Topper 8 146 513 2011 Question Up201912061243 1575616414 0068

NEET
Board Paper - 2011
NEET - 2011
Questions with Solutions
Time: 3 Hours Total Marks: 720
General Instructions:
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. The Test Paper contains 180 questions. There are three parts in the question paper
consisting of Physics and Chemistry having 45 questions each and Biology with 90
questions.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4
marks. For each incorrect response, 1 mark will be deducted from the total scores. The
maximum marks are 720.
4. Out of the four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer. If
more than one response is marked in any question, it will be treated as wrong response
and marked up for wrong response will be deducted.
5. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in
the answer box.
6. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
PHYSICS
Q 1. The dimension of (μ0ε0)-1/2 are-

Option A  L1/2T1/2 
 
Option B  L1/2T 1/2 
 
Option C [L T]
-1
Option D [LT-1]
Correct Option D
Solution: (μ0ε0)-1/2 is an expression for speed of light.
Thus, dimension is [LT-1]
Q 2. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass M and length L about an axis
passing through its midpoint perpendicular to its length is I0. Its moment of inertia about an
axis passing through one of its ends and perpendicular to its length is-
Option A I0 + ML2
ML2
Option B I0 
2
ML2
Option C I0 
4
Option D I0 + 2ML2
Correct Option C
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Solution:
According to theorem of parallel axes,
I  ICM  Md 2
where,
ICM  moment of inertia of given rod is about an axis passing through centre of mass.
ICM  I0,
L
d=
2
2
L
2
ML
I  I0  M    I0 
2 4
Q 3. A boy standing at the top of tower of 20 m height drops a stone. Assuming g = 10ms -2, the
velocity with which it hits the ground is-
Option A 5.0 m/s
Option B 10.0 m/s
Option C 20.0 m/s
Option D 40.0 m/s
Correct Option C
Solution: v  2gh  2 10  20  20m / s
Q 4. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button one control
panel. The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration 1. 0 m/s2. If g = 10 m/s2, the
tension in the supporting cable is-
Option A 1200 N
Option B 8600 N
Option C 9680 N
Option D 11000 N
Correct Option D
Solution: T = (M +m) (g + a) = (940 + 60) (10+1) = 11000 N
Q 5. A body projected vertically from the earth reaches a height equal to earth’s radius
before returning to the earth. The power exerted by the gravitational force is greatest
Option A At the instant just after the body is projected
Option B At the highest position of the body
Option C At the instant just before the body hits the earth
Option D It remains constant all through
Correct Option C
Solution:
P  F.v  Fvcos 
Just before hitting Ө is zero and both F, v are maximum
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Q 6. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the

equation Ө (t) = 2t3 – 6t2. The torque on the wheel becomes zero at
Option A t=2s
Option B t=1s
Option C t = 0.2 s
Option D t = 0.25 s
Correct Option B
Solution: Torque zero means, α zero
d2
  0  12t 12  0  t 1 second
dt 2
Q 7. A particle moves in a circle of radius 5cm with constant speed and time period 0.2πs.
The acceleration of the particle is
Option A 5 m/s2
Option B 15 m/s2
Option C 25 m/s2
Option D 36 m/s2
Correct Option A
Solution:
2
 2 
a  2 R   
2

 5  10  5m / s
 0.2 
2
Q 8. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the
same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is-
Option A Zero
Option B MV
Option C 1.5 MV
Option D 2 MV
Correct Option D
Solution: Impulse = MV – (-MV) = 2 MV
Q 9. A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1 and farthest
away at a distance of r2. If V1 and V2 are the linear velocities at these point respectively. Then
the ration v1/v2 is-
Option A r1/r1
Option B (r1/r1)2
Option C r2/r1
Option D (r2/r1)2
Correct Option C
Solution:
V1r1 = V2r2  angular momentum is constant 
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Q 10. A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of frequency ѵ and the nucleus recoils.
The recoil energy will be
Option A hѵ
Option B Mc2 - hѵ
Option C h2ѵ2/2Mc2
Option D zero
Correct Option C
Solution:
2
 h 
 momentum  2  
 
c
E
2M 2M
Q 11. The potential energy of a system increases if work is doneyu

Option A Upon the system by a conservative force
Option B Upon the system by a non- conservative force
Option C By the system against a conservative force
Option D By the system against a non-conservative force
Correct Option C
Solution: The potential energy of a system increases if work is done by the system against a
conservative force.
Q 12. A body is moving with velocity 30 m/s towards east. After 10 seconds its velocity
becomes 40 m/s towards north. The average acceleration of the body is-
Option A 5 m/s2
Option B 1 m/s2
Option C 7 m/s2
Option D 7 m/s2
Correct Option A
Solution:
vf  v1 302  402
a   5m / s 2
t 10
Q 13. A missile is fired for maximum range with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2,
the range of the missile is-
Option A 20 m
Option B 40 m
Option C 50 m
Option D 60 m
Correct Option B
Solution:
u 2  20 
2
R max    40m
g 10
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Q 14. Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown in the
figure. The work done on the particle during its displacement of 12 m is-
Option A 12 J
Option B 18 J
Option C 21 J
Option D 26 J
Correct Option A
Solution: Work =Area under (F – d) graph = 8 + 5 = 13 J
Q 15. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is

doubled. then the outward electric flux will
Option A Be doubled
Option B Increases four times
Option C Be reduced to half
Option D Remain the same
Correct Option D
Solution:
Q
E  enclosed , Qenclosed remains unchanged
0
Q 16. Four electric charges +q, +q, -q and –q are placed at the corners of a square of side 2L
(see figure). The electric potential at point A, midway between the two charges +q and +q, is-
Option A zero
Option B
1 2q
40 L

1 5 
1 2q  1 
Option C  1 
40 L  5
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1 2q  1 
Option D  1 
40 L  5
Correct Option D
Solution:
2Q 2Q 2Q  1 
V    1  volt
40 L 40 L 5 40 L  50 
Q 17. A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric field E (V/m) in the space between the
plates. If the distance between the plates is d (m) and area of each plate is A (m 2) the energy
(joules) stored in the condenser is-
1
Option A  0 E 20 Ad
2
Option B E 2 Ad / 0
1
Option C  0 E2
2
Option D  0 EAd
Correct Option A
Solution:
1
Direct formula: (energy density= ε0E2) × volume
2
Q 18. If power dissipated in the 9Ω resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the potential
difference across the 2Ω resistor is-
Option A 2 Volt
Option B 4 Volt
Option C 8 Volt
Option D 10 Volt
Correct Option D
Solution:
Current in 9Ω is 2A, so that in 6Ω is 3A. Total current is 2 + 3 = 5A. Potential drop = 5 × 2 = 10V
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Q 19. A current of 2A flows through a 2Ω resistor when connected across a battery. The same
battery supplies a current of 0.5 A when connected across a 9Ω resistor. The internal
resistance of the battery is
Option A 1Ω
Option B 0.5 Ω
Option C 1/3 Ω
Option D ¼Ω
Correct Option C
Solution:
  2 9r 1
2 ; 0.5  or  r  
2r 9r 0.5 9  r 3
Q 20. The rate of increases of thermos e.m.f. with temperature at the neutral temperature of
a thermocouple-
Option A Is negative
Option B Is positive
Option C Is zero
Option D Depend upon the choice of the two materials of the thremocouple
Correct Option C
Solution: Slope is zero at neutral temperature.
Q 21. A current carrying closed loop in the form of a right angle isosceles triangle ABC is
place in a uniform magnetic field acting along AB. If the magnetic force on the arm BC is F ,
the force on the arm AC is-
Option A 2F
Option B  2F
Option C F
Option D F
Correct Option C
Solution:
F  IL  B
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Q 22. The power obtained in a reactor using U235 disintegration 100 kW. The mass decay of
U235 per hour is-
Option A 1 microgram
Option B 10 microgram
Option C 20 microgram
Option D 40 microgram
Correct Option D
Solution:
E = mc2
1000 × 103 × 3600 = m (3 × 108)2
Q 23. There are four light-weight-rod samples, A, B, C, D separately suspended by threads. A

bar magnet is slowly brought near each sample and the following observations are noted-
(i) A is feebly repelled
(ii) B is feebly attracted
(iii) C is strongly attracted
(iv) D remains unaffected
Which one of the following is true?
Option A A is of a non-magnetic material
Option B B is of a paramagnetic material
Option C C is of a diamagnetic material
Option D D is of a ferromagnetic material
Correct Option B
Solution:
Diamagnetic will be feebly repelled.
Paramagnetic will be feebly attracted.
Ferromagnetic will be strongly attracted.
Q 24. The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an e.m. wave, propagating along
the +z-axis, can be represented by-
Option A  E  E0ˆj, B  B0 kˆ 
 
Option B  E  E0î, B  B0ˆj
 
Option C ˆ B  B î 
 E  E0 k,
 0 
Option D  E  E0ˆj, B  B0î 

 
Correct Option B
Solution:
E  B points in the direction of wave propagation.
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Q 25. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same
direction in certain region. In an electron is projected in the region such that its velocity is
pointed along direction of fields, then the electron
Option A Will turn towards left of direction of motion
Option B Will turn towards right of direction of motion
Option C Speed will decreases
Option D Speed will increases
Correct Option C
Solution: B field will not apply any force. E field will
Apply a force opposite to velocity of the
Electron hence, speed will decrease.
Q 26. The current I in a coil varies with as shown in the figure. The variation of induced emf
with time would
Option A
Option B
Option C
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Option D
Correct Option B
Solution:
di
 
dt
Q 27. In an ac circuit an alternating voltage e  200 2 sin100t volts is connected to capacitor

of capacity 1μF. The r.m.s. value of the current in the circuit is-
Option A 20 mA
Option B 10 mA
Option C 100 mA
Option D 200 mA
Correct Option A
Solution:
0/ 2
IRMS   200  100  106 A = 20 mA
1/ C
Q 28. An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and inductor L in series. If R and inductive

reactance are both equal to 3Ω, the phase difference between the applied voltage and the
current in the circuit is-
Option A Zero
Option B π/6
Option C π/4
Option D π/2
Correct Option A
Solution:
X
tan   L  1   45 or  / 4
R
Q 29. When 1 kg of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0°C, the resulting change in its entropy, taking
latent heat of ice to be 80 cal/°C is-
Option A 293 cal/K
Option B 273 cal/K
Option C 8 ×104 cal/K
Option D 80 cal/K
Correct Option B
Solution:
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Q 80  100
S    293cal / K
T 273
Q 30. During an isothermal expansion, a confined ideal gas does –150 J of work against its
surrounding. This implies that
Option A 150 J of heat has been added to the gas
Option B 150 J of heat has been removed from the gas
Option C 300 J of heat has been added to the gas
Option D No heat is transferred because the process is isothermal
Correct Option A
Solution:
By first law of thermodynamics,
ΔU = Q + W
For isothermal process,
ΔU = 0
Thus, Q = – W
W = – 150
Q = + 150
Thus, 150 J of heat is added to the gas.
Q 31. A particle of mass m is released from rest and follows a parabolic path as shown.
Assuming that the displacement of the mass from the origin is small, which graph correctly
depicts the position of the particle as a function of time?
Option A
Option B
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Option C
Option D
Correct Option B
Solution: V(x) versus x is parabolic thus, it is SHM starting from extreme position and x versus t
must be cosine curve.
Q 32. Two waves are represented by the equations y1= Asin (ωt + kx + 0.57) m and y2 = Acos
(ωt + kx) m, is difference between them is-
Option A 0.57 radian
Option B 1.0 radian
Option C 1.25 radian
Option D 1.57 radian
Correct Option B
Solution:
Y2 = a sin (ωt + kx + π/2)
Y1 = a sin (ωt + kx + 0.57)

Phase difference = -0.57 = 1 radian.
2
Q 33. Out of the following functions representing motion of a particle which represents SHM?
(A) y = sin ωt – cosωt
(B) y = sin3ωt
 3 
(C) y  5cos   3t 
 4 
(D) y = 1 + ωt + ω2t2
Option A Only (A) and (B)
Option B Only (A)
Option C Only (D) does not represent SHM
Option D Only (A) and (C)
Correct Option D
Solution:
d2 y
For SHM,  y
dt 2
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Q 34. Sound waves travel at 350 m/s through a warm air and at 3500 m/s through brass. The
wavelength of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it enters brass from warm air
Option A Decrease by a factor 20
Option B Decreases by a factor 10
Option C Increases by a factor 20
Option D Increases by a factor 10
Correct Option D
Solution:
Frequency is same in both the medium
 λ ∝ speed
Q 35. The decreasing order of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is-
Option A Infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
Option B Microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
Option C Gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
Option D Microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
Correct Option B
Solution: The decreasing order of wavelenght of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays
is microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays.
Q 36. The wavelenght of the first line of Lyman series for hydrogen atom is equal to that of
the second line of Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The atomic number Z of hydrogen
like ion is
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 4
Option D 1
Correct Option A
Solution:
 1 1 1 
1    z 2     z  2
 4  4 16 
Q 37. Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?

Option A Brilliance of diamond
Option B Working of optical fiber
Option C Difference between apparent and real depth of pond
Option D Mirage on hot summer days
Correct Option C
Solution:
Real & apparent depth are explained on the basis of refraction only. TIR not involved here.
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Q 38. A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20cm. Which one of the
following options describe best the image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm
from the lens?
Option A Real, inverted, height = 1 cm
Option B Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm
Option C Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm
Option D Real, inverted, height = 4 cm
Correct Option D
Solution:
In general we have assumed μ = 1.5
So, f = 20cmcalculate v = 60 cm
So, magnification is v/u = -2
hi
 2 ; hi  2  h 0
h0
Q 39. In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic
energy of most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is-
Option A 2.3 V
Option B 1.8 V
Option C 1.3 V
Option D 0.5 V
Correct Option D
Solution:
The stopping potential Vs is related to the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons,
K max  eVs
K max  eV
0.5 eV = eVs
Vs  0.5 V
Q 40. Electrons used in an microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is
increased to 100 km then the de- Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would-
Option A Increases by 4 times
Option B Increase by 2 times
Option C Decrease by 2 times
Option D Decrease by 4 times
Correct Option C
Solution:   1/ V
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12.27

V
1 V2

2 V1
100  103
1    2 
25  103
4
1    2 
1
1
 2 
2
Q 41. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1eV and 2.5eV
respectively illuminated metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV successively. Ration
of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be
Option A 1:5
Option B 1:4
Option C 1:2
Option D 1:1
Correct Option C
Solution:
1 hc
mv 2  
2 
1
1st case- mv12  1  0.5  0.5eV
2
1
2nd case- mv 2 2 = 2.5 - 0.5 = 2 eV
2
v1 1  0.5 1
 
v2 2.5  0.5 2
Q 42. In the Davision and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the
electron gun can be increases by-
Option A Decreasing the potential difference between the anode the filament
Option B Increasing the potential difference between the anode and filament
Option C Increasing the filament current
Option D Decreasing the filaments current
Correct Option B
Solution: In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the velocity of electrons emitted from the
electron gun can be increased by increasing the potential difference between the anode and
filament
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Q 43. The half -life of a radioactive isotope X is 50 years. It decays to another element Y
which is stable. The two elements X and Y were found to be in the ratio of 1: 15 in a sample of
a given rock. The age of the rock was estimated to be-
Option A 100 years
Option B 150 years
Option C 200 years
Option D 250 years
Correct Option C
Solution: After t second fraction amount of X left is
4
1 1
or    t  4  T1/2 ; t  4  50  200 years
16  2 
Q 44. Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain
minimum-
Option A Frequency
Option B Power
Option C Wavelenght
Option D Intensity
Correct Option A
Solution:
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation
Kmax = hʋ – hʋ0
As Kmax is +ve, the photoelectric emission occurs only if
hʋ > hʋ0
ʋ > ʋ0
The photoelectric emission occurs when incident light has more than a certain minimum frequency.
This minimum frequency is called threshold frequency.
Q 45. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because

Option A Molecules break up at high temperature
Option B Nuclei break up at high temperature
Option C Atoms get ionized at high temperature
Option D Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei
Correct Option D
Solution: As the kinetic energy between the molecules increases the molecules break up at high
temperature.
Q 46. A nucleus n X emits

m
one α particle and two β particles. The resulting nucleus is-
m4
Option A n 2 Y
m 6
Option B n 4 Z
m 6
Option C n Z
m4
Option D n X
Correct Option D
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Solution: α emission decreases mass number by 4 and atomic number by 2. One β- emission
increases atomic number by one but leaves mass number unchanged.
Q 47. A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at VC = 2 V such that a change

in the base current from 100μA to 300 μA produces a change in the collector current from 10
mA to 20 mA. The current gain is-
Option A 25
Option B 50
Option C 75
Option D 100
Correct Option B
Solution:
 20  10  103  50
Current gain β=
 300  100  6
Q 48. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal-

Option A Its resistance is increased
Option B It becomes a p-type semiconductor
Option C The antimony becomes an acceptor atom
Option D There will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
Correct Option D
Solution:
Addition of antimony will make it an N-type semiconductor
Antimony is pentavalent while germanium is tetravalent. Thus, more free electrons will be present
in the crystal as adding antimony brings one extra electron in it.
Q 49. In forward biasing of the p-n junction

Option A The positive terminal of the battery in connected to p-side and the depletion region
becomes thin
Option B The positive terminal of the battery is connected to p-side and the depletion region
becomes thick
Option C The positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side and the depletion region
becomes thin
Option D The positive terminal of the battery is connected to n-side and the depletion region
becomes thick
Correct Option A
Solution:
In forward basing of the p-n junction, the positive terminal of the battery in connected to p-side
and the depletion region becomes thin.
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Q 50. Symbolic representation of four logic gates are shown

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Pick out which ones are for AND, NAND and NOT gates, respectively:
Option A (ii), (iv) and (iii)
Option B (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Option C (iii), (ii) and (i)
Option D (iii), (ii) and (iv)
Correct Option A
Solution: (ii), (iv) and (iii)
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CHEMISTRY
Q 1. The total number of atomic orbitals in fourth energy level of an atom is?
Option A 4
Option B 8
Option C 16
Option D 32
Correct Option C
Solution: Number of atomic orbitals in an orbit = n2 = 42 = 16
Q 2. The electrode potentials for Cu2+ (aq) + e- → Cu+ (aq) and Cu+ (aq) + e- → Cu (s) are +0.15
V and +0.50 V respectively. They value of E0Cu2 /Cu will be
Option A 0.150 V
Option B 0.500 V
Option C 0.325 V
Option D 0.650 V
Correct Option C
Solution:
G3  G1  G2
  2FE   1F  0.15  1F  0.50 
  2FE   0.1F   0.50F   2FE   F
0.15  0.50
0.65
 E   0.325 volt
2
Q 3. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is

Option A 1.7700
Option B 0.1777
Option C 0.0177
Option D 0.0344
Correct Option B
Solution:
Molality is number of moles of solute present in 1 kg of solvent.
Molecular massof water(H2O)  18
Given massof water  1000g  1kg
GivenMass 1000
Moles    55.5moles
MolecularMass 18
GivenMass
Mole fractionof solute 
MolarMass
1
Therefore,  0.0117
(55.5  1)
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Q 4. By what factors does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the
temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled?
Option A 1.4
Option B 2.0
Option C 2.8
Option D 4.0
Correct Option A
Solution:
8RT
Average velocity 
M
Vavg. T
Vavg.1 T1 T 1
  
Vavg.2 T2 2T 2
Vavg.2  2 Vavg.1
Vavg.2  1.41Vavg.1
Q 5. A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the
concentration of NH4+ is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals 1.8 × 10-5, what
is the pH of this solution?
Option A 8.73
Option B 9.08
Option C 9.43
Option D 11.72
Correct Option C
Solution:
pOH  pK b  log
Salt 
Base
0.20
 4.74  log  4.74  0.301  0.477 
0.30
 4.74  0.176  4.56
pH  14  4.56  9.44
Q 6. Two gases A and B having the same volume diffuse through a porous partition in 20 and
10 seconds respectively. The molecular mass of A is 49 u. Molecular mass of B will be
Option A 25.00 u
Option B 50.00 u
Option C 12.25 u
Option D 6.50 u
Correct Option C
Solution:
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Board Paper - 2011
rA MB v t MB
  A  B 
rB MA t A vB MB
10 MB 1 M
   B  MB  49/ 4  12.25
20 49 4 49
Q 7. Which of the following is correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under
adiabatic condition?
Option A q = 0, ∆T < 0, w ≠ 0
Option B q = 0, ∆T ≠ 0, w = 0
Option C q ≠ 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0
Option D q = 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0
Correct Option D
Solution:
For an ideal gas, for free expansion
Q = 0; ∆T = 0 & w = 0
Q 8. For the reaction N2(g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO (g), the equilibrium constant is K1. The equilibrium
constant is K2 for the reaction 2NO (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g).
1
What is K for the reaction NO2 (g) ⇌ N2 (g)  O2 (g)
2
1
Option A
 K 1K 2 
1
Option B
2K1K2 
1
Option C
 4K1K2 
1/2
 1 
Option D  
 K 1K 2 
Correct Option D
Solution:
N2  g   O2  g  2NO  g  ; K1
2NO  g   O2  g  2NO2  g  ; K 2

N2  g   2O2  g  2NO2  g  ; K3  K1  K 2
1
 For NO2  g  N2  g   O2  g  ;
2
1 1
K 
(K3 )1/2 (K1  K2 )1/2
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Board Paper - 2011
Q 9. If x is amount of adsorbent and m is amount of adsorbent, which of the following

relation is not related to adsorption process?
x
Option A  pT
m
x
Option B  f (p) at cons tan t T
m
x
Option C  f (T) at cons tan t p
m
x
Option D p  f (T) at cons tan t  
m
Correct Option A
Solution:
Only Adsorption Isotherms and Adsorption Isobars are plotted.
That is when either temperature or pressure is kept constant.
It cannot be plotted when none of the pressure and temperature is constant.
Q 10. If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol-1 at 27°C,
the entropy change for the process would be-
Option A 100 J mol-1 K-1
Option B 10 J mol-1 K-1
Option C 1.0 J mol-1 K-1
Option D 0.1 J mol-1 K-1
Correct Option A
Solution:
G  H  TS
Given, Hvap  30KJmol 1
At equilibrium, G  0
Hvap 30  103 Jmol 1
Svap    100Jmol 1K 1
T 300K
Q 11. The van’t Hoff factor, if a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and
association in other solvent is respectively-
Option A Greater than one and greater than one
Option B Less than one and greater than one
Option C Less than one and less than one
Option D Greater than one and less than one
Correct Option D
Solution:
For dissociation i > 1
For association i < 1
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Q 12. Standard electrode potential for Sn4+/Sn2+ couple is +0.15V and that for the Cr3+/Cr
couple is -0.74 V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The
potential will be
Option A +1.83 V
Option B +1.19 V
Option C +0.89 V
Option D +0.18 V
Correct Option C
Solution:
Eocell  Eocathode RP  Eoanode RP
 0.15   0.74    0.89 V
Q 13. A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mole of CO and N2. If the total
pressure of the mixture was found 1 atmosphere, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in
the mixture is
Option A 1 atm
Option B 0.5 atm
Option C 0.8 atm
Option D 0.9 atm
Correct Option B
Solution:
nCO  nN2
 PCO  PN2
PCO  PN2  1 atm
2PN2  1 atm
PN2  0.5 atm
Q 14. If the E0cell for a given reaction has a negative value, then which of the following gives
the correct relationship for the values of ∆Go and Keq?
Option A ∆Go > 0; Keq < 1
Option B ∆Go > 0; Keq > 1
Option C ∆Go < 0; Keq > 1
Option D ∆Go < 0; Keq < 1
Correct Option A
Solution:
∆G° =-nFE°
If E° is negative then ∆Go > 0
∆G° = -RT loge Keq.
When ∆Go > 0, Keq=10-x which is less than one, so Keq < 1
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Board Paper - 2011
Q 15. The freezing point depression constant for water is -1.86 °Cm-1. If 5.00g Na2SO4 is
dissolved in 45.0 g H2O, the freezing point is changed by -3.82°C. Calculate the van’t Hoff
factor Na2SO4.
Option A 0.381
Option B 2.05
Option C 2.63
Option D 3.11
Correct Option C
Solution:
Usin g,Depression in freezing point
Tf  i  K f  m
Tf  WA 3.82  45
i   2.63
K f  nB  1000  5 
1.86     1000
 142 
Q 16. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiation are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation
between their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be-
1
Option A 1   2
2
Option B 1  2
Option C 1  22
Option D 1  42
Correct Option C
Solution:
hc E2 2 25
E ;  ; 1  22
 E1 1 50
Q 17. Standard electrode potential o three metals X,Y, and Z are -1.2 V, + 0.5 V and -3.0 V
Respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be
Option A X >Y>Z
Option B Y>Z>X
Option C Y>X>Z
Option D Z>X>Y
Correct Option D
Solution: higher the reduction potential lesser the reducing power.
So order would be- Z > X > Y
Q 18. Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect?
Option A Order of reaction is always whole number
Option B Order can be determined only experimentally
Option C Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants
Option D Order of reaction is sum of power to the concentration terms of reactants to express
the rate of reaction
Correct Option A
Solution: Order of reaction may be zero, whole number or fraction number.
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Board Paper - 2011
Q 19. Enthalpy change for the reaction, 4H (g) → 2H2(g) is

-869.6 kJ. The dissociation energy of H –H bond is-
Option A +217.4 kJ
Option B -434.8 kJ
Option C -869.6 kJ
Option D +434.8 kJ
Correct Option D
Solution: The dissociation energy of H-H bond is 869.6/2 = 434.8KJ
Q 20. If n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be

Option A ns → np (n – 1) d → (n – 2) f
Option B ns → n (n – 2) f → (n -1) d → np
Option C ns → n (n – 1) d → (n – 2) f → np
Option D ns → (n – 2) f → np → (n – 1) f
Correct Option B
Solution:
According to n+l rule, correct sequence of filling electrons would be-
6s → 4f → 5d → 6p for n = 6
Q 21. Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point?
Option A CaF2
Option B CaCl2
Option C CaBr2
Option D CaI2
Correct Option D
Solution: As covalent character increase, melting point decreases. So CaI2 has lowest melting point.
Q 22. Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method?
Option A Ni and Fe
Option B Ga and In
Option C Zr and Ti
Option D Ag and Au
Correct Option C
Solution: Zr and Ti are purified by van Arkel method.
Q 23. The correct order of increasing bond length of

C – H, C-O, C – C and C = C is
Option A C-H<C–O<C–C<C=C
Option B C–H<C=C<C–O<C–C
Option C C–C<C=C<C–O<C–H
Option D C–O<C-H<C–O<C=C
Correct Option B
Solution: Bond length of C-H is shortest due to small size of both atoms and large electronegativity
difference. Double bonds are shorter than single bonds. Hence C=C bond is shorter than C-O and C-
C. Due to electronegativity difference between C and O the C-O bond length is shorter than C-C
bond.
So order of bond length would be- C – H < C = C < C – O < C – C
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Board Paper - 2011
Q 24. Acidified K2Cr2O7 Solution turns green when Na2SO3 is added to it. This is due to the
formation of-
Option A CrSO4
Option B Cr2 (SO4)3
Option C CrO42-
Option D Cr2 (SO3)3
Correct Option B
Solution:
K2Cr2O7  3 Na2SO3  4 H2SO4  3Na2SO4  K2SO4  Cr2 SO4 3  4H2O
Cr2 SO4 3 gives green colour.
Q 25. For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe and Co), the stability of +2
oxidation state will be there in which of the following order?
Option A Cr > Mn > Co > Fe
Option B Mn > Fe > Cr > Co
Option C Fe > Mn > Co > Cr
Option D Co > Mn > Fe > Cr
Correct Option B
Solution: On the basis of electrode potentials, the correct order is Mn > Fe > Ce > Co.
Q 26. Which of the two ions from the list given below that have the geometry that is
explained by the same hybridization of orbitals, NO2 -, NO3 -, NH2 -, NH4 +, SCN-?
Option A NO2 - , and NH2 –
Option B NO2 - , and NO3 –
Option C NH4 + , and NO2 –
Option D SCN- and NH2 –
Correct Option B
Solution: NO2 -, NO3 - both have same hybridization (sp2).
Q 27. Which of the following elements is present as the impurity to the maximum extent in
the pig iron?
Option A Phosphorus
Option B Manganese
Option C Carbon
Option D Silicon
Correct Option C
Solution: Pig iron contains about 4% carbon (major impurity) and other impurities (S, P, Si, Mn) in
trace amounts.
Q 28. Which of the following is least likely to behave is Lewis base?

Option A OH-
Option B H2O
Option C NH3
Option D BF3
Correct Option D
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Board Paper - 2011
Solution: BF3 is an electron deficient species, so it will accept electron which is the characteristic of
Lewis base.
Q 29. Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for
bleaching action?
Option A CaCl2
Option B CaOCl2
Option C Ca(OCl)2
Option D CaO2Cl
Correct Option C
Solution: Ca (OCl)2, calcium hypochlorite is the active ingredient in bleaching powder which
releases chlorine.
Q 30. The complex, [Pt(Py)(NH3)BrCl] will have how many geometrical isomers?
Option A 2
Option B 3
Option C 4
Option D 0
Correct Option B
Solution:
Complex is square planar and it has three geometrical isomers.
Q 31. Name the type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of [SiO 4]4- is
shared?
Option A Three dimensional
Option B Linear chain silicate
Option C Sheet silicate
Option D Pyrosilicate
Correct Option D
Solution:
In Pyrosilicate, one O atom is shared.
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Board Paper - 2011
Q 32. The complex [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] are the examples of which
type of isomerism?
Option A Geometrical isomerism
Option B Linkage isomerism
Option C Ionization isomerism
Option D Coordination isomerism
Correct Option D
Solution: The complexes [Co(NH3)6] [Cr (CN)6] and [Cr (NH3)6] [Co (CN)6] are the examples of Co-
ordination isomerism.
This isomers occurs only in those complexes on which both cation and antion are complex. It occurs
due to exchange of ligands between cation and anion.
Q 33. The d-electron configurations of Cr2+, Mn2+, Fe2+ and Co2+ are d4, d5, d6 and d7
respectively. Which one of the following will exhibit minimum paramagnetic behavior?
Option A [Cr (H2O)6]2+
Option B [Mn (H2O)6]2+
Option C [Fe (H2O)6]2+
Option D [Cr (H2O)6]2+
Correct Option D
Solution: Co2  3d7 4s0
; having minimum no. of unpaired electrons
Q 34. Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature?

Option A [CoF6]3-
Option B [NiCl4]2-
Option C [Ni (CN)4]2-
Option D [CuCl4]2-
Correct Option C
Solution: Ni has dsp2 hybridisation where CN(-) is a strong ligand
Q 35. Which of the following has the minimum bond length?

Option A O2
Option B O2 +
Option C O2 –
Option D O2 2-
Correct Option B
Solution:

O2(  ) has B.O 2.5 and B.O 
Bond length
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Board Paper - 2011
Q 36. The value of ∆H for the reaction

X2 (g) + 4Y2 (g) ⇌ 2XY4 (g) is less than zero.
Formation of XY4 (g) will be favoured at
Option A High pressure and low temperature
Option B High temperature and high pressure
Option C Low pressure and low temperature
Option D High temperature and low pressure
Correct Option A
Solution: ∆ng = -ve and ∆H = -ve
Q 37. Of the following which one is classified as polyester polymer?

Option A Nylon – 66
Option B Terylene
Option C Backelite
Option D Melamine
Correct Option B
Solution: Terylene is a polyester because it is formed by the monomer units terephthalic acis and
ethylene glycol.
Q 38. What is the product obtained in the following reaction?
Option A
Option B
Option C
Option D
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Correct Option B
Solution:
Q 39. In a set reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product D.
Option A
Option B
Option C
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Board Paper - 2011
Option D
Correct Option D
Solution:
Q 40. In Dumas’ method of estimation of nitrogen 0.35 of an organic compound gave 55 mLof
nitrogen collected at 300K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition
of nitrogen in the compound would be
(Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)
Option A 14.45
Option B 15.45
Option C 16.45
Option D 17.45
Correct Option C
Solution:
P1 V1 PV
 2 2 , on Calculation V2  46.09 ml
T1 T2
28  46.09  100
% of N   16.45
22400  0.35
Q 41. Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent?
Option A
Option B
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Option C
Option D
Correct Option C
Solution: +R effect of OH > OCH3
Q 42. Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following?

Option A CH3CHO + HCN → CH3CH(OH)CN
Option B

H
CH3  CH  CH2  H2O  
CH3  CH CH3
|
OH
Option C
RCHO  R'MgX 
 R  CH R'
|
OH
Option D
CH3 CH3
| |
CH3  CH2  CH CH2Br  NH3 
 CH3  CH2  CH CH2NH2
Correct Option D
Solution:
Nucleophilic
addition
RCHO  R'MgX 
 R  CH R'
|
OH
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Board Paper - 2011
CH3 CH3
| Nucleophilic | H /Electrophilic
substitution addition
CH3  CH2  CH CH2Br  NH3 
 CH3  CH2  CH CH2NH2  CH3  CH CH3
|
OH
Q 43. Considering the state of hybridization of carbon atoms, find out the molecule among
the following which is linear?
Option A CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
Option B CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
Option C CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3
Option D CH2 = CH – CH2 – C ≡ CH
Correct Option C
Solution:
H3C  C  C  CH3
 
sp sp
Q 44. In the following reactions,
 b A HBr, dark
in absesnce of peroxide
 C
(Major
 D
(Minor
product ) product )
The major products (A) and (C) are respectively-
Option A
Option B
Option C
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Option D
Correct Option C
Solution:
CH3 CH3 CH3
| | |
Δ
CH3  CH CH  CH3  CH3  C  CH  CH3  CH3  CH  CH  CH2
Major(A) Minor(B)
CH3
|

H
CH3  CH  CH  CH3 


|
OH
CH3 CH3
| |
CH3  CH  CH  CH3  CH3  CH  CH  CH 2
A  B
major min or
CH3
|
HBr  dark 
H3C  C  CH  CH3 
A
major
CH3 CH3
| |
H3C  C  CH  CH3  CH3  C  CH  CH3
| | |
Br H Br
C   D
major min or
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Board Paper - 2011
CH3 CH3 CH3

| | |
HBr(dark)
CH3  C  CH  CH3  CH3  C CH2  CH3  CH3  C CH CH3
| | |
CH3 CH3 Br
Major(A) Major(C) Minor(D)
Q 45. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with conc. HNO3 while testing for halogens. By doing
so it.
Option A Increase the concentration of NO3 – ions
Option B Decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed
Option C Helps in the precipitation of AgCl
Option D Increase the solubility product of AgCl
Correct Option B
Solution:
Na2S and NaCN, if present in the extract will be decomposed to H2S and HCN by HNO3.
NaCN + HNO3 → NaNO3 + HCN
Na2S + 2HNO3 → 2NaNo3 + H2S
These will escape from the solution and will not interfere with the test for halogens.
Q 46. The correct IUPAC name of the compound
is-
Option A 3- (1-ethyl propyl) hex-1-ene
Option B 4-Ethyl-3-propyl hex-1-ene
Option C 3-Ethyl-4-ethenyl heptane
Option D 3-Ethyl-4-propyl-hex-5-ene
Correct Option B
Solution:
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Board Paper - 2011
Q 47. Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the
following?
Option A H2 and Pt as catalyst
Option B Glycol with KOH
Option C Zn-Hg with HCl
Option D LiAlH4
Correct Option C
Solution: Clemmensen reduction
Q 48. Which one of the following is employed as Anthithstamine?

Option A Omeprazole
Option B Chloramphenicol
Option C Diphenyl hydramine
Option D Norothindrne
Correct Option C
Solution: Diphenyl hydramine is employed as Anthistamine
Q 49. Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+) Lactose?
Option A (+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8-OH groups
Option B On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal amount of D (+) galactose
Option C (+) Lactose is a β-glycoside formed by the union of a molecule of D(+) glucose and a
molecule of D (+) galactose
Option D (+) Lactose is reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation
Correct Option D
Solution: (+) lactose is a reducing sugar and it exhibiit mutarotation
Q 50. Which one of the following statement is not true?

Option A Oxides of Sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant
Option B pH of drinking water should be between 5.5-9.5
Option C Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish
Option D Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm
Correct Option C
Solution: Growth of fish is inhibited if concentration of DO is below 6 ppm.
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BIOLOGY
Q 1. The "eyes" of the potato tuber are

Option A Axillary buds
Option B Root buds
Option C Flower buds
Option D Shoot buds
Correct Option A
Solution: The potato tubers are used for vegetative propagation as they possess axillary buds over
their nodes or eyes which produce new plantlets.
Q 2. Organisms called methanogens are most abundant in a

Option A Hot spring
Option B Sulphur rock
Option C Cattle yard
Option D Polluted stream
Correct Option C
Solution: Methanogens live in the gut/digestive tract of ruminant animals and hence are most
abundant in a cattle yard.
Q 3. Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature?
Option A Angiosperms
Option B Fungi
Option C Insects
Option D Birds
Correct Option C
Solution: Phylum Arthropoda has the highest number of species in nature. Insects are largest group
within the arthropod phylum.
Q 4. Archegoniophore is present in
Option A Funaria
Option B Marchantia
Option C Chara
Option D Adiantum
Correct Option B
Solution: In Marchantia, gametophore of female thallus is called archegoniophore.
Q 5. Compared to the gametophytes of bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend

to be
Option A Smaller and have smaller sex organs
Option B Smaller but have larger sex organs
Option C Larger but have smaller sex organs
Option D Larger and have larger sex organs
Correct Option A
Solution: The gametophytes from thallophyta to angiosperms become reduced with reduced size of
sex organs. Hence, as compared to the gametophytes of bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular
plants tend to be smaller and have smaller sex organs.
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Q 6. The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in

Option A Pinus
Option B Polytrichum
Option C Adiantum
Option D Marchantia
Correct Option A
Solution: In gymnosperms like Pinus the male and the female gametophytes do not have an
independent free-living existence. They remain within the sporangia retained on the sporophytes.
Q 7. Important site for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is

Option A Lysosome
Option B Vacuole
Option C Golgi apparatus
Option D Plastid
Correct Option C
Solution: Proteins synthesised by the rough endoplasmic reticulum and lipids synthesised by the
smooth endoplasmic reticulum reach the cisternae of Golgi complex where they combine with
carbohydrates to form glycoproteins and glycolipids. Hence, Golgi apparatus is the site for the
formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
Q 8. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in

Option A Ribosomes
Option B Chloroplast
Option C Mitochondria
Option D Chromoplast
Correct Option A
Solution: Ribosomes are the site of peptide or protein synthesis.
Q 9. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is

Option A Cell wall
Option B Plasma membrane
Option C Nucleus
Option D Ribosomes
Correct Option B
Solution: The plasma membrane of eubacteria resembles that of the eukaryotic cell and is made of
phospholipids, proteins and some amount of polysaccharides.
Q 10. Mutations can be induced with

Option A Gamma radiations
Option B Infra-red radiations
Option C IAA
Option D Ethylene
Correct Option A
Solution: Mutations can be induced with high energy radiations like gamma radiations which can
cause a change in the structure of DNA.
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Q 11. A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is called
a
Option A Genome
Option B Herbarium
Option C Germplasm
Option D Gene library
Correct Option C
Solution: A collection of genetic resources including plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all
the genes of a crop is called germplasm.
Q 12. Which one of the following also acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?
Option A 23S rRNA
Option B 23S rRNA
Option C sn RNA
Option D hn RNA
Correct Option A
Solution: 23S rRNA in bacteria acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell. It is the enzyme- ribozyme for
the formation of peptide bond.
Q 13. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Option A Flower of tulip is a modified shoot.
Option B In tomato, fruit is a capsule.
Option C Seeds of orchids have oil-rich endosperms.
Option D Placentation in primrose is basal.
Correct Option A
Solution: Flower of tulip is a modified shoot meant for sexual reproduction wherein the shoot
apical meristem changes to floral meristem.
Q 14. The correct floral formula of chilli is
Option A
Option B
Option C
Option D
Correct Option C
Solution: Chilli belongs to Family Solanaceae. The correct floral formula of chilli is
Floral characters of Family Solanaceae:
 Inflorescence: Solitary, axillary or cymose as in Solanum
 Flower: Bisexual, actinomorphic
 Calyx: Sepals five, united, persistent, valvate aestivation
 Corolla: Petals five, united, valvate aestivation
 Androecium: Stamens five, epipetalous
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 Gynoecium: Bicarpellary, syncarpous, ovary superior, bilocular, placenta swollen with many
ovules
Q 15. Nitrifying bacteria

Option A Reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
Option B Oxidise ammonia to nitrates
Option C Convert free nitrogen to nitrogen compounds
Option D Convert proteins into ammonia
Correct Option B
Solution: Nitrifying bacteria oxidise ammonia to nitrates during nitrogen cycle.
Q 16. The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is

Option A Expression of nif gene
Option B Inhibition of nitrogenase activity
Option C Oxygen removal
Option D Nodule differentiation
Correct Option C
Solution: Leghaemoglobin is a red coloured pigment present in the nodules of legumes which
absorbs oxygen and hence removes oxygen from the root nodules.
Q 17. Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised?

Option A Sulphur
Option B Phosphorus
Option C Calcium
Option D Potassium
Correct Option C
Solution: Calcium is not remobilised in plants as it forms the structural component of the cell.
Q 18. A drupe develops in

Option A Tomato
Option B Mango
Option C Wheat
Option D Pea
Correct Option B
Solution: Mango is a drupe in which the pericarp is well-differentiated into an outer thin epicarp, a
middle fleshy edible mesocarp and an inner stony hard endocarp.
Q 19. Ground tissue includes

Option A All tissues internal to endodermis
Option B All tissues external to endodermis
Option C All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles
Option D Epidermis and cortex
Correct Option C
Solution: All tissues except epidermis and vascular bundles constitute the ground tissue. It consists
of simple tissues such as parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma.
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Q 20. In land plants the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having
Option A Chloroplasts
Option B Cytoskeleton
Option C Mitochondria
Option D Endoplasmic reticulum
Correct Option A
Solution: In land plants, the guard cells possess chloroplasts and regulate the opening and closing
of stomata.
Q 21. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of

Option A Guava
Option B Peach
Option C Cucumber
Option D Cotton
Correct Option B
Solution: In peach, the gynoecium is situated in the centre and other parts of the flower are located
on the rim of the thalamus almost at the same level, called perigynous and thus the ovary is said to
be half inferior.
Q 22. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called
Option A Phellem
Option B Phelloderm
Option C Phellogen
Option D Periderm
Correct Option D
Solution: The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called the periderm.
Q 23. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

Option A Cassia – Imbricate aestivation
Option B Root pressure – Guttation
Option C Puccinia – Smut
Option D Root – Exarch protoxylem
Correct Option C
Solution: Puccinia is a wheat rust causing fungi.
Q 24. Flowers are zygomorphic in

Option A Datura
Option B Mustard
Option C Gulmohur
Option D Tomato
Correct Option C
Solution: The Gulmohar flower can be divided into two similar halves only in one particular
vertical plane, hence, it is called zygomorphic.
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Q 25. CAM helps the plants in

Option A Reproduction
Option B Conserving water
Option C Secondary growth
Option D Disease resistance
Correct Option B
Solution: In CAM plants, the stomata remain closed during the daytime and open only at night. The
initial fixation of CO2 occurs at night and final fixation occurs during the daytime. Hence, it results in
conserving water.
Q 26. Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is

Option A More than 80%
Option B About 70%
Option C About 60%
Option D Less than 50%
Correct Option D
Solution: Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR (photosynthetically active
radiation) is less than 50%. Photosynthetically active radiation designates the spectral range of
solar radiation from 400 to 700 nm that photosynthetic organisms are able to use in the process of
photosynthesis.
Q 27. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont found in

Option A Pisum
Option B Alnus
Option C Cycas
Option D Cicer
Correct Option C
Solution: Cycas has small specialised roots called coralloid roots which are associated with N2-
fixing cyanobacteria which are prokaryotic and autotrophic.
Q 28. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of

Option A Brassica
Option B Citrus
Option C Gossypium
Option D Triticum
Correct Option B
Solution: Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is referred as polyembryony. In many
Citrus varieties some of the nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac start dividing, protrude into
the embryo sac and develop into embryos. Thus, each ovule contains many embryos.
Q 29. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of

Option A Zygote
Option B Suspensor
Option C Egg
Option D Synergid
Correct Option D
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Solution: The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip called filiform
apparatus, which play an important role in guiding the pollen tube into the synergid.
Q 30. What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42
chromosomes in its root tip cells?
Option A 21
Option B 42
Option C 63
Option D 84
Correct Option C
Solution: The outer covering of endosperm (3n) separates the embryo by a proteinaceous layer
called the aleurone layer. Since the root tip cells are diploid, having 42 chromosomes, the cells of
aleurone layer is triploid, the number of chromosomes would be 63.
Q 31. Wind pollination is common in

Option A Orchids
Option B Legumes
Option C Lilies
Option D Grasses
Correct Option D
Solution: Wind pollination is quite common in grasses whereby the pollen is distributed by wind as
it is light and non-sticky.
Q 32. In which one of the following pollination is autogamous?

Option A Cleistogamy
Option B Geitonogamy
Option C Xenogamy
Option D Chasmogamy
Correct Option A
Solution: Cleistogamy pollination is autogamous as there is no chance of cross-pollen landing on
the stigma.
Q 33. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called
Option A Standing state
Option B Standing crop
Option C Detritus
Option D Humus
Correct Option B
Solution: Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called standing crop.
Q 34. Which one of the following statements is wrong in case of Bhopal tragedy?
Option A It took place in the night of December 2/3, 1984.
Option B Methyl isocyanate gas leakage took place.
Option C Thousands of human beings died.
Option D Radioactive fallout engulfed Bhopal.
Correct Option D
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Solution: Bhopal tragedy took place in the night of December 2/3, 1984 at the Union Carbide India
Limited pesticide plant in Bhopal. There was a leakage of methyl isocyanate gas and other
chemicals. Thousands of human beings died due to this gas leakage. This tragedy was not
radioactive fallout that engulfed Bhopal.
Q 35. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a

Option A Biological process
Option B Physical process
Option C Mechanical process
Option D Chemical process
Correct Option A
Solution: In secondary sewage treatment, the effluents are subjected to a treatment of aerobic and
anaerobic bacteria. Hence, it is mainly a biological process.
Q 36. Eutrophication is often seen in

Option A Mountains
Option B Deserts
Option C Fresh water lakes
Option D Ocean
Correct Option C
Solution: Eutrophication is often seen in fresh water lakes where the nutrient enrichment results
in profuse growth of algae.
Q 37. Large woody vines are more commonly found in

Option A Alpine forests
Option B Temperate forests
Option C Mangroves
Option D Tropical rainforests
Correct Option D
Solution: Large woody vines have their roots in the ground and climb high onto the tree canopy to
reach available sunlight in tropical rainforests.
Q 38. Which one of the following expanded forms of the followings acronyms is correct?
Option A IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
Option B IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change
Option C UNEP = United Nations Environmental Policy
Option D EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency
Correct Option A
Solution:
IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
IPCC = Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
UNEP = United Nations Environment Programme
EPA = Environmental Protection Agency
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Q 39. Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?
Option A It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace.
Option B It begins on a bare rock.
Option C It occurs on a deforested site.
Option D It follows primary succession.
Correct Option C
Solution: Secondary succession begins in areas where natural biotic communities have been
destroyed such as in abandoned farm lands, burned or cut forests and lands that have been flooded.
Q 40. Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India?
Option A Mango
Option B Groundnut
Option C Rice
Option D Maize
Correct Option C
Solution: There are around 200,000 varieties of rice in India alone. The diversity of rice in India is
one of the richest in the world.
Q 41. Which one of the following is not a biofertiliser?

Option A Mycorrhiza
Option B Agrobacterium
Option C Rhizobium
Option D Nostoc
Correct Option B
Solution: Agrobacterium is used as a vector to transfer genes into the host plant and hence is not a
biofertiliser.
Q 42. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of
microorganisms in the human body?
Option A Skin
Option B Epithelium of urogenial tract
Option C Tears
Option D Monocytes
Correct Option C
Solution: Tears contain enzymes called lysozymes which inhibit the synthesis of peptidoglycan
present in the cell wall of microorganisms like eubacteria and hence acts as a physiological barrier
to the entry of microorganisms in human body.
Q 43. Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants?
Option A Anabaena
Option B Glomus
Option C Rhizobium
Option D Frankia
Correct Option B
Solution: Glomus is a mycorrhiza with plants which helps in absorption of phosphorus from the
soil.
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Q 44. 'Himgiri' developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust
pathogens is a variety of
Option A Wheat
Option B Chilli
Option C Maize
Option D Sugarcane
Correct Option A
Solution: 'Himgiri' developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against leaf and
stripe rust pathogens is a variety of wheat developed in India.
Q 45. Which of the following is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on
sewage?
Option A Marsh gas
Option B Laughing gas
Option C Propane
Option D Mustard gas
Correct Option A
Solution: Marsh gas or methane is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria in the
absence of oxygen on sewage.
Q 46. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in

Option A Gel electrophoresis
Option B Spectrophotometry
Option C Tissue culture
Option D PCR
Correct Option A
Solution: In gel electrophoresis the matrix is made of agarose which is a natural polymer extracted
from sea weeds.
Q 47. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of

Option A Pig
Option B Fish
Option C Mice
Option D Cow
Correct Option C
Solution: 95% of all existing transgenic animals are mice.
Q 48. Continuous addition of sugars in 'fed batch' fermentation is done to

Option A Degrade sewage
Option B Produce methane
Option C Obtain antibiotics
Option D Purify enzymes
Correct Option D
Solution: A fed batch is a biotechnological batch process based on feeding of a growth limiting
nutrient substrate to a culture. Hence, continuous addition of sugars in fed batch fermentation is
done to purify enzymes.
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Q 49. The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants resistant
to
Option A Insects
Option B Nematodes
Option C Fungi
Option D Viruses
Correct Option B
Solution: A nematode Meloidogyne incognita infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great
reduction in yield. The process of RNA interference (RNAi) was adopted to prevent this infestation.
Q 50. "Jaya" and "Ratna" developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of
Option A Bajra
Option B Maize
Option C Rice
Option D Wheat
Correct Option C
Solution: Jaya and Ratna were better-yielding semi-dwarf varieties of rice developed in India.
Q 51. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotic cells?
Option A Amoeba proteus
Option B Paramecium caudatum
Option C Escherichia coli
Option D Euglena viridis
Correct Option C
Solution: Escherichia coli is an example of prokaryotic cell.
Q 52. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named
taxonomic category?
Option A Housefly - Musca, an order
Option B Tiger - Tigris, the species
Option C Cuttlefish - Mollusca, a class
Option D Humans - Primata, the family
Correct Option B
Solution: Housefly - Musca, an order is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic
category.
Q 53. In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum
are correctly matched?
Genus Name Two Characters Class/Phylum
Option A Aurelia a) Cnidoblasts Coelenterata
b) Organ level of organisation
Option B Ascaris a) Body segmented Annelida
b) Males and females distinct
Option C Salamandra a) A tympanum represents ear Amphibia
b) Fertilisation is external
Option D Pteropus a) Skin possesses hair Mammalia
b) Oviparous
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Correct Option C
Solution:
Salamandra belongs to Class Amphibia. It has tympanum that represents ear. Fertilisation is
external.
Q 54. Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one
characteristic feature without even a single exception?
Option A Mammalia: Give birth to young ones
Option B Reptilia: Possess 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
Option C Chordata: Possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
Option D Chondrichthyes: Possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Correct Option D
Solution: Class Chondrichthyes possess cartilaginous endoskeleton.
Q 55. What will you look for to identify the sex of the following?
Option A Male shark - Claspers borne on pelvic fins
Option B Female Ascaris - Sharply curved posterior end
Option C Male frog - A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hindlimb
Option D Female cockroach - Anal cerci
Correct Option A
Solution: Male shark bear claspers on its pelvic fins for sexual reproduction.
Q 56. The curve given below shows enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH,
temperature and substrate concentration). What do the two axes (x and y) represent?
x-axis y-axis
Option A Enzymatic activity Temperature
Option B Enzymatic activity pH
Option C Temperature Enzyme activity
Option D Substrate concentration Enzymatic activity
Correct Option C
Solution:
In the given graph showing enzymatic activity, x-axis represents temperature and y-axis represents
enzyme activity.
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Q 57. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in
Option A Fallopian tubes and urethra
Option B Eustachian tube and stomach lining
Option C Bronchioles and fallopian tubes
Option D Bile duct and oesophagus
Correct Option C
Solution: The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are mainly present in the inner surface of
hollow organs like bronchioles and fallopian tubes.
Q 58. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis.

Option A Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along the equatorial
plate in metaphase.
Option B Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase.
Option C Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase.
Option D Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase.
Correct Option A
Solution: Metaphase is characterised by all the chromosomes coming to lie at the equator with one
chromatid of each chromosome connected by its kinetochore to spindle fibres from one pole and its
sister chromatid connected by its kinetochore to spindle fibres from the opposite pole.
Q 59. Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly
identified along with its related function?
Option A A: Lecithin - a component of cell membrane

Option B B: Adenine - a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids
Option C A: Triglyceride – a major source of energy
Option D B: Uracil - a component of DNA
Correct Option A
Solution: A is the formula of lecithin which is a phospholipid and is a component of cell membrane.
B is the formula of adenine which is a nitrogenous base, not a nucleotide.
Q 60. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens)
from his ancestors?
Option A Increasing brain capacity
Option B Upright posture
Option C Shortening of jaws
Option D Binocular vision
Correct Option A
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Solution: The trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors is
increasing brain capacity. Homo sapiens evolved from Neanderthal man have large-sized brain
(1500 cc).
Q 61. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining
the sex in the given example?
Option A Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila.
Option B Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds.
Option C XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper.
Option D XO condition in humans as found in Turner Syndrome, determines female sex.
Correct Option C
Solution: In insects like grasshopper, the males bear only one X chromosome and produce only half
the sperms with X chromosomes. The males are referred to as XO type of sex chromosomes.
Q 62. A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood loss
in an accident and needs immediate blood transfusion.
One of his friends who has a valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood donation
without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend?
Option A Type A
Option B Type B
Option C Type AB
Option D Type O
Correct Option D
Solution: Type O blood group is a universal donor and hence a person with type O blood group can
offer for blood donation without delay.
Q 63. What are those structures that appear as 'beads-on-string' in the chromosomes when
viewed under electron microscope?
Option A Base pairs
Option B Genes
Option C Nucleotides
Option D Nucleosomes
Correct Option D
Solution: Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of a structure in nucleus called chromatin, and
are seen as ‘beads-on-string’ structure when viewed under electron microscope (EM).
Q 64. Match the source gland with its respective hormone as well as function.
Source gland Hormone Function

Option A Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates blood calcium level
Option B Anterior pituitary Oxytocin Contraction of uterus muscles during
childbirth
Option C Posterior pituitary Vasopressin Stimulates reabsorption of water in
the distal tubules of the nephron
Option D Corpus Iuteum Estrogen Supports pregnancy
Correct Option C
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Solution: The posterior pituitary stores and releases two hormones called oxytocin and
vasopressin. Vasopressin acts mainly on the kidney and stimulates reabsorption of water and
electrolytes by the distal tubules and thereby reduces loss of water through urine (diuresis). Hence,
it is also called anti-diuretic hormone (ADH).
Q 65. Which of the following is correctly stated as happens in common cockroach?

Option A The food is ground by mandibles and gizzard.
Option B Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon.
Option C Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood.
Option D Nitrogenous excretory product is urea.
Correct Option A
Solution: In a cockroach, gizzard has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and thick inner culicle
forming six highly chitinous plates called teeth. Gizzard helps in grinding food particles. The
mandibles in cockroach cut off pieces of food and crush them before they are swallowed.
Q 66. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by
the body tissues. This O2
Option A Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelium tissues
Option B Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
Option C Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg
Option D Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
Correct Option B
Solution: The venous blood is 75% saturated with oxygen which acts as a reserve during muscular
exercise.
Q 67. Which one of the following enzymes carries on the initial step in the digestion of milk
in humans?
Option A Trypsin
Option B Pepsin
Option C Rennin
Option D Lipase
Correct Option B
Solution: Pepsin digests proteins and carries on the initial step in the digestion of milk in humans.
Q 68. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid?

Option A Loops of Henle
Option B Peritubular capillaries
Option C Convoluted tubules
Option D Collecting ducts
Correct Option C
Solution: The medulla of kidney is divided into few conical masses, the medulla pyramids or renal
pyramids. Peritubular capillaries, loop of Henle and collecting ducts lie in the medulla (renal
pyramids) while convoluted tubules lie in the cortex of kidney.
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Q 69. One very special feature in the earthworm Pheretima is that

Option A It has a long dorsal tubular heart.
Option B Fertilisation of eggs occurs inside the body.
Option C The typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food in
the intestine.
Option D The S-shaped setae embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons used
against the enemies.
Correct Option C
Solution: The characteristic feature of earthworm Pheretima is its intestine present between 26-35
segments having internal median fold of dorsal wall called typhlosole which increases the effective
area of absorption in the intestine.
Q 70. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts
coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing would have been due to improper
movement of
Option A Tongue
Option B Epiglottis
Option C Diaphragm
Option D Neck
Correct Option B
Solution: A cartilaginous flap called epiglottis prevents the entry of food into the glottis i.e. opening
of the wind pipe during swallowing of food. Hence, coughing occurred due to improper movement
of epiglottis.
Q 71. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which

Option A Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
Option B Supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
Option C Carry blood away from the heart to different organs
Option D Break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
Correct Option C
Solution: Arteries are blood vessels which carry blood away from the heart to different organs.
Q 72. Bundle of His' is a part of which one of the following organs in humans?
Option A Pancreas
Option B Brain
Option C Heart
Option D Kidney
Correct Option C
Solution: In heart, the Purkinje fibres along with right and left bundles are known as bundle of His.
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Q 73. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor cells
of the human eye, is a derivative of
Option A Vitamin A
Option B Vitamin B1
Option C Vitamin C
Option D Vitamin D
Correct Option A
Solution: The rods contain a purplish-red protein called rhodopsin or visual purple, which is a
derivative of Vitamin A.
Q 74. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood?
Option A Fibrinogen
Option B Albumin
Option C Serum amylase
Option D Globulin
Correct Option A
Solution: The plasma protein fibrinogen is involved in clotting or coagulation of blood.
Q 75. When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal
membrane is
Option A Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions
Option B Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
Option C Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
Option D Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
Correct Option A
Solution: When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, i.e., resting, the axonal membrane is
comparatively more permeable to potassium ions (K+) and nearly impermeable to sodium ions
(Na+).
Q 76. Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of human
nephron?
Option A Afferent arteriole: Carries blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein
Option B Podocytes: Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the
Bowman's capsule
Option C Henle's loop: Most reabsorption of major substances from the glomerular filtrate
Option D Distal convoluted tubule: Reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood
capillaries
Correct Option B
Solution: The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called podocytes are arranged in an intricate
manner so as to leave some minute spaces called filtration slits or slit pores through which blood is
filtered so finely that almost all the constituents of the plasma except the proteins pass onto the
lumen of the Bowman’s capsule. Therefore, it is considered as a process of ultrafiltration.
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Q 77. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands and
one major effect of each on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three
blanks A, B and C.
GLANDS SECRETION EFFECT ON BODY
A Oestrogen Maintenance of secondary sexual characters
Alpha cells of Islets B Raises blood sugar level
of Langerhans
Anterior pituitary C Over secretion leads to gigantism
A B C
Option A Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin
Option B Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone
Option C Placenta Insulin Vasopressin
Option D Ovary Insulin Calcitonin
Correct Option B
Solution:
A - Ovary secretes oestrogen which maintains secondary sexual characters.
B - Glucagon hormone is produced by the alpha cells of pancreas which causes the liver to convert
stored glycogen into glucose and hence raises the blood sugar levels.
C - Over secretion of growth hormone leads to gigantism.
Q 78. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes in found in

Option A Insects and Amphibians
Option B Reptiles and Birds
Option C Birds and Annelids
Option D Amphibians and Reptiles
Correct Option B
Solution: Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects excrete nitrogenous wastes as uric acid in the form
of pellet or paste with a minimum loss of water and are called uricotelic animals.
Q 79. The figure given below shows a small part of human lungs where exchange of gases
takes place. In which one of the options given below, part A, B, C or D is correctly identified
along with its function?
Option A B: Red blood cell - Transport of CO2 mainly

Option B C: Arterial capillary - Passes oxygen to tissues
Option C A: Alveolar cavity - Main site for the exchange of respiratory gases
Option D D: Capillary wall - Exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here
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Correct Option C
Solution: A is alveolar cavity which is the main site for the exchange of respiratory gases.
Q 80. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure?
Option A 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney.
Option B 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment.
Option C 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure.
Option D 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active.
Correct Option A
Solution: If the blood pressure of an individual remains 190/110, i.e. it remains equal to or higher
than 140 over 90, it shows hypertension which leads to heart diseases and also affects vital organs
like brain and kidney.
Q 81. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function
regulation?
Option A During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is
suppressed.
Option B When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed.
Option C Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release.
Option D An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II.
Correct Option B
Solution: An increase in body fluid volume can switch off the osmoreceptors and suppress the ADH
release to complete the feedback.
Q.82 The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female
reproductive system of humans. Which one set of three parts out of I-VI have been correctly
identified?
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Option A (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube

Option B (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae
Option C (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix
Option D (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus, (VI) Cervix
Correct Option B
Solution:
II – Endometrium is inner glandular layer that lines the uterine cavity.
III – Infundibulum is the funnel-shaped part closer to the ovary.
IV – Fimbriae. The edges of the infundibulum possess finger-like projections called fimbriae, which
help in collection of the ovum after ovulation.
Q 83. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called
scrotum. The purpose served is for
Option A Providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
Option B Maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature
Option C Escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
Option D Providing more space for the growth of epididymis
Correct Option B
Solution: The scrotum helps in maintaining low temperature of the testes (2–2.5C lower than the
normal internal body temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis.
Q 84. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in
India, as at present?
Option A IUDs' (Intra uterine devices)
Option B Cervical caps
Option C Tubectomy
Option D Diaphragms
Correct Option A
Solution: IUDs are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy and/or space
children. It is one of the most widely accepted method of contraception in India, as at present.
Q 85. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system gets blocked,
the gametes will not be transported from
Option A Vagina to uterus
Option B Testes to epididymis
Option C Epididymis to vas deferens
Option D Ovary to uterus
Correct Option B
Solution: The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the efferent ductules also called vasa
efferentia through rete testis. The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into epididymis which
leads to vas deferens. Hence, if the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system gets blocked,
the gametes will not be transported from testes to epididymis.
NEET
Board Paper - 2011
Q 86. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of
pregnancy?
Option A Six weeks
Option B Eight weeks
Option C Twelve weeks
Option D Eighteen weeks
Correct Option C
Solution: MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., upto 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
Q 87. Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense?

Option A The cuckoo (koel) lays its egg in crow's nest.
Option B The female Anopheles bites and sucks blood from humans.
Option C Human foetus developing inside the uterus draws nourishment from the mother.
Option D Head louse living on the human scalp as well as laying eggs on human hair.
Correct Option D
Solution: Parasitism is a type of interaction between two organisms where one lives at the expense
of other. In this case, one organism is benefitted and the other is harmed. Hence, head louse living
on the human scalp and laying eggs on human hair is an example of parasitism.
Q 88. What type of human population is represented by the following pyramid?
Option A Expanding population

Option B Vanishing population
Option C Stable population
Option D Declining population
Correct Option D
Solution: In a declining population, the shape of the age pyramid is urn-shaped.
Q 89. Which one of the following statements for pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the
remaining three are correct?
Option A It is upright in shape.
Option B Its base is broad.
Option C It shows energy content of different trophic level organisms.
Option D It is inverted in shape.
Correct Option D
Solution: Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows
from one trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step.
NEET
Board Paper - 2011
Q 90. Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of

Option A Aspergillus
Option B Saccharomyces
Option C Clostridium
Option D Trichoderma
Correct Option B
Solution: Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used for fermenting malted cereals and fruit juices, to
produce ethanol.
Q 91. Consider the following four conditions (a - d) and select the correct pair of them as
adaptation to environment in desert lizards.
The conditions
(a) Burrowing in soil to escape high temperature
(b) Losing heat rapidly from the body during high temperature
(c) Bask in sun when the temperature is low
(d) Insulating body due to thick fatty dermis
Option A (a), (b)
Option B (c), (d)
Option C (a), (c)
Option D (b), (d)
Correct Option C
Solution: Adaptations to environment in desert lizards are burrowing in soil to escape high
temperature and bask in sun when temperature is low.
Q 92. Which one of the following pairs of gases are the major cause of "Greenhouse Effect"?
Option A CO2 and N2O
Option B CO2 and O3
Option C CO2 and CO
Option D CFCs and SO2
Correct Option A
Solution: Greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring phenomenon which is responsible for heating
of the Earth’s surface and atmosphere. CO2 and N2O are the major causes of greenhouse effect. CO2
contributes to about 60% of the total global warming. N2O accounts for about 6% of the greenhouse
effect.
Q 93. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?
Option A Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
Option B Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
Option C Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria
Option D Spleen of infected humans
Correct Option B
Solution: Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites (infectious form) through the bite of
infected female Anopheles mosquito. Hence, sporozoites are found in the saliva of infected female
Anopheles mosquito.
NEET
Board Paper - 2011
Q 94. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid is
often superior to both of its parents. This phenomenon is called
Option A Metamorphosis
Option B Heterosis
Option C Transformation
Option D Spheing
Correct Option B
Solution: When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid is
often superior to both of its parents. This phenomenon is called heterosis. The superiority of
hybrids over either of the parents (dominant or recessive) is called hybrid vigour which is
equivalent to heterosis.
Q 95. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency

Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?
Option A WIDAL
Option B ELISA
Option C MRI
Option D Ultrasound
Correct Option B
Solution: ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay) is a diagnostic test for detection of AIDS.
Q 96. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
Option A Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
Option B When the infecting retrovirus enters the host cells
Option C When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
Option D When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T lymphocytes and damages large number of
these cells
Correct Option D
Solution: The progeny HIV viruses released in the blood attack other helper T-lymphocytes. This
process gets repeated leading to a progressive decrease in the number of helper T-lymphocytes in
the body of an infected person and the person starts suffering from bouts of fever, diarrhoea and
weight loss and infections.
Q 97. Given below is a sample of portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the
opposite strands. What is so special shown in it?
5' ______ GAATTC ________ 3'
3' _______CTTAAG________ 5'
Option A Palindromic sequence of base pairs
Option B Replication completed
Option C Deletion mutation
Option D Start codon at the 5' end
Correct Option A
Solution: Palindrome in DNA is a sequence of base pairs that reads same on the two strands when
the orientation of reading is kept the same. Hence, the given base pairs are palindromic sequence of
base pairs.
NEET
Board Paper - 2011
Q 98. The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is
Option A Molasses
Option B Corn meal
Option C Soya meal
Option D Ground gram
Correct Option A
Solution: Molasses is a viscous byproduct obtained by the processing of sugarcane, grapes or
sugarbeet in sugar and is the most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of
ethanol.
Q 99. An organism used as biofertiliser for raising soyabean crop is

Option A Nostoc
Option B Azotobacter
Option C Azospirillum
Option D Rhizobium
Correct Option D
Solution: Rhizobium bacterium produces root nodules in the soyabean plant root and fixes
atmospheric nitrogen and thus enhances soil fertility. Hence, Rhizobium is used as a biofertiliser for
raising soyabean crop.
Q 100. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does "co" part in it stand for?
Option A coli
Option B colon
Option C coelom
Option D coenzyme
Correct Option A
Solution: EcoRI comes from Escherichia coli RY 13. Hence, “co” stands for ‘coli’.

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NEET

Board Paper - 2011

Q 1. The dimension of (μ0ε0)-1/2 are-

Q 6. The instantaneous angular position of a point on a rotating wheel is given by the

Q 11. The potential energy of a system increases if work is doneyu

Q 15. A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is

Q 23. There are four light-weight-rod samples, A, B, C, D separately suspended by threads. A

Option D  E  E0ˆj, B  B0ˆi 

Q 27. In an ac circuit an alternating voltage e  200 2 sin100t volts is connected to capacitor

Q 28. An ac voltage is applied to a resistance R and inductor L in series. If R and inductive

Q 37. Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?

Q 45. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because

Q 46. A nucleus n X emits

Q 47. A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at VC = 2 V such that a change

Q 48. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal-

Q 49. In forward biasing of the p-n junction

Q 50. Symbolic representation of four logic gates are shown

Q 3. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is

Q 9. If x is amount of adsorbent and m is amount of adsorbent, which of the following

Q 19. Enthalpy change for the reaction, 4H (g) → 2H2(g) is

Q 20. If n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be

Q 23. The correct order of increasing bond length of

Q 28. Which of the following is least likely to behave is Lewis base?

; having minimum no. of unpaired electrons

Q 34. Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature?

Q 35. Which of the following has the minimum bond length?

Q 36. The value of ∆H for the reaction

Q 37. Of the following which one is classified as polyester polymer?

Q 38. What is the product obtained in the following reaction?

Q 42. Which one is a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following?

Q 44. In the following reactions,

The major products (A) and (C) are respectively-

CH3 CH3 CH3

Q 46. The correct IUPAC name of the compound

Q 48. Which one of the following is employed as Anthithstamine?

Q 50. Which one of the following statement is not true?

Q 1. The "eyes" of the potato tuber are

Q 2. Organisms called methanogens are most abundant in a

Q 5. Compared to the gametophytes of bryophytes, the gametophytes of vascular plants tend

Q 6. The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in

Q 7. Important site for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is

Q 8. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in

Q 9. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is

Q 10. Mutations can be induced with

Q 13. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Q 14. The correct floral formula of chilli is

Q 15. Nitrifying bacteria

Q 16. The function of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of legumes is

Q 17. Which one of the following elements in plants is not remobilised?

Q 18. A drupe develops in

Q 19. Ground tissue includes

Q 21. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of

Q 23. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

Q 24. Flowers are zygomorphic in

Q 25. CAM helps the plants in

Q 26. Of the total incident solar radiation the proportion of PAR is

Q 27. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont found in

Q 28. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of

Q 29. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of

Q 31. Wind pollination is common in

Q 32. In which one of the following pollination is autogamous?

Q 35. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a