Subject: CCNA

Department: SYSTEM ENGINEERING SEM3

1. Which Cisco layer is responsible for breaking up collision domains?

A. Physical
B. Access
C. Core
D. Network
E. Distribution
F. Data Link
Answer: B

2. PDUs at the Network layer of the OSI are called what?

A. Core
B. Frames
C. Packets
D. Segments
E. Access
F. Distribution
G. Transport
Answer: C

3. At which Cisco layer would broadcast domains be defined?

A. Core
B. Network
C. Physical
D. Distribution
E. Access
F. Transport
Answer: D

4. PDUs at the Data Link layer are named what?

A. Frames
B. Packets
C. Datagrams
D. Transports
E. Segments
F. Bits
Answer: A

5. Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model?

A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Distribution
F. Access
Answer: D

6. For which of the following would you not need to provide a crossover cable?
A. Connecting uplinks between switches
B. Connecting routers to switches
C. Connecting hub to hub
D. Connecting hubs to switches
Answer: BC

7. What does the Data Link layer use to find hosts on a local network?
A. Logical network addresses
B. Port numbers
C. Hardware addresses
D. Default gateways
Answer: C

8. How is a crossover cabled?

A. The pins 1–8 are completely opposite on the other sid
B. It has the pins 1–8 cabled the same on the other sid
C. Pin 1 on one side connects to pin 3 on the other side and pin 2 connects to pin
6 on the other end.
D. Pin 2 on one side connects to pin 3 on the other side, and pin 1 connects to pin
6 on the other en
Answer: C

9. Where are routers defined in the OSI model?

A. Physical
B. Transport
C. Data Link
D. Network
Answer: D

10. At which layer of the OSI are 1s and 0s converted to a digital signal?
A. Physical
B. Transport
C. Data Link
D. Network
Answer: A

11. Which LAN switch method runs a CRC on every frame?

A. Cut-through
B. Store and forward
C. FragmentCheck
D. FragmentFree
Answer: B

12. Which LAN switch type only checks the hardware address before forwarding a
frame?
A. Cut-through
B. Store and forward
C. FragmentCheck
D. FragmentFree
Answer: A

13. What is true regarding the STP blocked state of a port? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. No frames are transmitted or received on the blocked port.
B. BPDUs are sent and received on the blocked port.
C. BPDUs are still received on the blocked port.
D. Frames are sent or received on the block port.
Answer: AC

14. Layer-2 switching provides which of the following?

A. Hardware-based bridging (MAC)
B. Wire speed
C. High latency
D. High cost
Answer: AB

15. What is used to determine the root bridge in a network? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Priority
B. Cost of the links attached to the switch
C. MAC address
D. IP address
Answer: AC

16. What is used to determine the designated port on a bridge?

A. Priority
B. Cost of the links attached to the switch
C. MAC address
D. IP address
Answer: B

17. What are the four port states of an STP switch?

A. Learning
B. Learned
C. Listened
D. Heard
E. Listening
F. Forwarding
G. Forwarded
Answer: AEF

18. What are the three distinct functions of layer-2 switching?

A. Address learning
B. Routing
C. Forwarding and filtering
D. Creating network loops
E. Loop avoidance
F. IP addressing
Answer: ACE

19. What is true regarding BPDUs?

A. They are used to send configuration messages using IP packets.
B. They are used to send configuration messages using multicast frames.
C. They are used to set the cost of STP links.
D. They are used to set the bridge ID of a switch.
Answer: B

20. If a switch determines that a blocked port should now be the designated port,
what state will the port go into?
A. Unblocked
B. Forwarding
C. Listening
D. Listened
E. Learning
F. Learned
Answer: C

21. Which protocol working at the Transport layer provides a connectionless service
between hosts?
A. IP
B. ARP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answer: D

22. Which protocol works at the Transport layer and provides virtual circuits
between hosts?
A. IP
B. ARP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answer: C

23. Which protocol works at the Internet layer and provides a connection service
between hosts?
A. IP
B. ARP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answer: A

24. If a host broadcasts a frame that includes a source and destination hardware
address, and its purpose is to assign IP addresses to itself, which protocol at the
Network layer does the host use?
A. RARP
B. ARPA
C. ICMP
D. TCP
E. IPX
Answer: A

25. If a router interface is congested, which protocol in the IP suite is used to

tell neighbor routers?
A. RARP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. IP
E. TCP
Answer: C

26. What is the valid host range the IP address 172.16.10.22 255.255.255.240 is a
part of?
A. 172.16.10.20 through 172.16.10.22
B. 172.16.10.1 through 172.16.10.255
C. 172.16.10.16 through 172.16.10.23
D. 172.16.10.17 through 172.16.10.31
E. 172.16.10.17 through 172.16.10.30
Answer: E

27. What range of addresses can be used in the first octet of a Class B network
address?
A. 1–126
B. 1–127
C. 128–190
D. 128–191
E. 129–192
F. 192–220
Answer: D

28. What range of addresses can be used in the first octet of a Class C address?
A. 1–127
B. 129–192
C. 203–234
D. 192–223
Answer: D
29. How many bytes is an Ethernet address?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
F. 8
G. 16
Answer: D

30. What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device?
A. RARP
B. ARP
C. IP
D. ICMP
E. BootP
Answer: B

31. When a router is first booted, where is the IOS loaded by default?
A. Boot ROM
B. NVRAM
C. Flash
D. ROM
Answer: C

32. What are the two ways that you can enter setup mode on a router?
A. By typing the clear flash command
B. By typing the erase start command and rebooting the router
C. By typing the command setup
D. By typing the command setup mode
Answer: BC

33. If you are in privileged mode and want to return to user mode, what command
would you use?
A. Exit
B. Quit
C. Disable
D. Control+Z
Answer: AC

34. What editing command moves your cursor to the beginning of the line?
A. Ctrl+E
B. Ctrl+F
C. Ctrl+B
D. Ctrl+A
Answer: D

35. Which editing command will move your cursor to the end of the line?
A. Ctrl+E
B. Ctrl+F
C. Esc+B
D. Ctrl+A
Answer: A

36. Which editing command moves your cursor forward one character?
A. Ctrl+E
B. Ctrl+F
C. Ctrl+B
D. Ctrl+A
Answer: B

37. Which editing command moves your cursor back one word?
A. Ctrl+E
B. Ctrl+F
C. Esc+B
D. Ctrl+A
Answer: C

38. Which command will show you the IOS version currently running on your router?
A. Show flash
B. Show flash file
C. Show ip flash
D. Sh ver
Answer: D

39. Which command will show you the contents of the EEPROM in your router?
A. Show flash
B. Show flash file
C. Show ip flash
D. Sh ver
Answer: A

40. Which command will show you if a DTE or DCE cable is plugged into serial 0?
A. Sh int s0
B. Sh int serial 0
C. Sho controllers s 0
D. Sho controllers s0
Answer: C

41. What is the routing algorithm used by RIP?

A. Routed information
B. Link together
C. Link state
D. Distance vector
Answer: D

42. What is the routing algorithm used by IGRP?

A. Routed information
B. Link together
C. Link state
D. Distance vector
Answer: D

43. Which command can you type at the router prompt to verify the broadcast
frequency for IGRP?
A. sh ip route
B. sh ip protocol
C. sh ip broadcast
D. debug ip igrp
Answer: B

44. What is the routing metric used by RIP?

A. Count to infinity
B. Hop count
C. TTL
D. Bandwidth, delay
Answer: B
45. What command is used to stop routing updates from exiting out an interface?
A. Router(config-if)#no routing
B. Router(config-if)#passive-interface
C. Router(config-router)#passive-interface s0
D. Router(config-router)#no routing updates
Answer: E

46. What is the default routing metric used by IGRP? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Count to infinity
B. Hop count
C. TTL
D. Bandwidth
E. Delay
Answer: DE

47. What does a metric of 16 hops represent in a RIP routing network?

A. 16ms
B. Number of routers in the internetwork
C. Number of hops
D. 16 hops—unreachable
E. Last hop available
Answer: D

48. What are holddowns used for?

A. To hold down the protocol from going to the next hop
B. To prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone down
C. To prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has just come
up
D. To prevent irregular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone down
Answer: B

49. What is split horizon?

A. When a router differentiates on which interface a packet arrived and does not
advertise that information back out the same interfac
B. When you have a large bus (horizon) physical network, it splits the traffic.
C. It holds the regular updates from broadcasting to a downed link.
D. It prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone down.
Answer: A

50. What is poison reverse?

A. It sends back the protocol received from a router as a poison pill, which stops
the regular updates.
B. It is information received from a router that can’t be sent back to the
originating router.
C. It prevents regular update messages from reinstating a route that has just come
up.
D. It describes when a router sets the metric for a downed link to infinity.
Answer: D

51. Which of the following is a true statement regarding VLANs? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. You must have at least two VLANs defined in every Cisco switched network.
B. All VLANs are configured at the fastest switch and, by default, propagate this
information to all other switches.
C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain.
D. VTP is used to send VLAN information to switches in a configured VTP domain.
Answer: D

52. What are the two ways that an administrator can configure VLAN memberships?
A. Via a DHCP server
B. Statically
C. Dynamically
D. Via a VTP database
Answer: BC

53. What size frame is possible with ISL frames?

A. 1518
B. 1522
C. 4202
D. 8190
Answer: B

54. How are dynamic VLANs configured?

A. Statically
B. By an administrator
C. Via a DHCP server
D. Via a VLAN Management Policy Server
Answer: D

55. Which of the following protocols is used to configure trunking on a switch?

(Choose all that apply.)
A. Virtual Trunk Protocol
B. VLAN
C. Trunk
D. ISL
Answer: CD

56. Which of the following is true regarding VTP? (Choose all that apply.)
A. VTP pruning is enabled by default on all switches.
B. VTP pruning is disabled by default on all switches.
C. You can only run VTP pruning on 5000 or higher switches.
D. VTP pruning is configured on all switches by default if it is turned on in just
one VTP server switch.
Answer: BD

57. Which of the following Cisco standards encapsulates a frame and even adds a new
FCS field?
A. ISL
B. 802.1q
C. 802.3z
D. 802.3u
Answer: A

58. What does setting the VTP mode to transparent accomplish?

A. Transparent mode will only forward messages and advertisements, not add them to
their own databas
B. Transparent mode will both forward messages and advertisements and add them to
their own databas
C. Transparent mode will not forward messages and advertisements.
D. Transparent mode makes a switch dynamically secur
Answer: A

59. VTP provides which of the following benefits to a switched network? (Choose all
that apply.)
A. Multiple broadcast domains in VLAN 1
B. Management of all switches and routers in an internetwork
C. Consistency of VLAN configuration across all switches in the network
D. Allowing VLANs to be trunked over mixed networks, like Ethernet to ATM LANE or
FDDI
E. Accurate tracking and monitoring of VLANs
F. Dynamic reporting of added VLANs to all switches
G. Plug-and-Play VLAN adding
Answer: BCDEFG

60. Which of the following is true regarding VTP?

A. All switches are a VTP server by default.
B. All switches are VTP transparent by default.
C. VTP is on by default with a domain name of Cisco on all Cisco switches.
D. All switches are VTP clients by default.
Answer: A

61. Which command will show you the hostname resolved to the IP address on a
router?
A. sh router
B. sho hosts
C. sh ip hosts
D. sho name resolution
Answer: B

62. Which command will copy the IOS to a backup host on your network?
A. transfer IOS to 172.16.10.1
B. copy run start
C. copy tftp flash
D. copy start tftp
E. copy flash tftp
Answer: E

63. Which command will copy a router configuration stored on a TFTP host to the
router’s NVRAM?
A. transfer IOS to 172.16.10.1
B. copy run start
C. copy tftp startup
D. copy tftp run
E. copy flash tftp
Answer: C

64. To copy a configuration from a TFTP host to a Cisco router’s DRAM on your
network, what two commands can you use?
A. config netw
B. config mem
C. config term
D. copy tftp run
E. copy tftp start
Answer: AD

65. Which memory in a Cisco router stores packet buffers and routing tables?
A. Flash
B. RAM
C. ROM
D. NVRAM
Answer: B

66. Which of the following is the correct command to create a host table on a Cisco
router?
A. bob ip host 172.16.10.1
B. host 172.16.10.1 bob
C. ip host bob 172.16.10.1 172.16.10.2
D. host bob 172.16.10.1
Answer: C

67. What command will allow you to see the connections made from your router to
remote device?
A. sh sess
B. sh users
C. disconnect
D. clear line
Answer: A

68. Which command will show the CDP-enabled interfaces on a router?

A. sh cdp
B. sh cdp interface
C. sh interface
D. sh cdp traffic
Answer: B

69. What is the default update timer and holdtime for CDP?
A. 240, 90
B. 90, 240
C. 180, 60
D. 60, 180
Answer: D

70. To copy a configuration from the Cisco router’s DRAM to a TFTP host on your
network, what command can you use?
A. config netw
B. config mem
C. config term
D. copy run tftp
E. copy start tftp
Answer: D

71. IP standard access lists use which of the following as a basis for permitting
or denying packets?
A. Source address
B. Destination address
C. Protocol
D. Port
Answer: A

72. IP extended access lists use which of the following as a basis for permitting
or denying packets?
A. Source address
B. Destination address
C. Protocol
D. Port
E. All of the above
Answer: E

73. To specify all hosts in the Class B IP network 172.16.0.0, which wildcard
access list mask would you use?
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 0.0.255.255
D. 0.255.255.255
E. 0.0.0.255
Answer: C
74. Which of the following are valid ways to refer only to host 172.16.30.55 in an
IP access list?
A. 172.16.30.55 0.0.0.255
B. 172.16.30.55 0.0.0.0
C. any 172.16.30.55
D. host 172.16.30.55
E. 0.0.0.0 172.16.30.55
F. ip any 172.16.30.55
Answer: BD

75. Which of the following access lists will allow only WWW traffic into network
196.15.7.0?
A. access-list 100 permit tcp any 196.15.7.0 0.0.0.255 eq www
B. access-list 10 deny tcp any 196.15.7.0 eq www
C. access-list 100 permit 196.15.7.0 0.0.0.255 eq www
D. access-list 110 permit ip any 196.15.7.0 0.0.0.255
E. access-list 110 permit www 196.15.7.0 0.0.0.255
Answer: A

76. Which of the following commands will show the ports that have IP access lists
applied?
A. show ip port
B. show access-list
C. show ip interface
D. show access-list interface
E. show running-config
Answer: CE

77. What wildcard would you use to filter networks 172.16.16.0 through 172.16.23.0?
A. 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255
B. 172.16.255.255 255.255.0.0
C. 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
D. 172.16.16.0 0.0.8.255
E. 172.16.16.0 0.0.7.255
F. 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255
Answer: E

78. What wildcard would you use for the following networks? 172.16.32.0 through
172.16.63.0
A. 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255
B. 172.16.255.255 0.0.0.0
C. 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
D. 172.16.32.0 0.0.0.255
E. 172.16.32.0 0.0.0.31
F. 172.16.32.0 0.0.31.255
G. 172.16.32.0 0.31.255.255
Answer: F

79. Which of the following commands will show extended access list 187?
A. sh ip int
B. sh ip access-list
C. sh access-list 187
D. sh access-list 187 extended
Answer: BC

80. What is the IP extended access list range?

A. 1–99
B. 200–299
C. 1000–1999
D. 100–199
Answer: D