Skin shed (d) Cuticular shedding (e) Both a and b
Q4. ICAR-National Research Centre for Integrated Pest Management (NCIPM) is
situated at New Delhi and establish in which year.
(a) 1972 (b) 1975 (c) 1985
(d) 1988 (e) 2002
Q5. Eri silkworm are commercially reared on
(a) Mulberry leaves (b) Castor leaves
(c) Tobacco leaves (d) Palas leaves (e) None
Q6. Which of the following statement is not true
(a) Larger number of smaller individuals increases the chances of survival of a species in
struggle for existence.
(b) Smaller sizes individuals require small quantities of food & hence larger number of
individuals can be sustained in smaller quantities of food.
(c) Moulting is not an essential process
(d) Both a and b (e) None of these
Q7. International Organization for biological Control is situated in
(a) West indies (b) Zurich (c) USA
(d) Uk (e) Australia
Q8. Sprayers are the most commonly used in the pesticides applications. What is the
size of smoke spray (in micron)
(a) 0.001-0.1 (b) 0.1-0.01 (c) 1-50
(d) 50-100 (e) 100- 400
Q9. In respiration of insects gases are taken to and fro every minute part of the
system directly through air tubes called
(a) trachea (b) tracheoles (c) Fore gut

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Q10. The excretory function is performed by which among the following organs?
(a) Malpighian tubules (b) Spiracles (c) Trachea
(d) Tracheoles (e) None of these
Q11. Brinjal fruit borer, Pink boll worm in cotton are examples of which among the
following pests
(a) Oligophagous pests (b) Monophagous pests
(c) Polyphagous pests (d) Not pests (e) None of these
Q12. Cabbage butterfly, mustard saw fly are examples of which among the
following pest
(a) Oligophagous pests (b) Monophagous pests
(c) Polyphagous pests (d) Not considered pests (e) None of these
Q13. Shellac is a commercial product obtained from which among the following
organisms
(a) Honeybee (b) Silkworm (c) Lac insect
(d) Saw fly (e) All of these
Q14. Trichogramma is an example of which among the following parasitoid
(a) Egg parasitoid (b) Larval parasitoid
(c) Pupal parasitoid (d) Adult parasitoid
(e) Larval pupal parasitoid
Q15. The damaging stage of cotton jassid is which stage of an insect
(a) Caterpillar (b) Nymph
(c) Adult (d) Grub (e) Both b & c
Q16. Ghujhia weevil is a pest of wheat. It generally affects which stage of the crop?
(a) Nursery (b) Blooming (c) Flowering
(d) Milking (e) Ripening
Q17. Which of the following organism does not possess red blood :
(a) Earthworm (b) Snake (c) Fish
(d) Cockroach (e) Rat
Q18. Incomplete metamorphosis does not have which of the following stages
(a) Eggs (b) nymph (c) Adult
(d) Pupa (e) All of these
Q19. Silver fish comes under which category?
(a) Fish (b) Insect (c) Mollusk
(d) Arachnidian (e) Crustacean
Q20. Larva of mustard saw fly, attack young crop by biting holes into leaves and
may feed on all the leaves in heavy attacks. Mustard saw fly belong to which order
(a) Diptera (b) Hymenoptera
(c) Lepidoptera (d) Coleoptera (e) Hemiptera

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Q21. Bunchy top of Banana is transmitted by which among the following insects?
(a) Aphid (b) Thrips (c) White fly
(d) Leaf hopper (e) Mite
Q22. Webbing of rice grain is a damage symptoms of which insect?
(a) Rice weevil (b) Khapra beetle
(c) Angoumois grain moth (d) Red flour (e) Rice moth
Q23. Larvae of honey bee are called
(a) Nymph (b) Caterpillar (c) Grub
(d) Niads (e) None of these
Q24. Which of the following head has mouth parts ventrally placed
(a) Hypognathous (b) Prognathous
(c) Ophisthognathus (d) All of these (e) None of these
Q25. Which of the following head has mouth parts posterior ventrally placed
(a) Hypognathous (b) Prognathous
(c) Ophisthognathus (d) All of these (e) None of these
Q26. Which among the following insect has Hypognathous head
(a) Grasshopper (b) Beetles (c) Bugs
Q27. Bacillus thuringiensis is a poison of
(a) Stomach (b) Contact (c) Nerve
(d) Both a & b (e) All
Q28. In which insecticides sucking pests are effectively controlled
(a) Stomach (b) Contact (c) Fumigant (d)
Systemic (e) All
Q29. The rice weevil (Sitophilus oryzae) is a stored product pest which attacks
several crops, including wheat, rice, and maize. Its larva also known as
(a) Nymph (b) Grub (c) Caterpillar
(d) Maggot (e) Both a & c
Q30. Amount of injury which will justify the cost of artificial control measures is
called
(a) Economic damage (b) Economic injury (c) Injury
(d) ETL (e) Damage
Q31. Spray Volume depending upon the volume of spray required per hectare the
application is categorized. What is the volume of ultra low volume spray
(a) More than 400 l/ha (b) Less than 400 lit/ha
(c) More than 5 lit/ha (d) Less than 5 lit/ha (e) None
Q32. Which of the following pest is controlled through the application of a grease
band around the tree trunk

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(a) Mango mealy bug (b) Trunk borer of mango

(c) Codling moth of apple (d) Woolly aphis on apple (e) Both a & b
Q33. Which of the following equipment’s can be effectively used for spraying an
orchard crop
(a) Barrel pump (b) Sikar pump
(c) Foot sprayer (d) Heli sprayer (e) All
Q34. Why insecticidal spraying should be avoided when crops are in flowering stage
:
(a) To prevent flower dropping
(b) to facilitate proper fruit setting
(c) To protect bees (d) To prevent insecticidal residues
(e) All
Q35. Dead heart symptom in rice is caused by which among the following insect
(a) Rice stem borer (b) Yellow rice borer
(c) Brown plant hopper (d) Rice bug (e) Both a & b
Q36. Which type of legs serve as antenna cleaner in honey bees
(a) Prothoracic legs (b) Mesothoracic legs
(c) Metathoracic legs (d) Both a& b
(e) All of these
Q37. Total desertion of colony from its nest due to incidence of disease/pest attack,
too much interference by human beings or robbing of honey by bees from other
colonies is called
(a) Swarming (b) Absconding
(c) Terms can be used interchangeably
(d) Trophollaxis (e) None of these
Q38. For black headed caterpillar which of the following method is best
(a) Clean cultivation (b) Destruction of alternate host
(c) Systematic cutting and removal of infested parts
Q39. Trap crop for Citrus Fruit sucking moths, Otheris spp will be which among
the following
(a) Castor (b) Tomato (c) Marigold
(d) all of these (e) none of these
Q40. Flooding of the field is recommended for which among the following insect
(a) Cutworms (b) army worms (c) termites
Q41. Destructive Insect and Pests Act was passed in the year
(a) 1915 (b) 1914 (c) 1916

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(d) 1920 (e) 1925

Q42. --------- is responsible for quarantine processing of all germplasm under
exchange for research purposes
(a) NBPGR, New Delhi (b) FRI, Dehradun
(c) BSI, Kolkata (d) All of these
(e) None of these
Q43. NPV stands for which among the following
(a) Nuclear Polyhedrosis virus
(b) Nucleo Pesistent virus
(c) Nervous Polyhedral virus
(d) Nuclei Polyhedras Virus
(e) Nuclear Polymer Viroid
Q44. Yellow stem borer is an important pest of which among the following crop?
(a) Paddy (b) Wheat (c) Maize
(d) Sugarcane (e) Mango
Q45. Periodic pest of rice will be which among the following pest
(a) Scirpophaga incertulas (b) Diclodispa armigera
(c) Leptocorisa acuta (d) Nilaparvata lugens
(e) Nymphula depunctalis
Q46. Alternate drying & wetting of field is done as a management for which among
the following insect?
(a) Scirpophaga incertulas (b) Diclodispa armigera
(c) Leptocorisa acuta (d) Nilaparvata lugens (e) Nymphula depunctalis
Q47. In Gujhia weevil damage is caused by which among the following stage of
insect?
(a) Larvae (b) Adult (c) Egg
Q48. Rosette flower" is characteristic symptoms of which among the following
insect?
(a) Amrasca biguttula (b) Bemisia tabaci
(c) Pectinophora gossypiella (d) Earias insulena
(e) Earias vitelli
Q49. 'Flare square' (Flare-up) is characteristic symptoms of which among the
following insect
(a) Amrasca biguttula (b) Bemisia tabaci
(c) Pectinophora gossypiella (d) Earias insulena/vitella
(e) None of these

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Q50. The oviposition punctures made by the female serves as entry for fermenting
organisms.Maggots feed on the pulp and convert the pulp into bad smelling
discolored semi liquid mass, unfit for use. The fruits develop brown rotten patches
on them and fall to the ground eventually. Maggots come out of the fruits and
pupate in the soil. The pest is?
(a) Pomegranate butterfly (b) Mango fruit borer
(c) Mango butterfly (d) Mango fruit fly
(e) None of these
Q51. Maximum damage in stored grain is caused by which order
(a) Lepidoptera (b) Coleoptera
(c) Hymenoptera (d) Orthoptera
(e) Neuroptera
Q52. Scirpophaga novella is called as
(a) Top borer (b) Early shoot borer
(c) Internode borer (d) All of these
(e) None of these
Q53. Bemisia tabaci ( White fly) Belongs to which among the following order?
(a) Hemiptera (b) Diptera (c) Orthoptera
(d) Coleoptera (e) None of these
Q54. Which among the following is a larval parasitoid?
(a) Trichogramma sp. (b) Bracon sp.
(c) Chelonusblackburni (d) Brachymeria
(e) None of these
Q55. In which among the following pest the damage is done by grub in field crops
and by adults in trees?
(a) Aphid (b) Thrip (c) Mite
(d) White grub (e) Locust
Q56. The pest is most destructive pest of maize and sorghum and causes pin holes
on leaves or "dead hearts" in stem.
(a) Maize shootfly (b) Maize stem borer
(c) Maize cutworm (d) Shoot bug (e) Pink stem worm
Q57. The Population of fruit files takes place in
(a) Rind of fruit (b) Soil
(c) Pulp of fruit (d) Stubbles in the field (e) Rock
Q58. Sting in worker honeybee is a modified part of ?
(a) Antenna (b) Cerci (c) Styli
(d) Ovipositer (e) Both (c) & (d)
Q59. At which stage of Gram crop is damaged by Helicoverpa armigera?

131 | P a g e
(a) Germination stage (b) Pod formation stage

(c) Maturity stage (d) both c and d (e) None
Q60. Stylets are present in the mouth parts of which of the following
(a) Rhinoceros beetle (b) Cockroach (c) Cotton weevil
(d) Plant bug (e) None of these
1. D 2. E 3. E 4. D 5.B 6. C 7. B 8.A 9. D 10. A
11.B 12. A 13.C 14. A 15. E 16. A 17. D 18. D 19. B 20.B
21. A 22. E 23. C 24.A 25. C 26. A 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. A
31.D 32.A 33.C 34. C 35. E 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. B 40.D
41. B 42.A 43. A 44. A 45.C 46. D 47.B 48. C 49.D 50. D
51. B 52. A 53. A 54. B 55. D 56.B 57. B 58.D 59. B 60. D
वक्त सबको जमलता है ज िंदगी बदलने के जलए

पर ज िंदगी दोबारा नहीं जमलती
वक्त बदलने के जलए।

132 | P a g e
Agricultural Engineering (Model paper)

Q1. A mower is designed to cut
(a) Cereal crops (b) Grass/forage crops (c) Pulse crop
(d) Root crops (e) All of these
Q2. Seed-cum-fertilizer is supposed to place the fertilizer
(a) Together with seed at the same depth
(b) Deeper than seed on the vertical line
(c) Above the seed on the same vertical line
(d) Deeper than seed at some lateral separation also
(e) None of these
Q3. Which of the following is not the part of disc plough?
(a) Shovel (b) Bearing (c) Gauge wheel
(d) Scrapper (e) All are the part of it
Q4. The safe moisture content for storage of wheat is-
(a) 10-12% (b) 12-14% (c) 14-16%
(d) 22-24% (e) 26-28%
Q5. A non-renewable anergy source is
(a) Can recharged (b) Once used lost forever
(c) Can be used again (d) Can not be reused after 24 hours
Q6. Biodiesel can be obtained from
(a) Coal (b) Jatropha (c) Corn
(d) Sugarcane (e) Banana
Q7. Ethanol is obtained from
(a) jatropha (b) Sugarcane (c) Karanj
Q8. Renewable energy is called green power because-
(a) It does not produce pollution (b) it is green in colour
(c) It is only produced from green plants (d) It is used in green vehicle only
(e) None of these
Q9. A man can works per day about power of-
(a) 0.1 HP (b) 0.5 HP (c) 1.0 HP
(d) 0.7 HP (e) 1 HP
Q10. Air-Fuel ratio of diesel engine
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 8 : 1 (c) 15 : 1
(d) 20 : 1 (e) 30:1
Q11. Piston pins connect piston with
(a) Crank shaft (b) Cam shaft (c) Connecting rod
(d) Fly wheel (e) None of these
Q12. Dibbler is a

133 | P a g e
(a) Seed drill (b) Planter (c) Trans planter

(d) Disc plough (e) None of the above
Q13. ASPEE is famous for manufacturing-
(a) Tractor (b) Power tiller (c) Plough
(d) Sprayers (e) Harrow
Q14. One horsepower is equal to-
(a) 746 watts (b) 0.746 kilowatt (c) 60 kg-m/sec
(d) a & b both (e) None of these
Q15. CIPHET situated at?
(a) Bhopal, MP (b) Izatnagar, UP (c) Ludhiana, PB
(d) New Delhi (e) Hyderabad, Telangana
Q16. Which implement is used for secondary tillage operations
(a) MB Plough (b) Disc Plough (c) Harrow
(d) All of these (e) Rotavator
Q17. The device used to control engine speed within a specified limit is called
(a) Turbocharger (b) Governor (c) Magneto
(d) Thermostat (e) None of these
Q18. The value of disc angle in a disc plough varies from-
(a) 15-20 degree (b) 20-25 degree (c) 25-30 degree
(d) 42-45 degree (e) More than 45 degree
Q19. Which is a part of I.C. engine?
(a) Pitman (b) Oil ring (c) Flutted roller
(d) Knife (e) None of these
Q20. Which of the following is a primary tillage implement?
(a) Harrow (b) M.B. plough (c) Cultivator
(d) Sweep cultivator (e) Rotavator
Q21. The place where number of wind turbines are installed, is called-
(a) Wind farm (b) Wind station (c) Wind turbine station
(d) Wind mills (e) None of these
Q22. Which tillage implement requires minimum draft per unit width?
(a) Cultivator (b) MB Plough (c) Scarifier
(d) Disc Harrow (e) Disc Plough
Q23. What is the compression ratio of petrol engine?
(a) 14:1 to 22:1 (b) 8:1 to 14:1 (c) 5:1 to 14:1
(d) 5:1 to 8:1 (e) 5:1 to 22:1
Q24. Average farm power availability for the cultivated areas of the Country was
0.295 kW/ha in 1971-72. what was the expected of farm power availability (kw/ha)
during the year 2017-18 as per government?

134 | P a g e
(a) 2.02 (b) 2.20 (c) 1.75

(d) 1.65 (e) 1.80
Q25. Diesel engine was used in tractor and pneumatic tires were introduced in
which year?
(a) 1935-36 (b) 1936-37 (c) 1960-61
(d) 1914-1919 (e) 1923
Q26. Thermal efficiency (%) of cow dung cake is?
(a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 25
(d) 8 (e) 11
Q27. Thermal efficiency (%) of internal combustion engine is about?
(a) 20-25 (b) 40-45 (c) 15-20
(d) 30-35 (e) 15-20
Q28. central food technology research institute ( CFTRI ) is located in?
(a) Ludhiana (b) Mysore (c) Sonipat
(d) karnal (e) Panipat
Q29. What is the calorific value of petrol?
(a) 10500 (b) 10550 (c) 10300
(d) 11100 (e) 4500
Q30. M B plough of 3 bottom, one hectare of land can be ploughed in around-
(a) 3.5 hour (b) 2.5 hour (c) 4.5 hour
(d) 6 hours (e) None of these
Q31. What is the Capacity (L/ha) of High-volume sprayer?
(a) less than 5 (b) more than 5 (c) 5 to 400
(d) more than 400 (e) None of these
Q32. What is the efficiency (%) of sprinkler irrigation system?
(a) 95 (b) 70-75 (c) 60 -65
Q33. The tilt angle of the disc plough should be between? (Raj. Lecturer Exam-
2020)
(a) 10-15 degree (b) 15-25 degree (c) 25-35 degree
(d) 35-40 degree (e) None of these
Q34. According to NABARD, What is the capacity of Medium sized godowns (MT)
(a) 500 (b) 1000 (c) 1500
(d) 2000 (e) All of these
Q35. According to NABARD, What should be the ideal height (in meter) of a road
fed godown?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
(d) 5.6 (e) 8

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Q36. What is the capacity of Iron Plough when drawn by a pair of bullocks?
(a) 0.5 ha / day (b) 1 ha / day (c) 2 ha / day
(d) 5 ha / day (e) 10 ha / day
Q37. What is the power requirement of Power Rotary Weeder?
(a) 4 hp Diesel engine (b) 6 hp Diesel engine
(c) 8 hp Diesel engine (d) 2 hp Diesel engine
(e) 1 hp Diesel engine
Q38. What is the working depth (mm) of tractor Drawn Disc Plough?
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30
(d) 100 (e) 300
Q39. According to NABARD, Which among the following state has highest use of
mechanical power?
(a) Jharkhand (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Punjab (e) Haryana
Q40. What is the HP power required for power sprayer?
(a) 1 HP (b) 3 HP (c) 10 HP
(d) 20 HP (e) 25 HP
1. b 2. d 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. c
11. c 12. b 13. d 14. d 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. d 19. a 20. b
21. a 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. b 26. e 27. d 28. b 29. d 30. a
31. d 32. b 33. b 34. e 35. d 36. a 37. c 38. e 39. d 40. b
For you to become victorious you must start

practicing today. Never expect to win a
marathon without proper training.

136 | P a g e
Genetics Test (Model paper)

Q1. DNA is the genetic material and has a double helical structure. The discovery of the
double helical structure of DNA marked the transition to the era of molecular genetics.
In which year it was discovered?
(a) 1866 (b) 1915 (c) 1953
(d) 1963 (e) 1966
Q2. Cell theory in plants and animals was formulated by which among the following?
(a) J.B. Lamarck (b) M.J. Schleiden and T. Schwann
(c) R. Linnaeus (d) C. Darwin (e) Walter Sutton
Q3. Alleles of different genes assort independently of one another during gamete
formation is which law of Mendel?
(a) Law of dominance and recessive (b) Law of segregation
(c) Law of independent assortment (d) Interallelic interaction
(e) Intra allelic interaction
Q4. Which law of Mendel states this: The copies of a gene separate, so that each gamete
receives only one copy.
(a) Law of dominance and recessive (b) Law of segregation
(c) Law of independent assortment (d) Interallelic interaction
(e) Intra allelic interaction
Q5. To determine whether an organism with a dominant phenotype is homozygous
dominant or heterozygous which cross will be preferred the most?
(a) Back cross (b) Test cross (c) Epistatic cross
(d) Antibody cross (e) Heterosis
Q6. The gene which is having a masking effect is which kind of gene?
(a) Epistatic (b) Synthetic (c) Covered
(d) Plieotropic (e) Tautomeric
Q7. When many genes are known to affect more than one character this kind of
situation will be referred to as?
(a) Multiple gene affect (b) Masking effect (c) Pleiotropy
(d) Polymeric gene interaction (e) Somatic gene interaction
Q8. The genes which are so closely linked and can be separable only by rare crossing
over, these kind of genes are referred as?
(a) Isoalleles (b) Pseudoalleles
(c) Reciprocal alleles (d) Somatic alleles (e) Germinal alleles
Q9. The trait is governed by two or many alleles of a single gene is which kind of
genetics?
(a) Quantitative genetics (b) Biparental genetics
(c) Qualitative genetics (d) Nuclear genetics (e) Bipolar Genetics
Q10. When there is a change in normal base sequence of the DNA molecule. This kind
of mutation will be referred as.
(a) Germinal mutation (b) Point mutation
(c) Spontaneous mutation (d) induced mutation (e) Structural mutation
Q11. Biochemical mutants need to be grown on a media supplemented with a specific
nutrient. These kinds of mutants will be referred as?
(a) Prototrophs (b) Autotrophs (c) Auxotrophs

137 | P a g e
(d) Piezotrophs (e) Tautomers

Q12. When there is loss of two different chromosomes. This will be referred as?
(a) Monosomics (b) Duosomics
(c) Double monosomics (d) Single duosomics (e) None of these
Q13. Presence of one extra chromosome is referred to as?
(a) Monosomics (b) Trisomics (c) Aneuploidy
(d) Duosomics (e) Eusomics
Q14. Exchange of segments between two non – homologous chromosomes, which results
in a new chromosome is referred as?
(a) Transformation (b) Translocation (c) Duplication
(d) Inversion (e) Modification
Q15. The kind of mutations which reduce the chances of survival of the organism in
which they are found are known as ?
(a) Lethal mutations (b) Sub vital mutations
(c) Super vital mutations (d) Sublethal mutations (e) Super Lethal
Q16. The ability of a molecule to exist in more than one chemical form is referred to as?
(a) Transformation (b) Translocation (c) Tautomerism
(d) Inversion (e) Multifunctional
Q17. When the genotype consists of a dominant and a recessive allele, the phenotype
will be like _________________ allele.
(a) Recessive (b) Dominant (c) Both
(d) Either recessive or Dominant (e) None
Q18. Who provided the first conclusive evidence, in 1902, that chromosomes carry the
units of inheritance and occur in distinct pairs?
(a) Clarence E. McClung (b) Barbara McClintock (c) Walter Sutton
(d) Christiane Nusslein-Volhard (e) Lamarck
Q19. A combination of repressor and metabolite which prevents protein synthesis is
referred to as ?
(a) Repressor (b) Corepressor (c) Inducer
(d) Effector (e) Controller
Q20. Which among the following control the function of structural gene?
(a) Promoter gene (b) Regulator gene (c) Operator gene
(d) Repressor (e) Controller gene
Q21. Term genetics was first used by
(a) Bateson (b) Mendel (c) Johanssen
(d) Morgan (e) Darwin
Q22. Gregor Mendel published
(a) Experiments in Plant Varaition
(b) Experiments in Plant Mutation
(c) Experiments in Plant Hybridization
(d) Experiments in Plant variability
(e) None of these
Q23. Omnis cellula e cellula was given by
(a) Schwann and Scheiden (b) Rudolf Virchow
(c) Mc Carty (d) Correns (e) Oswald Avery

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Q24. Examples of Prokaryotes

(a) Fungi (b) Bacteria (c) Archaebacteria
(d) Blue green algae (e) B, c and d
Q25. In eukaryotes, a double membraned, oval or spherical structure which contain
chromosomes is called
(a) Nucleolus (b) Nucleus (c) Vacuole
(d) Lysosome (e)Tonoplast
Q26. Portion of cell other than nucleus Is called
(a) Protoplasm (b) Hyaloplasm (c) Cytoplasm
(d) Karyoplasm (e) None of these
Q27. Actual site of photosynthesis
(a) Chromoplast (b) Leukoplast (c) Chloroplast
(d) Mitochondrion (e) Vacuole
Q28. Which of the following gives pigment is found in fruit and flowers
(a) Chromoplast (b) Leukoplast (c) Chloroplast
(d) Chlorophyll A (e) All of these
Q29. Which of the following is used to store starch
(a) Leucoplast (b) Chloroplast (c) Vacuoles
(d) Tonoplast (e) Nucleus
Q30. Lycopene is found in
(a) Mango (b) Tomato (c) Carrot
Q31. Dark reaction has site
(a) Grana (b) Stroma (c) Mitochondria
Q32. Lysosomes have main enzyme
(a) Alkali phosphatase (b) Acid phosphatase
(c) Hydrochloric enzyme (d) All of these (e) None of these
Q33. Endomembrane system associated with ER & Lysosomes IS
(a) Mitochondria (b) Chloroplast (c) Golgi bodies
(d) Nucleus (e) Plastid
Q34. Middle lamella is made up of
(a) Cellulose (b) Hemicellulose (c) Pectin
(d) Lipids (e) Protein
Q35. Pre -DNA replication phase is
(a) G1 phase (b) G2 phase (c) S phase
(d) Interphase (e) All of these
Q36. Chromosomes can be best studied morphologically in
(a) Prophase (b) Metaphase (c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase (e) None of these
Q37. Tetrads are formed in
(a) Leptotene (b) Zygotene (c) Pachytene
(d) Diplotene (e) Diakinesis
Q38. DNA does not have
(a) Adenine (b) Thymine (c) Cytosine

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(d) Guanine (e) Uracil

Q39. changes in complete set of chromosome is called
(a) Aneuploidy (b) Euploidy (c) Deletion
(d) Deficiency (e) Translocation
Q40. The tendency of an offspring to resemble its parent is known as
(a) Variation (b) Heredity (c) Resemblance
(d) Inheritance (e) None of these
Q41. The gene-for gene hypothesis regarding disease resistance in crop varieties has
following features : 1. This hypothesis was proposed for rust in linseed by Flor. 2. For
each gene for resistance in the plant, there is corresponding gene for virulence in the
pathogen. Which of the features given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) either 1 or 2
(d) Both 1 and 2 (e) Neither 1 nor 2
Q42. Mendelian theory was rediscovered by:
(a) E Tschermark (b) C Correns (c) Hugo de vries
Q43. The term genetics was coined by :
(a) Charles Darwing(1890) (b) G J Mendel (1884)
(c) Bateson (1905) (d) Johansen (1903 (e) Lamarck (1856)
Q44. Interaction between genes at different loci is known as :
(a) Epistasis (b) Homozygosity
(c) Heterozygosity (d) Dominance (e) Sex linked interaction
Q45. In 1900, Mendel's laws of Inheritance was discovered simultaneously by three
botanist. From the following name, find out the incorrect one :
(a) Hugo de varies (b) E Tschermark (c) W Bateson
(d) C Correns (e) Johansen
Q46. When it is attempted to transfer two or more different but simply inherited
characters from different sources in a variety through two of more series of back
crosses, one for each character, this method is known as :
(a) Convergent improvment
(b) double cross method (c) Back cross method
(d) Pedigree method (e) Test cross
Q47. Two stages of prophase occurs in :
(a) Mitosis (b) Free cell formation (c) Meiosis
(d) Amitosis (e) Epistasis
Q48. How many cells will be produced from a cell if the cell divides meiotically :
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (e) 5
Q49. The structure of chromosome can best be observed during :
(a) Prophase (b) metaphase (c) Anaphase
(d) Telophasse (e) Interkinase
Q50. Genes are made up of :
(a) RNA only (b) DNA only (c) RNA and DNA
(d) Proteins (e) Ribosomes
Q51. Genetic information resides in :

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(a) DNA molecules (b) proteins (c) Ribosomes

(d) Polysachharides (e) RNA molecule
Q52. Crossing over takes place at the following stage of meiotic cell division :
(a) Pachytene (b) Diakinesis (c) Anaphase I
(d) Zygotene (e) Leptotene
Q53. The theory of mutation was propounded by:
(a) Hugo de Vries (b) Charles Darwin (c) Weisman
(d) Lamarck (e) Bateson
Q54. The term mendelian population is first used by :
(a) Wright (b) Hardy (c) Weinberg
(d) Hugo de vries (e) Weisman
Q55. The recombinant DNA technology revolution actually began with:
(a) The discover of plasmids (b) The discovery of restriction endonucleases
(c) The discovery of cDNA (d) The discovery of PCA
(e) The discovery of tRNA
Q56. DNA and protein complex is called :
(a) Centromeres (b) Histone (c) Centrosome
(d) Chromatin (e) Nucleus
Q57. A mutation in a codon leads to the substitution of one amino acid with another.
What is the name of this type of mutation :
(a) Nonsense mutation (b) Missense mutation (c) frameshift mutation
(d) Promoter mutation (e) Induced mutation
Q58. A mutation where purine replaces a pyrimidine is known as :
(a) Deletion (b) Addition (c) Transition
(d) transversion (e) Modification
Q59. Which is the classical concept of the Central Dogma :
(a) RNA-DNA-Protein (b) Protein- DNA- RNA
(c) DNA-RNA-Protein (d) DNA-Protein-RNA (e) Both a & c
Q60. The polarity of DNA is determined by :
(a) Hydroxyl group (b) Phosphate group (c) Nitrogenous base
(d) Both a & b (e) None of the above
1.C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5.B 6. A 7. C 8.B 9. C 10.B
11.C 12. C 13.B 14. B 15. B 16. C 17.B 18. C 19. B 20.C
21. A 22. C 23. B 24.E 25. B 26. C 27. C 28. A 29. A 30. B
31.B 32.B 33.C 34. C 35. A 36. B 37. C 38.E 39. B 40. B
41. D 42.D 43. D 44. A 45.E 46. C 47.C 48. D 49.B 50. B
51. A 52. A 53. A 54. A 55. B 56.D 57. B 58.D 59.C 60. B

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Overall Test (Model Paper)-1

Q1. Seed Multiplication Ratio is the number of seeds to be produced from a single seed
when it is sown and harvested. Which among the following crop has lowest SMR?
(a) Mustard (b) Groundnut (c) Potato
(d) Wheat (e) Black gram
Q2. Semi arid dry region covers highest %age of geographical area of India. How many
number of humid months are there in this region?
(a) <2 (b) 2-4.5 (c) 4.5-7.0
(d) 7-9 (e) 9-10
Q3. A geologic formation that can store significant amount of water but does not have the
capability to transmit a significant amount of water will be referred to which among the
following?
(a) Aquifer (b) Aquitard (c)Aquiclude
(d) Aquifuge (e) Aquibar
Q4. To control the weeds in cropped land which kind of much will be more suitable for the
purpose?
(a) Thicker mulch (b) Black mulch
(c) Transparent mulch (d) White mulch
(e) Thinner mulch
Q5. To measure the soil moisture Tensiometers are generally used. For which among the
following soils tensiometers are not generally suitable.
(a) Red soil (b) Sandy soil (c) Clay soil
(d) Dessert soil (e) Both a & b
Q6. Mole drainage is a sub-surface drainage, it seals the soil to the movement of water. It is
not effective in which kind of soil?
(a) Sandy soil (b) Red soil (c) Clay soil
(d) Dessert soil (e) Both a & b
Q7. Which one is true about gladiolus harvesting?
1. The spikes would be ready for harvest from 60-120 days after planting.
2. The spikes should be harvested at tight bud stage.
3. The spikes with one to five florets showing colour.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 3
(d) Both 1 & 2 (e) All of these
Q8. Which among the following have same water use efficiency?
(a) Wheat, Groundnut (b) Groundnut, Maize
(c) Pearl millet, Maize (d) Rice, Maize
(e) All have different WUE
Q9. What is the optimum soil moisture content at the time of tillage in comparison to field
capacity?
(a) 40 % (b) 50% (c) 60%
(d) 70 % (e) More than 70 %

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Q10. Ornamental plants are generally the indicator crops for the deficiency of which
among the following nutrient?
(a) Copper (b) Iron (c) Zinc
(d) Sulphur (e) Manganese
Q11. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has also developed a Multilingual
Mobile App ________which connects the farmers with Custom Hiring Service Centers
situated in their locality.
(a) CHC app (b) FARMS-app (c) SMAM app
(d) CRM app (e) None of these
Q12. Why sorghum is known as Camel of crops?
1. It is resistant to drought.
2. It has ability to grow in arid soils.
3. It requires about one-third less water than wheat.
4. It is a crop which is used to feed the Camel.
(a) Both 1 &4 (b) Both 2 & 4 (c) 1,2 & 3
(d) 1,2 & 4 (e) Only 4
Q13. To produce 100 kg of economic produce the nutrient requirement for Potassium is
highest in which crop?
(a) Soybean (b) Chickpea (c) Cotton
(d) Groundnut (e) Sesame
Q14. Plough Plant tillage is categorized under which kind of tillage system?
(a) Minimum Tillage (b) Conservational Tillage
(c) Conventional Tillage (d) Modern Tillage
(e) Primary Tillage
Q15. For dry tillage how much soil moisture is Sufficient?
(a) 15- 20 % (b) 20-25 % (c) 25-30 %
(d) 30-35 % (e)35-40 %
Q16. When nutrients are applied by the means of foliar application which nutrient is
neither absorbed rapidly nor slowly?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Iron (c) Molybdenum
(d) Sulphur (e) Zinc
Q17. Which among the following is true about Cytokinin
1. It reverses apical dominance.
2. Delays leaf sequence.
3. Synthesized in roots and transported to other organs.
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 1 & 3 (c) 2 & 3
(d) 1,2 & 3 (e) None of these
Q18. In the floor space requirement of down- Calver how much maximum number of
animals required per pan?
(a) 1 (b) 50 (c) 30
(d) 10 (e) 26

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Q19. In poultry, the part of digestive tract which acts as a reserve to hold the moistened
feed is known as
(a) Rumen (b) Gizzard
(c) Pro ventriculus (d) Crop
(e) None of these
Q20. At which age the good quality semen can be produced in cattle?
(a) 12-13 months (b) 15-18 months
(e) 24-28 months
Q21. Which among the following is the main breed of backyard poultry?
(a) CARI Nirbheek (b) Aseel
(c) Rhode Island Red (d) Both a &b
(e) Both a & c
Q22. Apart from Punjab and Haryana which state has highest Per capita milk availability?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand (c) Rajasthan
(d) Kerala (e) Madhya Pradesh
Q23. When milk fat in milk is substituted with some vegetable oil or fat, it is termed as?
(a) Recombined milk (b) Reconstituted milk
(c) Skimmed milk (d) Filled milk
(e) Standardized milk
Q24. What is the optimum temperature for Layers (in degree Celsius)?
(a) 13-20 (b) 24 (c) 20- 25
(d) 25-30 (e) 30-33
Q25. A method of propagation, in which square or rectangular shape bud is taken out from
scion shoot. Similar size incision is made on rootstock. The bud is placed on rootstock.
Which method of propagation is this?
(a) Chip budding (b) Patch budding
(c) Shield budding (d) Forket budding
(e) Ring budding
Q26. Panama disease of banana can be prevented by the application of which among the
following?
(a) Gypsum (b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Lime (d) Calcium sulphate
(e) Sodium Hexameta Phosphate
Q27. In coconut deformed leaflets fail to unfurl and ultimately give a choked appearance to
the frond. Hence, this deformity of the palms is called "crown choking". Deficiency of
which nutrient
(a) Boron (b) Zinc (c) Copper
(d) Calcium (e) Potash
Q28. The process of preserving food by rapid freezing followed by dehydration under
vacuum is called

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(a) Cold Dehydration (b) Freeze Dehydration

(c) Ultra Cool Preservation (d) Lyophilisation
(e) Lyophobisation
Q29. Dropping of small fruitlets in large number both in Ambe & Mrig bahar due to
competition for moisture and nutrients is said to be?
(a) Post Setting Drop (b) Summer Drop
(c) Seasonal Drop (d) Preharvest Drop
(e) None of these
Q30. Selective mechanism of Herbicides may occur due to?
(a) Differential rate of absorption
(b) Differential rate of translocation
(c) Differential rate of deactivation
(d) Both A&B (e) All of these
Q31. Pricing policy for sugarcane was changed in which year from SMP to FRP?
(a) 1965 (b) 1975 (c) 2009
Q32. The national food security bill was enacted on____
(a) 2002 (b) 2005 (c) 2007
(d) 2010 (e) 2013
Q33. Under soil health card Soil Samples will be collected by a trained person from a depth
of _____ cm by cutting the soil in a "V" shape.
(a) 5-10 cm (b) 10-15 cm (c) 15-20 cm
(d) 20-25 cm (e) 25-30 cm
Q34. Which among the following is the minor source of irrigation in India?
(a) Tube wells (b) Canals (c) Tanks
(d) River (e) None of these
Q35. What is the reporting area for land utilization in India?
(a) 328 M.ha. (b) 228 M ha (c) 307.8 ha
(d) 307.8 M.ha (e) None of these
Q36. What is the GST rate on drip and sprinkler irrigation equipment?
(a) 0 (b) 5 (c) 12
(d) 18 (e) 28
Q37. According to Indian state of forest report 2017 which state has highest percentage of
forest cover?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Mizoram (c) Lakshadweep
(d) Arunachal Pradesh (e) Andaman & Nicobar islands
Q38. Presently India has 722 KVKs. What is the number of Agricultural Technology
Management Agencies?
(a) 700 (b) 713 (c) 600
(d) 684 (e) 600
Q39. K2SO4 has K percentage and effect on soil?

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(a) 50, Acidic (b) 50, Basic (c) 60, Neutral

(d) 60, Acidic (e) 50, Neutral
Q40. Single super phosphate has these nutrients?
(a) P (b) S (c) Ca
(d) Both A&B (e) All of these
Q41. Ferrous sulphate has how much percentage of Fe?
(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 19
(d) 29 (e) 44
Q42. What is the spacing (in cm) of chewing tobacco?
(a) 50×25 (b) 50×50 (c) 50×75
(d) 75×75 (e) 30×25
Q43. Which of the following is dual purpose cattle breed?
(a) Nagori (b) Hallikar (c) Deoni
(d) Nimadi (e) None of These
Q44. Which of the following crop has highest seed multiplication ratio
(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Maize
(d) Tomato (e) Sorghum
Q45. What is the origin of pigeon pea?
(a) South East Asia (b) South West Asia (c) China
(d) Africa (e) Mexico
Q46. Zoological name of gram pod borer is?
(a) Aspergillus niger (b) Helicoverpa armigera
(c) Odontotermes obesu (d) Agrotis ipsilon
(e) Aceria cajani
Q47. In which following river having lowest surface water utilization ?
(a) Ganga (b) Indus (Sindhu) (c) Mahanadi
(d) Narmada (e) Godavari
Q48. The main reason of irish famine in potato was
(a) Late blight disease (b) Bacterial blight disease
(c) Blast disease (d) Ear cockle disease
(e) None of these
Q49. Cotton is a day neutral plant, cotton length is measured by?
(a) Arealometer (b) Fibrometre (c) Tendrometer
(d) Refractrometer (e) None of these
Q50. Gerthar is the cross breed of jersy and tharparkar. It was developed in?
(a) Karnal (b) New Delhi (c) Banglore
(d) Bhopal (e) Kanpur
Q51. Manijra variety of Mango is crossed by?
(a) Rumani × Neelum (b) Banganapalli × Alphonso
(c) Neelum × Alohonso (d) Neelum × Rumani (e) None
Q52. The seedless mango cultivar ‘Sindhu’ was developed at

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(a) IARI (b) IIHR (c) APAU

(d) CISH (e) Konkan Krishi Vidhyapeeth, Dapoli
Q53. Pusa Shubhra, Pusa Snowball K-1 is the resistant variety for Black rot and Curl,
blight black rot of which crop?
(a) Wheat (b) Cauliflower (c) Cowpea
(d) Chilli (e) None of these
Q54. Degraded forest lands with canopy density less than 10 percent will be considered as?
(a) Open Forest (b) Scrub (c) Non-forest
(d) Both B and C (e) None of these
Q55. What is the coverage of Self propelled paddy harvester?
(a) 1 ha/day (b) 1.5 ha/day (c) 2 ha/day
(d) 2.5 ha/day (e) 4 ha/day
Q56. The thermal efficiency of diesel engine varies between
(a) 25 and 32 per cent (b) 32 and 38 per cent
(c) 32 and 40 per cent (d) 40 and 45 per cent
(e) None of these
Q57. Drip irrigation is moist suitable for
(a) Acid soil (b) alkaline soil
(c) Saline soil (d) Both b and c
(e) All of these
Q58. People belonging to what age group are eligible for training under TRYSEM scheme?
(a) 18-35 (b) 25-40 (c) 40-50
Q59. White rust in mustard is caused by
(a) Peronospora brassicae (b) Alternaria brassicae
(c) Albugo candida (d) Xanthomonas ricinicola (e) Puccinia tritici
Q60. Which crop requires maximum amount of nitrogen?
(a) Potato (b) Wheat (c) Barley
(d) Sugarcane (e) None of these
1.C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5.C 6. C 7. E 8.C 9. C 10.B
11.B 12. C 13.C 14. A 15. B 16. D 17.D 18. A 19. D 20.D
21. E 22. C 23. D 24.A 25. B 26. C 27. A 28.D 29. A 30. E
31.C 32.E 33.C 34.C 35. D 36. C 37. B 38.D 39. E 40. E
41. C 42.D 43.D 44. D 45.D 46. B 47.D 48. A 49.A 50. C
51.A 52. E 53. B 54.B 55. B 56.B 57. C 58.A 59.C 60. D

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Overall Test (Model Paper)-2

Q1. Which one of the following categories of seeds is the farmer expected to buy a fresh
every time?
(a) Synthetic (b) Hybrid (c) Composite
(d) Variety (e) Local variety
Q2. Triticale is
(a) Interspecific cross (b) Intraspecific cross
(c) Intergeneric cross (d) Intrageneric cross
(e) None of these
Q3. Germination occur when seed moisture is above........
(a) 40 - 60 % (b) 30 - 40 % (c) 20 - 35 %
(d) less than 20%
(e) More than 70%
Q4. Metaxenia is common problem in
(a) Guava (b) Apple (c) Date palm
(d) Apple (e) Litchi
Q5. International Rice Research Institute was established during
(a)1980 (b)1960 (c)1946
(d)1965 (e)1990
Q6. During the last one century the earth has warmed up by ______ degree celcious.
(a) 0.3-0.7 (b) 0.8-1.0 (c) 1.2-1.3
(d) 1.4-1.5 (e) 1.5-1.6
Q7. Which one of these is called as “QUEEN OF FRUITS”?
(a) Pineapple (b) Apple (c) Maize
(d) Mangosteen (e) Litchi
Q8. The optimum depth of sowing for most of the field crops ranges between?
(a) 5-7 cm depth (b) 2-3 cm depth
(c) 3-5 cm depth (d) 1-4 cm depth
Q9. UPASI is situated in which state?
(a) Assam (b) West Bengal (c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Maharashtra (e) Sikkim
Q10. Swaichal is found in which of the following cattle breed?
(a) Ongole (b) Red Sindhi (c) Kangrej
(d) Jersy (e) Guernsey
Q11. PM Modi’s Tricolour Revolution includes :
I. Yellow revolution II. Blue revolution
III. White revolution IV. Saffron revolution
(a) I,II and III (b) II,III,IV (c) I,III,IV
(d) I,II,IV (e) None of these
Q12. e-NAM was launched by Ministry of Agriculture and farmer’s welfare on

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(a) 2016 (b) 2015 (c) 2017

(d) 2014 (e) 2018
Q13. Buttoning in cauliflower occurs due to deficiency of which of the following nutrient?
(a) Boron (b) Molybdenum (c) Calcium
(d) Nitrogen (e) Manganese
Q14. Who is the pioneer of Chipko Movement?
(a) Gaura Devi (b) Sundarlal Bahuguna
(c) Samsher Singh Bisht (d) Medha Patekar
(e) none of these
Q15. Fibre used for preparation of tissue papers and currency is
(a) Jute (b) Mesta (c) Sunhemp
(d) Agave (e) Pineapple
Q16. The term “Cropping Scheme” refers to
(a) Allotment of crops to the pieces of land on a farm
(b) Allotment of crop rotations to the pieces of land on a farm
(c) Planning and budgeting of the crop production on a farm
(d) Planning of schedules of different farm operations
Q17. According to the forest report 2019, which of the following state has shown maximum
loss of forest cover?
(a) Karnataka (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Manipur (e) Mizoram
Q18. Decomposition of organic matter is fastest in between which pH range?
(a) 6-8 (b) 5.5-6 (c) 4.5-5
(d) More than 8 (e) Less than 6
Q19. Which erosion is known as “Death of farmers”?
(a) Gully erosion (b) Sheet erosion (c) Splash erosion
(d) Ravine erosion (e) Rill erosion
Q20. Sunflower oil is rated as a good quality oil because it contains:
(a) Low quantity of saturated fatty acid
(b) Low quantity of unsaturated fatty acid
(c) High quantity of saturated fatty acid
(d) High quantity of unsaturated fatty acid
(e) none of these
Q21. The turkey is a large bird in the genus Meleagris, which is native to the Americas. The
meat of crab will be known as?
(a) Meat (b) Mutton (c) Non-veg
(d) Crab (e) All of these
Q22. SSP contains how much percentage of Calcium?
(a) 12 (b) 19 (c) 16
(d) 26 (e) 25

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Q23. Lowest ODR value found in:

(a) pea (b) maize (c) rice
(d) sorghum (e) jute
Q24. Moderately mobile nutrient in soil is?
(a) Phosphorus (b) Zinc (c) Iron
(d) Potassium (e) Sulphur
Q25. khoa ,rabri and basundi are
(a) Heat desiccated product
(b) acid coagulated product
(c) fermented product (d) fat rich product
(e) none of these
Q26. Fruit type of Aonla is
(a) Syncous (b) Amphisaraca (c) Berry
(d) Nut (e) Capsule
Q27. Fruits which are sensitive to salinity are
(a) Almond (b) Papaya (c) Mango
(d) Peach (e) All of these
Q28. Spongy tissue is main problem in which variety of mango.
(a) Alphonso (b) Kesar (c) Arka Puneet
(d) Langra (e) Dassheri
Q29. Ringspot disease of papaya transmitted by
(a) whitefly (b) aphids (c) mealy bug
(d) psylla (e) none of these
Q30. Purple blotch of onion caused by
(a) Aspergillus niger (b) Alternaria porii
(c) Fusarium sp. (d) Rhizoctonia sp.
(e) Aschchyta pisi
Q31. The government Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has pegged the agricultural
credit Target for fiscal year 2020-21 by?
(a) 10 lakh crore (b) 20 lakh crore
(c) 15lakh crore (d) 12lakh crore
(e) 14lakh crore
Q32. In cattle stomach honeycomb like wall present in which compartment?
(a) Rumen (b) Reticulum (c) Omazum
(d) Abomazum (e) None of these
Q33. C-306 variety in PBW-502 wheat field, it is an example of-
(a) Absolute weed (b) Rogue weed (c) Relative weed
(d) Volunteer weed (e) None of these
Q34. Highest share in fertilizer consumption in percentage
(a) Cotton (b) Sugarcane (c)Wheat
(d) Paddy (e) Groundnut

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Q35. Which among the following is a non-ruminant animal?

(a) Giraffe (b) Yak (c) Swine
(d) Deer (e) Camel
Q36. Mycoplasma is sensitive to
(a) Penicillin (b) calixin (c) Tetracycline
(d) Streptomycin (e) none of these
Q37. Which of the following structures help the fungi to survive under adverse condition?
(a) Zoospores (b) Sclerotia (c) Conidiophores
(d) Chalmydospores (e) None of these
Q38. Windbreaks are planted in orchards towards:
(a) North-east (b) North-west (c) East-South
(d) South-west (e) North-South
Q39. Which award is given for outstanding research in Dry land farming systems?
(a) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai award
(b) Vasantrao Naik award
(c) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed award
(d) Chaudhary Charan Singh award
(e) Kal Bahadur Shastri award
Q40. The process of milking is done for how much time?
(a) 5-8 minute (b) 10-15 minute (c) 15-20 minute
(d) 20-25 minute (e) 25-30 minutes
Q41. Fruit which have long storage life than other fruits?
(a) Guava (b) strawberry (c) apple
(d) Ber (e) Litchi
Q42. Little leaf in mango and cashew is due to deficiency of
(a) Zinc (b) Calcium (c) Iron
(d) Nitrogen (e) Phosphorus
Q43. Gestation period of goat ranges between
(a) 145days (b) 150-152days
(c) 160-162days (d) 114days (e) 200days
Q44. Hollow heart in potato occur due to
(a) Environmental condition
(b) Overuse of fertilizer (c) Rodents
(d) Bacterial infection (e) Nutrient deficiency
Q45. Glycolysis takes place in:
(a) Mitochondria (b) Cytoplasm (c) Chloroplast
(d) Peroxisome (e) Centrosome
Q46. Microeconomics is also known as
(a) Production theory (b) Consumer theory
(c) Price theory (d) Substitution theory
(e) None of these

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Q47. Thrips belong to the order

(a) Thysanoptera (b) Homoptera (c) Hemiptera
(d) Diptera (e) Coleoptera
Q48. Extension teaching is:
(a) Vertical (b) Horizontal (c) Parallel
(d) Circular (e) None of these
Q49. Silver fibre Revolution is related to
(a) Jute (b) Cotton (c) Poultry
(d) Milk (e) Honey
Q50. What is envisaged in the concept of lay farming
(a) Layering in horticulture
(b) Leguminous pastures with grain crops
(c) More layer birds in limited space
(d) Rearing of Poultry animals
(e) Layer birds are reared in closed space
Q51. If the farmer practices 'Sugarcane-Cotton-Barley' ,the cropping intensity at his farm
will be:
(a) 100% (b) 300% (c) 400%
(d) 150% (e) 200%
Q52. The optimum seed rate of tobacco is(kg/ha)
(a) 0.3-0.5kg/ha (b) 1-2kg/ha (c) 3-5kg/ha
(d) 6-7kg/ha (e) none of these
Q53. A green plant will turn yellow if placed in dark due to
(a) Phototropism (b) Dormancy (c) Etiolation
(d) Dormancy (e) Vernalisation
Q54. Indian Farming is published by
(a) ICAR (b) CSIR (c) IARI
(d) NAAS (e) FAI
Q55. India's first Organic Farming University is going to be established in which state
(a) Maharashtra (b) Sikkim (c) Gujrat
(d) Madhya Pradesh (e) Uttar Pradesh
Q56. What is the Botanical name of alfalfa?
(a) Crotolaria juncea (b) Medicago sativa
(c) Trifolium alexandrium (d) Beta vulgaris
(e) Ricinus communis
Q57. Cotton can be successfully grown all soil except.......
(a) Sandy Soil (b) Saline Soil (c) Black soil
(d) Regur soil (e) A & B
Q58. Ultra Narrow cultivation us practiced in
(a) Groundnut (b) Rice (c) Maize
(d) Cotton (e) Papaya

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Q59. Trap crop of orobanche is

(a) Linseed (b) Sunhemp (c) Chillies
(d) Mustard (e) all of these
Q60. Commercial methods of propagation of Mango are
(a) Wedge grafting (b) Veneer grafting
(c)Tongue grafting (d) all of these
(e) none of the above
1.B 2.C 3. A 4. C 5.B 6.B 7. D 8.C 9. C 10.C
11.B 12.A 13.D 14. B 15. C 16. B 17.D 18. A 19. B 20.D
21. D 22.B 23. C 24.D 25. A 26. E 27. E 28. A 29. B 30.B
31.C 32.B 33.B 34.D 35. C 36. C 37. C 38.B 39. B 40. A
41. C 42.A 43.B 44. A 45.B 46. C 47.A 48. B 49.B 50. B
51.D 52. C 53. C 54.A 55. C 56.B 57. E 58.D 59.E 60. B
The greatest fear lies within us; the best way

to succeed is to never give up. Overcome
your fears and move closer to your dreams.

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Overall Test (Practice set)-3

Q1. Beta
Vulgaris is sugarbeet. Sugarbeet belongs to which family?
(a) Solanaceae (b) Poaceae (c) Plygonaceae
(d) Asteraceae (e) Chenopodiaceae
Q2. International Forest day is celebrated on which day?
(a) 20th March (b) 21st March (c) 22nd March
(d) 21st April (e) 22nd April
Q3. International Water day is celebrated on which day?
(a) 20th March (b) 21st March (c) 22nd March
(d) 21st April (e) 22nd April
Q4. What is the colour of the tag of Certified seed?
(a) White (b) Blue (c) Yellow
(d) Purple (e) Black
Q5. Process of killing organisms in a product, commonly milk by heating to a con-trolled
temperature is known as?
(a) Sterlization (b) Pasteurization (c) Buffering
(d) Cleaning (e) None of these
Q6. Which year will be celebrated as International year of Fruits and Vegetables?
(a) 2012 (b) 2020 (c) 2019
(d) 2021 (e) 2022
Q7. Which instrument is used to measure the Wavelength of light?
(a) Pyrgeometre (b) Spectrophotometer (c) Pyreheliometer
(d) Heliograph (e) Campbell-Stroke
Q8. Which crop is known as Poor Man’s Friend?
(a) Wheat (b) Paddy (c) Potato
(d) Sugarcane (e) Cowpea
Q9. What is the optimum germination temperature for Sacchrum officinarium (in degree
celcius)?
(a) 21 (b) 25 (c) 30
(d) 35 (e) 16
Q10. Which crop has raceme inflorescence ?
(a) Groundnut (b) Mustard (c) Castor
Q11. Jerking is a process in which first tillers are pulled out or removed which will result in
uniform flowering of all the tillers. It occur in which crop?
(a) Tobacco (b) Bajra (c) Tomato
(d) Papaya (e) Sunflower
Q12. Which of the following crop is not used for making silage?
(a) Maize (b) Jowar (c) Wheat straw
(d) Grass (e) All of these

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Q13. Which among the following pulse crop has highest protein?
(a) Pea (b) Moong (c) Gram (d)
Rajma (e) Groundnut
Q14. This fruit is known as national fruit of India?
(a) Guava (b) Coconut (c) Mango
(d) Banana (e) Grapes
Q15. Which among the following crop is known as wonder crop?
(a) Moong (b) Cotton (c) Soyabean
(d) Potato (e) Rice
Q16. CFTRI is located at?
(a) Delhi (b) Bhopal (c) Indore
(d) Mysore (e) Hyderabad
Q17. Parshall flume is related to?
(a) Fertilizer (b) Irrigation (c) Manure
(d) Pesticides (e) Tillage
Q18. Silver fiber revolution is related to?
(a) Jute (b) Egg (c) Cotton
(d) Metal (e) Thread
Q19. If a single farm enterprise will give more than 50% income, This type of farming is
known as?
(a) Diversified farming (b) Specialized farming
(c) Mixed farming (d) Integrated farming
(e) Zero budget natural farming
Q20. Zero budget natural farming was started in which country?
(a) Japan (b) USA (c) India
(d) Sri Lanka (e) China
Q21. Dahlia, Marigold and Gaillardia belong to the family:
(a) Iridaceae (b) Oleaceae (c) Malvaceae
(d) Compositeae (e) None of these
Q22. Genetically the purest seed is:
(a) Breeder's seed (b) Foundation seed
(c) Certified seed (d) Nucleus seed (e) All of these
Q23. Which insect attack on the field as well as storage
(a) Rice weevil (b) Khapra beetle
(c) Angoumois grain moth (d) Red flour beetle (e) Both b & d
Q24. which of the following equipment’s can be effectively used for spraying an orchard
crop
(a) Barrel pump (b) Sikar pump
(c) Foot sprayer (d) Heli sprayer (e) All of these
Q25. Dead heart symptom in rice is caused by
(a) Rice stem borer (b) Gall midge

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(c) Brown plant hopper (d) Rice bug (e) Aphid

Q26. Which of the following fruit belong in Rosaceae family
(a) Bael (b) Mandarin (c) Strawberry
(d) Wood apple (e) both b and c
Q27. Flat planting method is mostly common in intensive sugarcane growing areas where
soil-moisture is available in plenty. The depth of planting of sugarcane setts is
(a) 5cm (b) 10 cm (c) 15 cm
(d) 20cm (e) 25 cm
Q28. Which one of the following is a monocot vegetable?
(a) Radish (b) Spinach beet (c) Garlic
(d) Pointed gourd (e) None
Q29. Average length of pregnancy (gestation) period in sheep is:
(a) 100 days (b) 118 days (c) 147 days
(d) 162 days (e) 285 days
Q30. Which of the following is a synthetic pyrethroid?
(a) Pyrethrum (b) Fenvalerate (c) Rotenone
(d) Woodward (e) Both a& c
Q31. By which of the following method of raising seedlings of rice, we can get the ready
seedling in early time?
(a) Dapog method (b) Dry bed method
(c) Wet bed method (d) All
Q32. Crop, which can be propagated by vegetative parts:
(a) Pineapple (b) Coconut (c) Papaya
(d) Phalsa (e) both b & d
Q33. How much is the porosity percentage if the particle density of soil is 2.6 and bulk
density is 1.3?
(a) 35% (b) 40% (c) 50%
(d) 55% (e) 60%
Q34. Which one is not correctly matched?
(a) Ginger - Rhizome (b) Garlic - Bulb
(c) Potato - Tuber (d) Sweet potato - Stolon
(e) All of these
Q35. Production of foundation seed is the responsibility of:
(a) Breeder (b) NSC (c) Farmer
(d) Agricultural University (e) None
Q36. Hornless goat breed is
(a) Anglo-Nubian (b) Sannen (c) Toggenberg
(d) Angora (e) Alpine
Q37. "Hidden hunger" means:
(a) Deficiency symptoms are seen when the nutrient is deficient

156 | P a g e
(b) Severe yield reduction may occur without appearance of deficiency symptoms
(c) The nutrient is not deficient but apparently seems to be deficient
(d) Visual deficiency symptoms are suppressed by other elements
(e) None of these
Q38. When seeds are dropped in furrow by funnel/nai attached to the plough is known as
(a) Kera method (b) Pora method (c) Dena method
(d) Dibbling (e) Broadcasting
Q39. National research center for Makhana is situated in
(a) M.H (b) T.N (c) Bihar
(d) Nagpur (e) Varanasi
Q40. Modified stem of banana is called
(a) Suckers (b) Rhizome (c) Runners
(d) Slip (e) Berry
Q41. Scientific study of diseases in plants is related to?
(a) Plant Pathology (b) Entomology (c) Virology
(d) Virology (e) Nematology
Q42. Who is the chairman of the Committee on Doubling Farmers' Income?
(a) Narendra modi (b) Trilochan mohapatra
(c) Narendra Singh tomar (d) Ashok dalwai
(e) Prakadh jawedekar
Q43. The pH value of alkali soil
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5
(d) 7 (e) 8
Q44. Central Marine fisheries research institute established on 1947 , which is located at
(a) Kochi (b) Mumbai
(c) Bhubaneshwar (d) Barrackpore (e) Chennai
Q45. World Coconut Day is celebrated every year on -
(a) 16th September (b) 22nd April (c) 5th October
(d) 2nd September (e) 2nd October
Q46. Which of the following forest tree is grown for industrial plywood ?
(a) bamboos (b) eucalyptus (c) castlarina
(d) rosewood (e) Neem
Q47. Which among the following is Plantation Crop?
(a) Tobacco (b) Rubber (c) Maize
(d) fruits (e) All of these
Q48. Minimum length of a shelter -belt should be about ___ times of its height ?
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 15
(d) 25 (e) 30
Q49. What is the net area (ha) under irrigation in India?
(a) 69 (b) 49 (c) 141
(d) 64 (e) 50

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Q50. Which among the following institute is giving its contribution towards agricultural
extension?
(a) NABARD (b) NABARD (c) MANAGE
(d) MoA&FW (e) NDRI
Q51. Which among the following category is known as Marginal farmer (NABARD-2019)
(a) 1-2 Ha. (b) 2-4 Ha. (c) 4-6 ha.
(d) 4-10 Ha. (e) Less than one ha.
Q52. What is the Pf value at permanent wilting point is
(a) 4.5 (b) 4.2 (c) 2.54
(d) 2.54-4.5 (e) None of these
Q53. The water which lies between wilting coefficient and field capacity is called available
water. what is range of tension in permanent wilting point ?
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/3 - 1 (c) 15
(d) 31 (e) 1
Q54. Phosphorus uptake in acidic soil in the form of…
(a) H2PO4– (b) HPO42– (c) PO43–
(d) H3PO4 (e) HPo4—
Q55. Which of the following is a secondary essential nutrient ?
(a) Zn (b) Cu (c) S
(d) N (e) P
Q56. Soil puddling is classified as a_________.
(a) zero tillage (b) secondary tillage
(c) primary tillage (d) blind tillage
(e) None of these
Q57. American cotton should be planted at a distance of :
(a) Wheat. (b) Barley (c) Oat
(d) Bajra. (e) Berseem
Q58. Which of the following crops is a kharif season crop of North India ?
(a) Wheat. (b) Barley (c) Oat
(d) Bajra. (e) Berseem
Q59. Total amount of water present In the soil is called ?
(a) Holard (b) Capillary water
(c) Available water (d) Hygroscopic water
(e) Combined water
Q60. Soil less cultivation of plants is known as:
(a) Parthenocarpy (b) Hydroponics (c) Pisiculture
(d) Arboriculture (e) None of these

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1.E 2. B 3. C 4. B 5.B 6. D 7.B 8.C 9. A 10.E
11.B 12.C 13.B 14. C 15. C 16.D 17.B 18. C 19. B 20.C
21. D 22.D 23. C 24.C 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. C 29. C 30.B
31.A 32.A 33.C 34.D 35. B 36.C 37. B 38.B 39. C 40. B
41. A 42.B 43.E 44. A 45.D 46. D 47.B 48. D 49.A 50. C
51.E 52. B 53.C 54.A 55. C 56.B 57. D 58.D 59.A 60. B
“आपके पास एक ही ीवन है, इसे आप यिं ही

बहाने बना कर गु ार दें, या सिंघर्ष करके
उपलजधधयािं हाजसल करें और अपने न्म को
सार्थषक करें , चुनाव आपका है ”

159 | P a g e
OVERALL TEST-4
Q1. Vitavax is used as a seed treatment for the control of
(a) Blight (b) Smut
(c) leaf spot (d) rust
Q2. In which century the cultivation of chickpea and mustard started?
(a) 7500 BC (b) 3400 BC
(c) 2300 BC (d) 2900 BC
Q3. The classification of the crop is given as: It belongs to family Fabaceae, and has a
chromosome number (2n): 22 It is a pulse crop and scientifically known as Vigna radiata.
Which among the following is this crop?
(a) Black Gram (b) Green Gram
(c) Red Gram (d) Bengal Gram
Q4. Which among the following crop is quite incredibly famous for its name Yellow jewel:
(a) Mango (b) Banana
(c) Soybean (d) Kabuli chana
Q5. What is the optimum temperature for the tillering of Wheat crop (in degree Celsius)?
(a) 15-20 (b) 20-23
(c) 23- 27 (d) 27- 30
Q6. The protein content of groundnut is _____ % and oil content of Groundnut is ____ %
(a) 42 %, 26% (b) 26%, 45 %
(c) 36 %, 45 % (d) 20 %, 45 %
Q7. Which light is most favourable light for the growth of plants?
(a) Green light (b) Blue light
(c) White light (d) Red light
Q8. Inflorescence is the arrangements of flowers. What is the inflorescence of Potato?
(a) Cymose (b) Raceme
(c) Spike (d) Capitulum
Q9. Which of the Following is an Example of Gaseous Plant Hormone?
(a) IAA (b) Gibberellin
(c) Ethylene (d) Abscisic acid
Q10. Who is Regarded as the Father of Plant Physiology?
(a) Stephen hales (b) Funk
(c) Fisher (d) W. Kuntis
Q11. When a recessive allele masks the expression of both dominant and recessive allele,
this is referred to as what type as epistasis?
(a) Duplicate epistasis (b) Polymeric gene interaction
(c) Recessive (d) Dominant and recessive
Q12. Which among the following is not a type of epistasis?
(a) Polymeric gene interaction (b) Duplicate gene interaction
(c) Recessive and dominant gene interaction
(d) Sex linked
Q13. With four alleles how many different combination of alleles can be possible?
(a) only four (b) less than 8 and more than 4
(c) more than 8 and less than 12 (d) only 16

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Q14. the inherent capacity of an organism to increase in number under ideal condition will
be referred as?
(a) Carrying capacity (b) Biotic potential
(c) Growth rate (d) Reproductive potential
Q15. Loss of one chromosome will be known as?
(a) Monosomics (b) polyploidy
(c) aneuploidy (d) haploidy
Q16. The origin of embryo from either synergids or antipodal cells of the embryo sac will
be referred as?
(a) Parthenogenesis (b) Apogamy
(c) Apospory (d) Adventive embryony
Q17. Superiority of F1 over the better parent will be referred as
(a) Heterosis (b) Homozygosity
(c) Hoterobeltiosis (d) Inbreeding
Q18. Heteroploidy that involves one or more complete genomes is known as?
(a) monosomics (b) polyploidy
(c) aneuploidy (d) euploidy
Q19. The production of male gametes or sperm will be referred to as?
(a) Microsporogenesis (b) Megasporogenesis
(c) Microgametogenesis (d) Megagametogenesis
Q20. Breeding crops for improving nutritional quality is referred to as?
(a) Biomining (b) Biomagnification
(c) Biofortification (d) Bioremediation
Q21. Acid concentration in CAM Plants is more in the time of?
(a) Night (b) Day
(c) Early morning (d) Evening
Q22. Which among the following is a characteristic of C4 plant?
(a) The first product is oxaloacetic acid
(b) The carboxylating enzymes are PEPco and RUBISco
(c) It follows kranz anatomy (d) All of these
Q23. Flowering dependent on cold treatment will be referred to which amomng the
following?
(a) Cryopreservation (b) Vernalization
(c) Cryogenics (d) Cryotherapy
Q24. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants takes place due to which
amomng the following hormone?
(a) Cytokinins (b) Ethylene
(c) Gibberellins (d) Indole acetic acid
Q25. A nutritionally wild type organism, which does not require any additional growth
supplement is known as?
(a) Auxotroph (b) Holotroph
(c) Prototroph (d) Phenotroph
Q26. The function of leghemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is
(a) Inhibition of nitrogenase activity
(b) Nodule differentiation

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(c) Expression of nif gene (d) Oxygen removal

Q27. Which of the following is a rootless aquatic plant in which a portion of the leaf forms
a tiny sac for trapping insects?
(a) Dionaea (b) Nepenthes
(c) Bladder wort (d) Drosera
Q28. Which among the following is the function of Manganese which can define it
completely?
(a) Water absorption (b) Nitrogen fixation
(c) Photolysis of water (d) Chlorophyll formation
Q29. The enzyme responsible for primary carboxylation in C3 plants is
(a) Succinic dehydrogenase (b) Hexokinase
(c) Pyruvate carboxylase (d) RuBP carboxylase oxygenase
Q30. Passive absorption of water by the root system is the result of
(a) Tension on the cell sap due to transpiration
(b) Increased respiratory activity in root cells
(c) Forces created in the cells of the root
(d) Osmotic force in the shoot system
Q31. For the preparation of vermicompost the beds are maintained at how much moisture
content?
(a) 20- 30 % (b) 30- 40 %
(c) 40-50% (d) 50-60 %
Q32. Which among the following is the free floating freshwater fern?
(a) Cyanobacteria (b) VAM
(c) Azola (d) Rhizobacteria
Q33. Which among the following is a source of Aluminum mineral?
(a) Hematite (b) Appetite
(c) Sylvite (d) Bauxite
Q34. Which soil is maximum in hills and plantation crop area?
(a) Black Soil (b) Clay loamy soil
(c) Lateritic soils (d) Alluvial soil
Q35. Soil colour indicates many soil features, term VALUE denotes?
(a) Purity of colour (b) Lightness or darkness of
(c) Amount of reflected light (d) Strength of colour
Q36. Soil structural units having horizontal axis much longer than vertical axis. Such type
of soil structure is known as:
(a) Prismatic (b) Blocky
(c) Platy (d) Columnar
Q37. National centre for organic farming is established in year 2004 which is located at-
(a) Gangtok (b) Ghaziabad
(c) Lucknow (d) Delhi
Q38. What is the bulk density (g/cc) of sandy loam textural soil?
(a) 1.1 (b) 1.3
(c) 2.1 (d) 1.5
Q39. Which of the following soil have lowest bulk density
(a) Silt loam (b) Silty Clay
(c) Loamy Sand (d) Sandy Loam

162 | P a g e
Q40. The most deficient primary nutrient element in Indian soils is?
(a) Copper (b) Boron
(c) Carbon (d) Nitrogen
Q41. First Biotechnological plant in 1982, plant was* ?
(a) cotton (b) tobacco
(c) maize (d) sugarcane
Q42. Excision and insertion of a gene is called
(a) Biotechnology (b) Genetic engineering
(c) Cytogenetics (d) Gene therapy
Q43. The DNA fragments have sticky ends due to
(a) Endonuclease (b) Unpaired bases
(c) Calcium ions (d) Free methylation
Q44. Which of the following is the example of chemical scissors?
(a) ECo -RI (b) Hind-iii
(c) Bam-1 (d) all the above
Q45. PCR technology was given by?
(a) Karl Ereky 1980 (b) kary Mullis 1983
(c) Kornberg 1961 (d) Khorana 1968
Q46. The use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organization without proper
authorisation from the countries and people concerned, is known as
(a) Biopatent (b) Biodiversity
(c) Biowar (d) Biopiracy
Ans: d
Q47. The expression of a transgene in the target tissue is identified by a
(a) Reporter (b) Transgene
(c) Promoter (d) Enhancer
Q48. Which of the following is not a genetically modified plant?
(a) Bt. -Cotton (b) golden Rice
(c) Flavr save tomato (d) Pusa swarnim
Q49. What is used as a vector for cloning into higher organisms
(a) Retrovirus (b) Baculovirus
(c) Salmonella typhimurium (d) Rhizopus nigricans
Q50. Which of the following is not naturally occurring gene
(a) Cry -gene (b) Bt-gene
(c) RNA, gene (d) cellular defense gene
Q51. Which of the following is considered as the sub-optimal stage of production?
(a) Stage 1 (b) Stage 2
(c) Stage 3 (d) None of the above.
Q52. Which of the following is termed as the overhead cost?
(a) Total Fixed Cost (b) Total Variable Cost
(c) Total Cost (d) Average Cost
Q53. Which of the following law of production deals with cost miniminsation and profit
maximisation?
(a) Factor-Product Relationship (b) Factor-Factor Relationship
(c) Product-Product Relationship (d) Law of Comparitive Advantage
Q54. Break-even point is called as :-
(a) Total Revenue = Total Cost

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(b) Average Revenue = Average Cost

(c) Total Revenue = Total Fixed Cost
(d) Total Revenue = Zero
Q55. Sugarcane selling by the farmers to a sugar mill is a situation which depicts:-
(a) Monopoly (b) Monopsony
(c) Oligopoly (d) None of the above.
Q56. Combination of various inputs providing the same level of output is called ad :-
(a) Isoquant (b) Isocline
(c) Production Possibility Curve (d) Budget Line
Q57. A condition in which few number of sellers and larger number of buyers is called as :-
(a) Monopoly (b) Perfect Competition
(c) Monopsony (d) Oligopoly
Q58. National Cooperative Development Corporation started in which year ?
(a) 1968 (b) 1964
(c) 1963 (d) 1979
Q59. First commodity to be considered under regulated market was :-
(a) Potato (b) Rice
(c) Wheat (d) None of the above
Q60. Which of the following operation is essential before Grading?
(a) Packaging (b) Marketing
(c) Standardisation (d) Cleaning
Q61. Sugar beat is an indicator plant of ?
(a) sodium (b) Molybdenum
(c) zinc (d) Phosphorus
Q62. The 1st maize hybrid in india was ?
(a) Vikram (b) Shaktiman
(c) VL-42 (d) Ganga-1st
Q63. Co2 accepter in c4 plant is:
(a) OAA (b) RuBP
(c) PGA (d) None
Q64. The crop having the highest pesticide us is :
(a) Oilseeds (b) Cereal
(c) Vegetable (d) Cotton
Q65. Sulphur containing Amino acid :
(a) Lycine (b) glutamine acid
(c) Glycine (d) Methionine
Q66. Vertisol is related to
(a) Red soil (b) Black soil
(c) Alkaline soil (d) Laterite soil
Q67. NPK are regarded in plants nutrients as :
(a) Trace elements (b) Macro nutrients
(c) Micro nutrients (d) Non-essential
Q68. The most serious pest of bengalgram is
(a) Pod borer (b) Cutworm
(c) Aphid (d) None of these
Q69. The major component of biogas generated from cow dung is :

164 | P a g e
(a) H2 (b) Co2

(c) N2 (d) Ch4
Q70. Trench method of sugarcane planting is used in :
(a) North India (b) Western India
(c) Water logged area (d) coastal area
Q71. In dwarf wheat sowing depth is related to
(a) Length of radicle (b) Length of coleoptile
(c) Temperature (d) Humidity
Q72. Which one of the following is the best exmple of catch crop?
(a) Linseed (b) Mustard
(c) Toria (d) Groundnut
Q73. At field capacity the value of pF is
(a) 0.0 (b) 2.5
(c) 4.2 (d) 6.0
Ans: b
Q74. The husk less variety of barley is :
(a) Manjula (b) KK 141
(c) Dolma (d) RS 6
Q75. Cultivation of durum wheat is primarily confined to
(a) central India (b) Southern India
(c) Central and southern India (d) UP hills
Q76. Silver shoots in paddy are caused by
(a) Rice Hispa (b) Case worm
(c) Gall midge (d) Brown plant hopper
Q77. What is the Reason for Seed Dormancy?
(a) Starch (b) Glucose
(c) Ethylene (d) Abscisic acid
Q78. In a good quality manure C/N ratio should not be more than:
(a) 10 (b) 20
(c) 30 (d) 40
Q79. Concentration of which element is highest in soil?
(a) O2 (b) Al
(c) Fe (d) Si
Q80. Sunflower oil is rated as good quality oil because it contains:
(a) low quantities of saturated fatty acids
(b) Low quantities of unsaturated fatty acid
(c) High quantities of saturated fatty acid
(d) high quantities of unsaturated fatty acid
81. What is the number of KVK in India right now?
(a) 620 (b) 680
(c) 720 (d) 760
82. The first Agricultural Census was conducted in which year?
(a) 1930 (b) 1951
(c) 1970 (d) 1982
83. Grow more Food campaign was started in which year?
(a) 1948 (b) 1951

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(c) 1970 (d) 1982

84. It is known as apex bank of agriculture and established in which year?
(a) 1903 (b) 1935
(c) 1955 (d) 1982
85. Lab to Land Programme was launched in which year?
(a) 1903 (b) 1926
(c) 1929 (d) 1979
86. Which program plays a major role in the success of green revolution?
(a) Lab to Land Programme (b) HYVP
(c) Drought Prone Area Programme
(d) ATMA
87. The word ‘extension’ is derived from which language?
(a) Greek (b) Latin
(c) English (d) Arabic
88. Which among the following is the example of Audio aids?
(a) Black board (b) Specimen
(c) Gramophone (d) None of these
89. The concept of T and V system was evolved in which year?
(a) 1973 (b) 1976
(c) 1982 (d) 1996
90. The credit for the success of KVK goes to ?
(a) Dr. R. S. Paroda (b) Dr. Chindrika Prasad
(c) Dr. Mangla Rai (d) None of these
91. Which committee was formulated by ICAR to formulate KVK scheme
(a) Vyas committee (b) Purushottam Das committee
(c) Shankar Lal Gori committee (d) Mohan Singh Mehta Committee
92. Cauliflower belongs to the family?
(a) Cruciferae (b) Poacae
(c) Malvaceae (d) Leguminaceae
93. Cow and buffalo belong to which family?
(a) Equidae (b) Bovidae
(c) Cammelidae (d) None of these
94. The origin of litchi is
(a) India (b) China
(c) Iraq (d) Israel
95. Dual purpose breed of goat is?
(a) Barbari (b) Jamnapari
(c) Marwari (d) Beetul
96. Mating of the related individual with 4-6 generation is known as
(a) Linebreeding (b) Outcrossing
(c) Close breeding (d) Inbreeding
97. Rinderpest disease is caused by
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Parasite (d) Fungus
98. The number of pre molar teeth in cattle?
(a) 8 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 16

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99. Browsing is common feature of which animal?

(a) Cow (b) Sheep
(c) Horse (d) Goat
100. Longest phase of oestrus cycle is?
(a) Proestrus (b) Estrus
(c) Diestrus (d) Metestrus
1.B 2. C 3. B 4.C 5.A 6. B 7. D 8.A 9. C 10.A
11.C 12. D 13.D 14. B 15. A 16.B 17.C 18. D 19. C 20.C
21. A 22. D 23. B 24.C 25. C 26. D 27. C 28. C 29. D 30. A
31.C 32.C 33.D 34.C 35. B 36. C 37.B 38.D 39.B 40. D
41.B 42.B 43.B 44. D 45.B 46. D 47.A 48. D 49.A 50.C
51.A 52. A 53. B 54.A 55.B 56.A 57. D 58.C 59.D 60. C
61.A 62.D 63.A 64.D 65.D 66.B 67.B 68.A 69.D 70.D
71.B 72.C 73.B 74.C 75.C 76.A 77.D 78.A 79.A 80.D
81.C 82.C 83.A 84.D 85.D 86.B 87.B 88.C 89.A 90.B
91.D 92.A 93.B 94.B 95.B 96.D 97.B 98.C 99.D 100.C
Education has the power to make you

free, without education you cannot
progress in life at the pace you would
love. Keep studying.
All the best champ!!!
167 | P a g e
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Agri Coaching Chandigarh 95-200-90-200

Message for my students

1. Stay positive and confident, Focus on giving 100% instead of selection.

All the best champ!

Agri Coaching Chandigarh 95-200-90-200

Agri Coaching Chandigarh 95-200-90-200

IMPORTANT TERMS OF AGRICULTURE

1. Abscission: Detachment of fruit, leaf or other parts from a plant is called

depth of one foot assuming no seepage evaporation and run off.

measuring quantity of flow of water. It is equal to a flow which will cover

4. Acre inch: It is a measure of quantity of flow of water and is equal to the

flow which will cover one acre to a depth of one inch.

6. Allelopathy: Phenomenon involving the release of certain chemicals from

7. Altitude: Height from sea level

crops that require cultivation of the soil are grown.

9. Arboriculture: Intensive cultivation of individual trees possibly for fruits

gums and resins.

Agri Coaching Chandigarh 95-200-90-200

fall or 100% available water. It is permanent feature of region.

is known as Barani soil.

sowing and the last watering before harvesting.

genetic purity and identity.

15. Basin: Flat area of land surrounded by low ridges or bunds

photosynthesis and nutrient uptake minus that lost by respiration.

streams and rivers, eventually to the sea or into a lake.

growers of seed producing agencies.

19. Climate: Aggregate of atmospheric condition over a long period of time.

the force of gravity.

21. Command Area: Area which can be economically irrigated by an irrigation

raised on a commercial scale for marketing.

Agri Coaching Chandigarh 95-200-90-200

crops. e.g. Berseem and barley.

e.g. coriander, mint.

25. Consumptive Use of Water: Evapo-transpiration plus the water assimilated

by various plant metabolic processes. As the water consumed in plant

causing significant damage to crop is termed as critical threshold level.

maturity with in a given period of time.

of water supplied across the base period.

few centimeters high, is called Korwatering.

Agri Coaching Chandigarh 95-200-90-200

maturity within a given period of time.

35. Diversified Farming: This is an expanded type of farming system in which

37. Dormancy: Seed dormancy is the state of inhibited germination of seeds

with viable embryos in condition conducive to plant growth.

water requirement of a crop or which can be used by crop.

43. Hydrophyte: Plant which grows in water, or which loves water.

44. Ideotype: An ideal plant type developed through breeding.

Agri Coaching Chandigarh 95-200-90-200

45. Indeterminate plants: In these plants, the vegetative and reproductive

46. Inoculant: The bacteria containing material used to introduce N – fixing

Rhizobium bacteria into soil.

47. Interception: When the drops of rainfall or precipitation are intercepted by

plant leaves it is called interception.

48. Lodging: The bending or breaking over of a plant before harvesting.

50. Osmotic potential: It is also called solute potential. It is produced by

Agri Coaching Chandigarh 95-200-90-200

55. Transpiration ratio: It is the ratio of the weight or volume of water

56. Transpiration: It is the process of loss of water from living plants.

60. Harvest index: It is the ratio of economic yield to biological yield. It is

61. H.I. = economic yield x 100 / Biological yield

Agri Coaching Chandigarh 95-200-90-200

64. What is crop rotation? A definite succession of crops following one an