OSHA 30 Construction

OSHA 30 CONSTRUCTION
QUIZZES
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EXTRA QUESTIONS
1. OSHA requires training to be provided within one year of when a safety and health
program is first
established
A. True
B. False (correct answer)
2. The minimum safe distance for equipment operating in proximity to energized power
lines that contain up to
50,000 volts is
A. 25 feet
B. 5 feet
C. 10 feet (correct answer)
D. 50 feet
3. The __________ GFCI fits into the standard electrical outlet box to protect ground faults.
A. Disposable
B. Receptacle (correct answer)
C. Plastic
D. None-conductive
4. Some states may have more stringent requirements than Federal OSHA for working over
or near water
A. True (correct answer)

B. False
OSHA 30 Construction Quizzes (v. 2.0) Page 2 of 265
5. Load chart ratings will differ when:
A. Outriggers are fully-extended

B. Outriggers are half-extended
C. No outriggers (picking from rubber)
D. All of the above (correct answer)
6. The most important
A. color
B. cons
C. degree
D. geo (correct answer)
7. Complexity of training depends on which of the following?
A. Size and complexity of the worksite

B. Characteristics of the hazards and potential hazards at
C. The training budget
D. All of the above
E. Both A and B (correct answer)
8. Federal OSHA requires the employer to initiate and maintain such safety and health
programs to ensure a
safe and healthful place of employment
A. Never
B. Sometimes
C. Only for governmental agency’s
D. True, for all places of employment (correct answer)
9. If it cannot fix a serious hazard immediately, you should
A. Complain to management
B. Hide it
C. Prevent employee exposure
D. Communicate the hazard to the crew and subs, use signs and bar
E. Both C and D (correct answer)
OSHA 30 Construction Quizzes (v. 2.0) Page 3 of

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10. Gloves used for electrical work must be inspected and tested prior to use, and be certified
every:
A. 30 days
B. 6 months (correct answer)
C. 12 months
D. Never
11. Underground electrical hazards are:
A. Easy to identify
B. Difficult to locate exactly, and may pose a serious risk to laborers and backhoe
operators (correct answer)
C. Always marked exactly where they are located
D. Always buried in red concrete
12. In an effective program, management regards worker safety and health as which the
following?
A. An overhead expense that is a wasteful part of doing business

B. A fundamental value of the organization
C. An important business goal
D. Both B and C (correct answer)
E. None of the above
13. Which of the following is necessary training topics for employees?
A. The workplace plan in case of a fire or other emergency

B. General site hazards and hazards unique to a workers activity.
C. When and where PPE is required
14. Which statement below would be most correct?
A. OSHA requires that all employers have “written” safety and health programs
B. OSHA encourages employers to clearly document their safety and health programs.
(correct answer)
C. Written safety and health programs are always required
D. Safety and health training
E. None of the above.
15. Back disorders, strains and sprains, carpal tunnel syndrome are examples of what type
injury
A. Chemical exposures
B. Musculo-skeletal disorders (MSD's) (correct answer)
C. Biological hazards
D. None of the above
16. Successful safety leaders generally possess which of the following
A. Good people and communication skills

B. Work to gain trust and respect with others
C. Vision and passion
D. Always setting the example as a safety role model
E. All of the above (correct answer)
17. An incident investigation:
A. Is good for finding who to blame when an incident occurs

B. Should focus primarily on the behaviors of those who were closest to an incident
C. Should focus primarily on the immediate cause of an injury
D. Will help an employer reduce factors that create unsafe conditions (correct answer)
18. Training topics for employees who are exposed to fall hazards should include
A. All roof fall hazards that may be encountered

B. Fall protection standards and requirements
C. Procedures for erecting, maintaining, disassembling, inspecting, fail and using
D. Processes for reporting problems or obtaining guidance on fall protection issues
E. A All the above (correct answer)
19. Hand Arm Vibration (HAV) can
A. Result from using hand-held power tools

B. Cause carpal tunnel syndrome in the fingers and hands
C. Result in the loss of sense of touch

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20. An annual inspection of each crane:
A. Is required by OSHA
B. Must be documented
C. Is typically kept with the crane
21. The means by which workers develop and/or express their own commitment to safety and
health protection
is an exam
A. Management commitment
B. Employee involvement (correct answer)
C. Worksite analysis
22. OSHA has long recognized that the implementation of a safety and health program is a
way of ____________
A. Saving on the need for additional compliance officers

B. Not having to comply with OSHA's most rigorous requirements
C. Demonstrating good faith by an employer with respect to safety and health (correct
answer)
D. All of the above
23. An important feature of a hot work permit includes which of the following?
A. An inspection of the area and isolation of combustibles and flammable materials

B. Establishment of trained fire watches (correct answer)
C. Standby employee with portable fire extinguishing equipment
D. Written authorizations to conduct the work
E. All of the above
24. Which of the following is allowed for accessing a scaffold?
A. Ladder
B. Stair tower
C. Ramp and walkway
D. All the above (correct answer)
25. Hazard Prevention and Control includes which of the following?
A. Elimination and control workplace hazards

B. Establishment of a preventive maintenance program
C. Training and information for employees
D. Record and analyze occupational injuries and illnesses.
E. All the above (correct answer)
26. Spoil piles should be backed off from the side of a trench by a minimum distance of
A. Not less than 1 foot

B. Not less than 2 feet (correct answer)
C. Not less than 6 feet
27. A safety and health program should be
A. Consistent with standard industry-wide programs

B. Personalized and tailored to the specific job hazards at a workplace (correct answer)
C. Written in a way so that it will never need to be changed
D. Written so that it can be used by all facilities of an single organization
28. Supervisors should receive specific training in leadership skills such as:
A. Hierarchy of controls
B. Being in charge
C. Communication and coaching (correct answer)
D. Taking and receiving
29. A __________________ must be available to direct workers who are constructing or

moving scaffolds.
A. Qualified Inspector
B. OSHA Inspector
C. Supervisor
D. Competent Person (correct answer)

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30. A hazard is defined as a situation or condition that has the potential to cause harm to:
A. Life
B. Health
C. Profits
D. Schedule
31. Once completely erected, the jacking mast tower crane must be retested

B. False
32. The top section of an extension on a straight ladder should:
A. Be used by itself
B. Not be used by itself (correct answer)
C. Never be used at all
33. When a circular saw is withdrawn from the work material, the lower guard must
automatically return to the
covering position

B. False
34. Lift slab operations Lift-slab operations must be designed and planned by
A. A registered professional engineer experienced in lift-slab construction. (correct

answer)
B. Qualified Person.
C. Superintendent for the operation.
D. OSHA inspector.
35. Concrete buckets equipped with hydraulic or pneumatic gates shall have
A. Positive safety latches or similar safety devices. (correct answer)

B. Plate to indicate date of design.
C. All of the above
MODULE 1: INTRODUCTION TO OSHA
1. When the employer receives an OSHA citation, it must be:
A. Contested and filed with the courts

B. Copied and mailed to each worker
C. Posted for 3 days or until the violation is fixed (correct answer)
D. Signed and returned to OSHA
2. The CFR Parts, such as Part 1926 for Construction, are further broken down into
___________, which group
together specific and detailed standards.
A. Bullets
B. Pieces
C. Slices
D. Subparts (correct answer)
3. Which of the following is a type of OSHA violation?

A. Repeat
B. Serious
C. Willful
4. What are two US government agencies that are good resources for safety and health
information?
A. DEA and DOJ

B. FBI and CIA
C. IRS and SCOTUS
D. OSHA and NIOSH (correct answer)
5. What section of the OSH Act does the Whistleblower Program reference?
A. Section 7(a)
B. Section 8
C. Section 11(c) (correct answer)
D. Section 21
6. The creation of OSHA provided this important right to workers:
A. The right to equal employment opportunities

B. The right to pension benefits
C. The right to privacy
D. The right to a safe and healthful workplace (correct answer)
7. When you've been assigned a new job or task, be sure to ask about the:
A. Additional pay and benefits

B. Time it takes to drive to the nearest OSHA office
C. Medical expenses that all you co-workers may have
D. Written procedures and any additional training that may be required (correct answer)
8. You can request to remain anonymous when OSHA presents a complaint to your
employer.
B. False
9. Where there is no specific OSHA standard, employers must comply with the OSH Act's:
A. Catch-All Standard
B. Final Notice
C. General Duty Clause (correct answer)
D. General Industry Standard
10. What does OSHA require employers to post for 3 days?
A. Employee of the month recognition

B. Grants received for studies
C. OSHA citations and abatement verification notices (correct answer)
D. VPP awards
11. What type of OSHA inspection is conducted when immediate death or serious harm is
likely?
A. Complaint
B. Imminent danger (correct answer)
C. Programmed
D. Referral
12. Workers must be trained in which of the following?
A. Lockout/tagout
B. Fall hazards
C. Bloodborne pathogens
13. Which of the following is a way that an employee can contact OSHA?
A. Email
B. In person at a local office
C. Phone

14. The OSHA standards for Construction and General Industry are found in:
A. Codes 501 through 1000

B. Construction and GI Registers
C. Parts 1915 and 1917
D. Parts 1926 and 1910 (correct answer)
15. Employers covered by OSHA's standards must display an "It's the Law" poster. What
does this poster
address?
A. Employee dress code

B. Hourly wages
C. Hours of operation
D. Safety and health information (correct answer)
16. Which of following would be best to have when consulting a medical professional about
possible exposure
to a harmful chemical?
A. Eye witness accounts of the exposure incident

B. Photographs of the chemical
C. Safety Data Sheet for the chemical (correct answer)
D. Sample of the chemical
17. OSHA requires that employers pay for which of the following personal protective
equipment (PPE)?
A. Hard hats (correct answer)

B. Logging boots
C. Uniforms
D. Weather-related gear
18. Among the rights related to OSHA recordkeeping, workers have the right to review:
A. All first aid treatment forms

B. All worker's compensation forms
C. Medical and exposure records for all workers
D. OSHA 300 Logs and OSHA 300A Summaries (correct answer)
19. What is OSHA's mission?
A. To prevent injuries
B. To protect the health of America's workers
C. To save lives
20. Which groups do NOT come under OSHA's coverage?
A. Public workers who are employed by state agencies

B. Self-employed workers
C. Workers employed by construction companies
D. Both A and B (correct answer)
21. OSHA requires employers to maintain certain records on and report work-related injuries
and illnesses.
Which of the following is used for this process?
A. Injury and Illness Report (Form 301)

B. Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses (commonly called the OSHA 300 Log)
C. Summary (OSHA Form 300A)
22. Who does OSHA recommend you first bring a workplace safety or health concern to?
A. OSHA
B. The local police department
C. Your employer (correct answer)
D. Your lawyer
23. A worker or worker representative can file a complaint about a safety or health hazard in
the workplace.

B. False
24. One of the main responsibilities employers have, as required by OSHA standards, is to:
A. Conduct energy audits

B. Notify OSHA of any workplace injury or illness.
C. Provide training (correct answer)
D. Reduce air pollution in the environment
25. What are two US government agencies that are good resources for safety and health
information?
A. DEA and DOJ

B. FBI and CIA
C. IRS and SCOTUS
D. OSHA and NIOSH (correct answer)

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26. Typically, how long does an employee have to file a complaint with OSHA, when the
employee has been
discriminated against for reporting a safety or health hazard?
A. 3 days
B. 10 days
C. 30 days (correct answer)
D. 60 days
27. OSHA standards fall into four categories (or Parts): General Industry, Construction,
Maritime, and
Agriculture.

B. False
28. The right of workers to be safe and healthy while on the job, without fear of punishment
is spelled out in:
A. OSHA standards
B. Section 11(c) of the OSH Act (correct answer)
C. State laws
D. The General Duty Clause
29. During an OSHA inspection:
A. Employers determine which workers are interviewed

B. You have the right to talk to the inspector privately (correct answer)
C. You may not describe safety and health concerns you have to the inspector
D. Worker representatives are not permitted to accompany the inspector
30. OSHA standards appear in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR).

B. False
MODULE 2: MANAGING SAFETY AND HEALTH
1. IIPP is an acronym for ______________________.
A. Incident Program Plan

B. Injury and Impairment Planning Program
C. Injury and Illness Prevention Program (correct answer)
2. OSHA recognizes that the implementation of a safety and health program as a way of
demonstrating
____________ in promoting workplace safety and health.
A. Good faith by an employer (correct answer)

B. Avoidance of an OSHA citation
C. That money is being spent appropriately
3. The order of precedence and effectiveness of hazard control is which of the following?
A. Engineering Controls first, PPE, Administrative/Work Practice Controls
B. Use PPE first following by Administrative/Work Practice Controls
C. Engineering controls are not required on construction sites
D. Engineering controls, Administrative/Work Practice Controls, PPE (correct answer)
4. The risk assessment code or RAC is used to evaluate:
A. The probability of a hazardous event

B. A degree of hazard severity
C. The same as hazard
D. Both A and B above (correct answer)
5. OSHA's IIPP Proposed Rule includes which of the elements below?
A. Management duties and employee participation

B. Hazard identification, assessment and hazard prevention / control
C. Education, training and program evaluation
6. A Job Hazard Analysis (JHA) is:
A. A technique that focuses on job tasks as a way to identify hazards

B. It focuses on the relationship between the worker, the task, tools and environment
C. Will always prevent injuries
7. Incident investigation should focus on:
A. Assigning blame
B. Understanding why the accident or near miss occurred
C. What actions can be taken to preclude recurrence
D. Both B and C above (correct answer)
8. Which of the following incidents / accidents require investigation?
A. Serious injury incidents

B. Lost time injuries and illnesses
C. Near miss incidents
D. All of the above should be investigated. (correct answer)
9. An effective occupational safety and health program will include which of the following
elements?
A. Management commitment and employee involvement

B. Worksite analysis
C. Hazard prevention and control
10. Regardless of the title (e.g. IIPP, Safety and Health Program, Accident Prevention
Program), the common
goal of these approaches is to ________________________?
A. Save money
B. Appease the OSHA inspector
C. Help employers reduce workplace injuries and illnesses through a systematic process
D. Helps employers proactively address workplace safety and health hazards
11. The basic causes of accidents/incidents are:
A. Unsafe acts (personnel related)

B. Unsafe conditions (substances and the work environment)
C. Neither A nor B
12. In order to be effective corrective/preventive actions must have:
A. Acceptance by workers
B. Acceptance by managers
C. Actions effective in mitigating/controlling the hazard
13. Who should be held accountable for meeting safety and health program responsibilities in
the workplace?
A. Employees
B. Supervisors
C. Managers

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14. Which of the following should be part of an effective Safety and Health Program or IIPP?
A. Should be in writing
B. Should identify the responsible person(s) for implementing the program
C. Should be reviewed periodically and updated
15. Supervisors should receive specific training to ________________.
A. Familiarize themselves with the hazards in their areas of responsibility

B. Know the hazards his / her workers are exposed to
C. Know the complete set of OSHA regulations
16. Which of the following is a benefit for having a safety and health program?
A. A company may need to bid on a contract that requires safety and health
documentation (correct answer)
B. A company may need to prepare quickly for a NIOSH inspection
C. A safety and health program guarantees that all employees will be safe
D. Sometimes, there's no other option
17. Guidance for safety and health program development is available thru
_________________.
A. Local health departments

B. OSHA consultation (correct answer)
C. The IRS
D. All of the above
18. In general, accidents and incidents are caused by unsafe or hazardous conditions and:
A. Employees who have received safety training

B. Unsafe employers
C. Unsafe or unhealthy actions and behaviors (correct answer)
D. Workers with over 10 years’ experience
E. All of the above
19. Injury and illness prevention is the responsibility of
A. Employers and employees (correct answer)

B. Executive management
C. Managers and supervisors
D. OSHA and other safety organizations

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20. A company's safety and health program should cover
A. All employees who have left the organization within the last 30 days
B. State and federal employees
C. Some employees, but not all
D. All workers that the employer directs, supervises, or controls (correct answer)
21. OSHA now recommends that effective safety and health programs include
_____________ major elements.
A. 3
B. 7 (correct answer)
C. 20
D. 25
E. All of the above
22. Which of the following is a core element of a safety and health program, as recommended
by OSHA?
A. Benefits program
B. Cost control
C. Time management
D. Worker participation (correct answer)
23. A safety and health program should:
A. Begin with a message from the organization's highest ranking executive

B. Be formally documented (correct answer)
C. Be signed by all supervisors at a facility
D. Be signed by all workers at a facility
24. An accounting of safety and health responsibilities should be
A. Included an organization's return on investment (RO) strategy

B. Part of the annual report that each organization must send to OSHA Posted on OSHA's
website for each
organization
C. Included in performance reviews (correct answer)

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25. Management duties include which of the following?
A. Communication of commitment
B. Allocating appropriate safety and health resources
C. Defining safety and health goals and objectives
26. Which of following is an executive management role with regard to an organization's

safety and health
program?
A. Creating a safety mission or policy statement (correct answer)

B. Assessing all monetary fines for safety violations
C. signature approval for all hospitalizations
D. Yearly meeting with OSHA representatives
27. Safety and health directors should be:
A. Given the power to veto executive management decisions

B. At the facility, not the executive table
C. Involved with executive management decisions that in any way affect workplace safety
(correct answer)
D. Provided with all business reports, including cost and spending reports
28. Which of the following is important with regard to a labor/management safety and health
committee?
A. At least 30 hours of safety and health training to be a member of the committee

B. Documented guidance on how employee safety suggestions are evaluated (correct
answer)
C. Off-site location for meetings
D. U.S. Department of Labor consultation prior to the first committee meeting
29. A safety incentive program:
A. Is a good idea, so long as there is a financial reward

B. Is one component of an effective safety and health program
C. Might compromise an employee's decision to report a safety incident (correct answer)
D. Will take time to develop, but is eventually worth the cost of any reward

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30. Which of the following is critical to the success of a safety and health program?
A. Employee safety financial incentive program
B. Supervisor notification process for eminently dangerous conditions
C. Top-down approach to program development
D. Worker participation in program development (correct answer)
E. All of the above
31. A program that recognizes an employee for safe work practices
A. Is a good idea, so long as there is a financial reward

B. Is a good practice that many organizations use to help with safety compliance (correct
answer)
C. Is not as good as having a financial incentives safety program
D. Should never be implemented
32. When should a formal hazard assessment or inspection be performed?
A. When a new hazard is uncovered (correct answer)

B. Each and every day
C. Once a week
D. Once a month
E. All of the above
33. The three general phases of a JHA are 1) Identify the job steps;2) Identify the hazards for
each step; and 3)
___________________
A. Create a safety and health program

B. Identify ways to control the hazards (correct answer)
C. Reconfigure the job steps into a safer process
D. Start back at 1) for the next job
34. What Is a JHA used for?
A. Creating the most efficient process for performing a task

B. Figuring the financial cost for performing each step of a process
C. Identifying needed safety and health training programs (correct answer)
D. Tracking labor hours;
35. Three factors impact hazard inspections:
A. Frequency, documentation, and the inspection areas (correct answer)

B. Frequency, JHA, and inspection areas
C. JHA, documentation, and recordkeeping
D. DA JHA, recordkeeping, and housekeeping
36. An employer must notify OSHA within _________________ of a fatality.
A. 8 hours (correct answer)

B. 24 hours
C. 5 days
D. D. 30 days
37. When an imminent hazard exist that cannot be controlled without endangering employees
or property:
A. Identify and assess the hazard

B. Immediately provide all personnel with specialized personal protective equipment
C. Proceed with a previously prepared hazard control checklist
D. Quickly remove all exposed personnel from the area (correct answer)
38. Hazard prevention and control should contain both:
A. Hard work and good luck

B. Tools and equipment
C. Good thinking and quick reflexes
D. Human and administrative resources (correct answer)
E. All of the above
39. The OSHA Outreach Training Program is an excellent source for employee safety training

B. False
40. What does the term "training mode" refer to?
A. How students are assessed after they are trained

B. How students react to a training session
C. The contents of the training
D. The way training is delivered (e.g., classroom or online) (correct answer)

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41. Supervisors should receive specific training in leadership skills such as:
A. Being in charge
B. Communication and coaching (correct answer)
C. Hierarchy of controls
D. Taking and receiving
42. Prevention of musculoskeletal disorders is an important training topic.
A. A. True (correct answer)

B. B. False
43. Who should be involved in communication and coordination of safety and health
programs?
A. Host employers
B. Contractors
C. Staffing agencies
44. Two good measures of safety and health program effectiveness are:
A. Policies and procedures

B. Tools and equipment Injuries and illnesses
C. Lagging and leading indicators (correct answer)
45. Who should be on the team that evaluates a safety and health program?
A. Employees
B. Supervisors
C. Safety & Health personnel
D. Human Resources
46. A safety and health program is called a living document. Why?
A. A safety and health program changes as an organization changes (correct answer)

B. A safety and health program is a written document versus something that is kept
electronically
C. A safety and health program never changes, even when an organization changes
D. A safety and health program will provide the health and safety an organization needs
E. All of the above
47. A near miss is an event that
A. Causes an injury, but (fortunately) NOT a death

B. Could have caused a serious incident, but did not (correct answer)
C. Does NOT need to be investigated
D. Must be reported OSHA
48. Which of the following is an incident that should be investigated?
A. Incident that results in the loss of an eye

B. Illness caused by exposure to a toxic substance
C. Near miss, where an incident was close but avoided
49. Which of the following statements are true about incidents?
A. Incidents (accidents) are harmful events that "just happen"

B. Incident investigations are not for accidents (OSHA must investigate accidents)
C. Nearly all workplace incidents are wholly preventable (correct answer)
D. All the above
50. Which of the following fits the definition of "root cause"?
A. An event that causes a serious injury

B. An event that causes a fatality
C. Term used by US Army Corps of Engineers (USACE) to mean "mishap"
D. Underlying reason why an unsafe condition exists (correct answer)
51. Who should be part of a worksite incident investigation team?
A. At least 2 OSHA representatives

B. Management supervisors, and employees working together (correct answer)
C. Representative from the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
D. All the above
OSHA 30 Construction Quizzes (v. 2.0) Page 22

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52. What should an incident investigation program include?
A. Requirements for how and when management will be notified

B. List of those who will receive investigation recommendations and action items
C. Requirements for reporting incidents to OSHA
53. On a multi-employer worksite, who is responsible for conducting an incident

investigation?
A. Each employer conducts an independent incident investigation

B. Host employer, who shares the incident investigation with each employer at the site
(correct answer)
C. Nobody, with multi-employer sites there is no standard for conducting an investigation
D. OSHA will coordinate employers to create a single incident investigation
54. What is the ideal time for conducting witness interviews during an incident investigation?
A. As promptly as possible, since memories fade over time (correct answer)

B. After management has approved each witness's participation
C. Toward the end of the investigation, to give witnesses time to discuss the incident with
their supervisors
D. Never; witnesses should never be relied upon in an incident investigation
55. You are investigating an incident where a worker has fallen off a scaffold, resulting in a
broken leg. Which of
the following might be considered a root cause of this incident?
A. Damaged guardrail was not repaired because of production goals (correct answer)
B. Scaffold planking was not OSHA compliant
C. Worker did not follow safety procedures
D. Worker was careless
56. Which of the following is an across-the-board corrective action that might be

implemented as part of an
incident investigation?
A. Develop a written safety and health management program

B. Revise safety policies to clearly establish responsibility and accountability
C. Make sure the safety inspection process includes worker and management
representatives

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57. Last step of the four-step systems approach to conducting on incident investigation:
A. Alert local news outlet

B. Determine the root causes
C. Implement corrective actions
D. Preserve and document the scene (correct answer)
58. Which of the following should be a goal of an incident investigation?
A. Create a report that can be used in defense of a lawsuit

B. Find those responsible for the incident, so blame can be correctly assigned
C. Understand how and why safety protections failed or were insufficient (correct answer)
D. All the above
59. A job hazard analysis is an exercise in detective work. Your goal is to discover the
following
A. What can go wrong? What are the consequences?

B. What could go right?
C. How could it arise?
D. What are other contributing factors
E. How likely is it that the hazard will occur?
F. All except B (correct answer)
60. Rarely is a hazard a simple case of one singular cause resulting in one singular effect.
More frequently,
many contributing factors tend to line up in a certain way to create the hazard.
B. False
61. Good hazard scenarios describe: Where it is happening (environment), who or what it is
happening to
(exposure), what precipitates the hazard (trigger), the outcome that would occur should it
happen
(consequence), and any other contributing factors

B. False
62. Sources of help in developing JHAs inside:
A. Insurance company
B. Local fire department
C. Consultants with safety and health expertise.

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63. Any time you revise a job hazard analysis, it is important to train all ___________
affected by the changes in
the new job methods, procedures, or protective measures adopted.
A. Inspectors
B. Employees (correct answer)
C. Managers
D. Consultants
64. Hazard or mitigation controls may be short and/or long term.

B. False
65. Periodically reviewing your job hazard analysis ensures that it remains current and
continues to help reduce
workplace accidents and injuries

B. False
66. There should be __________ process in place for JHAs.
A. A review and approval (correct answer)

B. An underlying cause
C. A related analysis
67. Which of the following is a good practice when conducting interview for an incident
investigation
A. Ask questions that avoid assigning blame for the incident (correct answer)
B. Conduct interview in, a public place
C. Ride the purpose of the investigation
D. Try to get interviewees emotional reactions to the incident
68. Which of the following is a line management role with regard to an organization's safety
and health
program?
A. Creating a system of monetary fines for safety violations

B. Implementing and maintaining the safety and health program (correct answer)
C. Signature approval for all hospitalizations
D. Yearly meeting with OSHA representatives

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69. Although some state OSHA programs have specified ________ for maintaining records,
many OSHA
attorneys recommend records be maintained longer
A. 1 year (correct answer)

B. 7 years
C. 20 years
D. 50 years
70. What does JHA stand for?
A. Job Hazard Analysis (correct answer)

B. Job Hazard Assessment
C. Job Health Analysis
D. Job Health Assessment
71. Who is responsible for investigating an incident involving a temporary worker?
A. Host employer only

B. OSHA is primarily responsible when a temporary worker is involved
C. staffing agency only
D. Staffing agency and host employer (correct answer)
72. As a rule of thumb, a safety and health program should be evaluated ________, at a
minimum
A. Daily
B. Monthly
C. Semiannually
D. Annually (correct answer)
MODULE 3: FALL HAZARDS
1. Three major components of a Personal Fall Arrest System (PFAS) include; anchor and the
anchorage
connector; full body harness; and:
A. Optional body belt
B. Connecting device (lanyard with shock absorber/retractable lifeline, snap hooks)
(correct answer)
C. Anti-jerk cord
D. Any of the above

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2. Every supported scaffold and its components must support, without failure, its own
weight and at least
_______ the intended load.
A. 2 times
B. 3 times
C. 4 times (correct answer)
D. 6 times
3. Examples of fall hazards that have resulted in deaths on the jobsite include:
A. Falls to the ground or lower levels

B. Falls through existing floor or roof openings
C. Falls through the floor or roof surface
D. Falls on the same level
4. OSHA requires fall protection at different heights for construction and general industry
however, regardless
of the fall distance, which of the following is most correct?
A. Fall protection must be provided when working over dangerous equipment

B. Fall protection must be provided when working over dangerous machinery
C. Both A and B are correct (correct answer)
5. If there are defects found during the inspection of personal fall protection equipment, or if
the equipment has
been used in an arrest, it must be:
A. Fixed on the spot and tested by twisting the fabric or rope and looking for stress
B. Turned in at the end of the shift
C. Removed immediately from service (correct answer)
6. How can YOU prevent a fall from a ladder?
A. Choose the right ladder for the job

B. Tie the top and bottom of the ladder to fixed points when necessary
C. Don't carry tools or other materials in-hand while climbing the ladder
7. More than 33% of fatalities in construction are from a combination of falls from:
A. Slips and slides

B. Tripping over electrical wires and electrical installations
C. Roofs (correct answer)

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8. Preventing fall hazards is a critical part of the construction planning process. Controls to
mitigate fall
hazards include installing which of the following?
A. Guardrails
B. Walls
C. Protective covers
D. Parapets
9. Employees must not work on scaffold surfaces until:
A. It is determined to have strength and structural integrity to support intended loads

(correct answer)
B. OSHA has visited the site and inspected the scaffold
C. The surface is completely dry
D. All of the above
10. From your choices below, what would you consider to be a "major" fall hazard in
construction?
A. Roof edges and floor openings

B. Steel erection
C. Improper scaffold construction
D. Unsafe use of portable ladders
11. OSHA requires fall protection when working near the edge of a trench or excavation that
is _________or
more in depth.
A. 4 feet
B. 6 feet (correct answer)
C. 10 feet
D. 20 feet
12. Climbing on the cross braces of scaffolds is allowed:
A. During the assembly of the scaffold

B. When conditions are dry and the climbing can be done safely
C. Never (correct answer)
D. When authorized by the supervisor

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13. Horizontal lifelines shall be designed, installed, and used under the supervision of a
_______ as part of a
complete personal fall arrest system, which maintains a safety factor of at least two.
A. Registered Engineer
B. OSHA expert
C. Qualified Person (correct answer)
D. Any of the above
14. When using scaffolds, make sure there is which of the following?
A. Safe and compliant access and egress

B. Full planking
C. Stable footing
D. Guard railing
15. D-rings and snap-hooks must have a minimum tensile strength of:
A. 500 pounds
B. 1500 pounds
C. 5,000 pounds
D. 25,000 pounds
16. NIOSH is an acronym for which of the following?
A. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration

B. The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (correct answer)
C. The National Insurance of Offices and Services
17. OSHA's "Focus Four" training topics include Caught-In or - Between, Struck-By,
Electrocution and ______.
A. Refinery Incidents
B. Falls (correct answer)
C. Nutrition in the Workplace

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18. A hazard is any situation or condition that has the potential to cause harm to which of the
following?
A. Life
B. Health
C. Property
D. Environment
E. All of the Above (correct answer)
19. Examples of falls that have resulted in deaths on the jobsite include:
A. Falls to the ground or lower levels

B. Falls through existing floor or roof openings
C. Falls through the floor or roof surface
D. Falls on the same level
20. A hazard is a situation or condition that has the potential to cause harm to which of the
following?
A. Life
B. Health
C. Property
D. Environment
E. All of the Above (correct answer)
21. A theoretical or "What if" hazard is a ______.
A. Hazard that is not obvious

B. Hazard that may take an event or series of events to occur
C. Highly unlikely event and not to be considered
D. Both A & B (correct answer)
22. Fall hazards become fall incidents when people _______.
A. Forget gravity is always working

B. Do not protect themselves from fall hazards
C. Become complacent and think they can catch themselves

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23. In the slide entitled "How long does it take a person to fall?", the example noted that a
person could fall 64
feet in approximately how many seconds?
A. 1/3 second
B. 2 seconds (correct answer)
C. 10 seconds
D. None of the Above
24. A fall hazard is anything that could cause you to ______________________ and that has
the potential to
result in a fall.
A. Lose your balance

B. Lose bodily support
C. Both A and B (correct answer)
25. Fed OSHA requires fall protection on construction sites be used at:
A. 4 ft.
B. 5 ft.
C. 6 ft. (correct answer)
D. 7 ft.
26. OSHA's Focus Four training topics include caught-In or-between, struck-by electrocution,
and:
A. Motor vehicle accidents
B. Refinery incidents
C. Falls (correct answer)
D. Nutrition in the workplace
27. Which of the following is an OSHA requirement, regardless of the fall distance?
A. Fall protection must be provided when working over dangerous equipment or

machinery (correct answer)
B. fall protection is optional only when safety experts are present at the job
C. None of the above are correct
D. Both A and B are correct

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28. Studies have shown that complacency, a hazardous behavior, may be caused by which of
the following?
A. Repetition of work
B. Unsafe acts and conditions going uncorrected
C. Management not evaluating and enforcing safe work procedures
29. Which of the following can be used to prevent complacency from happening to you or to
those around you?
A. Hazard recognition planning before the start of a task

B. Safety audits of work procedures
C. Looking out for your fellow workers
D. Taking ownership of your personal safety
30. According to statistics year after year, which of the following would be considered a
significant fall hazard in
construction?
B. Steel erection
31. Which of the following is a basic element of a roof fall protection program?
A. Limiting worker access to the roof and its leading edges

B. OSHA certification
C. Training employees who access roots on the recognition, evaluation, and control of fall
hazards
D. Both A and C (correct answer)
32. A(n) ___________________ to only authorized is used in construction to restrict access

to a roof to only
authorized employees
A. Security guard
B. Interlocked electronic gate
C. Roof permit (correct answer)
D. Certified OSHA safety expert
33. _________________ must be safely cleared from a scaffold as soon as possible to

eliminate slippery
conditions.
A. Finely sanded scaffold planks

B. Paint spray mist
C. Ice and snow (correct answer)
D. Toeboards
34. Scaffold failures are often caused by which of the following?
A. Unsafe erection and excess weight

B. Lack of supervision/inspection
C. Incomplete (no handrails/mid-rails/toe-boards)
D. Use of incompatible parts
35. According to OSHA, a fall hazard exists whenever workers who load and unload trucks
must climb onto
trailers, materials, or equipment and their feet are above ________ from the lower level or
ground
A. 2 feet
B. 4 feet
D. 10 feet
36. Which of the following is a frequently cited OSHA violation of safe ladder use?
A. Ladder not extended 3 feet above landing

B. No worker training
C. Failure to secure ladder against movement
D. Improper use of stepladder top step
37. You are at a higher risk for falling if your portable ladder is:
A. Made of fiberglass
B. New
C. Not inspected for defects or safely positioned each time you use it (correct answer)
D. All the above

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38. OSHA requires fall protection when working near the edge of a trench or an excavation
that is___________
or more in depth.
A. 4 feet
C. 20 feet
D. Actually, fall protection is always required, regardless of the depth
39. Three major components of a personal fall arrest system: anchor and the anchorage
connector, full body
harness, and __________________
A. Optional body belt

B. Connecting device (e.g., lanyard or a retractable lifeline, with snap hooks) (correct
answer)
C. Anti-jerk cord
D. Fall restraint bracket
40. Which of the following is an engineering control that is installed to mitigate fall hazards?
A. Guardrails
B. Walls
C. Protective covers
D. Parapets
41. Fall restraint systems must meet which of the following criteria?
A. Prevent the user from reaching areas where free fall could occur
B. Anchorage strength of a minimum of 3,000 lbs.
C. Designed by qualified person for fall protection
42. Personal fall arrest snap-hooks must be locking and be:
A. Forged copper
B. Stamped "OSHA-Approved"
C. Designed to prevent opening and slipping off the connector (correct answer)
D. All the above

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43. If there are defects found during the inspection of personal fall protection equipment or if
the equipment has
been used in an arrest, it must be ___________
A. Fixed on the spot and tested by twisting the fabric or rope and looking for stress
B. Turned in at the end of the shift
C. Removed immediately from service (correct answer)
44. Personal fall arrest system connectors (e.g., D-rings and snap-hooks) must be compatible
and capable of
supporting at least
A. 500 pounds
B. 1500 pounds
C. 5,000 pounds (correct answer)
D. 25,000 pounds
45. OSHA and ladder manufacturers require which of the following when ascending or
descending?
A. Substantial leather gloves

B. 3 points of contact (correct answer)
C. 6:1 ladder placement
D. All the above
46. The three main types of portable ladders are:
A. Bowed ladders, step ladders, and straight ladders

B. Composite, metal, and reinforced wood
C. Step, straight, and extension (correct answer)
D. Job-made, manufactured, and prefabricated
47. The 4:1 angle rule for extension ladders means which of the following?
A. For every 4 ft. high the ladder is, the base should be 1 ft. out from the wall (correct
answer)
B. For every 4 ft. high the ladder is, the base should be 4 ft. out from the wall
C. For every 1 ft. high the ladder is, the base should be 1 ft. out from the wall
48. Always select a ladder that
A. Prevents overreaching
B. Allows you to reach your work in a safe and controlled manner
C. Allows you to position yourself without your belt buckle extending past the side rails
49. Protect yourself when working on a ladder by
A. Always selecting the correct ladder for the job

B. Always using ladders in a safe manner
C. Never getting lazy on a ladder... that's when the risks escalate
50. Supported scaffold systems must be inspected for:

A. Internal cracks, accomplished by X-raying all welded components
B. Visual bends, cracks, holes, rust, broken welds, non-compatible parts
C. Proper planking, toe-boards, walkways, stairways, and access points
51. Every supported scaffold and its components must support without failure, its own weight
and at least
____________ the intended load.
A. 2 times
B. 3 times
C. 4 times (correct answer)
D. 6 times
52. The guardrails on suspended scaffolds manufactured after the year 2000 must be
___________ with mid-rails
installed approximately halfway between the top-rail and the platform surface.
A. 24 and 32 inches high

B. 32 to 36 inches high
C. 38 and 45 inches high (correct answer)

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53. Planks that are 12 feet long on a supported scaffold must extend beyond supports:
A. At least 3 inches, but not more than 6 inches

B. At least 6 inches, but not more than 18 inches (correct answer)
C. At least 15 inches, but not more than 18 inches
54. When using scaffolds, make sure there is:
A. Safe and compliant access and egress

B. Full planking
C. Stable footing
D. Fall protection (e.g. guardrail or personal fall arrest)
55. Employees must not work on scaffold surfaces until:
A. The surfaces are determined to have the strength and structural integrity to support
their intended loads (correct
answer)
B. OSHA has visited the site and inspected the scaffold
C. All surfaces are completely dry
D. All the above
56. Last step of the four-step systems approach to conducting an incident investigation:
A. Alert local news outlet

B. Determine the root causes
C. Implement corrective actions
D. Preserve and document the scene
57. With respect to anchorage points, employers must
A. Identify and evaluate attachment points to ensure they are adequate

B. Ensure workers are using fall protection equipment and connecting properly
C. Ensure workers know how to properly don and inspect their equipment

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58. Scaffold user training must include:

A. Cost and manufacturer of scaffold parts
B. Hazards of type scaffold being used, along with its maximum intended load and
capacity (correct answer)
C. Scaffold erector name and address
D. All the above
59. "A person who must select and direct employees who erect, dismantle, move, or alter
scaffolds and who
must inspect scaffolding to ensure compliance" is called a:
A. Qualified person
B. Supervisory person
C. Competent person (correct answer)
D. Compliance officer
60. How many workers can work off one lanyard?
A. 1 (correct answer)
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
61. Horizontal lifelines shall be designed, installed, and used under the supervision of a
qualified person as part
of a complete personal fall arrest system, which maintains a safety factor of
____________.
A. 50 %
B. At least two times the maximum intended load (correct answer)
C. Both A and B
62. A ________ is any mechanism, (rope grab, rip-stitch lanyard, specially-woven lanyard
tearing or deforming
lanyards) used to dissipate a substantial amount of energy during fall arrest, or otherwise
limits the energy
imposed on an employee during fall arrest.
A. Hold-em buckle
B. Deceleration device (correct answer)
C. Grabber
63. A guardrail system or a personal fall arrest system is required for scaffolds more than
________ above a
lower level.
A. 20 feet
B. 30 feet
D. 100 feet
64. A(n) _________________ system is used in construction to restrict access to a roof to

only authorized
employees
A. Security guard
B. Interlocked electronic gate
C. Roof permit (correct answer)
D. Certified OSHA safety expert
65. When is climbing on the cross braces of a scaffold allowed?
A. During the assembly of the scaffold

B. When conditions are dry, and the climbing can be done safely
D. When authorized by a supervisor
66. It is important to secure your ladder, whenever feasible, to:
A. Fixed and secure points (correct answer)

B. Large bricks
C. A heavy object, such as a pick-up truck
D. Any of the above so long as it is immovable under normal conditions
67. OSHA specifically requires ________ to assess the workplace to determine if the
walking/working surfaces
on which you work have the strength and structural integrity to safely support workers.
A. The employee
B. The employer (correct answer)
C. A local OSHA compliance officer
D. The general contractor

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68. Body belts are allowed for
A. Fall protection, when working within 20 feet above the level below
B. Tying off when working in an aerial lift
C. Work positioning only (correct answer)
D. Fall protection for steel erection
69. According to statistics year after year, which of the following would be considered a
significant fall hazard in
construction?

B. Steel erection
70. A job hazard analysis (JHA) of roofing activities should be conducted prior to starting
work to systematically
identify, evaluate, and ___________ all hazards.
A. Work around
B. Report to OSHA
C. Control or mitigate all hazards (correct answer)
D. All the above
71. In most elevated work locations, at what height does OSHA generally require fall
protection on a
construction site?
A. 4 ft.
B. 5 ft.
C. 6 ft. (correct answer)
D. 7 ft.
72. How long does it take a person to fall 64 feet?
A. 1B second
B. 2 seconds (correct answer)
C. 10 seconds
D. 60 seconds

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MODULE 4: ELECTROCUTION
1. Lock Out/Tag Out refers to _______.
A. A process for locking tools and equipment to deter theft

B. A process that eliminates the chance of unauthorized access to critical areas
C. A process that is designed to protect workers by controlling hazardous energies
(correct answer)
2. For effective Lock Out / Tag Out to occur, at a minimum, all energy sources must be
isolated in the off
position, zero energy verified, and each worker must apply his/her individual lock on the
locking device and
keep the key with ___________.
A. Their Supervisor
B. Their Foreman
C. Their Safety representative
D. Himself/herself (correct answer)
3. The term electrocution means?
A. Injury by electricity
B. A severe electrical shock that requires hospitalization
C. Death caused by exposure to electricity (correct answer)
4. The three most common types of GFCIs used today are:
A. Circuit Breaker, Circuit Fixer, Circuit Finder

B. Receptacle, Power Unit, Fuses
C. Receptacle, Portable, Circuit Breaker (correct answer)
D. Wet, Dry, Damp
5. Fuses and circuit breakers are intended primarily for the:
A. Protection of conductors and equipment (correct answer)

B. Prevention of electric shock
C. Protection of the public
6. Underground electrical hazards are _______.
A. Easy to identify
B. Hard to find & pose a serious risk to laborers & equipment operators (correct answer)
C. Always marked exactly where they are located
D. Always buried in red concrete
7. GFCI is an acronym that stands for ____?
A. Good For Circuit Installations

B. Grand Fuse Circuitry Impulse
C. Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (correct answer)
8. Flexible cords must not _______.
A. Be run through holes in walls, ceilings, or floors

B. Be run through doorways, windows, or similar openings
C. Be left unprotected in traffic ways
D. Be hidden in walls, ceilings, floors, conduit or other raceways
9. Some examples of the most common causes of electrocution include:
A. Contact with underground and above ground energized power lines.

B. Failure to properly Lock Out and & Tag Out energized power sources.
C. Failure to use a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) in wet conditions.
D. Failure to maintain a safe distance from energized power sources.
10. A properly installed and used standard GFCI receptacle can prevent _____.
A. Partial Electrocution
B. Electrical Shock (correct answer)
C. Circuit overload
11. Hazards are created when flexible (extension) cords, cord connectors, receptacles, and
cord and plug
connected equipment are:
A. Improperly used and maintained. (correct answer)

B. Made in foreign countries.
C. Rolled into a retractable system.
12. For protection from electrical hazards and arc flash, always use the proper rubber
insulating gloves and
ensure they are classified by __________:
A. The size and shape of the glove

B. The particular kind of rubber material used
C. The level of voltage and protection they provide (correct answer)
D. The weather conditions
13. Electrical burns occur principally because of:
A. The high energy of electrons

B. Radiation pulses of the electricity
C. The heat generated by the flow of electrical current through the body (correct answer)
14. The sudden release of electrical energy through the air when a high-voltage gap exists and
there is a
breakdown between conductors is referred to as an _______________.
A. Arc Burst
B. Energized Air Blast
C. Arc Flash (correct answer)
D. Energized Air Flash
15. The best type of ladder to use when working around any electrical systems is ________?
A. A ladder made of conductive material

B. A ladder made from non-conductive material (correct answer)
C. Any ladder, just be careful not to get shocked
16. Which of the following is a primary topic of discussion in this course?
A. Installing Solar Panels Safely

B. What are the major types of electrocution hazards in construction? (correct answer)
C. Introduction to Power Generation
D. Electrical Safety for Dummies
17. According to OSHA, what does the term “electrocution” mean?
A. Injury by electricity
B. Severe electrical shock that requires hospitalization
C. Death caused by exposure to electricity (correct answer)
18. On-line Resources available to you include which of the following:
A. OSHA eTools
B. OSHA Publications
C. OSHA Quick Cards
D. OSHA Safety & Health Topic Page
19. The "B" in the acronym "Besafe" stands for Burns. What are the 3 types of burns that are
caused by
exposure to electricity.
A. Heat, Thermal & Radiation

B. Sparks, Flash & Fire
C. Electrical, Arc Flash & Thermal Contact (correct answer)
20. True or False: Maintaining a safe distance from overhead power lines and utilizing
effective Lock Out / Tag
Out procedures to de-energize equipment are effective

B. False
21. An electrical hazard can be defined as a serious workplace hazard that exposes workers to
which of the
following:
A. Burns and Arc Flash / Blast
B. Electrocution and shock
C. Fires and explosions
E. A and B only
22. New and improved tools and technologies exist that help prevent inadvertent contact with
underground
energized utilities and they include:
A. Non-conductive tools
B. Non-conductive backhoe buckets
C. Ground Penetrating Radar
D. Underground 3-D imaging
23. The minimum safe distance for equipment to be operated in proximity of energized power
lines that contain
even the lowest voltage (less than 50,000 volts) is:
A. 25 feet
B. 5 feet
D. 50 feet

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24. A typical construction activity that is most at risk for contact with underground energized
electrical systems
is?
A. Excavation activities
B. Earth drillers
C. Jack hammering
D. Fence installation
25. We have learned that overhead power lines carry extremely high voltage. In addition,
which of the following
statements is true about overhead power lines?
A. Physical contact does not need to be made to cause electrocution.

B. Burns and falls from elevations are also hazards.
C. Cranes are not the only equipment that are at risk.
26. When using a utility locate service to identify underground utilities, which of the
following is true?
A. The latest technology doesn't make mistakes

B. Ground Penetrating Radar pinpoints exact location of utilities within inches
C. Backhoe operators can feel the underground lines and don't need exact locates
D. Locating underground utilities is NOT an exact science (correct answer)
27. Extension cords should be inspected prior to their use for:
A. Cuts or abrasions
B. Damaged insulation
C. Strain Relief
28. Before using a crane and other high reaching equipment near power lines, it is important
to first ____.
A. Place a flag on the mast or top of high reach equipment

B. Ground all outriggers
C. Confirm power line voltages with the utility company to ensure safe working distance
(correct answer)
D. Ensure the crane operator has electrical experience
29. Unsafe electrical equipment can be identified by which of the following?
A. Exposed electrical conductors

B. Wires with bad insulation
C. Ungrounded electrical systems and tools

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30. To verify that a system has been de-energized after you have effectively locked and
tagged out the
equipment, you can:
A. Try to start the equipment to verify it won't start

B. Use test equipment to test the circuits and electrical parts for voltage and current
C. Just start work because locking and tagging out the equipment is sufficient
31. Controlling hazardous energies ______.
A. Is required by OSHA
B. Is the best way to prevent the release of energizing, starting or stored energy
C. Involves locking out & tagging equipment & verifying zero energy exists before
starting
32. Which of the following are major causes of injuries due to the failure to follow Lock Out /
Tag Out
procedures:
A. Accidental restarting of equipment

B. Failure to release residual energy
C. Failure to disconnect from power source
D. Failure to stop equipment
33. The purpose of a Lockout/Tagout checklist is to _______.
A. Help identify all sources of hazardous energy for the equipment or circuits in question
B. Identify backup energy sources such as generators and batteries.
C. Identify all shut-offs for each energy source found
34. OSHA requires all power cords to be protected from mechanical damage and
environmental deterioration,
which includes protection from ________:
A. All vehicle and equipment traffic
B. Dust & dirt
C. Sharp materials, edges, doorways
D. Both A & C (correct answer)
35. Cords that are 2-wire type, not designed for hard-usage, or that have been modified:
A. are preferred if they have been spliced by a qualified electrician.

B. must be yellow in color if used on a construction site.
C. increase the risk of contacting electrical current. (correct answer)
36. You can help protect yourself from electrocution by _______.
A. Using ground-fault circuit interrupters (GFCI)

B. Maintaining a safe distance from overhead power lines
C. Inspecting portable tools and extension cords prior to use
D. Following lockout/tagout procedures
37. When a power cord connector is wet ______.
A. Electric current can leak to equipment grounding conductor

B. It's not a big deal as it is usually only 110 volts
C. There is a high potential for electrocution
E. Both A & C (correct answer)
38. Personal Protective Equipment for electrical workers is designed to provide protection
under certain
circumstances and conditions. Typical footwear will be marked _____ if it's approved for
electrical work.
A. Safe
B. GFCI
C. EH (correct answer)
D. Z87
39. Electrical PPE with the following defects may not be used:
A. If holes, tears, punctures, or cuts are present

B. Texture changes: Swelling, softening, hardening, or becoming sticky or inelastic
C. Contains an embedded foreign object
D. Any other defect that damages the insulating properties
40. Hard hats should be insulated and nonconductive and be of Class:
A. A&C
B. B & E (correct answer)
C. X
41. Wear protective equipment for the eyes or face wherever there is danger of injury to the
eyes or face from
_______ or from flying objects resulting from electrical explosion.
A. GFCI failure
B. Electric arcs or flashes (correct answer)
C. Blown fuses or breakers
42. AEGCP refers to:
A. Assured equipment grounding conductor program (correct answer)

B. Employers electrical safety license
C. Accident and injury follow-up program
43. What is my employer required to do to protect workers from electrocutions?
A. Ensure overhead power line safety

B. Isolate electrical parts
C. Supply ground-fault circuit Interrupters (GFCI)
D. Provide training
E. All the above and more (correct answer)
44. Where can minimum clearance distances for working near power lines be found?
A. Local Building Code office

B. OSHA regulations (correct answer)
C. Health and Safety Code
45. All pull boxes, junction boxes, and fittings must be:
A. Provided with covers

B. Metal covers shall be grounded
C. Plastic covers must be white
D. All of the above
46. Electrical equipment noted in an AEGCP must be visually inspected for damage or
defects.
A. Quarterly
B. Monthly
C. Weekly
D. Before each day's use (correct answer)

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47. Topics in an employer's training program must include which of the following:
A. De-energize electric equipment before inspecting or repairing

B. Use cords, cables, and electric tools that are in good repair
C. Lockout / Tagout recognition and procedures
D. Use appropriate protective equipment
48. For a lockout/tagout to be effective, all energy sources must be isolated in the off position,
zero energy must
be verified and each worker must apply an individual lock to the locking device. The key
for each person's
lock is kept with:
A. The person's supervisor

B. The person's foreman
C. The person's safety representative
D. The person applying a lock (correct answer)
E. Any the above
49. Electrical cords that have been modified:
A. Are preferred once they have been spliced by a qualified electrician

B. Must be yellow in color it used on a construction
C. Increase the risk of coming in contect with sectroal current (correct answer)
50. A flexible/extension cord may be damaged by ______.
A. Door or window edges

B. Staples and fasteners
C. Abrasion from adjacent materials
D. Simply by aging
51. Fuses and circuit breakers are intended primarily for the:
A. Protection of conductors and equipment (correct answer)

B. Prevention of electrocution
C. Protection of the public

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52. Electrical PPE with the following defects must NOT be used:
A. Holes tears, punctures or cuts

B. Texture changes (e.g., swelling, softening, hardening, sticky, or inelastic)
C. Contains an embedded foreign object
D. Damage to insulating properties
53. Personal protective equipment for electrical workers is designed to provide protection
under certain
circumstances and conditions. Typical footwear will be marked ____ if it's approved for
electrical work.
A. SAFE
B. GFCI
C. EH (correct answer)
D. Z87
54. Topics in an employer's training program must include which of the following:
A. De-energize electric equipment before inspecting or repairing

B. Use cords, cables, and electric tools that are in good repair
C. Lockout/Tagout recognition and procedures
D. Use appropriate protective equipment
55. The OSHA construction standard requires flexible cords to be rated for:
A. Extreme conditions
B. Chemical exposure
C. Extra gauge
D. Hard or extra-hard usage (correct answer)
E. All the above
56. New and improved tools and technologies exist that help prevent inadvertent shock and
electrocution
hazards with underground energized utilities, including:
A. Non-conductive tools
B. Non-conductive backhoe buckets
C. Ground penetrating radar
D. Underground 3-D imaging
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57. Which of the following is true regarding electrical pull boxes, junction boxes, and
fittings?
A. All must be provided with covers approved for their intended use
B. All metal covers must be grounded
C. All plastic covers must be white
D. All the above
E. Both A and B above (correct answer)
58. Which of the following is an electrical hazard?
A. Combining a portable GFCI with an extension cord

B. From elecAttaching an ungrounded, two-pronged adapter to a three-pronged
(grounded) cord or tool
C. Using an extension cord that is too big O
D. Using a cord or tool with worn insulation or exposed wires
E. Both B and D (correct answer)
59. A construction activity that is at risk for contact with underground energized electrical
systems is:
A. Excavation activities
B. Earth drillers
C. Jack hammering
D. Fence Installation
60. What does GFCI stand for?
A. Good For Circuit Installations

B. Grand Fuse Circuitry Impulse
C. Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (correct answer)
61. The "A" in "BESAFE" safe stands for arc flash, which:
A. Is a sudden release of electrical energy
B. Can reach temperatures of 35,000 degrees Fahrenheit
C. Gives off thermal radiation and bright, intense light
D. Can produce pressure waves by rapidly heating air, causing a blast
62. If a person is experiencing electrical shock:
A. Do not touch the person

B. Try to safely turn off the source of electricity
C. Using a non-conductive material, try to move the person away from the electrical
source
63. An employer's training program must include which of the following topics for working
around electricity?
A. De-energizing electric equipment before inspecting or repairing

B. Use of cords, cables, and electric tools
C. Lockout/tagout recognition and procedures
D. Use of appropriate protective equipment
64. How often must electrical equipment noted in an AEGCP must be visually inspected for
damage or defects.
A. Quarterly
B. Monthly
C. Weekly
D. Before each day's use (correct answer)
65. Any overhead power line should be considered energized unless the entity owning or
operating the
electrical utility supplying the line certifies that it is:
A. Not energized
B. Visibly grounded
C. Tested for zero energy
66. What type of ladder is best to use when working around an electrical system?
A. A ladder made of conductive materials

B. A ladder made of non-conductive materials c (correct answer)
C. Any ladder just be careful not to get shocked
D. No ladder, use a metal scaffold instead
67. Only _____________ may work on electric circuit parts or equipment that has not been
de-energized
A. Competent persons
B. Safety trained supervisors
C. Qualified persons (correct answer)
D. Electricians
68. A properly installed and properly used standard GFCI receptacle can prevent:
A. Electrocution
B. Electrical shock
C. Circuit overload
69. Maintaining a safe distance from overhead power lines and utilizing effective lockout/
tagout procedures to
de-energize equipment are effective methods for protecting yourself from electrocution.

B. False
70. Electrical burns can be caused by
A. Arc Flash
B. Thermal contact
C. Electrical shock
71. When working around electricity, which class of helmets is designed to reduce the danger
of contact with
conductors at higher voltage levels?
A. Class E (electrical) helmets (correct answer)

B. Orange helmets
C. Blue helmets (when used with a nylon liner)
D. Both A and C
MODULE 5: CAUGHT BETWEEN
1. When the injury is created more as a result of crushing between objects, the event should
be recorded as
___________.
A. Caught (correct answer)

B. Draught
C. Struck
D. Rolling
2. Employers must ensure exposed moving parts of power tools, such as belts, gears, shafts,
and pulleys:
A. Have signs
B. Are guarded (correct answer)
C. Are lubricated
D. Working

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3. The majority of the incidents involving contact with running equipment and machinery
are due to:
A. Mechanical failure
B. Lack of OSHA inspections
C. Unguarded equipment (correct answer)
4. What major hazard includes incidents where a person or part of a person was injured by
being squeezed,
crushed, pinched or compressed between two or more objects, or between parts of an
object?
A. Struck by hazards
B. Caught in or between hazards (correct answer)
C. Struck by falling object
5. Although mechanical failures do occur, most accidents while working on with machinery
can be attributed
to:
A. Bad luck
B. Failure to properly lock and tag out equipment (correct answer)
C. Bad start switch
D. None the above
6. Trench protective systems include which of the following:
A. Curling, beaching, drilling

B. Sloping, Benching, Shoring, Trench box (correct answer)
C. Dirt jacks and whalers
D. All of the above
7. Improper gloves, loose fitting clothing, jackets, belts, jewelry, hair, or safety equipment
such as fall
protection lanyards, can lead to horrible incidents if:
A. Worn improperly
B. Caught in moving parts (correct answer)
C. Not kept clean
8. Amputations can be caused by allowing your hands or limbs to be caught in or between:
A. Operating equipment
B. Objects
C. Materials
D. All of the above. (correct answer)
9. Employers are required to do which of the following:
A. Provide protection for workers during trenching and excavation work.

B. Provide means to avoid the collapse of structures and scaffolds.
C. Provide effective safety training for workers.
10. Protect yourself when working in excavations by _____________.
A. Not working in an unprotected trench that is 5 feet or more deep

B. Only entering a trench or excavation using a ladder, stairs or properly designed ramp.
C. Never working outside the confines of the protection system
11. Working between the frame and dump box of a dump truck is an example of exposure to
a:
A. Struck by hazard
B. Caught in or between hazard (correct answer)
C. Caught off guard hazard
12. What actions and/or safety equipment can protect equipment operators from being thrown
from their
equipment and crushed during a tip over?
A. Rollover Protective Structures (ROPS)

B. Using approved seat belts
C. Keeping all body parts within the protected cab area
13. To protect yourself from being pinned between equipment, materials, or other objects,
you should:
A. Be aware at all times of the equipment around you and stay a safe distance from it.
B. Never get between moving materials and a structure, vehicle, or stacked materials.
C. Stay out of the swing radius of cranes and other equipment
D. All are effective protective measures (correct answer)
14. What can be done to prevent caught between accidents involving equipment?
A. Shut down equipment before doing repairs or inspections

B. Chock the wheels on any equipment that can roll
C. Never work under equipment supported only by a hydraulic or mechanical jack
15. Competent person must be designated by the employer for:
A. Scaffold erection
B. Inspections of excavations, adjacent areas, & protective systems
C. Engineering survey before demolition & continuing inspections during demolition
D. All the Above (correct answer)
16. Typical demolition work is very hazardous. Which of the following may be the cause of a
demolition hazard?
A. Improper planning of demo procedures or sequencing

B. Unknown modifications that altered the original design
C. Materials hidden within structural members
D. Unknown strengths or weaknesses of construction materials
17. When an injury is caused by impact alone, it's generally recorded as a ___________
incident
A. Caught- In
B. Struck-By (correct answer)
C. Felled-By
D. Any of the above
18. Amputations are caused by allowing your hands or limbs to be caught in or between:
A. Equipment
B. Objects
C. Materials
19. Caught-in or -between incidents are preventable through:
A. Planning
B. Hazard identification
C. Hazard mitigations
20. What hazard category includes incidents where a person is injured when squeezed
crushed, pinched, or
compressed between two or more objects?
A. Struck-by hazards
B. Caught-in or -between hazards (correct answer)
C. Struck by falling object hazards

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21. Working between the frame and dump box dump truck is an exa exposure to a(n):
A. Struck-by hazard
B. Caught-in or between hazard
C. Caught-off-guard hazard
D. Potential unsafe condition
22. When a trench is 4 feet or more in depth, a means of egress from the trench must be
within ________ in of
employees in the trench
A. 5 feet
B. 15 feet
D. 75 feet
23. Which of the following is an acceptable means of egress from a trench?
A. Ladder
B. Stairway
C. Ramp
24. Caught-in or between hazards can result in:
A. Repetitive trauma
B. Overexertion injuries
C. Multiple lacerations broken bones, amputation, asphyxiation, or death (correct answer)
25. Machines or power tools can become hazardous if they
A. Are not guarded

B. Are not placed under lockout/tagout prior to starting maintenance work on the machine
or power tool
C. Have inadequate guards in place
26. The majority of incidents involving contact with running equipment and machinery are
due to:
A. Mechanical failure
B. Lack of OSHA inspections
C. Unguarded equipment
D. Inadequately guarded equipment

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27. Improper gloves, loose fitting do thing, jackets, belts, jewelry, hair, or safety equipment,
such as fall
protection lanyards, can lead to safety incidents if:
A. Worn improperly
B. Caught in moving parts
C. Not kept clean
28. Research has shown that ____________ construction workers are the most at risk for
"Caught in Running
Equipment or Machinery" hazards.
A. Trained
B. Young and inexperienced (correct answer)
C. Older
D. Fast
29. When used properly, what safety equipment can protect operators from being thrown
from their equipment
and from being crushed during a tip over?
A. Rollover protective structure (ROPS)

B. Seat belt use
C. Exit jump training
30. What can be done to prevent caught-in or -between incidents involving rolling
equipment?
A. Shut down equipment before doing repairs or inspections

B. Chock the wheels on any equipment that can roll
C. Never work under equipment supported only by a hydraulic or mechanical jack
31. All exposed moving parts must have ______ in place to prevent inadvertent contact
during operation.
A. Safety guards (correct answer)

B. Warning signs
C. Main power switches
D. D Lights
32. Employers are required to:
A. Provide protection tor workers during trenching and excavation work

B. Provide the means to avoid collapsing structures and scaffolds
C. Designate a competent
D. Provide effective safety training for workers and competent persons
E. All the above person (correct answer)

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33. Improper gloves, loose fitting clothing, jackets, belts, jewelry, hair, or safety equipment,
such as fall
protection lanyards, can lead to safety incidents if:
A. Worn improperly
B. Caught in moving parts
C. Not kept clean
34. What should not be used to support a scaffold because they could collapse, sending the
structure to the
ground?
A. Cinder blocks (correct answer)

B. Sill Plates
C. Substantial timbers
D. Hard, undisturbed ground
35. A competent person must be designated for:
A. Scaffold erections
B. Inspections of excavations, adjacent areas, and protective systems
C. Engineering surveys prior to structure demolitions
D. Continuing inspections continuing inspections during demolition
36. To prevent injury while maintaining equipment, make sure the equipment is
_________________ before
starting.
A. Tuned
B. Locked-out/tagged-out (de-energized) (correct answer)
C. Unguarded
37. Which of the following statements is true about excavation or trenching cave-ins?
A. Are one of the most hazardous construction activities

B. Cave-ins happen very quickly
C. Cave-ins are 100% preventable

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38. Which of the following is a good work practice when working in or around a trench or
excavation?
A. Do not work in an unprotected trench that is 5 feet deep or more

B. Only enter a trench or excavation using a ladder, stairway, or properly designed ramp )
C. Never work outside of the confines of an excavation protection system
D. Know if a competent person has determined that the trench is safe to work in and has
been inspected
39. When a person is injured when crushed between two or more objects, the incident is
recorded as this type:
A. Caught-in or between (correct answer)

B. Drafted-by
C. Struck-by
D. Rolling
MODULE 6: STRUCK BY
1. To prevent a load from slipping, all loads raised by cranes and other hoisting devices must
_______.
A. Be rigged properly with appropriate rigging (correct answer)

B. Be less than 5 tons
C. Be wrapped in netting
D. Be weighted toward the bottom so gravity will prevent swinging motion
2. The following are examples of struck-by hazards. Which one is an example of a struck-by
flying object
hazard?
A. Hit by a nail from a nail gun (correct answer)

B. Hit by a load dropped from a crane
C. Run over by a vehicle in a roadway work zone
3. One way to minimize crane related struck-by hazards is to:
A. De-rate all cranes by 25%

B. Ensure crane operators are qualified or certified (correct answer)
C. None of the above
D. Both A and B
4. Common safety measures that can help you avoid being involved in a struck by incident
are:
A. Do not exceed a vehicle's rated load or lift capacity.

B. Do not carry personnel unless there is a safe place to ride with a seat belt.
C. Make sure that all personnel are in the clear before using dumping or lifting device

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5. Flying object hazards are especially dangerous when using powder-actuated tools
because:
A. The force behind the fastener is low and can fool you
B. The force behind the fastener is high and could go through a worker (correct answer)
C. The force behind the fastener doesn't matter
6. Falling objects have the potential to cause extreme injuries and may
A. Crush a worker.
B. Pin a worker (e.g. to the ground).
C. All the above (correct answer)
7. Safe work practices to avoid being struck by heavy equipment include which of the
following
A. Staying away from heavy equipment when it is operating.

B. Staying clear of lifted loads and never working under a suspended load.
C. Running quickly to stay out of the way
8. To safely transport cargo, you should use ________ to prevent the load from shifting,
slipping, rolling or
falling.
A. Military grade HD32C Twine

B. Straps, chains, webbing or wire rope (correct answer)
C. Duct tape
D. Both A & C
9. Employers are required to protect employees from struck-by hazards by _________.
A. Hounding them about the hazards

B. Providing hazard awareness training and effective equipment specific training (correct
answer)
C. Ensuring adequate breaks to rest up
D. All the above
10. Struck-by injuries are produced by forcible contact or impact between the injured person
and:
A. An object
B. A piece of equipment
C. Either A or B (correct answer)

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11. Of all the struck-by incidents, being _________ results in the most severe and disabling
injuries and
accounts for the highest number of fatalities.
A. Struck by equipment (correct answer)

B. Struck by nails
C. Struck by falling objects
D. Struck by flying objects
12. As a load is mechanically lifted, the materials
A. May strike workers if the load swings, twists, or turns (correct answer)
B. Will not be affected by windy conditions or bad weather
C. Can weigh any amount without causing a problem with the equipment
D. All the above
13. Potential struck-by hazards include:
A. Improper rigging and rigging failures (correct answer)

B. Working on depressurized systems
C. Not wearing gloves when handling sheet metal
D. All of the above
14. A struck-by hazard can be described as any time a worker __________.
A. Falls from a height of greater than 10 feet

B. Is hit by a falling, swinging, flying, or rolling object (correct answer)
C. Can get any part of his/her body caught in or between objects
15. The definition of a Struck-by hazard is:
A. An incident when the impact alone creates an injury (correct answer)

B. When an injury is a result of the crushing force between two objects.
C. Both A & B
D. A fall from elevation where an employee is killed by impact with the ground
16. A hazard is any situation or condition that has the potential to cause harm to:
A. Life
B. Health
C. Property
D. The environment
17. The definition of a struck-by hazard is:
A. An incident where the impact alone creates an injury (correct answer)

B. An incident where an injury is the result of a crushing force between two objects
C. Both the above
18. Struck-by hazards include which of the following?
A. struck by tiying object

B. Struck by taling object
C. Struck by winging object
19. The key difference between a caught-in or -between event and a struck-by event is
whether the ______ alone
caused the injury
A. Impact of the object (correct answer)

B. Employee's actions
C. Uncontrolled hazard
D. Weather
20. When working on or near a construction zone:
A. Check that necessary warning signs are posted

B. Never cross the path of a backing vehicle
C. Follow the exit and entry worksite traffic plan.
21. Additional precautions, such as ______ must be taken to protect visitors and the public
from struck-by
hazards.
A. Using traffic signs, barricades and/or flaggers on public roadways

B. Controlling site access
C. Requiring a safety orientation and considering an escort
22. Safe work practices to avoid being struck by heavy equipment
A. Stay away from operating heavy equipment

B. Stay dear of lifted loads; never work under a suspended load
C. Run quickly to stay out of the way of equipment
E. never work under a suspended load

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23. What can greatly increase the probability of a struck-by vehicle incident requiring the use
of spotters and/or
parabolic mirrors and/or cameras?
A. Distracting billboards
B. Blind corners and severe grade changes (correct answer)
C. Slip and fall hazards
24. To prevent equipment from becoming a hazard when not in use, always ______.
A. Set parking and or emergency brake to prevent movement

B. Use wheel chocks on a grade or slope
C. Turn wheels against the grade on a grade or slope
25. To safely transport cargo, use ______ to prevent the load from shifting, slipping, rolling
or falling
A. Twine
B. Straps, chains, webbing, or wire rope (correct answer)
C. Duct tape
D. Both A and C
26. To prevent being struck by operating equipment, never:
A. Stand next to or within the swing radius of operating equipment

B. Park or place other equipment within 20 feet of operating equipment
C. Let your safety depend on avoiding operator error or equipment malfunctions
27. Common safety measures that can help to avoid a struck-by incident are:
A. Do not exceed a vehicle's rated load or if capacity

B. Do not carry personnel unless there s a sate place to ride
C. Make sure that all personnel are in the clear before dumping or lifting
28. The main causes of struck-by hazards include:
A. Struck-by flying object

B. Struck-by falling object
C. Struck-by swinging object
D. Struck by rolling object

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29. What of the following may be caused by a struck-by incident?
A. Serious bruises and contusions

B. Punctures and impalement
C. Broken bones and head injuries
D. Death
E. Al the above (correct answer)
30. Hard hats are designed to provide protection for these job site hazards:
A. Overhead hazards
B. Falling objects
C. Flying objects
D. Many other construction hazards
31. What can be done to minimize struck-by incident injuries when operating heavy
equipment?
A. Always know the limitations of the equipment you are operating

B. Ensure loads are within equipment manufacturers safe operating requirements
C. Constantly blow your horn to warn others
32. Which of the following statements is true regarding powder-actuated tools?
A. As dangerous as a firearm
B. During use, flying particles of dirt, debris, scale, or particles can enter the eye
C. Hazards include ricocheting studs or nails
33. To prevent a load from slipping, all loads raised by cranes and other hoisting devices must
be:
A. Rigged properly with appropriately rated equipment (correct answer)

B. Less than 5 tons
C. Wrapped in netting
D. Weighted toward the bottom, to prevent the load from swinging
34. When materials are mechanically lifted, they have the potential to strike workers. As the
load is lifted, the
materials frequently can:
A. Swing
B. Twist or turn
C. Fly upward
D. A or B (correct answer)
35. When lifting materials, there is always a high potential for the load to ________.
A. Be catapulted to another area of the jobsite

B. Swing and strike workers
C. Fall
D. Both D and C (correct answer)
36. "One who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or
working
conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has
authorization to take
prompt corrective measures to eliminate them" describes a:
A. Certified inspector
B. Competent person (correct answer)
C. Qualified person
D. Project Manager
37. Falling objects have the potential to
A. Crush a worker
B. Pin a worker (e.g. to the ground)
C. Impale a worker
38. Struck-by hazards include which of the following?
A. Struck by flying object

B. Struck by falling object
C. Struck by swinging object
39. Which of the following would be considered a flying hazard?
A. A piece of material separating from a tool (correct answer)

B. A plane flying overhead
C. Caught in between a backhoe and a guardrail
D. All the above
MODULE 7: PPE
1. How can eye injuries be prevented?
A. Always wear effective eye protection.

B. Eye wear must be appropriate for the hazard encountered
C. Eyewear must be properly fitted.
D. Better training and education can assure proper use by employees
2. Regarding Hard Hats and Safety Helmets, which statement (s) below are true:
A. Clean outer shell in hot water, scrub and rinse in clear warm water; inspect.
B. Do not store helmets in direct sunlight and extreme heat (rear deck of an auto).
C. Helmets should be stored in a clean and dry location away from heat, etc.
D. All are true (correct answer)
3. According to the BLS survey, most of the workers in selected occupations who suffered
foot injuries were
affected by the fact that:
A. They were not wearing safety footwear (correct answer)

B. OSHA does not require safety footwear in construction applications
C. Most of their employers required them to wear safety shoes
4. OSHA requires approved head protection. Currently OSHA regulations reference as

Compliance ANSI Z-89.2-
1971 standard.
A. Class A, B and C (correct answer)

B. Class G, H and L
C. Type S, T and Y
5. Which statement below is true regarding eye wash stations be provided on a job site?
A. OSHA has no requirement for eyewashes on construction job sites

B. Emergency eyewash or shower facilities must meet ANSI requirements. (correct
answer)
C. Emergency eye wash and shower stations must be reachable within 10 minutes.
D. There should be enough cold water to flush exposed surfaces for 45 minutes.
6. Respiratory Protection is required for employees exposed to hazardous materials above

the permissible
exposure limit for particular hazardous materials and engineering controls cannot
effectively control
hazards. What are the two general types of respirators?
A. Air expelling and Air demanding

B. Cool laminar flow and pressure demand laminar flow
C. Air purifying and Atmosphere supplying (correct answer)
D. PAPR and UAPR
7. To protect eyes and face against flying particles, metal sparks or chemical /biological
splashes employees
must wear a ______in addition to safety glasses or chemical goggles?
A. Face Shield (correct answer)

B. Balaclava
C. Respirator
D. Scarf

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8. Before doing work requiring use of personal protective equipment, employees must be
trained to know:
A. When and what type personal protective equipment is necessary
B. What it is made of
C. What its limitations are, and proper care, maintenance, useful life, and disposal
D. A and C only (correct answer)
9. What do we know about the inspection of hard hat components, the shell, suspension,
headband,
sweatband, and any accessories?
A. They should be visually inspected daily to include signs of dents, cracks, etc. (correct
answer)
B. If damage is observed or suspected, helmets should be patched
C. All of the above
10. What contributes to eye injuries at work?
A. Not wearing eye protection.

B. Wearing the wrong kind of eye protection
C. Stupidity/Ignorance
D. All of the above
E. A & B only (correct answer)
11. The first step in a PPE program is:
A. Hazard Assessment (correct answer)

B. Hazard awareness training
C. Fitting and maintenance
D. Cleaning and serviceability
12. Regarding Personal Protective Equipment, which statement (s) is correct?
A. PPE is often referred to as the 3rd line of defense or the last line of defense (correct
answer)
B. PPE can be used as a substitute for engineering controls
C. PPE should never be used in conjunction with engineering or work practice controls
D. All of the above
13. Head injuries are caused by falling or flying objects, or by bumping the head against a
fixed object. Hard
hats must do two things
A. Resist penetration and absorb the shock of a blow (correct answer)
B. Look good and remain clean
C. Control environmental exposures from weather and heat
D. Have an ANSI sticker and an expiration date

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14. Regarding hand protection employers should:
A. Determine duration, frequency, degree of exposure to hazards and physical stress.

B. Know glove capability VS hazard anticipated (exposure to chemicals, heat, or flames).
C. Before buying, check manufacturer data that gloves meet appropriate standards.
15. High Visibility Clothing is now required when working in traffic zones and around heavy
equipment. There
are 3 classes of clothing, class 1, 2 and 3. Please identify the correct statement below
regarding high
visibility clothing.
A. Class 1 clothing provides the highest level of visibility for employees

B. Class 2 clothing must be worn in school zones and at night
C. Class 3 clothing for inclement weather and heavy traffic conditions. (correct answer)
D. All of the above
16. When more than one type of PPE is effective in controlling a hazard, it is good to give
employees a choice.

B. False
17. Which statement is INCORRECT with respect to PPE?
A. PPE does not eliminate the hazard

B. If PPE equipment fails, exposure will occur
C. Equipment must be properly fitted and maintained
D. PPE is the preferred method of hazard control (correct answer)
18. Personal protective equipment is:
A. Referred to as PPE
B. Designed to create a barrier against workplace hazards
C. Less preferred than engineering controls as a hazard control
19. Engineering controls (e.g., isolation, ventilation, enclosures) are more preferred than PPE
for controlling
exposure to hazards

B. False
20. Which statement is INCORRECT with respect to damaged PPE?
A. Damaged PPE must not be used

B. Damaged PPE should be tagged as defective and removed from worksite
C. Damaged PPE should be repaired immediately or discarded
D. Damaged PPE should be used until non damaged PPE can be obtained (correct answer)

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21. Head protection is required to be labeled with:
A. Manufacturer's name
B. ANSI type and class
C. Date of manufacture
22. Which class of protective hard hat offers protection from high voltage (up to 20,000
volts)?
A. Class A
B. Class C
C. Class E (correct answer)
D. Class G
23. Hard hat manufacturers should be consulted with regard to cleaning a helmet because
some cleaning a
helmet, because some cleaning materials may damage a hard hat's shell, reducing its
protection.

B. False
24. A Bureau of Labor Statistics survey found that most workers who suffered impact head
injuries were:
A. Not wearing head protection (correct answer)

B. Wearing head protection incorrectly
C. Working with object that were too heavy
25. It is important to inspect head protection for signs of dents, cracks, penetration, or any
other damage. If
damage is found:
A. Report the damage and get the hard hat replaced (correct answer)
B. Place stickers on the damaged area
C. Paint the damaged area
D. All the above
26. Goggles can be worn in combination with spectacles or corrective lenses.
A. Please select the best answer

B. True (correct answer)
C. False

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27. Eye injuries may result from:
A. Flying particles
C. Injurious light rays
28. Flying particles cause the greatest number of eye injury cases

B. False
29. Eye and face protection must be stamped _________ indicate that the PPE meets this
specification for the
design, construction, test, and use of eye and face protection
A. ANSI Z87.1 (correct answer)

B. ASTM 4000
C. OSHA 29 CFR
30. These are worn to protect the entire face from flying particles, metal sparks, or chemical/
biological splashes.
A. Chemical goggles only

B. Safety spectacles with side shields only
C. Face shield with ANSI approved safety spectacles or chemical goggles (correct
answer)
D. Both A and B
31. Emergency eye and body wash equipment should be tested:
A. At least annually
B. Following repairs of the equipment
C. Activated weekly to verify correct operation
D. Follow manufacturer's requirements
E. B, C, and D (correct answer)
32. Eyewash stations should be located:
A. On the same level as the hazard

B. In a well-Hit area that is properly marked as an eyewash station
C. Within 10 seconds (about 55 feet) from the hazard
D. Along a path that is free of obstructions
33. The water temperature for an emergency eyewash should be tepid, in the range of 60
degrees to 100 degrees
Fahrenheit (16 degrees to 38 degrees Celsius)

B. False
34. When the eyes or the bodies of workers may be exposed to corrosive materials OSHA
requires a facility that
will provide emergency flushing or drenching

B. False
35. Emergency eye wash and shower stations must be installed:
A. On the same level as the hazard

B. Along a travel path free from obstructions
36. Safe footwear worn to protect against live electrical current are made with:
A. Rubber or cork soles

B. No metal parts
C. Insulated steel toes
37. These are worn where there are sparks and molten metal splashes; they have elastic ides
or quick release
buckles for speedy removal
A. Rubber boots
B. Foundry boots (correct answer)
C. Ro no Ro boots
38. Electricians should wear ________ hand and arm protection meeting ANSI specifications
A. Rubber (correct answer)

B. Leather
C. Cotton
D. Wire mesh

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39. For hot work, a leather apron is generally recommended. What hand and arm PPE are
generally
recommended?
A. Rubber gloves and gauntlets

B. Gloves made of neoprene
C. Leather gloves and gauntlets (correct answer)
40. This material is sometimes used for the soles of non-slip footwear
A. Leather
B. Neoprene (correct answer)
C. Felt
D. Hard plastic
41. The typical foot injury is caused by objects falling fewer than 4 feet, with a median
weight of about 65
pounds

B. False
42. Selecting the right chemical protective gloves is very important as some chemicals will go
through certain
rubber and synthetic materials and attack the skin and body
B. False
43. Safety footwear should have:
A. Sturdy impact-resistant toes

B. Metal insoles to protect against puncture wounds
C. A label to indicate they wet ANSi specifications
44. Hearing protection is worn to:
A. Minimize the frequency and intensity of noise (correct answer)

B. Look good
C. Keep the ear canal clean and sanitized
D. All the above
45. Air purifying respirators can only be worn where there is:
A. Sufficient oxygen to support life. (correct answer)

B. Weeks worth of cartridges.
C. Full face mask.
D. None of the above.

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46. Which of the following is a reason for wearing a respirator?
A. Protect against airborne contaminants

B. Protect against oxygen deficient atmospheres
C. Exercise the heart and lungs
47. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic types of hearing protection?
A. Molded earplugs
B. Custom-molded earplugs
C. Rolled cotton balls (correct answer)
D. Self-molded earplugs
E. Ear muffs
48. Which respirator face piece provides the greatest level of protection?
A. Quarter mask
B. Half mask
C. Full face (correct answer)
49. The two basic types of fall protection are known as:
A. Fall arrest and fall restraint (correct answer)

B. Fall prevention and fall defense
C. Fall control and distance arrest
D. Yo-yo and lanyard
50. Which of the following is NOT part of a fall arrest system?
A. Full body harness

B. Body belt (correct answer)
C. Lanyard and lifeline
D. Lifeline anchorage point
51. The main purpose of a travel or fall restraint system is to prevent workers from getting too
close to an
unprotected edge

B. False
52. This apparel is worn in inclement weather, under heavy traffic conditions, or when
complex backgrounds
impair visibility
A. Claw 3 high-visibility apparel (correct answer)

B. Red apparel with black stripes
C. Black rain gear with yellow stripes
53. When working over or near water, employees should be protected by railings, nets fall
protection system, or
some other means.

B. False
54. A personal flotation device (PFD) must be:
A. U.S.Coast Guard-approved
B. Able to support an unconscious person's head above water
C. Made of rubber
55. At a minimum, ring buoys must be:
A. U.S. Coast Guard approved and 30 inches in diameter

B. Equipped with 90 feet of line
C. Placed in visible and accessible locations
D. Spaced at intervals of 200 feet, maximum
56. What does OSHA require when working over or near water and there is a potential for
drowning?
A. Appropriate lifesaving equipment (correct answer)

B. A drowning prevention plan (DPP)
C. All employees must know how to swim
D. All employees must be more than 16 years of age
57. Head protection must be
A. Inexpensive and eye catching

B. Color coded by occupation and be visible
C. Resistant to penetration and be able to absorb the shock of a blow (correct answer)
D. All the above
58. Individual states may enforce standards that are not identical to federal requirements

B. False
59. High visibility clothing will generally use one or more of the following colors EXCEPT
A. Fluorescent gray with black bordering (correct answer)

B. Fluorescent yellow-green
C. Fluorescent orange red
D. Fluorescent red
60. Head protection must meet ____________ specifications and be so labeled
A. ANSI (correct answer)

B. NIOSH
C. MSHA
D. BLS
61. What organizations have developed specifications for high visibility apparel?
A. OSHA/NIOSH
B. ANSI/ISEA (correct answer)
C. U.S. Coast Guard/EPA
D. MSHA/DOT
62. The water temperature for an emergency eyewash should be tepid, in the range 60 degrees
to 100 degrees
Fahrenheit (16 degrees to 38 degrees Celsius)

B. False
63. High visibility clothing will generally use one or more of the following colors EXCEPT:
A. Fluorescent gray with black bordering (correct answer)

B. Fluorescent yellow-green
C. Fluorescent orange-red
D. Fluorescent red
64. When a personal flotation device (PFD) is wom around water, it should be equipped with
a:
A. Helicopter lift loop

B. Coast Guard-approved walkie talkie
C. Water-activated light
D. Whistle
65. Overshoe guards are:
A. Typically made with aluminum alloy, fiberglass, or galvanized steel

B. Foot guards than can be worn over usual work shoes
C. Won when special protection to the top of the foot is necessary
66. These types of respirators cleanse contaminated atmosphere as ambient air passes through
an air purifying
element.
A. Supplied air.
B. Self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA).
C. Air purifying. (correct answer)
D. All of the above.
67. Which of the following is true with respect to atmosphere-supplying respirators?
A. Supplies breathing atmosphere to the user

B. Breathing air must come from an uncontaminated source
C. Breathing air comes from a compressor or compressed air cylinder
D. Breathing air must meet strict air quality standards
68. Which of the following must be made available when railings, nets, safety belts, or other
means of protection
will not be effective in controlling exposure to a drowning hazard?
A. Personal floatation devices, PFD's

B. Ring Buoys
C. Lifesaving boats
D. Lifelines
E. Any of the above (correct answer)
69. A respiratory protection program includes all the following, EXCEPT:
A. Respirator selection
B. Medical evaluations
C. Fit testing and training
D. Respirator use, maintenance, inspection
E. Respirator inspection by OSHA before use (correct answer)
70. Someone whose body is exposed to injurious chemicals should flush the exposed part for
__________
A. 15 seconds
B. 1 minute
C. 15 minutes (correct answer)
D. Flushing is not necessary
71. OSHA, EPA, and other agencies have established four levels of chemical hazard body
protection. Which of
the following statements is NOT correct?
A. The levels are known as A, B,C D

B. The levels are known as A, C, E, G (correct answer)
C. Level A is the highest level of protection
D. Level C requires a respirator but not a fully encapsulating suit
MODULE 8: HEALTH HAZARDS

1. Information and Training topics for the Hazard Communication training should include
which of the
following?
A. Methods and observations to detect the presence or release of a hazardous chemical.

B. Basics of physical and health hazards of common hazardous chemical classes
C. Measures employees can take to protect themselves from hazards
D. Details of the employers effective Hazard Communication Program
2. In most cases, the responsibility for hazardous chemical evaluation belongs to which of
the following?
A. The chemical manufacturer (correct answer)

B. The chemical supplier
C. The employer
D. The employee

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3. From the list below, what would be considered a PHYSICAL HAZARD classification?
A. Acute toxin
B. Skin corrosive, irritant
C. Have the potential to cause serious eye damage/eye irritation
D. Flammable (correct answer)
E. Respiratory or skin sensitizer
4. What do we know about GHS?
A. It is a regulation passed by OSHA

B. It is an old standard revived by OSHA
C. It is a system adopted by OSHA under Hazard Communication (correct answer)
5. What do we know about the Hazard Communication Standard label requirements?
A. There is no standard format, just required elements (correct answer)

B. There are 19 required elements
C. There are only 3 required elements
6. Labels under Hazard Communication:
A. Are the same as always.

B. Are standardized and harmonized (correct answer)
C. Are the same for all sectors/target audiences.
D. Will change significantly in 2017.
7. Developing a hazardous chemical inventory at the worksite is generally the responsibility

of:
A. The chemical manufacturer

B. The chemical supplier
C. The employer (correct answer)
D. The employee
8. The nine pictograms under the HCS labeling requirements include those for which
hazards?
A. Explosives, carcinogens, irritants, flammables and gas cylinders

B. Weasels, spiders and snakes
C. Oxidizers, toxicity, environmental toxicity, corrosives
D. All of the above
E. A and C only (correct answer)

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9. Training and information includes training employees on which of the following?
A. Details of the employers Hazard Communication Program

B. Address and phone number of the local OSHA and EPA offices
C. Estimated cost of the hazardous chemical
D. Where to find PPE requirements on an SDS
E. Both A and D (correct answer)
10. Which of the following would be considered an engineering control?

A. Facility, equipment, or process designed to remove the hazard.
B. A hazard enclosed to prevent exposure in normal operations.
C. Local ventilation to reduce exposure to the hazard in normal operations.
E. A and C only
11. An effective Hazard Communication program depends on which of the following?
A. Credibility of management's involvement

B. Inclusion of employees in safety and health decisions
C. Rigorous worksite analysis to identify hazards and potential hazards
D. Stringent prevention and control measures and training
12. Training and information includes which of the following:
A. Use of audiovisuals and interactive video

B. Use of classroom instruction
C. Opportunity for employees to ask questions to ensure understanding
E. A and C only
13. A chemical manufacturer or importer for chemicals is required to classify chemicals.

What about
employers?
A. Yes
B. No, if they choose to rely on the manufacturer or importer classification (correct
answer)
14. Under HAZCOM who is responsible for classifying chemicals manufactured or

distributed?
A. Employers who purchase them

B. Employees who use them
C. Chemical manufacturers and importers (correct answer)

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15. Under OSHA's HCS, there are four fundamental employer responsibilities. Which of
these is included?
A. Identify and list hazardous chemicals in their workplaces.

B. Prepare labels for containers and more detailed technical bulletins called SDSs.
C. Develop and implement a written hazard communication program.
16. Which is not a Hazard Communication label element?
A. Product name or identifier.

B. Color of the product (correct answer)
C. Signal Word.
D. Name and address of user organization
17. Which of the following is not an element of a Hazard Communication Program?
A. Chemical Inventory of hazardous chemicals

B. Written Plan
C. Steps to take in the event of an earthquake or flooding (correct answer)
D. Labels and Safety Data Sheets-SDSs
E. Information and Training
18. Chemicals that are explosive; flammable; self-reactive; pyrophoric are classified in terms
of the HCS as a:
A. Toxic Substance
B. Physical Hazard (correct answer)
C. Substantially Dangerous Hazard
D. Public Health Hazard
19. All HCS changes to Hazard Communication programs must be implemented by:
A. 6/1/2012.
B. 6/1/2013.
C. 6/1/2015.
D. 6/1/2016 (correct answer)
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20. The safety data sheet provides detailed information above and beyond the label so that the
user can be
informed about:
A. The many characteristics of the chemical.

B. What must be done to safely use or apply the chemical.
C. Where to obtain the chemical at the lowest price.
D. A and B (correct answer)
21. Under HCS, signal words on labels include:
A. Danger, Warning & Caution

B. Danger and Caution
C. Danger and Warning (correct answer)
D. Warning and Caution
22. Under HCS, Pictograms for containers:
A. Are the same for all packages.

B. Are required to be on container labels (correct answer)
C. Are required for all containers, hazardous or non-hazardous.
23. Environmental hazards must be evaluated and classified by manufacturers and importers
of chemicals.
However, this is not a major issue in OSHA's hcs because:
A. Most chemicals are not a threat to the environment.

B. Physical and health hazards are far more important to regulate.
C. OSHA does not regulate environmental issues (correct answer)
24. The completed chemical inventory list should be kept where?
A. At the local OSHA office

B. In the warehouse
C. With the written program so it can be amended as new chemicals are purchased
(correct answer)
D. All of the above
25. Under Hazard Communication (HCS), employees have a right to know:
A. The identities, hazards and protective measures of chemicals they are exposed to
B. The names of all local OSHA officials
C. That all workers in all sectors are covered by OSHA's Hazard Communication
Standard
D. All of the above

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26. The SDS under the revised HCS:
A. Is exactly the same as OSHA's current MSDS.

B. Varies significantly and will require updates. (correct answer)
C. Is not intended to replace the MSDS.
27. Revisions OSHA's HCS incorporating GHC guidelines is intended to:
A. Establish a foundation of programs to ensure the safe use of chemicals. (correct

answer)
B. Support supervision.
C. Create more citations by OSH
D. Guarantee the hiring of more H&S personnel.
28. Which of the following is considered an element of OSHA's HCS and should be an
element of an employer's
written Hazard Communication Program?
A. Hazard Recognition/control, Hazard Analysis, SDSs and Container Storage

B. Hazard Recognition/control, Signs and Signals, SDSs and Information and Training
C. Hazardous Chemical Inventory, Labeling Containers, SDSs and Information and
Training (correct answer)
29. Chemical spill, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment
would be considered
which of the following?
A. A "Poor Event"
B. Foreseeable Emergency (correct answer)
C. Level 1 Risk Event
D. Immediate OSHA Reportable Event
30. What is important for the employee to know or to be familiar with about Hazard
Communication?
A. Understanding of Safety Data Sheets

B. Understanding of label, signage and warning requirements
C. How to respond to a hazardous chemical incident (fire, leak, rupture or spill)
D. Knowing how to acquire SDSs of the product being used
31. When conducting a chemical inventory, the employer should do which of the following?
A. Walk around the office, yard and project sites

B. Record the product names of all chemicals
C. Record the chemical manufacturers' names, addresses and telephone numbers
D. Identify estimated value and quantity of the hazardous chemicals
E. A, B and C (correct answer)
32. Section 1 of the SDS is focused on:
A. Identification of the substance or mixture and of the supplier. (correct answer)

B. The PEL/TLV limits.
C. Whether or not the substance is flammable.
D. First aid measures in case of exposure.
33. "Hazardous chemical" means any chemical which is classified as a physical hazard or a
health hazard and
which of the following:
A. A simple asphyxiate, a combustible dust, a pyrophoric gas (correct answer)

B. A fall hazard or a caught between hazard
C. An electrocution hazard
D. All of the above
34. Asbestos removal can be done by:
A. Any work crew using special wet methods

B. Workers who have a respirator
C. Only specially trained asbestos workers (correct answer)
35. An acute exposure is:
A. An exposure that is immediate

B. An exposure that has immediate effects
C. An exposure that presents itself over time
36. The most common form of crystalline silica is
A. Quartz (correct answer)

B. Cristobalite
C. Tridymite
37. Routes of exposure include
A. Inhalation
B. Ingestion
C. Skin absorption

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38. The hazard communication standard includes
A. Training
B. Labels and related warnings
C. Safety Data Sheets (SDSs)
39. Hazard Communication training must include
A. How the program is implemented

B. The colors of uniforms by job assignment
C. How employees can protect themselves from chemical hazards
D. Both A and C above (correct answer)
40. The best hearing protection is provided by
A. Ear plugs
B. Ear muffs
C. Ipod ear buds
D. It depends on the overall noise reduction rating (NRR) provided by the device (correct
answer)
41. Noise may be hazardous when levels are above
A. 80 decibels as an 8 hour time weighted average (TWA)

B. 85 decibels as an 8 hour time weighted average (TWA) (correct answer)
C. 90 decibels as an 8 hour time weighted average (TWA)
D. 110 decibels as an 8 hour time weighted average (TWA)
42. Physical hazards include
A. Noise
B. Vibration
C. Temperature extremes
D. Radiation
43. Heat illness may present life-threatening symptoms including

A. High body temperature (with hot/dry skin)
B. Confusion and disorientation
C. Convulsions and fainting
44. Which is the most advanced form of heat illness?
A. Heat rash
B. Heat stress
C. Heat rage
D. Heat stroke (correct answer)
45. Non-ionizing radiation can cause
A. Skin cancer
B. Eye damage
C. Burns
46. Biological agents include
A. Bacteria, viruses, fungi and related microorganisms (correct answer)

B. Solvents and related chemicals
C. Asbestos
47. Strains, sprains tendonitis, and carpal tunnel syndrome are examples of
A. Chemical injuries
B. Ergonomic injuries (correct answer)
C. Heat stress injuries
48. Poisonous plants such as poison ivy, poison oak and poison sumac can
A. Cause allergic and sensitization reactions on the skin

B. Be dangerous to the lungs if burned and the resulting toxins are inhaled
C. Are common in most parts United States
49. Blood borne pathogens include
A. Hepatitis B (HBV)
B. Hepatitis C (HCV)
C. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

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50. 29 CFR 1926.1153 is OSHA's standard covering what hazard?
A. Respirable crystalline silica standard for general industry and maritime

B. Non-respirable crystalline silica standard for general industry and maritime
C. Respirable crystalline silica standard for construction (correct answer)
D. Non-respirable crystalline silica standard for construction
51. Which of the following is NOT and employer responsibility?
A. Engineering controls
B. Written exposure control plan
C. Medical exams and health information
D. Guarantee of no exposure to respirable crystalline silica (correct answer)
E. Training
52. The standard allows the permissible exposure limit (PEL) for respirable crystalline silica
to how many
micrograms per cubic meter of air, averaged over an 8-hour shift?
B. 50
C. 75
D. 100
53. OSHA's respirable crystalline silica standard is predicted to save how many lives per
year?
A. 60
B. 100
C. 600 (correct answer)
D. 1,000
54. Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with respirable crystalline silica?
A. Lung cancer
B. Silicosis
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D. Appendicitis (correct answer)
E. Kidney disease
55. Which of the following worker activities does NOT produce respirable size particles of
crystalline silica?
A. Chipping
B. Wetting (correct answer)
C. Cutting
D. Drilling
E. Grinding

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56. OSHA's respirable crystalline silica standard is predicted to prevent how many new cases
of silicosis per
year?
A. None
B. 9
C. 90
D. 900 (correct answer)
57. Which of the following is true about fans?
A. They may be acceptable to supplement other control methods (correct answer)

B. They are only useful in open spaces
C. Smaller fans are usually more effective.
D. All of the above
58. Which of the following may be an appropriate method to reduce dust?
A. Surfactants and soil-binding materials

B. VDC
C. Ventilation booths
59. For the best effect, an exhaust fan should be positioned:
A. In an open window with all other doors and windows closed

B. So that the path of air is directed inside toward you and as many coworkers as possible
C. In an open window or door with a second window or door open across the room
(correct answer)
D. So that the dust is aimed upward
60. What is typically the easiest and most effective dust control?
A. Dust collection systems

B. Wet methods (correct answer)
C. Respiratory protection systems
D. Fans
61. According to Table 1 of the respirable crystalline silica standard, for which of the
following activities can a
worker choose between a wet method and a dust collection method of dust control?
A. Stationary masonry saws

B. Dowel drilling rigs for concrete in outdoor tasks
C. Jackhammers (correct answer)
D. Walk behind saws

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following activities should
a wet method of dust control be used
A. Handheld power saws for cutting fiber-cement board (with blade diameter of 8 inches
or less)
B. Stationary masonry saws (correct answer)
C. Handheld and stand mounted drills
D. Dowel drilling sigs for concrete in outdoor tasks
63. Which of the following choices is a work practice control that is repeated throughout
Table 1 of OSHA's
respirable crystalline silica standard?
A. Never work more than 8 hours

B. Practice with your equipment first before you use it on a task
C. Confine your activities to those that do not involve exposure to respirable crystalline
silica
D. Operate and maintain the tools in agordance with the manufacturer's instructions
(correct answer)
following activities can a
worker choose between a wet method and a dust collection method of dust control?
A. Handheld grinders for mortar removal (such as for tuckpointing)

B. Walk-behind milling machines and floor grinders (correct answer)
C. Small drivable milling machines (that are less than half-lane)
D. Large drivable milling machines (that are half lane and larger)
65. Some activities, especially for large machines, have additional control requirements
beyond wet and dust
collection methods, such as the driver being in an enclosed cab. Which of the following
activities does NOT
have additional control requirements beyond wet and dust collection methods?
A. Large drivable milling machines (half- lane and larger)

B. Crushing machines
C. Handheld grinders (correct answer)
D. Heavy equipment and utility vehicles
a dust collection method of dust control be used?
A. Small drivable milling machines (that are less than half-lane)

B. Large drivable milling machines (that are half-lane and larger)
C. Handheld grinders for mortar removal (such as for tuckpointing) (correct answer)
D. Heavy equipment and utility vehicles
67. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria that employers must apply when using
alternative exposure
control methods?
A. Permissible exposure limit (PEL)

B. Exposure assessment
C. Methods of compliance
D. Focus Four hazards evaluation (correct answer)
68. Which of the following is a key component of the housekeeping requirements in the
respirable crystalline
silica standard?
A. No dry brushing or sweeping of silica dust (correct answer)

B. No sudden movements in areas with silica dust
C. Constantly spray water into the air during all worksite clean up activities
D. Always use compressed air to clean all do these and surfaces of dust
69. For employees who are to have free medical examinations provided by their employer
under the respirable
crystalline silica standard, how often should the periodic medical exams be made available
to them?
A. At least every three years (correct answer)

B. At least every five years
C. At least every seven years
D. At least every ten yean
70. According to the respirable crystalline silica standard, employers must conduct
recordkeeping in
accordance with what other OSHA standard?
A. Access to employee exposure and medical records standard (correct answer)

B. Housekeeping standard
C. Lead standard
D. Acceptable certifications standard
71. Which of the following statements best describes acute silicosis?
A. Occurs after 15-20 years of moderate to low exposure

B. Occurs after 5-10 years of high exposure
C. Occurs after a few months to two years of extremely high exposure (correct answer)
D. There is no such thing as acute silicosis
72. What is the most common of crystalline silica?
A. Cristobalite
B. Tridymite
C. Quartz (correct answer)
D. Iron

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73. Ergonomic injuries impact
A. Joints
B. Skin
C. Muscles
74. Approximately how many construction workers are exposed to respirable crystalline
silica?
A. 100,000
B. 200,000
C. 1,000,000
D. 2.000,000 (correct answer)
75. What are the two types of respirators described in the control methods of OSHA'S
respirable crystalline
silica standard?
A. APF 10 and 25 (correct answer)

B. APF 10 and 50
C. APF 25 and 50
D. APF 50 and 1000
a wet method of dust control be used?
A. Crushing machines
B. Stationary masonry saws
C. Handheld and stand-mounted drills
D. Dowel drilling rigs for concrete in outdoor tasks
77. According to the respirable crystalline silica standard, employers must provide hazard
communication in
A. Alternative control methods standard

B. Hazard communication standard (correct answer)
C. Material handling standard

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78. What are the elements that must be included on an SDS
A. Physical and chemical characteristics, health effects, exposure limits and the origin of
the SDS (correct answer)
B. Physical and chemical characteristics, phone number of the shipper, and name of the
individual authoring the
SDS
C. Purchaser of the chemical, exposure limits and the origin of the
79. At a minimum, how often does the written exposure control plan needs to be reviewed
and evaluated?
A. Weekly
B. Monthly
C. Annually (correct answer)
D. Never
80. Types of cold stress injury include
A. Trench foot
B. Frost nip
C. Frost bite
D. Hypothermia
81. According to the respirable crystalline silica standard, employers must provide respiratory
protection in
A. Ergonomics standard
B. Ventilation standard
C. Respiratory protection standard (correct answer)
82. What is the most common form of crystalline silica?
A. Cristobalite
B. Tridymite
C. Quartz (correct answer)
D. Iron
a dust collection method of dust control be used?
A. Handheld power saws for cutting fiber-cement board (with blade diameter of 8 inches
or less) (correct answer)
B. Walk-behind saws
C. Drivable saws for outdoor tasks
D. Rig-mounted core saws or drills

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MODULE 9: STAIRS AND LADDERS
1. Which of the following are true about unprotected sides and edges?
A. They are areas where there is no stair rail system or wall 36 inches or more in height
B. They are not considered unprotected unless over ten feet above the adjacent surface.
C. They could be the edge of a stairway landing without a wall or guardrail system.
D. Both A and (correct answer)
2. Stairways with ____ or more risers shall be equipped with at least one handrail and one
stair rail system on
all unprotected sides. The handrail will be installed at a height of 30 to 37 inches measured
from the tread to
top of the handrail.
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
3. Job made ladders:
A. May be built in a manner acceptable to a supervisor on site

B. Must be built to a specific ANSI standard using quality materials (correct answer)
C. May never be used on any construction site when manufactured ladders are present
4. Always inspect a ladder before use. What do you look for?
A. No more than two bent rungs

B. Only limited amounts oil, grease, and other slipping hazards
C. Are warning stickers clearly affixed? (correct answer)
D. All of the above
5. A ladder with the following rating should NOT be used on the construction site?
A. Type IAA
B. Type IA
C. Type II
D. Type III (correct answer)
6. Which of the following statements about ladders is true?
A. Ladders are complicated and difficult to use.

B. Falls from ladders are one of the leading causes of work place fatalities. (correct
answer)
C. Ladder use depends on common sense; no instructions are provided by manufacturers.

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7. Which of the following are common safety devices for fixed ladders over 24 feet in
height?
A. Cages, wells, landing platforms, self-retracting life lines (correct answer)

B. High visibility paint, black & yellow tape on rungs, warning tape, signs
C. Slip-resistant coatings on side rails, access gates, self closing limit switches
D. All of the above
8. What are the four common ladder types?
A. Straight, extension, step, fixed (correct answer)

B. Commercial, industrial, household, hobbyist
C. Light duty, mid-range, heavy duty, step ladder
D. Short, long, medium, extra long
E. Fixed, portable, industrial, household
9. Regarding ladders which statements are true?
A. Inspect the ladder for damage and defects.

B. Do not use a damaged ladder.
C. Remove damaged equipment from the work area, and do not leave it for your co-
worker
D. All warning stickers should be clearly affixed to the ladder.
10. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Wood ladders may be painted.

B. Aluminum ladders are appropriate for working around electricity
C. Fiberglass ladders are susceptible to damage by heat or corrosives (correct answer)
D. Straight ladders are manufactured to support 6 times the maximum intended load
11. Pan stairs are commonly used in multi-story building construction. Until the pans are
filled with finished
concrete they present tripping hazards. Which of the following must be done to control
slipping and tripping
hazards?
A. Fill the pans with straw bales

B. The pans and platforms must be filled with wood or other solid material (correct
answer)
C. Delay installing Stair rails because they will be in the way
D. All of the above

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12. Which of the following is a common ladder material?
A. Wood
B. Aluminum
C. Fiberglass
13. Temporary stairs built on construction sites must be uniform in run and rise and must also
be:
A. Installed at an angle between 30 & 50 degrees

B. Built so riser height and depth variation does not exceed 1/4 "
C. Built Free of hazardous projections
14. Regarding use of the ladder which statements are true?
A. Face the ladder and use both hands when climbing

B. Always use the 3 points of contact and do not carry materials or tools while climbing
C. Secure the ladder to a rigid support.
D. Do not extend your body beyond the rails.
15. What is the meaning of the 4 to 1 rule for straight and extension ladders?
A. I must bring 4 ladders on the truck for 1 simple job

B. For every 4 feet vertical, the base must be 1 foot away from the structure (correct
answer)
C. For every 1 foot up, I must put the base 4 feet away from the structure
D. That OSHA is interfering in my normal work activities
16. Unprotected sides and edges are where there is no stair rail system in place at a height of
_____ inches or
higher
A. 12
B. 24
D. 48
17. Which ladder system allows for two way traffic up and down?
A. Extended trestle ladder

B. Double-cleated ladder (correct answer)
C. Fixed ladder
D. Single-cleat ladder
18. The combined weight of people and equipment on a ladder is called the "maximum
intended load."

B. False
19. Stairs, ladders, or ramps are required at an elevation break of ___ or more
A. 12 in.
B. 19 in (correct answer)
C. 24 in.
D. 36 in.
20. Each of the following is true of temporary stairs EXCEPT:
A. Pan stairs must be filled

B. Lighting is not necessany (correct answer)
C. Treads must be non-slip material
D. Slippery conditions must be corrected immediately
21. Stairs should be installed between 30 degrees and:
A. 35 degrees
B. 40 degrees
C. 50 degrees (correct answer)
D. 90 degrees
22. Rated loaded capacity refers to the total weight the ladder can sustain

B. False
23. Light duty ladders have a maximum weight limit of:
A. 100 pounds
B. 150 pounds
C. 175 pounds
D. D 200 pounds (correct answer)
24. Common ladder materials include each of the following EXCEPT
A. Wood
B. Fiberglass
C. Plastic (correct answer)
D. Aluminum
25. Ladder selection is primarily based upon what critical factor(s)
A. Operator height and weight

B. Load, size, and task (correct answer)
C. Workers training and level of experience
D. Environment of the worksite
E. Personal preference
26. Position the ladder correctly, using the ___ rule:
A. 3-to-1
B. 4-to-1 (correct answer)
C. Golden
D. Pretty good
27. it's generally OK to carry materials while going up or down a ladder.
A. True
28. Modern ladders are so well-made that safety and inspection are rarely a concern
A. True
29. ______ use a stepladder as a straight ladder.
A. Never (correct answer)

B. Always
C. If conditions permit, you may
D. Carefully
30. You must tag a damaged ladder "do not use" and remove it from the work area.
B. False
31. Rungs of straight ladders don't need to be skid resistant.
A. True
32. Under Federal OSHA, it's OK to use the top two steps of a stepladder
A. True

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33. The maximum length of a double section ladder is:
A. 36 feet
C. 56 feet
D. 62 feet
34. Which of the following must be provided when the length of dimb of a fixed ladder
exceeds 24 feet
A. Ladder sections offset from adjacent sections

B. Landing platforms every 50 feet or less
C. Cage or well provided
D. Any of the above (correct answer)
35. The climbing side of a fixed ladder must be at least ___ inches from any other object
A. 20
C. 40
D. 50
36. A landing platform for fixed ladders over 20 feet high must be constructed every 20 feet if
there is no cage,
well, or ladder safety device.

B. False
37. Do not extend your body beyond the rails of a ladder

B. False
38. Inspect the location of a ladder for
A. Stability
B. Debris
C. Overhead utilities
39. The standard ladder configuration is called "single-cleat."

B. False
40. When setting up step ladder, at least three legs must be level.
A. True
41. Heavy duty, industrial-rated Type 1A ladders have a ____ pound weight limitation
A. 200
B. 250
D. 375
42. Metal fixed ladders must be painted to resist corrosion.

B. False
43. Fixed ladders 24 feet or higher must be equipped with:
A. A cage
B. Self-retracting lifeline
C. Rest platform
44. Toeboards should be installed around floor openings landings, and stairwels to prevent
materials and tools
from falling to lower levels.

B. False
45. Straight ladders must support _________ times the maximum intended load.
A. 2
B. 3
D. 7
46. Which ladder system allows for two way traffic up and down?
A. Extended trestle ladder

B. Double-cleated ladder (correct answer)
C. Fixed ladder
D. Single-cleat ladder
MODULE 10: CRANES
1. Hoists shall be:
A. Installed in accordance with appropriate standards.

B. Be installed and dismantled under the direct supervision of a qualified individual.
C. Operated and maintained in compliance with manufacturers specifications.
2. There are many types of cranes, including:
A. Rough terrain, truck mounted, crawler and tower (correct answer)

B. Single operator and multiple operator
D. All of the above
3. The Operator of a hoist may perform other work:
A. At all times.
B. When hoisting equipment is not in operation. (correct answer)
C. Never.
4. On board computers on cranes:
A. Will depict boom length, radius angle and capacity

B. Will display the weight of the load
C. Obviates the requirement to be trained and qualified
5. Minimum clearance distances from power lines include:
A. Up to 50kV AC = 10 feet
B. Over 50kV AC to 200 kV = 15 feet
C. All other voltages = 75 feet
E. All of the above
6. General requirements for all cranes include which of the following?
A. Operator must stay within the crane's design limits

B. Always consult the manufacturer's manual
C. The manufacturer's manual must be kept on each crane

7. Maintenance on conveyors may occur:
A. Whenever necessary.
B. At any time.
C. Once all hazardous energies are locked and tagged out. (correct answer)
D. When directed by a supervisor.
8. What is one major risk associated with conveyors?
A. Chemicals.
B. Guarding. (correct answer)
C. Wetness.
9. Modified equipment, repaired/adjusted equipment, and post-assembly prior to each use,

must be completed
by:
A. A qualified person (correct answer)

B. A competent person
C. The worksite supervisor
D. All of the above
10. The requirements for riggers include which of these?
A. Maneuvering the load safely when the operator cannot see it

B. Warning workers of overhead exposure
C. Using a spring loaded keeper for the hook
11. With respect to cranes, which of the following is true?
A. Each configuration for a crane has a load chart

B. The load chart must be visible to the operator
C. Load charts need adjusted for older equipment or poor conditions
12. Hoists should be inspected:

A. Daily prior to use. (correct answer)
B. At least weekly.
C. Never.
D. Monthly
13. To ensure stability, cranes must:
A. Be set up on firm, stable ground

B. Utilize outriggers/stabilizers using solid pads
C. Be verified for level set up
14. Who is responsible for the inspection and certification of cranes?
A. Qualified person
B. Competent person
C. Either A or B depending on the type of inspection (correct answer)
15. Before making modifications to cranes:
A. Approval from the manufacturer is required

B. OSHA must review and approve the modification
C. Modifications must be done by an authorized mechanic or facility
D. Modifications must meet or exceed original strength
E. A, C and D above (correct answer)
16. The leading cause of worker fatality cited in the new OSHA crane standard is:
A. Structural failure
B. Boom failure
C. Struck by load (correct answer)
D. Low flying planes
17. Workers must be trained:

A. To recognize and avoid hazards
B. In a manner (oral/written) that they understand
C. In a language that they understand
18. Surrounding hazards during crane operation may include what?
A. Contact with power lines

B. Contact with other cranes or buildings

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19. Which of following is an employer requirement regarding crane safety?
A. Employers must comply with local and state operator licensing requirements
B. Employers must perform a pre-erection inspection of tower cranes
C. Employers must use a qualified rigger for rigging erations duting assembly/
disassembly
20. Standards for crane safety can be found in
A. 29 CFR 1926 Subpart CC (correct answer)

B. NIOSH regulations
C. U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
D. All of the above
21. You must assure your crane is stable by each of the following EXCEPT
A. Firm and level ground

B. On-board seismograph (correct answer)
C. Outriggers and solid pads
D. Mechanical or carpenter’s level
22. Modifications or additions to your crane must not be done without manufacturer's
approval
B. False
23. Each of the following is true for an operator who needs to leave a suddenly energized
crane EXCEPT
A. Jump, don't step, down from crane (correct answer)

B. Don't touch ground and crane at same time
C. Once on ground, shuffle feet- do not runt
D. Walk to safety in a zigzag pattern
24. Which of the following is NEVER true of Rough Terrain Cranes
A. Light-to-medium capacity
B. Great ability to maneuver with load (correct answer)
C. All wheel drive
D. All wheel steering
25. Which two cranes typically use a lattice boom?
A. Tower rough terrain

B. Crawler, rough terrain
C. Tower, truck-mounted
D. Truck-mounted, crawler (correct answer)
26. Which type of crane is known as a "Conventional Crane"
A. Truck-mounted
B. Rough terrain
C. Crawler (correct answer)
D. Tower
27. Which crane type typically has the highest combined capacity for reach and weight:
A. Crawler/conventional (correct answer)

B. Truck-mounted
C. Rough terrain
D. Tower
28. The headache ball and hook are attached to the whip line by a wedge socket

B. False
29. Reeving cable through the sheaves on main block:
A. Increases the reach of the pick

B. Increases the picking strength of the crane (correct answer)
C. Isn't recommended
D. isn't used for heavy loads
30. If any part of a RT crane tire touches the ground before a lift you should
A. Re-check tire pressure

B. Re-check the load chart before lifting (correct answer)
C. Withdraw all outriggers
D. Call for reinforcements
31. Each of the following is true of anti-two block devices EXCEPT
A. Required by OSHA if personnel in suspended basket

B. Prevent main block/headache ball from jamming
C. Allow for other safety features to be deactivated (correct answer)
D. Many companies require use at all times

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32. Lattice sections cannot be added or removed on truck mounted boom cranes
A. True
33. Each of the following is true for lattice booms EXCEPT

A. Must be inspected for proper setup/outrigger use
B. Advantage is reach and capacity
C. Use fifth outrigger when necessary
D. Frequently used on rough-terrain cranes (correct answer)
34. A truck mounted crane with a Hydraulic boom:
A. Is a rough terrain vehicle

B. Doesn't perform reeving
C. Requires solid level surface for set up (correct answer)
D. is known as a "Conventional Crane"
35. A short lattice boom:
A. Is designed for high-capacity lift

B. Can be lengthened by adding sections
C. Has an overall length determined by manufacturer
36. Crawler Cranes can operate at ____ degrees
A. 90
B. 270
D. 190 F
37. Being ____ is critical for long booms on Crawler Cranes
A. Jacked-up
B. Solvent
C. Level (correct answer)
D. Hydraulic
38. The counterweight swing area of a crawler crane must be flagged off it there is any
possibility of employee
injuries from being hit by or pinched between the counterweights

B. False
39. Load chart values can pinpoint failures of
A. Structure accountability
B. Reach or expense
C. Structure or stability (correct answer)
D. Performance or anxiety
40. On-board computers will do each of the following EXCEPT
A. Show boom length

B. Display weight of load
C. Show radius angle
D. Replace the load chart (correct answer)
41. A critical picks one exceeding ____ % on the load chart value .
B. 85
C. 95
D. 99
42. Above the heavy line crossing the load chart are values for failure in:
A. Stability
B. Structure (correct answer)
C. Structure or stability
D. Reach
43. Under OSHA construction requirements for cranes and derricks, when a crane operator is
employed by a
company, who must pay for the crane operator's certification fees?
A. The crane manufacturer

B. The crane operator
C. The crane operator's employer (correct answer)
D. No one; OSHA provides this certification for free
44. After safety-related modifications have been made to crane equipment, the equipment
must be inspected by
________ prior to use
A. A competent person
B. A qualified person (correct answer)
C. A representative from the crane's original manufacturer
D. An identified person
45. Certain inspections of crane equipment may be made by a(n) __________ person;
however, crane
inspections are typically required to be made by a(n) __________ person.
A. Authorized, identified
B. Authorized, qualified
C. Competent authorized
D. Competent, qualified (correct answer)
46. Those who work on a crane or near crane operations must be trained. Which of the
following is true for this
training?
A. Training must be in a language that is understood

B. Training must be provided in a manner that is understood
C. Training must include how to recognize and avoid hazards
47. Inspections of hoists should include:
A. Hooks
B. Safety latches
D. Both A and (correct answer)
48. Daily inspections need to include:
A. casual inspection
B. Checking of the wire rope for damage or "caging" (correct answer)
C. No inspections are required.
D. All of the above
49. Hoists should be inspected:
A. Daily, prior to use (correct answer)

B. At least weekly
C. Never
D. Monthly
50. DO NOT perform maintenance on a conveyor until
A. All hazardous energies are disconnected and blocked (correct answer)

B. A letter of approval has been received from OSHA
C. The conveyor has been inspected by the manufacturer
D. Al of the above
51. Two phrases which describe a Tower Crane operator's controls are
A. "Shotgun", Throttle"
B. "Unwieldy stiff"
C. "Joy stick, "Deadman" (correct answer)
D. "Mouse", "Point and-pick"
52. Crane operators must be in ______ communication with the rigger
A. Occasional
B. Constant (correct answer)
C. Internet
D. Enthusiastic
53. Tag lines are quite hard to put into place
A. True
54. Hand Signals must be in accordance with:
A. ANSI (American National Standards Institute)

B. OSHA (correct answer)
C. NFL
55. A critical pick is one exceeding ____% on the load chart value .
B. 85
C. 95
D. 99
56. Each of the following is true for lattice booms EXCEPT:
A. Must be inspected for proper setup/outrigger use

B. Advantage is reach and capacity
C. Use fifth outrigger when necessary
D. Frequently used oh rough terrain cranes (correct answer)
57. For an overhead load exposure, riggers must ______, if operator cannot
A. Lift steadily
B. Sound the alarm (correct answer)
C. Run swiftly away
D. Stand idly by
58. Each of the following is true of extra pads for outriggers EXCEPT:
A. Extra pads are required for uneven ground

B. Job site materials may be used
C. Loose timbers and plywood are recommended (correct answer)
D. No masonry products
59. Tower Cranes

A. Are medium duty but versatile
B. Rotate 360 degrees
C. Have good capacity along entire length of boom
60. The operator typically wears ______ while climbing the crane's ladder:
A. No fall protection
B. A harness (correct answer)
C. A tool belt
61. Load charts must
A. Specify legal blood/alcohol limit

B. Indicate rated lifting capacity and be visible to operator (correct answer)
C. Be displayed on window of cab
D. Never be downgraded
62. Unlike a regular mast tower crane, a jacking mast
A. Can be maintained upright longer

B. Has more strength
C. Has more reach
D. Can be jacked up as building progresses (correct answer)
63. The trolley is part of the tower crane that travels the jib:
A. Horizontally (correct answer)

B. Vertically
C. South by southwest
D. At a 45 degree angle

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64. Limit Switches are tested after the Tower Crane is erected and before its first use
B. False
65. If a crane contacts a power line, the operator should normally stay in the cab until power
has been de-
energized

B. False
66. Tower cranes are anchored by _____________ to an engineered ____________

foundation
A. Screws, steel
B. Bolts, steel
C. Rebar, concrete to an engineered
D. Bolts, concrete (correct answer)
67. The Anti-Two Block
A. Is a widely available crane feature

B. Is a weighted safety
C. Keeps a switch active
D. Al of the above (correct answer)
MODULE 11: EXCAVATIONS
1. Soil can be categorized based on its characteristics. Examples are cemented, cohesive,
dry, fissured and
granular. Soil with a high clay content that does not crumble, can be excavated with
vertical side slopes, and
is plastic when moist most likely describes:
A. Cemented soil
B. Cohesive soil (correct answer)
C. Dry soil
D. Fissured soil
E. Granular soil
2. You are excavating a 10 foot deep trench in soil that has been tested and classified as type
You cannot
obtain a trench box because it is being used in another trench. What are your options for
protecting yourself
and other workers?
A. Slope the soil by going 3/4 foot wide for each foot deep
B. Slope the soil by going 1 foot wide for each foot deep
C. Slope the soil by going 1 ½ feet wide for each foot deep (correct answer)
D. Use aluminum hydraulic shoring since it is only 10 feet deep
3. Soil can be de-stabilized by:
A. Vibration
B. Changes in loading
C. Weather conditions
4. Which of the following statements is true about trenches and/or excavations?
A. A trench is any cut in the earth which is wider than it is deep.

B. A trench is never wider than 15 feet.
C. An excavation is a cavity in the earth's surface by cutting/digging/removing earth.
D. The dangers in each are much different and must be treated differently.
E. Both B and C are correct (correct answer)
5. Soils may be classified as type:
A. A, B and C (correct answer)

B. 1, 2 and 3
C. All of the above
6. What are the Major Types of excavation Hazards in Construction?
A. Unprotected edges and fall hazards

B. Improper sloping, benching or shoring
C. Properly classifying soils
D. Spoils mismanagement
E. A, B and D (correct answer)
7. Which of the following are common test methods used for soil classification?
A. Ribbon and Thumb Penetration

B. Dry Strength and Sedimentation
C. Wet bulb and finger set spread
E. A and B only (correct answer)

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8. What is the minimum distance allowed between a spoils pile and trench's edge?
A. One foot
B. Two feet (correct answer)
C. Three feet
D. Four feet
E. It is determined by the competent person.
9. With regards to soil, a competent person must know:
A. General protection requirements

B. Soil classifications
C. Protective systems
10. Which of the following is true about trenching?
A. 37% of all trenching incidents occur at depths less than 5 feet

B. Most fatalities occur in trenches 5-15 feet deep
C. Employers & Employees are responsible to ensure excavations are safe before
entering
11. As soon as a trench or excavation reaches a depth of _____ or more, fall protection
measures must be
implemented.
A. 3 feet
C. Fall protection does not apply to excavations
12. Lateral soil pressure is the naturally occurring force that exists in the ground that makes
the sides of an
excavation want to move, which leads to cave-ins. This lateral cave-in pressure can be as
much as ____
pounds per square foot in non-cohesive or saturated soils.
A. 200
B. 500
D. 4000
13. A soil appears to be Type A, is cohesive and looks good. What conditions might cause it
NOT to be
classified as Type A?
A. None, if it looks like Type A, it is Type A

B. If it is cracked or fissured
C. If it is subject to vibration
D. Both B and C are correct (correct answer)

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14. The competent person will classify soil based on what kind of test?
A. Electronic test and visual test

B. Visual and manual tests (correct answer)
C. Manual test and seismic test
15. The belief that a worker can dig himself out of a cave-in is:
A. Not likely true because of the weight of soil
B. Probably true as long as he is conscious
C. Not likely true because of the soil pressing on the chest
D. Not likely true because of dirt particles clogging the nose, mouth and lungs
E. All except B (correct answer)
16. Air monitoring is required in confined spaces, including trenches deeper than 4 feet,
because they present
hazards such as:
A. Methane gas and Flammable vapors

B. Air
C. Carbon monoxide and various chemicals
D. Both A and C are correct (correct answer)
17. When digging a trench, a gas line hit can lead to an explosion or contact with buried
power cables can kill.
Always call your local utility locating service before you dig, and get the utilities marked.
What else do we
know?
A. A broken water line can fill a trench in seconds.

B. We must hand dig to locate the lines safely.
C. We can dig with a backhoe but only under careful supervision.
D. All of the above
18. Aluminum hydraulic shores must be pumped to a minimum of _______ of pressure, but
more is
recommended.
A. 300 pounds
B. 750 pounds (correct answer)
C. 1000 pounds

19. Federal regulations require that certain excavation activities be designed, inspected or
supervised by a
competent person. A competent person in excavations must have certain qualifications.
Which of these are
included?
A. Specific training in soils analysis

B. Knowledge about protective systems
C. Authority to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate hazards
E. B and C only
20. Shoring an excavation or trench is only required if it is
A. 4 feet deep
B. Less than 5 feet deep
C. More than 5 feet deep
D. All of the above, if conditions warrant (correct answer)
21. True or false: When your trench is deeper than 4 feet and hazards may be present air
monitoring must be
done before entry

B. False
22. True or false: Excavation safety standards have introduced in 1989

B. False
23. What is the minimum distance allowed between a spoils pile and trench's edge?
A. One foot
B. Two feet (correct answer)
C. Three feet
D. Four feet
E. it is determined by the competent person
24. Which of the following are common soil classification tests?

C. Wet bub and finger set spread
D. Pocket Penetrometer and shear vane
E. All except C (correct answer)
25. The definition of type C-60 soil is provided by manufacturers to allow the competent
person an opportunity
to use vertical shores or other protective systems in accordance with tables provided by the
manufacturer

B. False
26. A defining feature of Stable Rock is that it will
A. Crumble slowly
B. Remain intact while exposed (correct answer)
C. Never be excavate
D. Survive forever
27. Each of the following is a Type B soil EXCEPT
A. Angular gravel
B. Silt and silt loam
C. Sandy loam and silty day loam
D. Sand (correct answer)
28. The most important distinction between Stable Rock/Types A&B and Type C is:
A. Color
B. Consistency
C. Degree of stability (correct answer)
D. Geologic origin
29. A soils are usually clays and cemented soils such as caliche and hardpan
B. False
30. A soil cannot be Type A if it is:
A. Fissured
B. Subject to vibration
C. Previously disturbed
31. OSHA requires that the competent person perform two visual and two manual tests ona
soil sample fresh
out of the ground and not impacted by weather conditions at the site.
A. True
32. True or false: Aluminum hydraulic shoring permits both installation and removal without
entering the trench

B. False

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33. In type C soil, the angle of repose is very low, how many degrees must the angle be?
A. 30 degrees
B. 32 degrees
C. 33 degrees
D. 34 degrees (correct answer)
E. 45 degrees
34. Type B soils afford how many options of protection?
A. Seven
B. Six
C. Five
D. Four (correct answer)
E. Three
35. Which of the following statements is true of kick out?
A. Side rails must extend to within 2 feet of the bottom to prevent it.
B. It occurs when soils at the bottom of the trench fail.
C. It causes the loss of support along the entire vertical matrix of the soil behind the shore.
36. Which soil type is the most common?
A. Type A
B. Type B (correct answer)
C. Type C
D. Mixed soil
37. True or false: Mixed oak timbers have a greater bending strength per square inch than
Douglas fir
A. True
38. True or false: Shores must be pumped to a minimum of 750 pounds of pressure but more
is recommended.

B. False

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39. The struts of a screw jack system must be adjusted manualy, which creates a hazard
because the worker is
required to:
A. Apply great force to the strut

B. Be in the trench in order to adjust the strut (correct answer)
C. Exceed the depth restriction of the system
40. The depth at which an excavation needs attention from a registered professional engineer
is
A. 5 feet
B. 10 feet
C. 15 feet
D. 20 feet (correct answer)
41. True or false Shoring and shielding can be custom-built from tabulated data approved by
a registered
professional engineer

B. False
42. Placing a shield (e.g., trench shield or trench box) between the side of an excavation and
the work area can
minimize the risk in the event of a cave-in

B. False
43. True or false: All systems have a set of manufacturers tabulated data to be used for proper
design and
installation of the equipment

B. False
44. A surface encumbrance is anything that could create a ______ in or around a trench.
A. Path
B. Hazard (correct answer)
C. Situation
D. Funky odor
45. Being dangerously close to a falling load is

A. Encouraged
B. Not allowed (correct answer)
C. Permitted unlocked
46. When exposed to vehicular traffic your excavation site must have:
A. Adequate signage
B. Markings
C. Traffic control
47. Each of the following is true of underground installations EXCEPT
A. They must be removed (correct answer)

B. They must be located/marked before digging
C. 24-72 hour notke to utilities must be given
D. They must be protected or supported
48. Each of the following is true of accumulating water hazards EXCEPT
A. Trench walls may be weakened

B. Water removal must be accomplished
C. competent person must monitor operation
D. Special supports of shields are not allowed (correct answer)
49. TRUE/FALSE: Warning Systems for Mobile Equipment include barricades, hand signals,
stop logs

B. False
50. Establishing eye contact with your equipment operator is a general safety principle when
working outside
the working radius

B. False
51. Walkways must have handrails when at ___ or more above lower level.
A. 3 feet
C. 12 feet
D. 24 feet
52. All surface encumbrances must be removed or supported within:
A. The zone of optimum stability

B. The zone of extension
C. The zone of influence (correct answer)
D. The ozone

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53. A competent person must inspect all excavations, adjacent areas, and protective systems
daily,
_____________, and as needed throughout the shift
A. Before the last day of work

B. Before work begins (correct answer)
C. After sunset e
D. After end of project
54. When using a ladder in a trench, it must be
A. Within 25 feet of all workers

B. Extend 3 feet above cut
C. Have a 4-to-1 angle (correct answer)
D. All of the above
55. After identifying a possible cave-in, protective system failure, or hazardous atmosphere,
the Competent
Person:
A. Documents the scene
B. Calls for extra workers in the trench
C. Removes workers precautions have been taken (correct answer)
56. This topic is about the practical application of the Fed-OSHA Excavation standard
regarding
A. Soil Safety
B. Soil Mechanics
C. Soil Classifications
57. The competent person must know:
A. General protection requirements

B. Soil classifications
C. Protective systems
58. OSHA defines a Competent Person, in part, as someone who "has the authority to take
prompt corrective
measures to eliminate" hazards

B. False

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59. Which are properties of cohesive soil:
A. Does not crumble

B. Hard to break up when dry
C. Hangs together underwater
60. Natural solid mineral matter that can be excavated with vertical sides and remain intact
while exposed is:
A. Submerged soil
B. Fractured soil
C. Fissured soil
D. Stable rock (correct answer)
61. A ________ system means two or more distinctly different soil or rock types arranged in
layers
A. Weather
B. Layered (correct answer)
C. Issured
D. Free-seeping
62. Soil which fractures along definite planes or exhibits open cracks is:
A. Wet soil
B. Fissured soil (correct answer)
C. Layered soil
D. cohesive soil
63. An unsupported excavation unbalanced stress, causing:
A. Subsidence at surface
B. Bulging of vertical face
C. Possible trench face failure
D. Al of the above
64. Tension cracks are rarely a sign of imminent trench failure.
A. True
65. An increase or a decrease in moisture can both damage trench stability

B. False

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66. Boiling is an upward water flow into the bottom of the cut.

B. False
67. When the vertical face of a trench shears along a tension crack line, it is known as
A. Boiling
B. Toppling (correct answer)
C. Heaving or squeezing
D. Vector-shearing
68. Heaving or squeezing can occur even when shoring or shielding has been properly
installed.

B. False
69. Layered systems may have layers of different soil types, which become especially
problematic when layers
slope or dip downward

B. False
70. Weather affects soil stability through:
A. Wetting/saturation due to rain

B. Ground expansion/contraction due to temperatures
C. Moisture loss due to wind and sun
71. The "adjacent area" is area on either side of the trench cut equal to the depth of the trench.

B. False
72. _________ loads are any increase in weight in the adjacent areas next to the cut
A. Surcharge (correct answer)
B. Fissured
C. Class A
D. class C
73. Soils can be downgraded from A to B even when it meets confined compressive strength
requirements.

B. False
74. Unconfined Compressive Strength is determined by:
A. Lab testing
B. Field-testing with pocket penetrometer
C. Thumb penetration tests
75. Granular soils without cohesion, such as crushed rock, are typically Type B soil.

B. False
76. Soil Types A, B, and C, are ranked in ______ order of stability
A. Increasing
B. Decreasing (correct answer)
C. Random
D. All of the above
77. Small spalls are evidence of moving ground and indications of potentially hazardous
situations.

B. False
78. Soil that remains in clumps is cohesive, soil that breaks up easily is granular

B. False
79. Pocket Penetrometers are:
A. Direct-reading, spring-operated
B. Used to determine unconfined compressive strength
C. Pushed into soil for displayed reading

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80. After you complete the plasticity (wet thread) test, if soil sample does not break or tear,
the soil is
considered
A. Plastic
B. Cohesive (correct answer)
C. Granular
D. All of the above
81. Which of the following is specified by the Construction OSHA standard Subpart P,
sloping requirements for
excavations?
A. Type A soil must be sloped at 3/4 to 1 or less. (correct answer)

B. Type B soil must be sloped at 1 1/2 to 1 or less
C. Type soil must be sloped at 2 to 1 or less
D. Both A and C
82. What is the soil type?
A. Type A Good compressive strength and cohesiveness

B. Type It's not A, so it must be
C. Possibly Type B, but probably Type C, previoudly disturbed soil + traftic will reate
vibration (correct answer)
83. You acquire additional information and finally assign a classification of type B to the soil
If you protect this
excavation by sloping it, how wide is the excavation at the top?
A. 15 feet
B. 30 feet
D. None of the above,
84. Excavation = 34 Feet Wide Your excavation will be 34 feet wide. Type B soil gets a 1 :1
slope, which means it
will be 15 feet on each side, plus the 4 foot wide trench for the pipe Do you think that this
is a good solution
for this situation? Consider all of the factors presented in the scenario
A. Yes
B. No (correct answer)
85. What is the most likely soil type?
A. Type A
B. 3 Type B
C. Type C (correct answer)
D. Unable to classify

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86. if you have a trench greater than 20 feet deep:
A. You are not allowed to use sloping as a means of protection.

B. You must use combination of sloping and benching
C. You must use a Registered Professional Engineer. (correct answer)
D. You must notify OSHA before excavation starts
87. When in layered soil, interior soil as the bottom layer will control the entire slope of an
excavation
B. False
88. In layered soils, which layer has the most critical influence on the slope of the
excavation?
A. Top layer
B. Bottom layer (correct answer)
C. Doesn't matter
89. Cross Brace Arrangements?
A. Given a trench 8 feet deep and 5 feet wide in Type B soil, select the appropriate timber
shoring table and
determine which of the following cross brace arrangements can be employed. The table
will provide more than
one correct answer, but only one of the answers shown here is correct Click on your
answer when ready
B. 4X6 oak cross braces up to 8 feet horizontal and 5 feet vertical
C. 4X6 oak cross braces up to 10 feet horizontal and s feet vertical
D. 4X6 oak cross braces up to 6 feet horizontal and 5 feet vertical (correct answer)
90. Wales and Uprights?
A. in the same trench 8 feet deep and 5 feet wide in Type B soil, select the appropriate
timber shoring table and
determine which of the wale and upright arrangements can be employed
B. 4x4 wales spaced 5 feet vertically, 2x6 uprights spaced 3 feet horizontally.
C. 6x8 wales spaced 3 feet vertically, 2x6 uprights spaced 5 feet horizontally
D. 6x8 wales spaced 5 feet vertically, 2X6 uprights spaced 3 feet horizontally (correct
answer)
91. Shoring is covered in the OSHA standards subpart P
A. In appendix C for timber shoring

B. tin appendix D for aluminum hydraulic shoring
C. In appendix Y for exotic shoring
D. All of the above
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92. Selection of size and spacing of Shoring members are based on height and width of
trench.
A. True
93. One advantage to using shoring tables h not having to determine the soil type
A. True
94. Shoring:
A. A Is always required for trenches

B. Can be made of any material.
C. Is any mechanical system used to prevent collapse of an excavation (correct answer)
D. Is always better than trenching
95. Which of the following variables is not considered in the timber shoring tables found in
appendix C?
A. Type of wood (Oak vs. Douglas Fir).

B. Slope of excavation (correct answer)
C. Soil type
D. Trench width
96. Hydraulic Shores
A. Given a trench 16 feet deep and 10 feet use the web link to access the appropriate
Aluminum hydraulic shoring
table and determine which of the following applications can be used. Click on your
answer when ready
B. 3 3 inch diameter cylinders spaced B feet horizontally and 4 feet vertically
C. 2 inch diameter cylinders spaced 8 feet horizontally and 2 feet vertically
D. 2 inch diameter cylinders spaced 7 feet horizontally and 4 feet vertically (correct
answer)
97. Aluminum hydraulic shores are usually installed in ____ Type A soil.
A. Horizontal
B. With shecting
C. Vertically (correct answer)
D. Very slowly
98. The decision whether to use sheeting with aluminum hydraulic shoring depends primarily
on the soil type
you have

B. False
99. When vertical shores are used, there must be a minimum of ______ shores spaced
equally, horizontally, in a
group
A. Two.
B. Three. (correct answer)
C. Four
D. There is no minimum
100. Given Type A soil, dry conditions and a 40-ton piece of equipment near the edge the
trench, what do we
know
A. The trench cannot be sately shored

B. The shoring tables in appendix D cannot be used
C. You may need help from a Registered Professional Engineer
101. if you are using sheeting with aluminum hydraulic shoring, what do we know about the
shores, or wales?
A. They are installed vertically
B. They are installed horizontally (correct answer)
C. They are not used
D. They must be stacked
102. When "stacking" trench boxes
A. Do not allow personnel under any suspended load

B. Requirements to protect the open ends of the boxes is suspended
C. Be sure to pin the boxes according to manufacturers specification
103. Earth excavation to a depth of ____ ft below the shield is permitted
A. 1
C. 3
D. 5
104. Job-built trench boxes are never allowed in construction.
A. True
105. If using a trench box in combination with sloping or benching the box should extend at
least ____ above the
adjacent slope
A. 18 inches (correct answer)

B. 24 inches
C. 36 inches
106. When using trench boxes, why is the space between the box and trench wall backfilled?
A. To save time later when backfilling the trench

B. To prevent lateral movement of the box (correct answer)
C. To prevent equipment from driving into the trench.
D. Both A and B
107. Trench boxes don't prevent cave-ins, but do protect people.

B. False
108. Type C Soils are rated at below 0.5 tsf (tons per square foot)

B. False
109. An increase or a decrease in moisture can both damage trench stability
A. False
110. The Competent person classifies soils based on at least
A. One visual test

B. One manual test
C. 15 years experience
111. For evidence of surface water or seepage from the sides of a cut, examine the sides of an
opened excavation
and areas adjacent to it.

B. False
112. True or false: Excavation safety standards have come to exist only recently.
A. True

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113. Common Type A soils are each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Clay
B. Silty or sandy clay
C. Granite (correct answer)
D. Clay loam
114. The shoring tables in Subpart P are always based on using full or actual

B. False
115. Unconfined Compressed Strength is the load at which a soil will fail

B. False
116. In most cases, Type A soil can be sloped up to
A. 3/4 to 1 (correct answer)

B. 1 to 1
C. 1 1/2 to 1
D. 2 to 1
117. Which of the following is not an excavation myth?
A. If the trench is deeper than 5 feet, you must shore or protect the excavation (correct
answer)
B. Air monitoring is only for confined spaces, not excavations
C. You can dig yourself out if you are buried.
D. Hitting utilities is simply part of the business.
E. If the sol loks pretty good. t must be type A
118. If cracked, fissured, vibrated or otherwise disturbed, soil is not
A. classifiable
B. Type A (correct answer)
C. Porous
119. Saturation does not mean that water in the soil, or soil itself, will flow.

B. False
120. A "slippery sheet" is a potential characteristic of:
A. Fissured surfaces
B. Submerged soil
C. Shear planes
D. Layered systems (correct answer)
121. When vibrated, the cohesive material in wet soil will
A. Slump
B. Collapse
C. Or begin to flow
122. Which soil cannot be molded when moist and crumbles easily when dry?
A. Granular soil (correct answer)

B. Fissured soil
C. C Cemented soil
D. Cohesive soil O c
123. Fissures are small cracks or stress in an exposed surface

B. False
124. Aluminum hydraulic shores are usually installed ________ in Type A soil.
A. Horizontally
B. With sheeting.
C. Vertically (correct answer)
D. Very slowly
125. Stable Rock
A. A Is natural solid mineral matter

B. Can be excavated with vertical sides
C. Remains intact while exposed
126. "Free-seeping" soil is considered submerged soil.
A. False
127. The Competent Person must:
A. Document all tests

B. Complete at least one visual and one manual test
C. Consider site and environmental conditions
128. Which of the following are common soil classification tests?

C. Wet bulb and finger set spread
D. Pocket Penetrometer and shear vane
E. All except C (correct answer)
129. In most cases, Type C soil can be sloped up to:
A. 3/4 to 1.
B. 1 to 1.
C. 1 1/2 to 1 (correct answer)
D. 2 to 1
130. A hand-sized sample of cemented soil can't be crushed into a powder.

B. False
131. To be classified as Type A, the soil cannot be
A. Previously disturbed
B. Part of a mixed layered system.
C. Subject to vibration
D. Seeping water
132. Manual Tests include:
A. Plasticity or wet thread test

B. Dry strength test
C. Pocket penetrometer

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133. A cubic yard of soil can weigh as much as:
A. An 18 wheeler
B. A small pickup truck (correct answer)
C. The average construction worker
D. An elephant
134. For testing, soil suspected to be Type A should
A. Be clay
B. Contain moisture
C. Be a fresh, lump size sample
135. If indentation in the soil is made only with great difficulty, it is probably Type A soil
(Thumb Penetration
Test).
B. False
136. The Competent Person must be a Superintendent, Foreman, or Project Manager.
A. True
137. The shoring tables in subpart P are always based on using full or actual

B. False
138. Time and weather are not major influences in soil stress.
A. True
139. The error rate of the pocket penetrometer is between 20 % and :
A. 25 %
B. 30 %
C. 35 %
A. 40 % (correct answer)
140. Screw jack systems are preferred over hydraulic systems because they are safer for
workers to installs
B. True
C. False (correct answer)

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MODULE 12: MATERIAL HANDLING
1. Synthetic slings should be inspected by a competent person for abnormal wear, powdered
fiber between
strands, broken or cut fibers and much more. What should also be permanently affixed to
the sling?
A. Nothing, it should be free of attachments

B. A calibrated wear indicator
C. ID tag stating size, grade, rated capacity and manufacturer (correct answer)
2. When you can't avoid lifting or carrying, which of the following should you do?
A. Break load into smaller parts or get help (correct answer)

B. Carry full weight above your shoulder
C. Keep load extended away from the body to avoid foot injuries
D. Get rid of the load as quickly as possible
3. Structural steel, poles, pipe, bar stock, and other cylindrical materials, unless racked, shall
be:
A. Stacked and blocked to prevent spreading or tilting. (correct answer)

B. Laid only on one level on a firm level surface
C. Strapped with banding in all cases to prevent rolling
D. Stacked no higher than average man's shoulders
4. Overexertion is the #1 cause of workplace injuries. Overexertion is caused by exerting

excessive effort or
force when:
A. Driving a forklift
B. Holding, carrying or Throwing
C. Lifting, pushing or pulling
5. Common injuries resulting from handling materials include:
A. Fall from elevation

B. Back Injuries, crushing Injuries, cuts & lacerations (correct answer)
C. Electrocution
D. Struck by motor vehicle
6. There are many reasons and causes that can result in a back injury. One of the most
common is:
A. Lifting improperly or too much weight
B. Materials placed on flat concrete
C. Turning upper body while lifting or carrying

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7. Proper rigging is critical for a safe hoisting activity. Who should inspect loads for sharp
edges which will
require padding to prevent cutting of slings?
A. The operator
B. The superintendent
C. The qualified rigger (correct answer)
D. OSHA
8. As a rule, grabs, hooks, spreader-bars, or any other rigging attachments should have a
lifting capacity
______ of the sling being used.
A. Equal to or less than that

B. Equal to or greater than that (correct answer)
C. Equal to one half
9. The forklift operator should know weight of materials to be moved, limitations of

equipment and load
capacity chart. The operator should also ensure that:
A. He is outdoors
B. There is no one within 50 feet
C. Surfaces are level, free of hazards, and designed to withstand load (correct answer)
10. When debris cannot be handled by chutes, the material may be dropped into a designated
area. What is
needed if this is done?
A. The drop zone shall be enclosed with barricades

B. Warning signs shall be posted at all debris landing areas
C. Warning signs shall be posted at each level exposed to falling debris
11. A clean and organized job site is a safer jobsite. What helps to achieve this?
A. Daily inspections
B. No work in areas of non-compliance
C. Weekly clean up
D. A and B only (correct answer)
12. Conveyor systems present many hazards when in operation. However, when shut down
for maintenance,
what is especially important?
A. Sound a warning for anyone around

B. Jam a bar in the conveyor to keep it from moving
C. Lockout and tagout the system (correct answer)
13. When using hand trucks, dollies, or carts:
A. Place heavy objects on the bottom

B. Maintain clear line of vision when moving
C. Securing load not necessary
14. When inspecting a wire rope sling, you find that seven wires in one strand are broken.
What should you do?
A. Do not use the sling except for lifts less than 5000 pounds
B. Use the sling but inspect it again after 3 cycles
C. Dispose of the sling (correct answer)
15. Which of the following are material handling equipment rules of the road?
A. No riders unless equipped with approved seat

B. Drive slowly, with eyes on the road
C. Pedestrians always have the right-of-way!
16. Many of the hazards involved in material handling are common and very predictable
Hazards can be found in
both handling and storing materials. Improper storage hazard indude which of the
following?
A. Materials placed on flat concrete

B. Materials of stacked too high or on top or other hstable materials (correct answer)
C. Materials placed on even ground
17. Which of the following are common causes of material handling injuries?
A. Overexertion, incorrect or over lifting

B. Looking for hazards in pathway
C. Dropped and falling objects
18. To lift loads safety, you should bend your body at the:
A. Neck
B. Shoulders
C. Knees (correct answer)
D. Wrists

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19. You must move a heavy compressed gas cylinder about 50 feet. There is no cart or dolly
nor any lifting
equipment. What should you do?
A. Leave the cylinder, let someone else get it.

B. Get help
C. Use the two man lift and carry
20. When you can't avoiding litting or carrying, which of these should you do?
A. Break load into smaller parts

B. Carry full weight above your shoulder
C. Keep load close to body
D. Move slowly and maintain clear line of vision
E. A, C and D (correct answer)
21. Before starting work, prevent accidents by
A. Looking for hazards in pathway

B. Determining weight/stability of load
C. Ensuring level, clean, available set-down pint
22. Which of the following are common causes of material handling injuries?
A. Overexertion, incorrect or over lifting

B. Looking for hazards in pathway
C. Dropped and falling objects
23. Many of the hazards involved in material handling are common and very predictable
Hazards can be found in
both handling and storing materials. Improper storage hazards include which of the
following?
A. Materials placed on flat concrete

B. Materials stacked too high or on top of or other unstable materials (correct answer)
C. Materials placed on even ground
24. The forklift operator should know the weight of materials to be moved, the limitations of
the equipment, and
the information on the equipment's load capacity chart. The operator should also ensure
that a
A. The forklift is operated outdoors

B. There is no one within 50 feet
C. Surfaces are level, free of hazards, and are designed to withstand the load (correct
answer)
D. All of the above
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25. Which of the following are forklift rules of the road?
A. No riders unless equipped with approved seat

B. Drive slowly, with eyes on the road
C. Pedestrians always have the right -of way!
26. Conveyor systems present many hazards when in operation. However, when shut down
for maintenance,
what is especially important?
A. Sound a warning for anyone around

B. Jam a bar in the conveyor to keep it from moving
C. Lockout and tagout the system (correct answer)
27. Inspect your forklift and read instructions:
A. After use
B. Prior to use (correct answer)
C. If you feel like it
D. On alternate days
28. The crane operator ______________________
A. Can take signal directions from anyone as long as they have a better perspective than
the operator
B. Must be trained, experienced and certified to operate their crane (correct answer)
C. Is allowed to exceed their load chart as long as they are confident in their abilities
29. Utilizing an effective "safe lift" plan for all crane activities will _______________:
A. Help an inexperienced operator finish the job safely

B. Identify critical elements for planning and document actions taken to ensure a safe lift
(correct answer)
C. Ensure nothing can go wrong!
30. The person responsible for giving line of site communication to the crane operator is
called a ________ :
A. Crane Oiler
B. Crane Signal Person (correct answer)
C. Crane Foreman
31. The signal person on a crane is responsible for:
A. Ensuring the crane is operated safely (correct answer)

B. Ensuring that all personnel are a safe distance away and
C. communicating their intentions before signaling the crane to move
D. Ensuring the crane moves as quickly as possible to save money

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32. Effective safe Work procedures are required:
A. They aren't required

B. Because they help prevent injuries and incidents from occurring (correct answer)
C. Only for the new people on the job
33. Communication is a key to working safely on a jobsite. Which of the following is the best
way to ensure you
have effectively communicated?
A. Yell really loud to get someone's attention

B. Post a written document on the bulletin board
C. Make verbal contact and then follow up with a verbal or visual acknowledgement that
all was understood
(correct answer)
fiber between
the sling?
B. calibrated wear indicator
35. To transport or lift materials with a crane; slings, chains, grabs, shackles, and/or ropes are
considered part
of the:
A. Lifting system (correct answer)

B. Auxiliary system
C. Jobsite equipment ,
36. Structural steel, poles, pipe, bar stock, and other cylindrical materials, unless racked, shall
be stacked and
blocked so as to prevent spreading or tilting. Pipe, unless racked, shall not be stacked
higher than:
A. 3 feet
C. 7 feet
37. Evaluate the route over which material will have to be transported and the storage
location. Consider the
load capacity of flooring, location of emergency equipment, such as fire extinguishers,
exits, sprinklers.
What else?
A. The ease of loading/unloading and general access and egress

B. The compatibility of materials and other activities in the immediate area
C. And ensure ventilation is adequate by reviewing the intake and exhaust locations
38. A clean and organized job site a key component of a safe jobsite Clean up must occur
routinely during the
day and not just at the end of the work shift. Work areas shall be inspected _____________
for adequate
housekeeping
A. Hourly
B. Daily (correct answer)
C. At end of shift
39. Prior to the disposal of waste material you must determine the proper method of disposal
and personal
protective equipment always consult the ____________ for all materials prior to disposal
to ensure the
proper disposal methods and PPE are being considered.
A. OSHA requirements
B. Safety Data Sheet or SDS (correct answer)
C. Disposal manifest
40. When debris cannot be handled by chutes, the material may be dropped into a designated
area. What is
needed if this is done?
A. The drop zone shall be enclosed with barricades

B. Warning signs shall be posted at all debris landing areas
C. Warning signs shall be posted at each level exposed to falling debris
E. A and B only
41. Never allow materials, supplies or obstructions to block?
A. An access route
B. An egress route
C. The roach coach
42. When inspecting a wire rope sling, you find that seven wires in one strand are broken.
What should you do?
A. Do not use the sling

B. Use the sling but inspect it again after 3 cycles
C. Dispose of the sling
E. A and C (correct answer)
43. Lumber must not be stacked any higher than:
A. 20 feet with mechanical equipment, 16 feet when stacked manually (correct answer)
B. 20 feet when stacked manually, 16 feet with mechanical equipment

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fiber between
the sling?

B. A calibrated wear indicator
45. You might have heard scaffolds referred to as light, medium, or heavyr trade. What being
referenced?
A. Stability
B. Load capacity (correct answer)
C. Relative weight of the parts
D. Metal makeup
MODULE 13: SCAFFOLDS
1. Scaffold Grade Planks Are nominally 2''x10'' lumber and:
A. Are select lumber

B. Are scaffold grade and bear a lumber grading stamp (correct answer)
C. Say OSHA approved
D. Come brand new off the lumber delivery truck
2. Light trade scaffolds must be built to support loads not exceeding:
A. 30 pounds per square foot

B. 75 pounds per square foot
C. 25 pounds per square foot (correct answer)
D. 50 pounds per square foot
3. Scaffold frames may be used as a means of access only if they:
A. Are specifically designed by the manufacturer and constructed for use as ladder rung
(correct answer)
B. Have no loose parts that could interfere with climbing
C. Have alignment coupling pins
D. Have cross braces fully installed
4. OSHA requires that scaffold users be trained about which hazards:
A. Electrical exposures, Falling object protection, Fall protection, Load capacities

(correct answer)
B. Rolling resistance, Scaffold height limits, OSHA Regulations, soil classification
C. Engineering standards, inspections, ladders, tiebacks

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5. Makeshift devices such as boxes and barrels shall not be used on top of scaffold platforms
to increase the
working level height of employees because:
A. It shows lack of planning

B. There is no rental charged for these items
C. It is unsafe and may cause an accident (correct answer)
D. Good barrels are hard to find
6. Frame Scaffolds exceeding 125 feet shall be:
A. Guyed or braced more securely than scaffolds below that height

B. Designed by an engineer (correct answer)
C. Inspected more frequently
D. Reviewed by a qualified OSHA inspector before use
7. Scaffold plates on which feet or jacks rest must be a minimum of:

A. 4"x4" nominal lumber
B. 10"x10"x 1 1/8 inch plywood or 10"x10xx2" lumber (correct answer)
C. Any material which looks decent
8. Scaffolds must bear on adequate firm foundations such as:
A. Boxes or barrels
B. Bricks or concrete blocks
C. Base plates under each leg (correct answer)
D. Loose materials piled up to reach the level of the upright
9. Scaffolds must be erected:
A. In any fashion to get the work done

B. Plumb, level, &square; secure to structure when higher than 4x narrowest base
dimension (correct answer)
C. Under the direction of an OSHA inspector qualified in scaffold erection.
D. With the consent and approval of all users.
10. Tubular Welded Frame Scaffold Frames may be installed without feet or jacks:
A. When they were not delivered

B. Whenever it is more convenient to leave them off
D. When the competent person says it's ok

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11. Frame scaffolds which exceed 4 times their narrowest base dimension shall be:
A. Climbed carefully
B. Secured to the building or structure (correct answer)
C. Covered to prevent materials from falling off
D. Equipped with stair towers instead of ladders
12. Guardrails or fall arrest protection are required on all scaffolds:

A. 6 feet or higher
B. 7 ½ feet or higher
C. 8 feet or higher
D. 10 feet or higher (correct answer)
13. Scaffolds and scaffold components must be inspected for visible defects by a competent
person
A. Before work shift and after any occurence affecting scaffold's structural integrity
(correct answer)
B. At the employer's discretion
C. At least every 30 days
D. At regular intervals
person before
each
A. After any occurrence which could affect scaffold's structural integrity. (correct answer)
B. At the employer's discretion
D. At regular intervals
15. Scaffold Grade Planks are nominally 2"x10" lumber and:
A. Are select lumber

B. Are scaffold grade and bear a lumber grading stamp (correct answer)
C. Say OSHA approved
D. Come brand new off the lumber delivery truck
16. Scaffolds shall be erected, moved, dismantled or altered only under the supervision and
direction of:
A. Foreman
B. Group of individuals who must work on the scaffold
C. Competent person qualified in scaffold erection, moving, alteration or dismantling
(correct answer)
D. Person who has done it at least once before

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17. Under Federal OSHA standards when must your scaffold be secured to and braced away
from the structure?
A. When it reaches 5 times its narrowest base dimension

B. When it reaches 4 times its narrowest base dimension (correct answer)
C. When it reaches 3 times its narrowest base dimension.
D. When it reaches twice its narrowest base dimension
18. In terms of scaffold erection and scaffold competency, which of the following statements
is true?
A. The competent person someone who is capable of identifying existing and predictable
hazards in the
surroundings, and in working conditions, that are unsanitary hazardous, or dangerous to
employees, and who
has the authority to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.
B. The competent person must know the hazards of erecting scaffolds, must be thoroughly
familiar with the scaffold
to be erected, and must assure the correction of hazards or that safety measures have
been taken before
erection begins.
C. Scaffold erection movement and dismantling is performed under the supervision of a
competent person.
19. Scaffolds shall be erected, moved, dismantled, or altered only under the supervision and
direction of which
of the following?
A. A foreman.
B. A group of individuals who must work on the scaffold.
C. A competent person qualified in scaffold erection, moving, alteration, or dismantling
with a trained crew (correct
answer)
D. A person who has done it at least once before.
person:
A. Before each work shift
B. After any occurrence which could affect a scaffold‘s structural integrity
21. Scaffolds frames may be used as a means of access only if they:
A. Are specifically designed by the manufacturer and constructed for use as ladder rungs
(correct answer).
B. Have no loose parts that could interfere with climbing
C. Have alignment coupling pins
D. Have cross braces fully installed
OSHA 30 Construction Quizzes (v. 2.0) Page

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22. Scaffolds must be erected:
A. In any fashion to get the work done

B. Plumb, level, and square; secure to structure when higher than 3x narrowest base
dimension (correct answer)
C. Under the direction of an OSHA inspector qualified in scaffold erection.
D. With the consent and approval of all users.
E. A and B only.
23. All scaffold users must be trained in the following areas:
A. Electrical Safety, Break Periods, Lunch periods, Location of toilets

B. Sanitary facilities, break truck arrival times, quitting time
C. Acceptable modifications of job site scaffolds
D. Electrical safety, fall protection, scaffold loads, and falling object protection (correct
answer)
E. A and B only.
24. Unstable objects may be used to support scaffold legs:
A. When the scaffold is over 25 feet

B. When the scaffold is 20 feet or less
C. When only one person is using the scaffold
D. Never (correct answer)
E. A and B only.
25. Scaffold planks must overlap bearers by at least ___________; on continuous runs of
scaffold platforms,
planks must overlap each other at the bearer by ___________
A. 8 inches, 14 inches
B. 6 inches, 12 inches (correct answer)
C. 3 inches, 3 inches
D. 4 inches, 10 inches
26. The space from the finished face of the building to the front of the scaffold for standard
trade operation shall
be 14 inches.

B. False
27. Cross bracing may be used as a midrails or top rail depending upon the height at which
the rail center sits in
relation to the platform

B. False

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28. Frame Scaffolds exceeding 125 feet shall be
A. Guyed or braced more securely than scaffolds below that height

B. Designed by an engineer (correct answer)
C. Inspected more frequently
D. Reviewed by a qualified OSHA inspector before use
29. The maximum distance between the last plank in a fully planked platform on a fixed
width tubular welded
frame scaffold and the outside of the frame is:
A. 12 inches
B. 10 inches (correct answer)
C. 7 inches
D. 14 inches
30. A person can ride on a rolling scaffold while it is being moved as long as the scaffold is
no more than 4
times higher than the narrowest base dimension.
A. True
31. A rolling scaffold cannot exceed _ times its narrowest dimension unless it is secured to a
structure
A. 2
B. 3
D. 5
32. Under Federal OSHA, surfing (self-propelling) on a rolling scaffold is allowed on

construction job sites:
A. When no one is watching

B. When floors have no obstructions
C. When the scaffold platform is not over 4 feet off the ground
D. Never (correct answer)
33. Rolling scaffolds designed by a registered professional engineer ran be built as high as
125 feet
A. True
34. Rolling scaffolds must be inspected by a competent person daily before each use.

B. False
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35. Guardrails, midrails and toeboards are required on all scaffolds
A. 6 feet or higher
B. 7 1/2 feet or higher
C. 8 feet or higher
D. 10 feet or higher (correct answer)
36. Scaffold frames must be pinned or secured together whenever
A. There is the potential for uplift

B. There is a potential for eccentric loading
C. There will be an OSHA inspection that day
D. Scaffolds are installed as a good practice
E. A, B & D above (correct answer)
37. Falls from scaffolds represent what percentage of all fall fatalities
A. 30
B. 28
D. 5
38. Scaffolds shall be erected, moved, dismantled or altered only under the supervision and
direction of:
A. A foreman
B. A group of individuals who must work on the scaffold
C. A competent person qualified in scaffold erection, moving, alteration or dismantling
with a trained crew (correct
answer)
D. A trained crew assisting the competent person
39. Scaffold plates on which feet or jacks rest must be a minimum of
A. 4"x4" nominal lumber

B. 10" x 10" x 1 1/8 inch plywood
C. 10 "x 10 "x 2 " lumber
D. Any material which looks decent
E. B & C above C (correct answer)
person:
A. Before each work shift

B. After any occurrence with could affect a scaffold's structural integrity
MODULE 14: CONCRETE
1. Prior to working on equipment:
A. It must be locked and tagged out (correct answer)

B. It must be dismantled
C. All of the above
2. Precast concrete wall units, structural framing, and tilt-up wall panels:
A. Must be supported until permanent connections are completed (correct answer)

B. Do not require support
C. All of the above
3. When cutting cement and concrete:
A. Always use dry methods for cutting

B. Always use wet methods for cutting
C. If working dry wear a respirator with a HEPA cartridge
D. All of the above
E. Both b and c above (correct answer)
4. Reinforcing steel (i.e. rebar) protruding from concrete:

A. Must be guarded when employees can fall on them (correct answer)
B. Must be painted yellow
C. Must be approved by a Supervisor
D. All of the above
5. Employees may ride on concrete buckets:
A. Only when authorized

B. At any time
6. When using concrete pumping equipment:
A. Discharge pipes must have pipe supports for 100% overload

B. Discharge pipes must be 6" in diameter
C. Compressed air hoses must have fail-safe joint connectors
D. Both a and c above (correct answer)
7. Cement dust, especially when wet and trapped inside clothing can cause burns due to:
A. The presence of granite

B. The presence of lime (correct answer)
C. The presence of oil
8. Allergies/sensitization to cement:
A. Can occur in some workers over a period of time (correct answer)

B. Never occur
C. Always occur
9. Bulk cement storage:

A. Must be in conical or tapered bottom vessels
B. Must have mechanical or pneumatic means of starting flow
C. Both a and b above (correct answer)
10. Employees may work under concrete buckets that are being raised or lowered:
A. Whenever necessary
B. When properly trained
C. When authorized
D. None of the above (correct answer)
11. Unrolled wire mesh can recoil presenting hazards to workers in the area. What measures
can be taken to
prevent the unrolled wire from recoiling?
A. Do not use damaged shoring equipment

B. Secure each end of the roll
C. Turn the roll over so that the recoiling ends turn down
D. Either B or C (correct answer)
12. Breathing cement dust can cause:
A. Chronic bronchitis
B. Silicosis from crystalline silica or quartz
C. Laryngitis
D. All of the above
E. Both a and b above (correct answer)

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13. To protect yourself from concrete and masonry health hazards:
A. Read all labels

B. Read MSDSs
C. Wear appropriate PPE
14. Powered concrete troweling machines that are manually guided:
A. Must be operated only on 120 volt electricity

B. Must operate on pneumatics
C. Must be equipped with a "dead-man" control switch (correct answer)
D. All of the above
15. Cement may contain hazardous substances including:
A. Silica
B. Lime
C. Nickel, cobalt and or chromium compounds
D. Any or all of the above (correct answer)
16. It is acceptable to ride concrete buckets:
A. On the first pour.

B. To get access to the specific pour area.
D. As long as fall protection is worn.
17. Construction loads should not be placed on a concrete structure or portion of a concrete
structure unless it
has been determined safe to do so by a:
A. Sheet metal contractor.

B. Person who is qualified in structural design (correct answer)
C. Leadman
18. All protruding reinforcing steel (Le. rebar) onto and into which employees could fall,
must be:
A. Spray painted yellow.

B. Guarded to eliminate hazard of impalement. (correct answer)
C. Located and noted on safety plan.

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must be:

20. Employees must wear protective head and face equipment when:
A. Applying cement, sand, water mixture through pneumatic hoses. (correct answer)
B. Working within 50 feet of a precast job.
C. It is up to the employee what should be worn.
21. Positive fail-safe joint connectors to prevent separation of sections when pressurized are
required for:
A. Concrete pump compressed air hoses. (correct answer)

B. Buckets.
C. Storage bins.
22. Masonry saw shall be guarded with a:
A. Masons circle.
B. Semicircular enclosure over the blade. (correct answer)
C. Blade fragment sucker.
23. No employee shall be permitted to enter,storage facilities unless the ejection system has
been:
A. Shut down.
B. Locked out
C. Tagged out
24. Powered and rotating type concrete troweling machines that are manually guided shall be
equipped with a
control switch that will automatically shut off power whenever hands of operator are
removed from
equipment handles.

B. False
25. Forms and shores (except those used for slabs on grade and slip forms) must not be
removed until:
A. Employer determines safe to do so.

B. Concrete has gained sufficient strength.
C. Concrete can support its weight and superimposed loads.
26. ________________ must be designed, fabricated, erected, supported, braced, and

maintained so that it will
be capable of supporting without failure all vertical and lateral loads.
A. Formwork. (correct answer)

B. Brickwork.
C. Tubular structure.
27. Masonry wall construction that is more than 8 feet and unsupported:
A. Must be braced. (correct answer)

B. Use quick form mortar.
C. Have ladders every 25 feet of lateral travel.
28. Under no circumstances must any employee who is not essential to the jacking operation
be permitted
immediately beneath a slab while it is being lifted.
B. False
29. A ____________ _____________ ______________ must be established prior to masonry

wall construction.
A. At Telephone cabeling system.

B. Contamination Reduction Zone.
C. Limited Access Zone. (correct answer)
D. Orange cone system.
30. A Limited Access Zone must:
A. Run the entire length of the wall.

B. Be equal (width) to the height of the wall to be constructed plus 4 feet.
C. Both A and B. (correct answer)
31. Cement and concrete may contain:
A. Silica
B. Lime
C. Nickel.
D. Chromium compounds.
E. All of the above. (correct answer)
32. Information about ingredients, hazards and safe work practices of cement and concrete
products can be
found:
A. On labels.
B. In Safety Data Sheets.
C. From the supplier
D. From the manufacturer
E. All the above. (correct answer)
33. Cement and concrete dust can be a hazard to a workers
A. Breathing.
B. Eyes.
C. Skin
34. Lime, found in most cements, is often the cause of.
A. Limosis
B. Silicosis
C. Skin injury - dermatitis.
35. Employees must not be permitted to work under concrete buckets except when wearing a
hard hat.
A. True
36. OSHA's regulations for concrete and masonry cover what type operations.
A. Cast-in-place concrete.
B. Precast concrete
C. Lift-slab construction.
D. Masonry construction.

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must be:

38. Bulk storage bins, containers, and silos shall be equipped with:
A. Conical or tapered bottoms; and

B. Mechanical or pneumatic means of starting material flow.
39. Dry concrete or cement dust is not as hazardous as new wet cement because it has cured.
A. True
40. Positive fail-safe joint connectors to prevent separation of sections when pressurized are
required for:
A. Concrete pump compressed air hoses. (correct answer)

B. Buckets.
C. Storage bins
41. Lime, found in most cements, is often the cause of.
A. Limosis.
B. Silicosis.
C. Skin injury - dermatitis. (correct answer)
42. Fall protection must be worn to place or tie reinforcing steel when working above Federal
and State specific
height limits.

B. False.
43. No employee shall be permitted to enter storage facilities unless the ejection system has
been:
A. Shut down.
B. Locked out
C. Tagged out
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44. OSHA's regulations for concrete and masonry cover what type operations.
A. Cast-in-place concrete.
B. Precast concrete.
C. Lift-sIab construction.
D. Masonry construction.
45. Wet concrete or mortar trapped against the may cause first, second, or third degree burns
or skin ulcers,
take months to heal and require skin grafts.

B. False
46. No employee shall be permitted to enter storage facilities unless the ejection system has
been:
A. Shut down.
B. Locked out
C. Tagged out
47. The tag in the lockout tag out procedure must read:
A. Notice.
B. Be careful.
C. "Do Not Start" or have similar language. (correct answer)
D. Look out.
48. Required on equipment if there is the possibility of inadvertent operation of equipment

that could cause
injury.
A. Step down power.

B. Step up power.
C. Lock out - Tag out procedure (correct answer)
D. Rubberized equipment.
49. Determination to remove forms and shores is based on:
A. Conditions per the plans and specifications.

B. Appropriate testing of the concrete
C. Using the "penny test

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50. Drawings and plans, for the jack layout, formwork (including shoring equipment),
working decks and
scaffolds, must be available at the jobsite.
A. True.
B. False. (correct answer)
MODULE 15: HAND POWER TOOLS
1. Regarding all hand and power tools, the employer must:
A. Ensure that tools are inspected before use

B. Ensure that proper PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) is used
C. Ensure that guards are in place and in good repair
D. Ensure that employees are trained in the proper use and safe handling techniques
2. If you wear gloves when you use a hand tool, you may need:
A. Glove cleaners
B. A thicker handle (correct answer)
C. A thinner handle
D. No handle
3. Regarding hand tools which of the following statements is true?
A. The employer is responsible for inspection and maintenance of all tools (correct
answer)
B. Employees have limited personal responsibility for all tools they use
C. If a tool crib is used on the site, the employee accepts responsibility for tools
4. Regarding hand tool inspections which statement is true?
A. Daily inspection not needed, but periodic inspections satisfy OSHA/company

requirements
B. Damaged hand tools may be reissued if damage is considered minor
C. If a hand tool is damaged or defective, keep it in your tool kit, you may need it
D. Tools must be immediately repaired or made unusable or be disposed of. (correct
answer)
5. What is true about Safeguards?
A. The Safeguard must be Secure and tamper-resistant

B. Guards and safety devices should be made of durable material
C. Safeguards should Create no new hazards or interference

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6. Regarding Powder Actuated Tools the three basic ppe requirements for operation are:
A. Gloves, high visibility vests, safety glasses

B. Respirators, chemical splash goggles, hearing protection
C. Ear, eye and face protection (correct answer)
D. Steel-toed boots, fall protection, hearing protection
7. Regarding airless spray guns
A. They atomize paints and fluids at pressures of 1,000 pounds or more per square inch
B. Must have safety devices to prevent trigger from being pulled until the safety released
C. Pneumatic tools require eye protection (head, hearing, face protection recommended)
8. Electric tools must have a three-wire cord with ground, and be plugged into a grounded
receptacle, OR:
A. Be double insulated
B. Be powered by a low-voltage isolation transformer
C. Be run on direct current
9. To provide adequate protection, PPE selected must always be:
A. Hazard-specific
B. Maintained in good condition
C. Properly stored when not in use, to prevent damage or loss
D. Kept clean and sanitary
10. To prevent hazards associated with the use of power tools:
A. Bundle tools and then carry by the cord or hose

B. Yank the cord to disconnect it from the receptacle
C. Disconnect tools when not in use (correct answer)
11. To prevent needless injuries with tools employees need to follow basic safety rules.
Which of these is
included in the list of basic safety rules
A. Keep all tools in good condition with regular maintenance.

B. Use the right tool for the Job including PPE
C. Examine each tool for damage before use and do not use damaged tools
D. Follow manufacturer's instructions

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12. Before allowing a worker to use a chain saw, employers must:

A. Ensure the worker has appropriate knowledge experience and training
B. Provide eye and hearing protection, hardhat/face shield, cut-resistant chaps, boots.
C. Ensure that saws are maintained and chains kept sharp
13. What is the problem with using an impact tool with a mushroomed head?
A. Exposure to fungus and parasites

B. The head might shatter on impact (correct answer)
C. There is no problem
14. All hand-held gasoline-powered chain saws must be equipped with:
A. Smooth, slowly rotating chains

B. Constant pressure switch (correct answer)
C. Kickout/lockout
D. All of the above
15. Which of the following safety precaution statements applicable to powder-actuated tools
is true:
A. Tool may be used in an explosive or flammable atmosphere

B. Inspect tool before use to make sure it is clean and all moving parts operate freely
(correct answer)
C. Some shields, guards, and attachments may be removed as they are cosmetic
D. Do not leave a loaded tool unattended for more than 15 minutes
16. Machine guards protect the worker from which of the following?
A. Point of operation
B. ln-running nip points
C. Rotating parts
17. A __________________ or control switch cuts off power to the machine when pressure is
released.
A. On/off button
B. Constant-pressure (correct answer)
C. Power cord

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18. A constant pressure switch is also required for all hand-held power drills, fasteners,
grinders

B. B. False
19. Safety guards used on portable grinders are allowed a maximum exposure angle of ____
degrees.
A. 45
B. 90
D. 270
20. When using a hand-held Portable Grinder with the hard wheel in operation, the guard
must be in place.

B. False
21. Belting sanding machines require _________ at each nip point where the belt runs onto a
pulley.
A. Cut off switches

B. Clutches
C. Flywheels
D. Guards (correct answer)
22. When using pneumatic tools, a ___ must be installed to prevent attachments from being
ejected during tool
operation:
A. Guard
B. Safety clip (correct answer)
C. Locking device
D. Trigger
23. For Jack Hammers and Chipping guns, use:
A. Heavy rubber grips

B. Safety glasses
C. Foot protection

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24. Hazards of Pneumatic Tools include:
A. Potential for air hoses to whip

B. Excess pressure
C. Tripping hazards (hoses)
25. If powder-actuated tools misfires, hold it in operating position for at least ____ seconds
before re-firing:
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. D 30 (correct answer)
26. Do not use a powder-actuated tool in an explosive or flammable atmosphere.

B. B. False
27. A powder-actuated tool must not be able to operate until it is pressed against a work
surface with a force of
at least _____ pounds greater than the total weight of the tool.
A. A3
B. B4
C. C 5 (correct answer)
D. D6
28. Keep your fingers off of the switch/buttons to prevent:
A. Wasting energy
B. Accidentally starting a power tool (correct answer)
C. Wearing the switch out
D. Finger fatigue
29. When using high-velocity tools, do not drive fasteners closer than __ Inches from an
unsupported edge or
corner of material.
A. 2
C. 4
D. 5

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30. Muzzle end of the powder-actuated tool must have a protective shield or guard that will
not allow the tool to
operate unless depressed

B. False
31. Airless spray guns operating at more than ____ pounds per square inch pressure must
have an automatic or
visible safety device that prevents your pulling the trigger:
A. 100
B. 500
C. 900
32. It is all right to remove the third "grounding'" prong on a male plug to fit the plug into a
two-pronged
receptacle.
A. True
33. A constant pressure switch is also required for all hand-held power drills, fasteners,
grinders

B. False
34. If an air hose is greater than 1/2 inch in diameter, a ______ must be installed:
A. Safety clip
B. Safety excess flow valve (correct answer)
C. An extension
MODULE 16: FIRE PREVENTION
1. After use portable fire extinguishers:
A. Must be recharged
B. Must be disposed of
C. Must be recertified
2. If personnel are going to fight fires:
A. A fire protection program must be developed/implemented

B. Firefighting equipment must be provided
C. Training must be provided
3. OSHA hot work requirements include:
A. Move objects to a safe location or use welding blankets

B. Notify the fire department
C. Ensure that a fire watch is available for 30 minutes after the hot work ends
4. Before you begin to fight a fire:
A. Make sure everyone has left, or is leaving building

B. Make sure fire department has been notified
C. Make sure fire is small and you're trained in PFE use
D. Make sure you have unobstructed escape route
5. Leading causes of jobsite fires include:
A. Please select the best answer

B. Easily ignitable flammable materials (e.g. paint)
C. Easily ignitable combustible materials (e.g. paper and cardboard)
D. The use of a hot work permit
E. Both a and b above (correct answer)
6. In order to properly address job hazards and controls for fire hazards:
A. The job should be evaluated by qualified and or competent persons. (correct answer)
B. Ask the Plant Manager
C. Always avoid fire generating activities
D. All of the above
7. With regards to chemical storage:
A. Flammable chemicals should not be stored with oxidizers/corrosives

B. Acids and bases must be appropriately segregated in storage
C. All chemicals may be stored in common containment
D. Both a and b above (correct answer)
8. The site emergency response plan should include:
A. Team members, notification numbers, and roles/duties

B. Shutdown procedures and communication procedures
C. Home addresses for responders
9. The PASS approach to firefighting refers to:
A. Pull, act, screen and spray

B. Pull the pin, aim, squeeze and sweep (correct answer)
C. All of the above
10. Housekeeping:
A. Can create extreme hazards with regards to fires

B. Large amounts of combustibles in rooms and buildings can contribute to large fires
C. Keep waste piles in an area from ignition sources
11. OSHA and NFPA require the use of a hot work permit- why?
A. The hot work permit is a good check for operations and the fire watch
B. The hot work permit can minimize the risk of fire
C. The hot work permit requires issuing someone that examines the worksite
12. When hot work is performed in enclosed spaces:
A. Shut off gas supply leading to torches outside of enclosed spaces when not in use
B. Remove torch and hose from the enclosed spaces at the end of the shift
C. Remove hoses from enclosed spaces when disconnected from the torch
13. Classes of fire extinguishers include:
A. A, B, C, D and K (correct answer)

B. B, S, E, and R
C. All fire extinguishers cover all classes

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14. When dealing with oxygen cylinders:
A. The use of oil or grease on oxygen valves should be avoided due to flammability
(correct answer)
B. Should always be in the color of yellow
C. Must be stored at temperatures less than room temperature
15. Hot work includes:
A. Welding, Grinding and Soldering

B. Flame cutting and brazing
C. Space heaters and other known ignition sources
16. Hot work in enclosed spaces requires that the gas supply to torches be shut off outside of
enclosed space
whenever torch not used or unattended.

B. False
17. It is OK to leave torches and hoses overnight or at change of shifts as long as you tell the
foreman or fire
watch.
A. True
18. Welding, grinding, soldering, flame cutting and similar work is called:
A. Hot work. (correct answer)

B. Potential work.
C. Thermal work.
D. Both A and B
19. Which of the following should be avoided?
A. Storing flammable chemicals with oxidizers/corrosives.

B. Storing acids and bases (caustics) in the same area.

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20. Gasoline, paints, thinners, solvents, natural gas, acetylene are all examples of potential:
A. Toxic hazards.
B. Flammable hazards.
C. Combustible hazards.
21. A hazardous substance on a job sites requires:
A. A safety data sheet (SDS)

B. Proper labeling
C. Removal, if SDS or labeling is insufficient
22. “Clean as you go" is a term used to describe all the following except.
A. A continuous process of removing debris from work area.

B. Continuous process of keeping waste piles away from fire hazards.
C. Building good housekeeping into job.
D. Clean up debris only after you Go to next job. (correct answer)
23. Emergency Response Plan contents should include all of the following Except.
A. Location of Labor Commissioners office. (correct answer)

B. Names of team members.
C. Notification procedures.
D. Contact numbers (i.e. fire, medical response).
E. Roles/duties of each member.
24. Potential response contacts may include all except:
A. Police/fire departments/ERT’s.
B. Hospitals and local medical clinics.
C. Poison control
D. ABIH (correct answer)
E. Local Power Company.

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25. On the site, OSHA requires:

A. One PFE for each 3,000 sq. ft. rated not less than 2A
B. PFE centrally located: 75’ or less at every point.
C. 55 gallon water drum & two round bottom pails substitute.
D. All the above. (correct answer)
E. B and C only.
26. PASS stands for
A. A Pull, Aim, Shoot, Sweep.

B. B Pass, Aim, Squeeze, and Shoot.
C. C Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep. (correct answer)
D. Pack up, Arm, Shoot, Squeeze
27. During building alteration it is OK to take sprinklers out of service without back up
systems:
A. True
28. Class A PFE's designed to fight Class A fires which are:
A. Ordinary combustibles, (i.e. wood, paper, cardboard, etc). (correct answer)

B. Combustible and flammable liquids.
C. Electrical hazards
D. Oil and grease fires
29. Hot work on drums and containers.
A. Can be dangerous.
B. Requires special controls
C. May require a vent or opening to release pressure.
D. May require cleaning and testing.
30. Which answer below is incuorrect? If water will be used as an extinguishing agent, the
water supply must
have sufficient:
A. Volume.
B. Chemistry. (correct answer)
C. Duration.
D. Pressure.

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31. It is not necessary to check storage and incompatibility information on hazardous

substance safety data
sheets (SDSs) as long as lids are kept on the substances’ containers
A. True
32. OSHA regulations restrict the use of oxygen for ventilation, cooling and/or cleaning
during welding and
other hot work.

B. False
33. PFE
A. Is an acronym for portable fire extinguisher?

B. Often first line of defense in combating fire.
C. Classified by the types of combustibles and extinguishing media.
34. Power lines and cords sufficient to carry the necessary current equipped with a
__________________ are
necessary on job sites.
A. Four pronged safety outlet.

B. Bipolar connection.
C. Rubber bridge mats.
D. Over current protection (i.e. GFCI's). (correct answer)
E. All the above.
35. It is not necessary to read the nameplate or label on a PFE as they are all multipurpose.
A. True
36. Compressed oxygen gas cylinder use requires:
A. Training.
B. Authorization by employer.
C. Valves, regulators, other parts free of oil or grease
D. Always be secured.
37. Given specific conditions such as location, quantity, etc. water hoses can be used as a
substitute for a 2A
fire extinguisher.

B. False

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38. OSHA requires fire prevention be taken when hot work on walls, floors, and ceilings,
since direct penetration
of sparks or heat transfer may introduce a fire hazard to adjacent area.

B. False
39. When Aiming the extinguisher always aim:
A. High at the flames.

B. Low at the base of fire. (correct answer)
C. Above fire so agent falls onto fire.
40. Welding, soldering, brazing are types of hot work. Keep your eyes open for other
potential sources of
ignition which are often overlooked such as:
A. Use of Cut Off Saws.
B. Grinding operations.
E. All of the above.
41. With respect to Hot work location. All objects to be welded or hot worked should be:
A. Moved to a designated safe location. (correct answer)

B. Cleaned of all moisture.
C. Labeled.
D. Tested for alloy content.
E. All of the above
42. OSHA regulations for Hot Work Requirements can be found in:
A. Title 29 Code of Federal Regulations. (correct answer)

B. Uniform Construction Code.
C. Site Construction Plan.
D. Part of building permit.
43. Flammable/Combustible hazards should be:
A. Stored at least 35 feet of any ignition source.

B. Inspected m 3-dimensional view for hot work hazard.

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44. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to chemical storage on a job site?
A. Always store in occupied buildings (correct answer)

B. Store away from the public.
C. Store out of the sun.
D. Store using secondary containment
45. OSHA requires employer to provide:
A. Fire Prevention Plan.

B. On-site firefighting equipment
C. Training for equipment use
D. Access to equipment at all times
46. Water is the best extinguishing agent to put out a Class C fire.
A. True
47. The amount of combustible material in building is referred to as
A. Fire loading (correct answer)

B. Debris load factor
C. Danger factor
D. Combustible factor.
48. Roles of Emergency Response Emergency Team members may include:
A. First aid treatment.

B. Emergency notifications.
C. Evacuation and traffic control.
D. Fire fighting and chemical leak control if trained
49. If fire too large, spreading rapidly, or conditions present that make fighting fire
hazardous, evacuate and let
trained firefighters handle.

B. False
50. Job site fire prevention is the principal responsibility of

A. Fire department
B. Property owner
C. Al workers and management on project (correct answer)
D. Fire Marsha
51. For demolition, OSHA requires water
A. With charged hose lines.

B. From hydrants, water trucks w/pumps, or equivalent.
C. Available at all times demolition underway
52. When fire prevention may not be sufficient, OSHA requires a __________ assigned
A. Fire Department observer.

B. Owner representative assigned
C. Trained Fire Watch. (correct answer)
53. The jobsite Emergency Response Plan should include:
A. Strategy and tactics designed for safe response

B. Pre-planned, easily initiated by the response team
C. Procedures to deal with chemical, medical, physical emergencies
E. A and B only
54. Electrical installations and repairs on job sites are required to be performed by
A. Qualified person.
B. Owner.
C. Professional Engineer
D. Anyone as construction workers know electricity.
55. All temporary heating equipment must have proper clearances from
A. Forming concrete.
B. Cooling steel.
C. Flammable and combustible materials (correct answer)
D. Job trailers.
E. All of the above

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56. Each jobsite should be evaluated by __________________ before work begins and
frequently during project
for fire hazards.
A. Qualified and/or competent person. (correct answer)

B. Estimator.
C. OSHA
57. A Hot Work Permit
A. Can minimize the risk of fire during hot work.

B. Serve as a checklist for operators, fire watch.
C. Issued at beginning of each shift.
D. Should be specific to the work operation
MODULE 17: STEEL
1. A positioning device system must limit free fall distance to no more than:
A. 2 feet (correct answer)

B. 3 feet
C. 6 feet
D. 12 feet
2. The top rail of a guardrail system must be within plus or minus 3 inches of ____ inches in
height.
A. 30
B. 36
D. 49
3. A pre-shift visual inspection of cranes must be performed by:
A. Any worker
B. A visual inspector
C. A competent person (correct answer)
4. Connectors working between _____ and _____ feet high must use fall arrest or restraint
devices or systems.
A. 10,15
B. 10,30
C. 15,30 (correct answer)
D. 20,40

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5. Training associated with steel erection activities must include procedures for ________
fall protection
systems. Please select the best answer
A. Identifying, protecting and reporting

B. Erecting, maintaining, disassembling and inspecting (correct answer)
C. Identifying, buying and selling
D. All of the above
6. During steel assembly, the employer shall ensure that the weight of a bundle of joist
bridging shall not
exceed a weight of ____ pounds.
A. 500
B. 700
D. 1200
7. Rigging components must have a ____ to 1 safety factor
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
8. During steel floor assembly, shear connectors will be installed _____ metal decking is in
place.
A. Before
B. Never
C. After (correct answer)
D. Any of the above
9. In steel erection activities, OSHA identifies components of a site specific erection plan to
include:
A. Daily work hour schedules

B. Sequence of erection activity
C. Description of steel erection activities and procedures
E. B and C only (correct answer)

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10. When placing solid web members for beams/columns, the load shall not be released until
the members are
secured with at least _____ bolts per connector.
A. 1
C. 5
D. 7
11. For steel assembly there should not be more than _____ stories between the erection floor
and the
uppermost permanent floor:
A. 3
C. 11
D. 19
12. A personal fall restraint system consists of:
A. An anchorage point
B. A body harness appropriate to the worker and their equipment
C. A fall protection lanyard
13. In steel erection activities, for crane selection and placement, the site specific erection
plan needs to
consider:
A. Crane size and capacity

B. Boom length
C. Work crew size
D. All of the above
14. Multiple lift rigging or Christmas tree rigging:
A. Must follow certain criteria for safety of the lift and personnel
B. Can only use manufactured multiple lift rigging assemblies
C. Can only be done in December
D. A and B only (correct answer)
15. All hoisting operations must be pre-planned to ensure that loads are not hoisted over
workers:
A. Whenever specified for the specific site by OSHA

B. For all hoisting operations (correct answer)
C. When required by the Safety Manager
16. A positioning device system must limit free-fall distance to no more than:
A. 2 feet (correct answer)

B. 3 feet
C. 6 feet
D. 12 feet
17. A multiple lift rigging assembly manufactured by wire rope rigging suppliers is known as:
A. Christmas Treeing (correct answer)

B. Hanukah hoisting
C. Spider Webbing
D. Spider Webbing
18. Which of the following requirements is true for Guardrail systems
A. Wooden posts 2 by 4 inches

B. Wire rope 1/4 inches in diameter
C. Vertical posts 8 feet apart
19. A Personal Fall Arrest System consists of:
A. An anchorage point (rated 5,000 lbs.)

B. Harness
C. Lanyard
20. What should be consulted for cranes and derrick selection and placement?
A. Hazardous Energy Safety Plan

B. Joint Committee on Workplace Standards
C. Safety Data Sheet
D. Site-Specific Erection Plan (correct answer)

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21. OSHA-identified components of a site specific erection plan include
A. Daily work-hour schedule

B. Sequence erection activity
C. Description of steel erection activities and procedures
E. B and C only (correct answer)
22. Who is responsible for safe site layout?
A. The decking contractor.

B. The competent person.
C. The controlling contractor. (correct answer)
23. Generally, written notification must document that concrete in footing, piers, walls, and
mortar in masonry
piers should have _____ of minimum compressive design strength:
A. 50%
B. 8.67%
C. 75% (correct answer)
D. 90%
24. Multiple lift rigging, or Christmas treeing:
A. Must follow certain criteria to ensure the safety of the lift and personnel receiving the
load.
B. Is restricted to use of only manufactured multiple lift rigging assemblies.
C. Can only be done in December
D. A and B only. (correct answer)
25. A pre-work shift visual inspection of cranes must be performed by:
A. Any worker
B. A visual inspector
C. A competent person (correct answer)
D. All of the above
26. If any deficiency on a crane inspection is identified, an immediate determination by the
competent person
must be made whether the crane must be shut down until repairs are made

B. False

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27. A crane lift must never exceed a maximum of ____ members per lift:
A. 3
C. 7
D. 9
28. During steel assembly, the employer shall ensure that the weight of a bundle of joist
bridging shall not
exceed a total of:
A. 500 lbs
B. 700 lbs
C. 1,000 lbs (correct answer)
D. 1,200 lbs.
29. During steel assembly, the total weight of a bundle of decking should not exceed 4,000
lbs.

B. False
30. During steel assembly, shear connectors will be installed _____ metal decking is in place:
A. Before
B. After (correct answer)
C. While
D. All of the above
31. When placing solid web members for beams/columns, diagonal bracing may be secured
with at least one
bolt per connection, wrench-tight

B. False
32. Tables A and B in Subpart R are important because they indicate:
A. When employees are not allowed on steel joists.

B. When bolted diagonal bridging must be installed
C. When hoisting cables cannot be released.
33. Subpart R contains numerous references to Tables A and B These tables refer to erection
bridging
requirements associated with short and long span joists, and can be found in:
A. The New York Times

A. The appendix of the Steel Erector's Guide
B. Within the standard in Subpart R (correct answer)
C. They must be special ordered.
34. Connectors between ____ and ____ feet high must wear fall arrest or restraint equipment:
A. 10, 15
B. 10, 30
C. 15, 30 (correct answer)
D. 20, 40
35. Connectors working at heights over 15 and up to 30 feet must tie off with:
A. Personal fall arrest system

B. Positioning device system
C. Fall restraint system
D. At least one of the above (correct answer)
36. Perimeter safety cables of 1/2 inch wire rope must be installed:
A. Around periphery of exterior floors

B. Approximately 42 inches high
C. Approximately 49 inches high
37. Which of the following is true of a CDZ:
A. It shall not be more than 90 feet x 90 feet from any leading edge
B. Personnel working in a CDZ must be trained
C. Unsecured decking must not exceed 3,000 square feet
38. Training must be each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Executed by qualified person.

B. Documented
C. Sporadic (correct answer)
D. Maintained
39. Work from water towers and tanks is exempt from the Steel Erection Standard

B. False
40. Training must include:
A. Identification of fall hazards in work area

B. Use/operation of guardrail systems
C. Use/operation of other fall protection systems
41. Exemptions to the Steel Erection Standard are:

A. Work from ladders
B. Working from some cranes/derrick:
C. Electronic transmission towers
42. The weight of a bundle of joist bridging shall not exceed a total of 1,000 pounds.

B. False
43. Deckers in a Controlled Decking Zone must be protected at heights greater than
A. 1 story
B. 2 stories (correct answer)
C. 3 stories
D. 4 stories
44. All hoisting operations must be pre-planned to ensure that loads are not hoisted over
workers.

B. False
45. When placing solid web members for beams/columns, the load shall not be released until
the members are
secured with at least two bolts per connection.

B. False
46. When placing solid web members for beams/columns, diagonal bracing may be secured
with at least one
bolt per connection, wrench-tight

B. False

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47. Before authorizing work to begin, the controlling contractor must provide steel erector
with written
notification of:
A. Repairs
B. Replacements
C. Modifications to anchor bolts
48. Rigging assembly must be rigged:
A. With members attached at their center of gravity

B. From top down and at least 7 feet apart
C. And maintained reasonably level
49. Generally, written notification must document that concrete in footing, piers, walls, and
mortar in masonry
piers should have ______ of minimum compressive design strength:
A. 50%
B. 67 %
C. 75% (correct answer)
D. 90%
50. When there is no overhead protection, the ___________ must ensure that personnel are
not working below
steel erection:
A. Steel workers
B. Subcontractors
C. Controlling contractor (correct answer)
51. A crane lift must never exceed a maximum of ____ members per lift:
A. 3
C. 7
D. 9
52. During steel assembly, the bundle of decking is placed on a minimum of _____ joists:
B. 6
C. 9
D. 11
53. Columns must be equipped with vertical stabilizer plates:
A. At least 6 in. by 6 in.

B. Extending at least 3 in below bottom cord
C. With a 13/16 inch hole to provide attachment point
54. Training must include procedures for erecting, maintaining, disassembling, and inspecting
fall protection
systems

B. False
55. Safety nets must be installed no more than 30 feet below the walking/working surface
whenever:
A. No temporary floors
B. No scaffolds
C. Fall distance greater than 30 feet
56. During steel assembly, shear Connectors should not be attached to the top flanges of
beams or joists

B. False
MODULE 18: MOTOR VEHICLES
1. Means of access to barges have which of the following requirements
A. Provision of ramps for vehicles with adequate strength and side rails
B. Provision of hand rails at the top of bulwark of nominal 33 inched in height
C. Must be adequately illuminated for the full length of access
2. Motor vehicles operating on an off-highway jobsite (other than earthmoving equipment)
A. Must have a service brake system and parking brake system

B. Must have rear view access, a backup alarm or an observer for signaling
C. Must have foglamps
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B above (correct answer)

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3. When heavy machinery, equipment or parts thereof are held aloft by slings, hoists or jacks
A. Must be blocked or cribbed (correct answer)

B. Are safe for workers to work under or between them
C. Need no special handling
4. Motor vehicles in use
A. Must be equipped with fenders or mud flaps (for rubber tired equipment)
B. Must be inspected prior to use to ensure safe operation
C. Must have defects identified corrected prior to operation
D. Both A and B
E. All of A, B and C (correct answer)
5. The minimum clearance between power lines and any part of a crane or load is
A. 10 feet for lines rated 50 kV or below
B. 5 feet for lines rated 50 kV or below
C. 10 feet plus 0.4 inches for each 1 kV over 50 kV
E. All of the above
6. Proper battery use, handling and charging requires
A. Appropriate ventilation
B. The use of personal protective equipment including face shields, aprons and gloves
C. Immediately available eyewash equipment
7. Earthmoving equipment must be equipped with seat belts and they must be used
A. When the safety manager decides that it is needed

B. When directed by the Site Foreperson
C. On all covered equipment (correct answer)
D. All of the above
8. When working on barges employees are not permitted to:
A. Smoke on deck
B. Maintain and clean the decks
C. Pass fore and aft, over or around deck-loads without safe passage (correct answer)

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9. Protection for workers when pile driving include
A. Overhead protection and stop blocks (correct answer)

B. Rubber gloves
C. Medical monitoring
D. All of the above
10. Powered industrial trucks may only be operated by currently certified operators or by a
trainee under direct
supervision of a person who:
A. Is not related to them

B. Has the knowledge, training, and experience to train and evaluate their competence
(correct answer)
C. Was a former operator
11. Haulage vehicles (cranes, shovels, loaders, etc.)
A. Must be painted yellow

B. Must be owned by the contractor
C. Must have a cab shield or canopy to protect the operator (correct answer)
12. For equipment that is left unattended, adjacent to a highway or construction are
A. Must have appropriate lights

B. Must have appropriate reflectors
C. Must have barricades with lights or reflectors
13. Bulldozer, scraper blades, end-loader buckets and similar equipment, when being repaired
or when not in
use
A. Should be left off the ground so as to avoid rust

B. Should be fully lowered
C. Should be blocked
D. Either B or C (correct answer)
14. Accident prevention tags
A. Must be used temporarily to warn employees of hazards

B. Are seldom required
C. Must not be used in place of accident prevention
E. All of the above

15. When performing site clearing operations
A. Workers need to be protected from toxic plants

B. Consideration must be given to feral animals, insects and homeless people
C. Equipment must be equipped with roll over guards
D. Both A and B above
16. Bulldozer and scraper blades, end-loader buckets, dump bodies, and similar equipment,
must be fully
lowered and never blocked when being repaired or when not in use.
A. True
17. OSHA requires that all equipment left unattended at night, adjacent to a highway in
normal use must have:
A. Appropriate lights or reflectors

B. 24 hr. security guard
C. All of the above
18. Any overhead wire must be considered to be an energized line UNLESS and UNTIL
person owning line or
electrical utility indicate that it is not an energized line and it has been visibly grounded.

B. False
19. Must be provided on spur railroad tracks where a rolling car could contact other cars
being worked, enter a
building, work or traffic area
A. Security Guard
B. Impact whistle
C. Train Conductor
D. Derail and/or bumper blocks (correct answer)
20. OSHA specifies that for overhead power-lines rated 50 kV. or below, minimum clearance
between the lines
and any part of the crane or load must be:
A. 1 foot
B. 5 feet
D. 50 feet
E. There are no requirements, just good judgment.

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21. Flammable liquids have "flash points" below:
A. 100 degree Fahrenheit (correct answer)

B. 200 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 500 degrees Fahrenheit
22. All haulage vehicles, whose pay load is loaded by means of cranes, power shovels,
loaders, or similar
equipment, must have ___________________ to adequately to protect the operator from
shifting or falling
materials.
A. A cab shield and/or canopy (correct answer)

B. A radio to tell the haulage vehicle to stop loading
C. An observer
D. All of the above
E. A or B
23. Trucks with dump bodies must be equipped with positive means of support, permanently
attached, and
capable of being locked in position to prevent accidental lowering of the body during
maintenance or
inspection.
B. False
24. On site motor vehicles must be equipped with at least two headlights and two taillights in
operable
condition.

B. False
25. No person must use any motor vehicle equipment having an obstructed view to the rear
unless the vehicle
has a reverse signal alarm audible above the surrounding noise level or:
A. A flashing yellow light

B. A flashing red light
C. An observer to signal that it is safe to reverse (correct answer)
D. B and C
26. All earthmoving equipment must have a service braking system capable of stopping and
holding the
equipment when:
A. 50 % loaded
B. 75% loaded
C. 100%, fully loaded (correct answer)

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27. All bidirectional machines, such as rollers, compacters, front-end loaders, bulldozers, and
similar
equipment, must be equipped with a horn, distinguishable from the surrounding noise level.

B. B. False
28. Earthmoving or compacting equipment which has an obstructed view to the rear requires
an OPERABLE
reverse signal alarm distinguishable from the surrounding noise level or...
A. A yellow beacon
B. A red beacon
C. An observer to signal operator when safe to reverse (correct answer)
D. All of the above
29. Industrial truck (e.g. forklift) training must consist of all of the following "except":
A. Formal instruction (e.g. lectures, discussions, interactive computer learning)

B. Practical training (e.g. exercises performed by trainee)
C. Evaluation of the operator’s performance in the workplace
D. A 100 question comprehensive quiz (correct answer)
30. Steam hose leading to a steam hammer or jet pipe must be securely attached to the
hammer with an
adequate length of _________________ to prevent whipping in the event the joint at the
hammer is broken
A. Poly tape
B. At least 1/4-inch diameter chain or cable (correct answer)
C. At least 1/4-inch hemp rope
D. 1 inch welded titanium
31. During pile driving operations, steam line controls must consist of two shutoff valves, one
of which must be
a quick-acting lever type within easy reach of the hammer operator,

B. False
32. Must be provided across the top of the head block to prevent the cable from jumping out
of the sheaves.
A. Shroud
B. Guards (correct answer)
C. Personal Protective Equipment
D. Jib

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33. Required for the leads to prevent the hammer from being raised against the head block.
A. Bumpers
B. Derail sets
C. Stop blocks (correct answer)
D. Blanks
34. First aid treatment and planning is only necessary if emergency medical care is more than
30 minutes from
the jobsite
A. True
35. All equipment used in site clearing operations must be equipped with rollover guards and
rider-operated
equipment must be equipped with an overhead and rear canopy guards meeting OSHA
requirements.

B. False
36. OSHA requires in the vicinity of each barge at least one U.S. Coast Guard-approved 30
inch life-ring with not
less than 90 feet of line attached, and at least:
A. One motorized lifeboat

B. A coast guard cutter in the area
C. One portable or permanent ladder meeting OSHA requirements (correct answer)
37. OSHA requires that marine operations involving "material handling" must be performed
in conformance with
applicable requirements OSHA of Part 1918, "Safety and Health Regulations for Long-
shoring".

B. False
38. The raised frame, as around a hatchway in the deck, to keep out water.
A. Apron
B. Bulwark
C. Coaming (correct answer)
D. Jacobs ladder
E. Rail

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39. When working on barges, OSHA specifically requires that decks and other working
surfaces be maintained
in a safe condition

B. False
40. Heavy machinery, equipment, or parts which are suspended or held aloft by use of slings,
hoists, or jacks
must be __________________________ to prevent falling or shifting before employees
are permitted to work
under or between them.
A. Substantially blocked
B. Substantially cribbed
C. Elevated to greater than 25 feet
D. above (correct answer)
E. All of the above
41. Subpart O specifically requires that employees engaged in site clearing must be protected
from hazards of
irritant and toxic plants and suitably instructed in the first aid treatment available.

B. False
42. When steel tube piles are being "blown out", employees must be:
A. Provided ear protection

B. Within 10 feet of operation to witness the task
C. Kept well beyond the range of falling materials (correct answer)
D. Provided hazardous duty pay
43. Motor Vehicles operating within an off highway jobsite need to have in an operable
condition:
A. A service brake system

B. An emergency brake system
C. A parking brake system maintained in operable condition
D. Audible warning device at the operator‘s station
44. An evaluation of each powered industrial truck operator‘s performance must be

conducted:
A. After initial training

B. After refresher training
C. At least once every three years

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45. The loading, unloading, moving, or handling of construction materials, equipment and
supplies, into, in, on,
or out of any vessel from a fixed structure or shore-to-vessel, vessel-to-shore or fixed
structure or vessel-to-
vessel.
A. Marine Handling
B. Marine Construction
C. Long-shoring (correct answer)
46. Employees may be exposed to which of the following during site clearing operations
where precautions
should be implemented if harmful exposures potentially exist:
A. Irritant and toxic plants

B. Exposure to insects
C. Exposure to feral animals
D. Potentially violent people
47. Recent NlOSH studies have led them to recommend that injuries and deaths could be
prevented through
wider use of all of the following “except":
A. Rollover protective structures (ROPS)

B. Seat belts
C. Specific equipment training
D. More sleep (correct answer)
48. Lift trucks, stackers, etc. must have the _________________ clearly posted on the vehicle
so as to be clearly
visible to the operator.
A. Vehicle weight
B. Rated capacity (correct answer)
C. Authorized number of riders
D. Local OSHA phone number
E. All of the above
49. The area along the waterfront edge of the pier or wharf.
A. Apron (correct answer)

B. Bulwark
C. Coaming
D. Jacobs ladder
E. Rail
50. Vehicles used to transport employees, must:
A. Be yellow
B. Have back up alarms
C. Have seats firmly secured
D. Have Seat belts for passengers
E. C and D only (correct answer)
51. All vehicles in use must be checked ___________ to assure that the following parts,
equipment, and
accessories are in safe operating condition.
A. Monthly
B. Every 10 working days
C. weekly
D. At the beginning of each shift (correct answer)
52. Operating levers controlling hoisting or dumping devices on haulage bodies must be
equipped with:
A. A latch / device to prevent accidental starting or tripping (correct answer)

B. Have circular knobs
C. Be painted RED
53. All earthmoving equipment must have a service braking system capable of stopping and
holding the
equipment when:
A. 50 % loaded
B. 75 % loaded
C. 100 % , fully loaded (correct answer)
54. Pneumatic-tired earth-moving haulage equipment (eg trucks, scrapers, tractors, and
trailing units) whose
maximum speed exceeds 15 miles per hour, must:
A. Be operated by an OSHA certified driver

B. Be equipped with fenders on all wheels (correct answer)
C. Have mud and snow tires
D. All of the above
E. A or B

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55. Earthmoving or compacting equipment which has an obstructed view to the rear requires
an OPERABLE
reverse signal alarm distinguishable from the surrounding noise level or..
A. A yellow beacon
B. A red beacon
C. An observer to signal operator when safe to reverse (correct answer)
D. All of the above
56. OSHA requires that ramps for access of vehicles to or between barges must be of
adequate strength, be well
maintained, properly secured and __________
A. Made of steel
B. Overlap at least 4 feet
C. Have water drains
D. Provided with side boards (correct answer)
57. OSHA specifies that when accessing a ship, obstructions laid on or across the gangway
are:
A. Permitted except 1 hr before departure

B. Prohibited (correct answer)
C. Must be color coded so employees can readily see
58. Seat belts must be provided and worn on all earthmoving equipment except:
A. Scrapers and loaders
B. Crawler and wheel tractors
C. Bulldozers and graders
D. Agricultural and industrial tractors
E. None of the above as all require seat belt use (correct answer)
59. Must be provided and used when inflating, mounting, or dismounting tires installed on
split rims, or rims
equipped with locking rings or similar devices.
A. Safety tire rack

B. Safety cage
C. Equivalent protection to safety tire rack or safety cage

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MODULE 19: WELDING
1. Light hazards may exist when welding which could include:
A. Infrared light (radiation) which may damage skin tissue

B. Ultraviolet light (radiation) which cause severe burns and damage the eyes
C. Visible light (intense) which can damage the eyes
2. Unless routinely utilized, oxygen and acetylene must be stored:
A. At least 20 feet apart

B. Separated by a noncombustible barrier at least five feet height
C. Be stored on an oxygen/acetylene welding rack
D. Either a or b (correct answer)
3. When transporting, moving or storing gas cylinders:
A. Make certain that the cylinder cap is in place

B. Always move cylinders in a vertical position
C. When stored cylinders should be properly chained/secured
4. The primary hazards related to the handling of gas cylinders used in welding include:
A. Cylinders are subject to DOT inspection on a periodic basis

B. Heat, fire, or tough handling can detonate gas cylinders with extreme force (correct
answer)
C. Labeling is not required
5. Welding:
A. Is commonly used to join various metal parts

B. Uses high heat to fuse metals in a permanent bond
C. Includes various types of welding dependent on the types of metals and other
conditions
6. Other hot work includes the use of arc, plasma and oxy-gas cutters which:
A. Use heat from an arc, ionized gas (plasma) or gases to cut and trim metal (correct
answer)
B. Are an alternative to welding
C. Are an alternative to soldering and brazing

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7. Prior to welding or hot work the work area should be:
A. Be cleared of flammable and or combustible materials for a 25 foot radius

B. Be cleared of flammable and or combustible materials for a 35 foot radius (correct
answer)
C. Be inerted with nitrogen
D. All of the above
8. Welding hazards include which of the following?

A. Fire, explosions, welder's flash, shock and noise
B. Radiation and burns
C. Exposure to lead, fumes, gases and other respiratory contaminants
9. The most significant hazard(s) when welding in confined spaces is/are:
A. A build up of fumes, gases and heat

B. Oxygen deficiency due to carbon dioxide generation
C. The darkness in the confined space
10. Types of ventilation for welding/hot work include:
A. Natural ventilation, mechanical local exhaust ventilation, forced ventilation

B. Use of an air-purifying respirator
C. General air mechanical ventilation
11. Welding, cutting and brazing should only occur when authorized by a:
A. Confined Space Entry Permit

B. Safe Driver's Permit
C. Hot Work Permit (correct answer)
12. Welding includes:
A. Directly fusing two pieces of metal

B. Using additional metal to make the weld
C. Both a and b above (correct answer)
13. Welding, cutting or heating of metals coated with lead-bearing paint can create harmful
lead fumes. What is
one preventive action to take to reduce the hazard?
A. Flush the area with cold water
B. Strip paint back at least 4 inches from the area of heat application (correct answer)
C. Use the special bead-laying technique
D. All of the above
14. For arc welding and cutting:
A. Never use damaged cables (correct answer)

B. Utilize electrical tape to fix damaged cables
C. Double ground the equipment until it can be repaired
D. All of the above
15. Soldering and brazing:
A. Are the same as welding

B. Differ in that the metal added is the only metal melted (correct answer)
C. Are used predominantly to attach heavy steel to steel
16. Symptoms of lead poisoning include which of the following:
A. Metallic taste in the mouth

B. Loss of appetite
C. Nausea and abdominal cramps
D. Insomnia
17. OSHA requires that welders work in _____________________________ to avoid the

danger from inhalation of
gases and particulates that can result from welding processes.
A. Supplied air suits

B. Outdoor environments.
C. Well ventilated areas (correct answer)
D. Both A and C
18. The most common and simplest type of welding today is _____________________
A. Oxy-acetylene welding
B. Arc welding (correct answer)
C. Heli-arc welding

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19. Arc Welding type:
A. Stick welding
B. Shielded metal arc
C. Gas metal arc
D. Flux cored arc welding
20. Activity which depends on the heat produced by the combustion of a fuel gas in the
presence of oxygen.
A. Oxygen and fuel gas welding (correct answer)

B. Arc with gas welding
C. Plasma
21. In the arc welding process, eye exposure to intense visible light is prevented for the most
part by the
________________.
A. Gas cloud
B. Welder's helmet (correct answer)
C. Eye flutter
D. All of the above
22. In arc welding the arc which produces the heat to melt metal produces intense light. This
light can be a
combination of three forms of non-ionizing radiation known as?
A. Prism light, Infrared light, Visible light

B. Ultraviolet light, Infrared light, Visible light (correct answer)
C. Halogen light, Ultraviolet light, Infrared light
D. Welders light, Mercury light, Halogen light
E. All of the above
23. Found in the coatings of several types of fluxes used in welding.
A. Mold
B. Bacteria
C. Carcinogens
D. Fluorides (correct answer)

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24. Symptoms of lead poisoning include which of the following:
A. Metallic taste in the mouth

B. Loss of appetite
C. Nausea and abdominal cramps
D. Insomnia
25. In addition to fumes, welding produces a number of gasses to include which of the
following?
A. Ozone
B. Nitrogen oxides
C. Carbon monoxide
E. A and B only
26. A highly active form of oxygen that can cause great irritation to all mucous membranes.
A. Active Oxygen
B. Hyper Oxygen
C. Ozone (correct answer)
D. All of the above
27. Permissible exposure levels are established by ___________ for many compounds to
minimize or prevent
adverse health exposures.
A. Environmental Protection Agency

B. Department of Public Health Services
C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (correct answer)
D. All of the above
28. PEL is an acronym for which of the following?
A. Particle Exposure Limit

B. Permissible Exposure Limit (correct answer)
C. Pulmonary extended listing
E. Both A and B
29. Administrative/work practice controls include which of the following?
A. Training on the hazards of welding

B. Not getting too close to an arc welders arc
C. Identification of break and lunch times
D. All of the above
30. Controlling exposure to the safety and health hazards encountered in welding operations
includes
engineering controls (e.g. ventilation), _____________________ and
A. Administrative (e.g. training) and PPE controls

B. PPE and work practice controls (e. g. maintain distance from an arc welding activity)
31. Dos and Don'ts of gas welding and cutting include which of the following?
A. Do avoid ignition sources

B. Do inspect the area and remove combustibles
C. Do keep cylinders away from sparks and spatter
D. Do take care of hoses, carts, and cylinders
32. Cylinders may be used as rollers or supports when?
A. When full
B. When empty
33. Gas welding cylinders should be stored and secured in
A. The lay down position and chocked

B. An upright position
C. Position where oxygen cylinders are separated from fuel gas cylinders
D. All of the above
E. Both B and C (correct answer)

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34. Oxygen cylinders in storage must be separated from fuel-gas cylinders or combustible
materials (especially
oil or grease), a minimum distance of _____________________ or by a noncombustible
barrier at least 5 feet
high having a fire-resistance rating of at least one-half hour.
A. 5 feet
B. 10 feet
D. 50 feet
35. When a structure or pipeline is employed as a ground return circuit, it must be determined
that
________________________.
A. It can carry at least 5 Amps

B. The required electrical contact exists at all joints (correct answer)
C. It is made of cast iron
36. Whenever practicable, all arc welding and cutting operations must be shielded by
noncombustible or
flameproof screen which will _______________________
A. Protect workers from the direct rays of the arc (correct answer)
B. Protect against noise to those outside the welding area
C. Be made of leaded plastic at least 100 mils
37. Arc welding cables in need of repair must __________________.
A. Be labeled as "Needs repair" and repaired as soon as feasible

B. Not be used and effectively repaired by a qualified person or effectively disposed of.
(correct answer)
C. Taped with appropriate welding cable repair tape immediately
D. Any of the above
38. Hot electrode holders must not be dipped in water by the welder or cutter because doing
so may expose the
worker to ________________ .
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Gaseous steam
C. Electric shock (correct answer)
D. Both A and B
39. Moving all flammables and combustibles away from the welding area is
________________
A. Suggested unless it takes time away from effectively accomplishing the job
B. An example of effective fire prevention (correct answer)
C. A potentially serious back injury hazard

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40. It is recommended that a fire watch be employed to keep an eye on the area of welding for
"at least» after
welding to check for resulting fires or smoldering materials.
A. 5 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes (correct answer)
D. 2 hours
41. It is important before welding and hot work to remove coatings along the line of the weld
such as
___________________ to prevent the release of toxins.
A. Lead paint
B. Galvanized materials
C. Plastics
42. You must never weld, cut or perform hot work when?
A. You have not been trained and authorized

B. In the presence of explosive or flammable atmospheres
C. Your equipment has not been inspected and/or is not in safe condition
E. A and B above
43. SDS is an acronym for which of the following?
A. Safety Document Survey

B. Safety Development Sheet
C. Safety Data Sheet (correct answer)
44. A colorless and tasteless gas that cannot be readily detected by the senses (e.g. taste, sight.
smell, touch).
A. Ozone
B. Fluoride
C. Carbon monoxide (correct answer)
D. Oxides of nitrogen

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45. One of the fundamental general safety guideline with respect to hot work is to keep the
work area clear of
combustibles for at least __________ from the hot work area.
A. 10feet
C. 55 feet
D. 75 feet
46. Heat from an electric arc, a stream of ionized gas called plasma, or burning gases to trim
metal objects to
specific dimensions.
A. Welding
B. Heli-arc
C. Metal cutting (correct answer)
47. What kind of testing is required before entry into a confined space?
A. Testing for flammable and combustible levels

B. Testing for oxygen content
C. Testing for potential exposures above the Permissible Exposure Level
48. A process by which two pieces of metal are joined.
A. Welding (correct answer)

B. Brazing
C. Hot cut
D. All of the above
49. Shaded lens used in welder's helmets and goggles must meet the test for transmission of
radiant energy
prescribed in ______________?
A. EPA requirements
B. American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z87.1 (correct answer)
C. International Welders safety guidelines
50. Found in the coatings of several types of fluxes used in welding.
A. Mold
B. Bacteria
C. Carcinogens
D. Fluorides (correct answer)
51. Cylinders may be used as rollers or supports when?
A. When full
B. When empty
52. Moving all flammables and combustibles away from the welding area is _____________
A. Suggested unless it takes time away from effectively accomplishing the job
B. An example of effective fire prevention (correct answer)
C. A potentially serious back injury hazard
53. Controlling exposure to the safety and health hazards encountered in welding operations
includes
engineering controls (e.g. ventilation), and _________________ and ________________
A. Administrative (etg. training) and PPE controls

B. PPE and work practice controls (e.g. maintain distance from an arc welding activity)
54. Whenever practicable, all arc welding and cutting operations must be shielded by
noncombustible or
flameproof screen which will __________________
A. Protect workers from the direct rays of the arc (correct answer)
B. Protect against noise to those outside the welding area
C. Be made of leaded plastic at least 100 mils
55. The most common and simplest type of welding today is __________
A. Oxy-acetylene welding
C. Heli-arc welding
56. Welders helmets and respirators are examples of what type of controls?
A. Engineering
B. Administrative
C. Personal Protective Equipment (correct answer)
D. All of the above
E. Both A and B

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57. Process in which metals are fused together by heating them with electricity that is
generated between an
electrode and the surface of the base metal.
A. Oxygen and fuel gas welding

C. Plasma
58. An investigative tool used to characterize the nature and extent of contaminants in air and
to determine
whether contaminant sources affect a workers air quality.
A. Beta test
B. Air contaminants monitoring
C. Air contaminants survey
D. All of the above
59. In locations with combustibles and flammable materials it is recommended to have a

________________
A. Hot work permit issued by the welding supervisor or other qualified person (correct
answer)
B. OSHA audit prior to welding operations
C. Fire protection provided by a minimum of 200 gallons of water and high pressure hose
D. All of the above
60. Fuel gas and oxygen hoses must be
A. The same color

B. Different diameters
C. Easily distinguishable from each other (correct answer)
D. Both red to indicate that they are gas welding hoses
61. Before a regulator is removed from a cylinder valve, the cylinder valve must always
A. Be fully opened and purged.OB.Be closed 1/2 turn

B. Be closed and the gas released from the regulator (correct answer)
62. Ultraviolet radiation (UV) is generated by the ____________ in the welding process
A. Visible light
B. Electric arc (correct answer)
C. Oxygen/Fuel mixture
D. All of the above

63. The type of weld used is normally determined by
A. The types of metals being joined

B. Conditions under which the welding is to take place
C. Cost of the metal
D. The magnetic qualities of the metal
E. Both A and B
64. Vapors of these solvents are a concern in welding and cutting because the heat and
ultraviolet radiation
from the arc will decompose the vapors and form highly toxic and irritating phosgene gas
A. Benzene
B. Toluene and xylene
C. BTX
D. Chlorinated hydrocarbons (correct answer)
E. All of the above
65. Metal fume fever is principally associated with what chemical substance generated when
welding.
A. Zinc (correct answer)

B. Lead
C. Asbestos
D. Silica
E. All of the above
66. Arc welding don't include which of the following
A. Do not splice weld leads: Replace

B. Do not coil electrode cables
C. Do not attach ground wires to pipes carrying gas, flammables, or electrical wires
D. All of the above O (correct answer)
E. A and B only
67. Which of the following is a welding hazard?
A. Fire and Explosions

B. Welder's Flash
C. Electric shock
D. Non-ionizing Radiation
68. Fumes and gases enter the body through the _______________ and effect the lungs
directly or are
transported by blood and the lymph system to other parts of the body.
A. Circulatory system
B. Respiratory system (correct answer)
C. Adrenal system
D. All of the above
69. An important feature of a hot work permit includes which of the following?
A. An inspection of the area and isolation of combustibles and flammable materials

B. Establishment of trained fire watches
C. Standby employee with portable fire extinguishing equipment
D. Written authorizations to conduct the work
MODULE 20: CONFINED SPACE
1. Communications system equipment to be used in confined spaces may include which of

the following?
A. Hand signals, walkie talkies, radios, and pagers (correct answer)

B. Satellite phones
C. Photo ion detectors
D. All of the above
2. Which of the following might be a found in a permit space?
A. Hazardous atmosphere
B. Engulfment hazard
C. Obstacles that interfere with any attempt to exit the space
D. Both A and B
E. All three, A, B, and C
3. A hazardous atmosphere may be detected by:
A. Specially trained dogs

B. Supervisors only
C. Entrants only
D. Any member of the CSE team (correct answer)
4. For occupancy of a confined space, when must hazard evaluation tests be conducted?
A. Before entry
B. During occupancy
C. Within 30 minutes after exit
5. The CSE attendant remains outside the space until:
A. The end of shift

B. Relieved by another attendant (correct answer)
C. Nightfall
D. All of the above
6. Before work begins, the competent person:
A. Contacts OSHA
B. Identifies all confined spaces where employees may work (correct answer)
C. Flushes the confined spaces
D. All of the above
7. A confined space rescue team may consist of:
A. Outside contractor
B. Internal team
C. Community fire and rescue emergency responders
8. Each year, how many confined space deaths and injuries occur?
A. None or very few

B. About ten
C. Hundreds (correct answer)
D. About four million
9. Controls for a confined space physical hazard may include blanking, double block and
bleed, and
____________________.
A. Lineout and backup

B. Lockout and tagout (correct answer)
C. Double hook and ladder
10. PPE should be considered for use before using engineering or work practice controls.
A. True
11. What two inert gases are often used to purge flammable or explosive vapors from a
confined space?
A. Pure oxygen or hydrogen

B. Carbon dioxide or nitrogen (correct answer)
C. Hydrogen sulfide or carbon gas
12. Which of the following is an example of a confined space?
A. Pipeline
B. Sewer
C. Manhole
13. The attendant:
A. Has a vital role

B. Must be trained
C. Must recognize possible effects of exposure
14. According to OSHA standards in Subpart AA, 1926.1204, when must a written permit
space program be
made available to employees or their representatives?
A. Prior to operations (correct answer)

B. Only after operations have ceased
C. After submittal to OSHA
D. When authorized by OSHA
15. Permit-required confined space work is potentially hazardous:
A. Usually
B. Never
C. At times
D. Always (correct answer)
16. Which of the following is a reason why a confined space permit is required?
A. Sometimes the boss demands it

B. Provides a checklist that outlines the steps that need to be followed
C. Authorizes entrance into a confined space
17. What is an employer required to do when a permit space is present at a worksite, even
though employees do
not need to enter the space?
A. Notify OSHA of the employees' presence

B. Take steps to prevent employees from entering the space (correct answer)
C. Test for atmospheric hazards
D. Both A and B
18. The entrant should notify the attendant whenever the entrant:
A. Recognizes warning sign of exposure

B. Detects a prohibited condition
C. Sees someone becomes confused or lose control
19. Why are confined space accidents rarely preventable?
A. Confined spaces usually comprise a large part of the jobsite

B. Confined spaces always involve complicated situations
C. Actually, confined space accidents are mostly preventable (correct answer)
D. Both A and B
20. Which of the following should be considered when choosing a communications system?
A. Lighting (correct answer)

B. Cost
C. Confusion
D. Training
21. Employer-approved rescue services must be informed of hazards in advance by:
A. CSE entrants
B. OSHA
C. Email
D. The employer (correct answer)
22. A permit-required confined space will often have which of the following hazards?
A. Exposure to high volumes of traffic

B. Hazardous atmosphere (correct answer)
C. Rough walls and floors
D. All three A, B, and C
23. A confined space entry permit is:
A. Mandated by OSHA
B. A safety tool
C. A checklist that identifies hazards with protective measures
D. Both A and B
E. E. All three, A, B, and C (correct answer)
24. The key distinction between supplied-air and air-purifying respirators is:
A. One supplies air with oxygen, the other filters out contaminants (correct answer)
B. One supplies oxygen, the other removes it
C. One is approved by OSHA, the other is not
25. CSE permit equipment includes:
A. Air testing and monitoring equipment

B. Ventilation and lighting
C. Appropriate PPE
26. In a confined space, hot work may be performed, but __________________.
A. Requires a special permit (correct answer)

B. Does not require a special permit
C. Is restricted to cool areas only
27. The attendant may leave the opening of the confined space:
A. To use the restroom

B. To perform other duties
C. In order to accept a cell phone call
D. Only when relieved by another attendant (correct answer)

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28. The attendant may leave the opening of the confined space:
A. They need to use the restroom

B. They need to perform other duties
C. In order to accept a cell phone call
D. Only when relieved by another attendant (correct answer)
29. Additional training is required whenever there is evidence that permit space entry
procedures have changed.

B. False
30. Which of the following is an employer responsibility with regard to training employees?
A. Training records must be submitted to OSHA within 30 days of completion

B. Training records must be available to employees during their employment (correct
answer)
C. Training is optional, but highly recommended
D. Both A and B
31. Which of the following is a specific element included in a confined space permit?
A. Supervisor experience, in years

B. Testing requirements (correct answer)
C. Name of OSHA representative
D. All of the above
32. The list of hazards to assess prior to entry into a confined space includes:
A. Air contamination
B. Engulfment
C. Stored energy
D. Temperature extremes
33. Excavations involving vapors and storage tanks are examples of a permit-required
confined space because
both have ____________________.
A. The potential for claustrophobia

B. The potential for animal infestation
C. The potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere (correct answer)
D. No potential hazard
34. Which of the following is true about confined spaces?
A. Large enough to perform work with restricted entry or exit

B. Not designed for ongoing occupancy
C. Weather proof
35. For confined space operations, off-site emergency rescue services:
A. May not be used at any time

B. May be used but are not required to respond quickly
C. May be used if qualified and trained (correct answer)
36. What does blanking mean?
A. Erasing evidence of any hazard

B. Disconnecting or capping lines that may empty into the permit space (correct answer)
C. Forgetfulness resulting from exposure to a confined space
37. When may the attendant enter a confined space?
A. Only after it has been blanked

B. When the entrant is having a problem
C. When it appears that there are no hazards present
38. Who is required to provide an entry permit for a permit-required confined space?
A. Competent person
B. Employee representative
C. Employer (correct answer)
D. OSHA
39. Who may enter a permit space?
A. In the case of an emergency, anyone in the area

B. Those authorized by the entry supervisor (correct answer)
C. If it's a permitted confined space, anyone physically able may enter
D. Both A and B
40. The confined space permit is:
A. A way to guarantee the safety of every worker

B. An authorization and a checklist to identify hazards and precautions (correct answer)
C. Only needed if hot work is required
D. All of the above
41. The term IDLH refers to:
A. Immediately dangerous to life or health values (issued by NIOSH)

B. Exposure that may cause irreversible, adverse health effects
C. A dangerous atmosphere that may impair an individual's ability to escape
42. Changing conditions in a permit-required confined space may require:
A. A new permit
B. Reclassification as a non-permit space
C. Reclassification for new conditions
43. Monitoring equipment in confined spaces must measure which of the following hazards?
A. Vibration
B. Oxygen, flammable gases and vapors, toxic and other air contaminants (correct
answer)
C. Smell
D. Size
E. All of the above
44. The confined space entry team includes which of the following?
A. Entry supervisor, entrant and attendant

B. OSHA inspector
C. Emergency response personnel
D. All of the above
45. Even if an employee is not part of a CSE team, the employee may enter a confined space
on some
occasions. When?
A. When it is apparent that something is wrong in the space

B. When the employee has previous experience on a CSE team

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46. The CSE supervisor must:
A. Be an actual supervisor or manager

B. Be a salaried employee
C. Be on site at all times
D. Authorize and sign the entry permit (correct answer)
E. All of the above
47. Even though the employer is responsible for providing confined space training, the cost of
the training is
paid by the employee.
A. True
48. An employer must ensure the following for entry into a permit space:
A. Air space coordination

B. Informed "time over flammability"
C. Safe methods for entering and exiting the space (correct answer)
D. All of the above
49. Which of the following is considered a confined space hazard?
A. Entrapment or engulfment
B. Fire or explosion
C. Starvation
50. Which of the following is required before entering a confined space?
A. Water testing
B. Atmospheric testing (correct answer)
C. Soil testing
D. All of the above
51. To safely use air monitoring equipment in a confined space, an operator must
________________.
A. Be in the safest part of the confined space

B. Be OSHA trained and certified
C. Absolutely guarantees entrant safety (correct answer)
D. Use instinctual senses
E. All of the above
52. A permit does each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Lists confined space hazards

B. Establishes conditions for safe entry
D. Establishes rescue procedures
53. Each person serving as an attendant must be listed on the confined space permit.

B. False
54. Each member of the confined space emergency rescue team must practice emergency
skills:
A. Daily
B. As needed
C. No more than once annually
D. At least annually (correct answer)
55. Excavations with sloughing walls, grain silos, and trenches are examples of
permitrequired confined spaces
because each contains materials that:
A. May have a bad odor

B. Have the potential for caving-in or engulfment (correct answer)
C. May involve quicksand
56. What is required when a confined space job is completed?
A. Secure space, cover plates, and doors (correct answer)

B. Leave flagging and barriers in place
C. Disband the CSE team permanently
D. Conduct a site visit regularly
57. Which of the following is true for a CSE entrant?
A. Enters confined space and must be trained in CSE (correct answer)

B. May only leave the space when relieved
C. Maintains a written account of other entrants
D. Leaves only with supervisor permission even if hazard arises

58. Which of the following is a requirement prior to entry into a permit space?
A. Atmospheric test for flammable gases and vapors

B. Atmospheric test for oxygen
C. Elimination of any hazard making it unsafe to remove an entrance cover
D. Both A and B
E. All three, A, B, and C (correct answer)
59. Aside from chemical, oxygen, and entrapment hazards, confined spaces may be hazardous
due to:
A. Stored energy hazards

B. Noise/temperature hazards
C. Animal hazards
60. If self-evacuation of an entrant is not possible, the attendant should:
A. Call for help

B. Use an extraction device (correct answer)
C. Enter the confined space to size up situation
D. Do nothing
61. Which of the following is a duty of the CSE supervisor?
A. Remains outside space at all times

B. Ensures safe entry conditions are met and completes/signs entry permit
C. Coordinates rescue services
D. B and C (correct answer)
62. PPE protects the:
A. Head
B. Respiratory System
C. Feet
63. Confined spaces are dangerous because:

A. They can appear deceptively harmless
B. Gases and vapors may not be seen or smelled
C. In an emergency, exiting quickly may be difficult
64. In addition to posting danger signs on a permit space, an employer must inform employee
representatives
and the controlling contractor of the locations of any permit space.

B. False
65. An example of a confined space structure in which someone can become trapped or
suffocate is:
A. A storage tank with inward-sloping walls (correct answer)

B. A building with many floors
C. An open excavation
D. All of the above
66. A permit-required confined space may have an interior shape that could:
A. Cause shingles
B. Trap or asphyxiate (correct answer)
C. Keep an entrant awake
67. Confined space entrants may exit a space when approved by the CSE supervisor.
However, they must exit a
space whenever:
A. There are no warning signs or symptoms of exposure

B. They detect prohibited conditions (correct answer)
C. Work is nearly completed
D. All is normal
68. Testing for the presence of oxygen is important for any confined space. The concentration
of oxygen in a
confined space should be:
A. Between 15% and 25%, ideally 15.5%

B. As high as possible
C. Between 19.5% and 23.5%, ideally 21% (correct answer)
69. Authorizes entrance into a confined space
A. Hazards in the confined space

B. Emergency rescue procedures
C. Equipment, humidity, and other contractors in the area
70. A confined space:
A. Has limited means of access and exit

B. Is large enough to allow entry
C. Is not designed for continuous human occupancy
D. Occurs only below ground
E. A, B, and C above (correct answer)
71. A confined space:
A. Is large enough to allow entry

B. Has limited access and egress
C. Is not designed for continuous human occupancy
D. Occurs only below ground
E. All of a, b and c above (correct answer)
72. Bleeding, ventilation, and flushing are all examples of:
A. Medical safeguards
B. Confined space hazard controls (correct answer)
C. Confined space emergencies
D. Compressed space protocols
73. Emergency rescue personnel for confined spaces may:
A. Be an internal group of personnel that are appropriately trained

B. Be an external group with previous arrangements
C. Not be required for permit confined space entry
74. An employer must provide the opportunity for anyone affected by a permit space to
observe monitoring of
the permit space.

B. False
75. Which of the following is considered a confined space hazard?
A. Entrapment or engulfment
B. Fire or explosion
C. Starvation
D. Both A. and B. (correct answer)
E. All three. A., B., and C.

77. A permit-required confined space will often have which of the following hazards?
A. Exposure to high volumes of traffic

B. Hazardous atmosphere (correct answer)
C. Rough walls and floors
D. All three, A., B., and C.
A. Pipeline
B. Sewer
C. Manhole
79. Excavations with sloughing walls, grain silos, and trenches are examples of permit-
required confined
spaces because each contains materials that:
A. May have a bad odor

B. Have the potential for caving-in or engulfment (correct answer)
C. May involve quicksand
80. A confined space entry permit includes:
A. Hazards in the confined space

B. Emergency rescue procedures
C. Equipment, humidity, and other contractors in the area
D. Both A. and B (correct answer)
E. All three, A., B., and C

A. Cause shingles
83. Which of the following is a requirement prior to entry into a permit space?
A. Atmospheric test for flammable gases and vapors

B. Atmospheric test for oxygen
C. Elimination of any hazard making it unsafe to remove an entrance cover
D. Both A. and B
E. All three, A, B., and C. (correct answer)
84. According to OSHA standards in Subpart AA, 1926.1204, when must a written permit
space program be
made available to employees or their representatives?
A. Prior to operations (correct answer)

B. Only after operations have ceased
C. After submittal to OSHA
D. When authorized by OSHA
85. An employer must ensure the following for entry into a permit space:
A. Air space coordination

B. Informed "time over flammability"
C. Safe methods for entering and exiting the space (correct answer)
D. All of the above

86. Which of the following is required before entering a confined space?
A. Water testing
B. Atmospheric testing (correct answer)
C. Soil testing
D. All of the above
87. Oxygen deficiency is defined as an atmosphere with less than:
A. 7% oxygen
B. 10% oxygen
C. 19.5% oxygen (correct answer)
D. 50% oxygen
88. For occupancy of a confined space, when must hazard evaluation tests be conducted?
A. Before entry
B. During occupancy
D. Both A. and B (correct answer)
E. All three. A., B., and C.,
89. Testing for the presence of oxygen is important for any confined space. The concentration
of oxygen in a
confined space should be:
A. Between 15% and 25%, ideally 15.5%

B. As high as possible
C. Between 19.5% and 23.5%, ideally 21% (correct answer)
90. Electrical, pneumatic, hydraulic, or mechanical energy hazards may require:
A. LOTO/COHE hazard control procedures (correct answer)

B. Further study
C. No response
D. Lockdown/tagdown
91. What two inert gases are often used to purge flammable or explosive vapors from a
confined space?
A. Pure oxygen or hydrogen

B. Carbon dioxide or nitrogen (correct answer)
C. Hydrogen sulfide or carbon gas
92. What does blanking mean?
A. Erasing evidence of any hazard

B. Disconnecting or capping lines that may empty into the permit space (correct answer)
C. Forgetfulness resulting from exposure to a confined space
93. An inert gas such as carbon dioxide or nitrogen is used to:
A. Aerate, freshen, deodorize

B. Detonate explosive vapors
C. Crystallize threatening gasses
D. Purge explosive vapors (correct answer)
94. Each person sewing as an attendant must be listed on the confined space permit.

B. False
95. The CSE supervisor must:

A. Be an actual supervisor or manager
B. Be a salaried employee
C. Be on site at all times
D. Authorize and sign the entry permit (correct answer)
E. All of the above
96. PPE should be considered for use before using engineering or work practice controls.
A. True
97. Monitoring equipment in confined spaces must measure which of the following hazards?
A. Vibration
B. Oxygen, flammable gases and vapors, toxic and other air contaminants (correct
answer)
C. Smell
D. Size
E. All of the above
98. The two principal types of respirators are:
A. Undersea and air purifying

B. Oxygen and nitrogen
C. Supplied air and air purifying (correct answer)
D. Supplied air and recirculated air
99. Which of the following is true for a CSE entrant?
A. Enters confined space and must be trained in CSE (correct answer)

B. May only leave the space when relieved
C. Maintains a written account of other entrants
D. Leaves only with supervisor permission even if hazard arises
100. When may the attendant enter a confined space?
A. Only after it has been banked

B. When the entrant is having a problem
C. When it appears that there are no hazards present
101. The confined space entry team includes which of the following?
A. Entry supervisor, entrant and attendant

B. OSHA inspector
C. Emergency response personnel
D. All of the above

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102. A hazardous atmosphere may be detected by:
A. Specially trained dogs

B. Supervisors only
C. Entrants only
D. Any member of the CSE team (correct answer)
103. Which of the following is an employer responsibility with regard to training employees?
A. Training records must be submitted to OSHA within 30 days of completion

B. Training records must be available to employees during their employment (correct
answer)
C. Training is optional, but highly recommended
D. Both A. and B.
E. All three, A., B., and C
104. Additional training is required whenever there is evidence that permit space entry
procedures have changed.

B. False
105. Emergency rescue personnel for confined spaces may:
A. Be an internal group of personnel that are appropriately trained

B. Be an external group with previous arrangements
C. Not be required for permit confined space entry
D. Both A. and B. above (correct answer)
skills:
A. Daily
B. As needed
107. It self-evacuation of an entrant is not possible, the attendant should:
A. Call for help

B. Use an extraction device (correct answer)
C. Enter the confined space to size up situation
D. Do nothing
108. For confined space operations, off-site emergency rescue services:

A. May not be used at any time
B. May be used but are not required to respond quickly
C. May be used if qualified and trained (correct answer)
A. A new permit
110. Even if an employee is not part of a CSE team, the employee may enter a confined space
on some
occasions. When?
A. When it is apparent that something is wrong in the space

B. When the employee has previous experience on a CSE team
111. Permit-required confined space work is potentially hazardous:
A. Usually
B. Never
C. At times
D. Always (correct answer)


113. Aside from chemical, oxygen, and entrapment hazards, confined spaces may be
hazardous due to:
A. Stored energy
B. Noise and temperature
C. Animals
114. Example of a storage structure in which someone can become trapped or suffocate is:
A. Storage tank with inward-sloping walls (correct answer)

B. Building with many floors
C. Underground tunnel system
D. All of the above
115. Flammable limits refer to conditions under which _________________
A. Certain gases and vapors may ignite or explode (correct answer)

B. Nothing can burn»
C. A space has been ventilated
D. A person can't get any angrier
116. SDS stands for:
A. Safety Design System

B. Safety Data Sheet (correct answer)
C. SkeIetaI Degeneration Syndrome

A. Cause shingles

120. Confined space entrants may exit a space when approved by the CSE supervisor.
However, they must exit a
space whenever:
A. There are no warning signs or symptoms of exposure

B. They detect prohibited conditions (correct answer)
C. Work is nearly completed
D. All is normal
skills:
A. Daily
B. As needed
122. In addition to posting danger signs on a permit space, an employer must inform
employee representatives
and the controlling contractor of the locations of any permit space.

B. False
A. Pipeline
B. Sewer
C. Manhole
124. CSE permit equipment includes equipment for:
A. Seismic disturbance
B. Ventilation, personal protection, air testing and monitoring (correct answer)
C. Soil testing, water pressure, light amplification
125. For occupancy of a confined space, when must hazard evaluation test be conducted?
A. Before entry
B. During occupancy
D. Both A. and B. (correct answer)
E. All three, A., B, and C.
A. A new permit
127. Which of the following is true about confined spaces?
A. Large enough to perform work with restricted entry or exit

B. Not designed for ongoing occupancy
C. Weather proof
D. Both A. and B.
E. All three, A., B., and C (correct answer)
128. An employer must provide the opportunity for anyone affected by a permit space to
observe monitoring of
the permit space.

B. False

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130. Confined space rescue equipment includes:
A. Bipod with body belt

B. Tripod with hand winch or hoist, and full body harness with lifeline (correct answer)
C. Flare gun with a minimum of three flares
D. All of the above
131. Controlling and removing potential hazardous substances or hazardous energy from
entering a confined
space is the control technique known as:
A. Evacuation
B. Isolation (correct answer)
C. Bleaching
D. Dredging
MODULE 21: ERGONOMICS
1. Most back disorders caused by _________.
A. An acute short term injury

B. Chronic exposures or long term injury (correct answer)
C. Osteoporosis
2. Which statement below is accurate for Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) controls?
A. Should be considered only after engineering and / or administrative controls (correct

answer)
B. Are always the best control strategy
C. Are always the most cost effective and long lasting
D. All of the above

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3. This illness / injury occurs when the blood vessels of the hand are damaged as a result of
repeated exposure
to vibration for long periods of time?
A. Raynaud's Syndrome
B. "White Fingers"
C. Jacksons Disease
D. Trigger finger
4. Musculoskeletal injuries currently account for about _____ of all occupational injuries
and illnesses reported
to the BLS.
A. 10%
B. One quarter
C. One third (correct answer)
D. Very few
5. You have an increased risk ergonomic related injury/illness if you often:
A. Carry heavy loads, work on your knees and twist your hands or wrists (correct answer)
B. Usually work at chest level
C. Use well designed tools
D. All of the above
6. Body movement where "energy is exerted to cause movement"?
A. Motion
B. Force (correct answer)
C. Kinetics
7. Which statement below is most accurate when discussing awkward postures?
A. Are created by the loss of calcium in the body

B. Can always be prevented by the use of back belts
C. Create stress and fatigue on the musculo-skeletal system (correct answer)
D. All of the above
8. Effects of Ergonomic Injuries may include:
A. Pain, Aches, Numbness, Tingling

B. Restricted movement
C. Both of the above (correct answer)

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9. These type controls include designing work stations, tools, and equipment to minimize
repetition, forces and
posture problems.
A. Engineering Control (correct answer)

B. Administrative Control
C. MSD Work Practice control
D. Personal Protective Equipment Control
10. Workers who must do which of the following are at greatest risk from experiencing work
related
musculoskeletal disorders?
A. Lift, stoop and kneel

B. Twist, grip and stretch
C. Reach overhead
D. Work in other awkward positions
11. Good ergonomics attempts to ___________.
A. Fit or adapt the job to the worker (correct answer)

B. Force the worker to fit the job
C. Shorten the workday so employees can leave when the work is done

D. All of the above
13. Breaking up the work schedule to minimize repetitive tasks, which involves doing
different things with
different muscles is an example of what type of control?
A. Engineering Control
B. Administrative Control (correct answer)
14. Back disorders are frequently caused by the cumulative effects of faulty body mechanics
such as which of
the following?
A. Excessive twisting
B. Bending and reaching
C. Carrying, moving, or lifting loads that are too heavy or off-balance
E. A and B only
15. Many factors play a role in ergonomics. Which of the following is most correct?
A. Body posture
B. Movement
C. Environmental factors
D. Athletes generally don't need to improve their ergonomics
16. Musculoskeletal injuries can _____________________
A. Actually improve a workers posture

B. Cause temporary or even permanent disability
C. Lead to improved breathing.
D. Affect the workers earnings and Contractors profits
17. The term used to describe the "study of work"?

A. Erg
B. Gon
C. Ergonomics (correct answer)
D. Musculoskeletal
18. Good ergonomics attempts to __________________________

19. This illness/injury occurs when the blood vessels of the hand are damaged as a result of
repeated exposure
to vibration for long periods of time?
A. Raynaud's Syndrome
B. "White Fingers"
C. Jacksons Disease
D. Trigger finger
A. Motion
C. Kinetics
21. MSD is an acronym for which of the following?
A. Maximum Stress Disease

B. Motion Sensor Disability
C. Musculoskeletal Disorder (correct answer)
D. Multiple Stressor Disorder
22. Most back disorders caused by _____________
A. An acute short term injury

B. Chronic exposures or ong term Injury (correct answer)
C. Osteoporosis
23. The primary causes of musculo skeletal disorders and other ergonomic related injury and
Illnesses include:
A. Excessive repetitive motions

B. Excessive or sustained force
C. Lack of calcium in the diet
D. Sustained or awkward body positions
E. A, B and D (correct answer)

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25. Which statement below is accurate for Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) controls?
A. Should be considered only when engineering and / or administrative controls fail to

mitigate the hazard. (correct
answer)
B. Are always the best control strategy
C. Are always the most cost effective and long lasting
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
27. Secondary causes of MSD’s include environmental factors. These environmental factors
include?
A. Carpeted floors vs. hardwood

B. Poor lighting and noise
C. Excessive temperatures heat and cold
D. Mechanical or contact stress
E. All except answer A (correct answer)
28. Your risk of an MSD is increased if you __________
A. Are standing in the neutral position

B. Have failed to stretch in the morning
C. Have to lift, push, or pull while stooping (correct answer)
D. All of the above
29. Effective ergonomics programs include which element in the following list?
A. A system to identify and analyze risk factors

B. Worker and management training
C. Medical care for injured workers
D. Maintaining good injury records
E. All of the above and more (correct answer)

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30. The frequent and prolonged use vibrating tools or equipment is ________________
A. Therapeutic to the upper arm muscle groups

B. The primary cause of metal fume fever
C. A common cause of ergonomic related injury and illness (correct answer)
D. All of the above
31. Which statement below is true?
A. MSD injury is always short term and easily treatable

B. MSDs can become long-term, disabling health problems that keep you from working
and enjoying life (correct
answer)
C. As MSD's happen all the time, doctors have developed simple cures
D. All of the above

33. Effective ergonomics programs include which element in the following list?
A. A system to identify and analyze risk factors

B. Worker and management training
C. Medical care for injured workers
D. Maintaining good injury records
E. All of the above and more (correct answer)
34. Which statement below is true?
A. MSD injury is always short term and easily treatable

B. MSDs can become long-term, disabling health problems that keep you from working
and enjoying life (correct
answer)
C. As MSD's happen all the time, doctors have developed simple cures
D. All of the above

A. Motion
C. Kinetics
36. Ergonomic-related disorders principally include which of the following?
A. Musculoskeletal Disorders (MSDs)

B. Cumulative Trauma Disorders
C. Repetitive Motion Injuries
D. Back injuries and strains / sprains
37. Good ergonomics attempts to _________________

posture problems.

40. Workers who must do which of the following are at greatest risk from experiencing work
related
musculoskeletal disorders?
A. Lift, stoop and kneel

B. Twist, grip and stretch
C. Reach overhead
D. Work in other awkward positions

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42. Ergonomics aims to design systems and tasks so as to ______________
A. Improve human safety, health, comfort, and performance (correct answer)

B. Meet all OSHA standards
C. Improve motor vehicle performance
posture problems.

C. MSD Work Practice Control
44. As discussed in this training, using a conventional hand tool repeatedly can lead to which
of the following?
A. Kidney failure
B. Muscle strain
C. Serious injury like carpal tunnel syndrome or tendinitis
D. Affect the workers earnings and contractors profits
45. The term used to describe the "study of work"?
A. Erg
B. Gon
C. Ergonomics (correct answer)
D. Musculoskeletal

D. All of the above
48. Your risk of an MSD is increased if you ____________________
A. Are standing in the neutral position

B. Have failed to stretch in the morning
C. Have to lift, push, or pull while stooping (correct answer)
D. All of the above
MODULE 22: SUPERVISOR SAFETY AND HEALTH RESPONSOBILITIES
1. Scheduling of maintenance and other high exposure operations for times when few
workers are present
(such as evenings, weekends) is an example of:
A. Engineering controls
B. Hazard elimination
C. Administrative control (correct answer)
D. PPE
2. Federal OSHA requires contractors to initiate and maintain safety and health programs to
ensure a safe and
healthful place of employment.
A. Federal OSHA does not have this authority

B. for state funded contracts only.
C. for governmental agencies only.
3. JHA is an acronym for which of the following
A. Justified Health Assessment

B. Joint Hazard Assessment
C. Job Hazard Analysis (correct answer)
D. Any of the above

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4. Necessary training topics for employees include the workplace plan in case of a fire or
other emergency,
general site hazards and hazards unique to a workers activity, when and where PPE is
required and:
A. Company budgeting techniques

B. Chemicals used in the workplace (correct answer)
C. Operational readiness factors
D. All of the above
5. Safety and health programs require which of the following?
A. Frequent and regular inspections and training

B. Prohibiting the use of unsafe machinery, tools, materials, or equipment
C. Provision of personal protective equipment (PPE) to ensure safety at the jobsite
6. Hierarchy of controls for hazard mitigation follow a determined sequence for maximum
effectiveness. After
elimination and substitution, which sequence below should be followed?
A. Engineering Controls first, PPE, Administrative/Work Practice Controls

B. Use PPE first following by Administrative/Work Practice Controls
C. Engineering controls are not required on construction sites
D. Engineering controls, Administrative/Work Practice Controls, PPE (correct answer)
7. An effective safety and health program will investigate which of the following incidents
to uncover the "root
cause"?
A. First aid cases and serious injury incidents

B. Petty theft
C. Near miss incidents
8. Which of the following are desirable characteristics of an effective Safety and Health
Program?
A. Start with rules and end with policy statement

B. In writing and identify the responsible person(s) for implementing the program
(correct answer)
C. Reviewed every 3 years by a registered PE
D. All of the above

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9. An effective occupational safety and health program will include which of the following
elements?
A. Management commitment and employee involvement

B. Worksite analysis
C. Hazard prevention and control
10. Complexity of training depends on which of the following?
A. The number of standards that apply

B. Characteristics of the hazards and potential hazards at the site (correct answer)
C. The training budget
D. All of the above
E. Both A and B
11. Training for Employees, Supervisors and Managers should include which of the
following?
A. Training on specific safe work practices before an employee begins work

B. Safety training within 30 days of starting the job
C. Safety and health training for new work processes
D. Safety and health training when accidents and near misses occur
E. All except B above. (correct answer)
12. OSHA recommends that top management be involved in implementing the safety and
health program so that
____________.
A. They can better avoid an OSHA citation

B. They can ensure money is being spent appropriately
C. Employees understand that management's commitment is serious (correct answer)
13. In an effective safety and health program, management regards worker safety and health
as which of the
following?
A. An overhead expense that is a wasteful part of doing business

B. A fundamental value of the organization (correct answer)
C. An impedance to business
14. Who should be held accountable for meeting safety and health program responsibilities in
the workplace?
A. Employees, supervisors and managers (correct answer)

B. Employees and Supervisors
C. Supervisors and Managers
15. What is good source of information on your state's Safety and Health Program
requirements?
A. The local health department

B. OSHA Consultation (correct answer)
C. The IRS
D. All of the above
16. An event that is unplanned undesired and results in personal injury, property damage or
an impact to the
environment.
A. Incident
B. Accident (correct answer)
C. Injury
D. Illness
17. A positive safety culture is the result of which of the following?
A. Management and employee attitude

B. Policies and procedures
C. Supervisory responsibility and accountability
D. Safety planning
18. In the workplace, regulatory liability exists in the form of:
A. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

B. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. State OSHA programs, Local, City and County ordinances

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19. As a supervisor, you are responsible for:
A. Expectations of the corporation

B. Regulatory liability
C. Personal liability
D. Taking little short-cuts to bring the project in on time.
E. A, B and C above (correct answer)
20. Who is legally responsible for the safety and health of employees on a work team?
A. OSHA inspector
B. Building inspector
C. Union representative
D. The supervisor (correct answer)
21. If you cannot fix a serious hazard immediately, you should:
A. Complain to management
B. Hide it
C. Prevent employee exposure
D. Communicate the hazard to the crew and subs, use signs and barricades
22. Cold Stress, heat stress, vibration, ionizing radiation, noise and laser hazards are examples
of what category
of hazard?
A. Physical safety hazards

B. Physical health hazards (correct answer)
D. Ergonomic type hazards
23. OSHA citations must be posted where?
A. On the windshield of the field truck

B. At or near the work area involved (correct answer)
C. Inside the supervisors work truck
D. None of the above is applicable.
24. Accident investigation should be which of the following?
A. Fact finding (correct answer)

B. Fault finding
C. Both fact and fault finding

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25. Which of the following would be a way to protect yourself from liability?
A. Follow all company policies

B. Control all potentially serious and non serious hazards immediately
C. Notify higher up managers of hazardous situations
D. Ensure employees are trained properly
26. The expectations of a corporation usually include:
A. Following only those corporate health and safety policies that do not cost money
B. Protecting the project budget at any and all cost
C. Notifying managers of hazardous situations (correct answer)
D. Taking little short cuts are most often no big deal when it comes to safety
27. Back disorders, strains and sprains, and carpal tunnel syndrome are examples of what type
injury?
A. Chemical exposures
B. Ergonomic related injuries (correct answer)
28. Tools used to communicate and warn employees of potential hazards include which of the
following?
A. Cablegrams and memos

B. Radios, phones and Ipads
C. Color codes, posters, labels and signs (correct answer)
D. All of the above
29. The employer is required to report to the nearest OSHA office within __ any fatalaccident
or one that results
in the hospitalization of three or more employees.
A. 2 hours
B. 8 hours (correct answer)
C. 24 hours
D. 40 hours
30. Employees have the right of access to which of the following?
A. The exposure records for all employees on the project

B. Their own employee medical and exposure records (correct answer)
C. The medical records for all employees on the project

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following?
A. Color codes
B. Posters
C. Labels and signs
32. The employer is required to report any worker fatality to the nearest OSHA office within:
A. 2 hours
B. 8 hours (correct answer)
C. 24 hours
D. 40 hours
33. Being a leader, assertive, decisive, participating in safety events, being supportive and
enthusiastic, being a
coach are examples of a _________________
A. A "qualified person“
B. A motivator (correct answer)
C. Site safety officer
D. Competent Person
34. Legally responsible for the safety and health of employees on a work team?
A. OSHA inspector
35. Which of the following uses enclosures, isolation techniques, ventilation, equipment
modification etc. to
mitigate a hazard?
A. Hazard elimination or substitution

B. Engineering controls (correct answer)
C. Administrative controls
D. Work rules
E. PPE
36. Any work-related event that COULD HAVE resulted in an injury or illness, including a
near miss, is referred
to as:
A. Mess-Up
B. An Incident (correct answer)
C. An Injury
D. An Illness

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37. There is also regulatory liability in the form of
A. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

B. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. State OSHA programs
D. Local City and County ordinances
to as:
A. A Mess-Up
C. An Injury
D. An Illness
39. Legally responsible for the safety and health of employees on a work team?
A. OSHA inspector
40. Employees have the right of access to which of the following?
A. Their own employee medical records

B. Their own employee exposure records
C. The medical and exposure records for all employees on the project
following?
A. Color codes
B. Posters
C. Labels and signs
42. Incident investigations should always be:
A. Fact finding (correct answer)

B. Fault finding
C. Both fact and fault finding

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43. Site safety and health walk-thru inspections should be done by the supervisor how often?
A. Daily and after new equipment, tools or personnel have come on site
B. Immediately following an incident
C. At least monthly
44. With respect to safety, your primary goal must be which of the following?
A. Zero incidents
B. Zero accidents
C. Zero injuries/illnesses
D. Zero fatalities
to as:
A. A Mess-Up
C. An Injury
D. An Illness
46. What types of incidents should be investigated?
A. All injuries, fatalities, and near misses (correct answer)

B. Serious injuries only
C. Only those injuries whom blood is involved
D. Fatalities only
47. Generally responsible for ensuring an incident investigation is completed:
A. Supervisor
B. Superintendent
C. OSHA
MODULE 23: OBSERVE AND CORRECT
1. An explanation of the project safety requirements and "zero tolerance" details should take
place when?
A. These details not required by OSHA so they really don't need to be explained
B. These details should be part of the offer letter
C. Within 30 days after the start of the project when things have slowed down
D. During initial and periodic safety training (correct answer)

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2. A thorough look around the jobsite for unsafe conditions, behaviors, equipment, and
processes is an
example of which of the following?
A. Harm Evaluation
B. Risk Assessment (correct answer)
C. Injury categorization process
3. Recognizing safe behaviors on a project ______________.
A. Is required by OSHA regulation

B. Is an effective tool to promote safety and improve the safety culture (correct answer)
C. Not recommended as studies have shown recognition programs to be ineffective
E. All of the above
4. One way to mitigate risk is with a thorough risk assessment of the jobsite for unsafe
___________.
A. Conditions, behaviors, equipment and processes

B. Work methods
C. Supervisors
5. A risk is:
A. A combination of hazard and probability (correct answer)

B. Never preventable
C. Both of the above
6. OSHA's "General Duty Clause" requires _______________ a safe work environment free
from recognized
hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to his
employees.
A. Property owners to maintain

B. OSHA to maintain
C. Employers to maintain (correct answer)
D. Employees to maintain
E. All of the above

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7. Successful safety leaders generally possess which of the following characteristics?
A. Stubborn personality
B. Advanced college degree
C. Good communication skills, vision and passion (correct answer)
D. Ability to consistently beat budget
E. All of the above
8. A key element in recognizing and preventing unsafe behaviors is understanding which of

the following?
A. The environmental code for the project

B. All of OSHA's construction regulations
C. How you personally perceive risk (correct answer)
9. Managing risk effectively is dependent on following a simple, 5 step process. These 5

steps include which of
the following?
A. Inspect, arrange, pursue, manage, report

B. Identify, assess, evaluate, implement and measure (correct answer)
C. Accumulate, inform, report, follow-up
D. Report and find fault
E. All of the above
10. The requirement that "each employee shall comply with occupational safety and health
standards and all
rules, regulations, and orders issued pursuant to this Act which are applicable to his own
actions and
conduct" comes from what?
A. The Presidential Order
B. OSHA's General Duty Clause (correct answer)
C. International Labor Referendum
D. All of the above
11. Employees can make an impact in promoting safety on the jobsite by which of the
following?
A. Participate in safety committees

B. Develop new safety programs
C. Provide feedback on areas for improvement
D. Removing safety devices that slow the job down

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12. Our "safety paradigms" can be a result of
A. Our previous teachings

B. Our coaching and training
C. Our experiences
13. Which of the following make up OSHA's Focus Four, highest risk hazards?
A. Falls, flying rocks, nail guns, lifting

B. Electrocution, chemical exposures, heat illness, noise
C. Falls, electrocution, struck-by, caught between (correct answer)
D. Heat illness, radiation, motor vehicle, lifting
14. Negative motivators that can cause us to make poor safety decisions may include which
of the following?
A. Peer pressure and macho attitudes

B. Good safety training and toolbox meetings
C. Jobsite pressures
D. Taunting by co-workers
E. All except answer B (correct answer)
15. OSHA's "General Duty Clause" requires __________ to comply with occupational safety
and health standarts
and rules, regulations and orders issued pursuant to the OSH Act
A. Property owners
B. OSHA
C. Employers only
D. Employees (correct answer)
E. All of the above
16. Most workers in the construction industry have sustained some type injury on the job.

B. False
17. This is a good way to ensure the success of a safety program:
A. Direct involvement of the workforce in the safety process (e.g., development of the
program)
B. Employee feedback on the implementation of the program
C. Training that focuses on safe working methods

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18. Which of the following is important to change a stagnant or poor construction safety
culture?
A. Positive role models

B. Coaches and mentors passionate about safety
C. Standardized and effective training programs
D. Safe work procedures
MODULE 24: PREVENTING INJURIES
1. You can get valuable information from benchmarking with which of the following
organizations?
A. Competitors
B. Trade organizations and unions--
C. Government agencies (e.g. Fed & State OSHA, WORKSAFE BC)
D. Safety and Industrial Hygiene Consultants
2. Some forward thinking companies have created safety cultures that

___________________.
A. Don't accept injuries as a cost of doing business

B. Are based in the belief that every injury and incident is preventable.
C. Believe that incentive programs always result in the best safety outcome.
3. To change a stagnant or poor construction safety culture is likely to involve positive role
models, coaches
and mentors, standardized and effective training programs and:
A. Draconian discipline programs

B. Generous incentives for not having any accidents
C. Safe work procedures (correct answer)
D. All of the above
4. Effective safety training should:
A. Include feedback mechanisms for employees

B. Address the needs of employees

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5. Most safety professionals agree that the most critical element in the prevention of injuries
and incidents is
_________________.
A. How much money is available for personal protective equipment

B. The support of management (correct answer)
C. Frequent OSHA inspections
6. When establishing an injury free culture one must understand that Injuries and incidents
are not accepted as
a cost of doing business, but are, in fact preventable. A key requirement requires:
A. Employees to be engaged through holistic safety systems (correct answer)

B. A rigorous punishment policy for violators
C. A drug testing program equal to DOT requirements
7. Which of the statements below is true?
A. Most worker fatalities occur on the job

B. 9 out of 10 worker deaths occurred off the job (correct answer)
C. Worker fatalities occur about 50% at home and 50% on the job
8. Coaching and mentoring:
A. Requires giving positive coaching as needed or requested

B. Requests solicitation of feedback
9. The National Safety Council estimates that every hour:
A. 15 people will die due to injuries every hour

B. 4,440 people will require medical treatment every hour for injury
D. Both A and B are correct (correct answer)
10. In order to change the safety culture we need positive role models, coaches and mentors,
safe practices
and:
A. OSHA inspections
B. Standardized training requirements (correct answer)
C. Shortcuts to success

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11. Which of the following must be a top priority with respect to new workers?
A. It is important to train, coach and mentor positive safety behaviors (correct answer)
B. Make sure they do exactly what you tell them
C. Ensure they bring their own tools to the job
D. All of the above
12. The statement "Taking the time to educate your family in safety will pay huge dividends
down the road!"
means ________.
A. It's important to you and your family to learn & practice safety at home, work and play
(correct answer)
B. Safety education is expensive
C. There is no association between workplace safety and off the job safety
13. These types of Injuries & Incidents must be investigated and analyzed to determine root
cause and
prevention strategies.
A. Amputations
B. Burns and disfiguring incidents
C. All injuries and incidents (correct answer)
14. Although workplace safety is the employers responsibility, safety leadership is not only a
management
function, but a basic humanistic principal that shows you care and _______________.
A. Are willing to make a difference (correct answer)
B. Take care of yourself at your fellow employees expense
C. Should stay quiet when you recognize a hazard
15. It is important to remember that OSHA regulations are ___________________.
A. The maximum standards an employer can adopt

B. The minimum standards an employer must comply with (correct answer)
C. Super expensive to comply with and cutting corners to save costs is important
16. Most workers in the construction industry have sustained some type injury on the job.

B. False

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17. Which of the following is important to change a stagnant or poor construction safety
culture?
A. Positive role models

B. Coaches and mentors passionate about safety
C. Standardized and effective training programs
D. Safe work procedures
18. Which of the following has led to greater safety in the construction industry over the last
30 years?
A. Changing attitudes toward accidents (e.g., "Accidents CAN be prevented")

B. Improved tools and equipment
C. Safer work methods
MODULE 25: NFPA 70E

1. When should energized electrical work be considered?
A. When feasible alternatives are not available

B. When testing and trouble-shooting when absolutely necessary
C. When financial reasons force it
D. All of the above
E. Both a and b (correct answer)
2. A flash hazard analysis:
A. Is a complex process
B. Is only required for very high voltages
C. Requires specialized training and education
E. Both A and C above (correct answer)
3. In order to work on energized electrical equipment you must be:
A. An electrical engineer
B. A supervisor
C. A qualified person (correct answer)
D. All of the above

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4. Molten metal droplets from an ARC flash:
A. Are caused by methyl hydrates

B. Can be as hot as 35,000 degrees (correct answer)
C. Are mostly harmless due to their small size
D. All of the above
5. General electrical safety includes:
A. Never reaching blindly into areas with energized conductors

B. Using rubber handled tools with exposed steel shafts
C. Ensuring that adequate lighting is available
D. Both A and C(correct answer)
6. What best describes the training required under NFPA 70E?
A. Will be in classroom and on the job

B. Must cover safe work practices and procedures for specific jobs or tasks (correct
answer)
7. Arc flash hazards include:
A. A low pressure wave with forces of about 200 lbs/square ft

B. A high pressure wave with forces above 2,000 lbs/square ft & noise of 140 decibels
(correct answer)
C. Possible earthquake
D. All of the above
8. What is required in order to cross the Limited Approach Boundary and the Restricted
Boundary?
A. Supervisor authorization
B. A confined space permit
C. Qualified Person status for Limited/Qualified Person and PPE for shock for Restricted
(correct answer)
9. A qualified person must have:
A. Skills, experience and knowledge critical for effective hazard training

B. Training meeting the needs and requirements of the tasks performed
C. Ability to recognize all electrical hazards in the workplace
E. A and B only

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10. What best describes an arc flash?

A. Sudden release of electrical energy
B. A release of heat and light, temperatures as high as 35,000 degrees
C. Creation of a blast effect due to heating of air
E. A and C only
11. Voltage rated gloves must be inspected prior to use and tested and certified every:
A. 30 days
B. 12 months
C. 6 months (correct answer)
D. Never
12. Prior to electrical hot work:
A. The electrical utility must be contacted

B. Power must be shut down at the nearest substation
C. Energy sources controls must be discussed (LOTO) (correct answer)
D. All of the above
E. A and C only
13. The three types of shock boundaries are:
A. Limited, structured & restricted

B. Structured, restricted & common
C. Limited, restricted & prohibited (correct answer)
D. Common, prohibited & special
14. Warning labels on electrical equipment must specify:
A. Arc flash boundaries, shock hazard boundaries and type of PPE that must be used.
(correct answer)
B. Tables for emergency exit times
C. Ozone levels in the vicinity
D. All of the above
15. Pre-work for electrical work includes
A. Engineering inspection for structural stability.

B. Examination of as-built drawings for the installation.
C. Electrical hazard analysis, flash hazard analysis and shock hazard analysis. (correct
answer)
D. All of the above
16. The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) developed and maintains the NFPA
70E standard for
electrical safety. What year represents the current edition of NFPA 70E?
A. 1896
B. 1930
C. 1999
17. The NFPA 70E covers electrical safety in the workplace as it pertains to
_________________ safety.
A. Equipment
B. Human (correct answer)
C. Property
D. Vehicle
18. Which article in Chapter 1 of NFPA 70E contains common definitions?

B. 110
C. 120
D. 130
19. What is mainly covered in Chapter 2 of the NFPA 70E standard?
A. Construction
B. Machinery
C. Maintenance (correct answer)
D. Training
20. What does the NFPA 70E standard now consider first priority when it comes to electrical
hazards?
A. Elimination of the hazard (correct answer)

B. Improved communication
C. Personal protective equipment (PPE)
D. Training
21. Information on human factors and performance, such as human error, can be found
within:
A. Annex B
B. Annex H
C. Annex P
D. Annex Q (correct answer)
22. When developing an electrical safety program, it is best to refer to what area of the NFPA
70E standard?
A. Section 110.1
B. Informative Annex E
23. Training for qualified persons is the same as for unqualified persons.
A. True
24. What is the main way to establish an electrically safe work condition?
A. Contracting the work out
B. Having an electrician perform the work
C. Implementing a lockout/tagout program (correct answer)
D. Using insulated tools only
25. When a company has a "no live work" policy, there is still a danger that an employee will
come in contact
with live electricity.

B. False
26. When it comes to electrical safety, who is responsible for employee safety?
A. Host employer
B. Contract employer
C. OSHA

265
27. Employers are required to ensure qualified person compliance with safety-related work
practices through:
A. An annual audit
B. Routine inspections
C. Written tests
28. A licensed electrician automatically meets the definition of a qualified person, according
to NFPA 70E
A. True
29. A qualified person designation is both task and ______________________ specific
A. Ability
B. Equipment (correct answer)
C. Title
D. Training
30. An unqualified person may cross which of the following boundaries:
A. Arc flash boundary, while wearing a face shield

B. Limited approach boundary, when continually escorted by a qualified person (correct
answer)
C. Restricted approach boundary, while wearing gloves
D. All the above
31. NFPA 70E states that equipment should be de-energized unless:
A. It is infeasible due to equipment design or operational limitations

B. It will result in the interruption of life support equipment
C. It will save on production downtime
32. Prior to energized electrical work:
A. A qualified person must perform shock and arc flash risk assessments (correct answer)
B. Contact 911services
C. Contact the local electrical utility
D. Plan to expect accidents

265
33. Energized electrical work permits have ___________ critical elements

A. Three
B. Six
C. Nine (correct answer)
D. Twelve
34. Owners of non-dwelling electrical equipment that is likely to require examination,

adjustment, servicing, or
maintenance while energized shall mark such equipment with a:
A. Toll-free phone number to call

B. Red X
C. Shock/arc flash warning label (correct answer)
D. All of the above
35. Gloves must be inspected and tested prior to use, and be certified every:
A. 30 days
B. 6 months (correct answer)
C. 12 months
D. Never
36. Tools used for working on electrical equipment should be:
A. Insulated and rated for the voltage you are working with (correct answer)
B. Brand name
C. Taped
D. Certified by OSHA
37. NEPA 70E states that all PPE must meet one of three levels of:
A. Quality
B. Conformity (correct answer)
C. Availability
D. Durability

265
38. Under NFPA 70E, the appropriate PPE for arc flash can be determined by:
A. Calling the PPE supplier

B. Incident energy calculations
C. Using the tables found in Article 13O.7(C)(15)
D. B or C (correct answer)
39. Within the 2018 NFPA 70E standard, what indicates a revision to text from previous
versions?
A. Line through the text

B. Text in bold type
C. Text in red type
D. Text shading (correct answer)
40. Arc flash hazards include
A. Thermal burns
B. Intense light
C. High pressure waves
MODULE 26: HAZARD RECOGNITION
1. Something that can cause injury or illness in people, or damage to property through a
practice, behavior,
condition or situation, or a combination of these is called a:
A. Risk
B. Serious condition
C. Hazard (correct answer)
D. Poor work practice
2. Which below cause the greatest number of workplace fatalities in the construction
industry?
A. Struck-By
B. Falls (correct answer)
C. Caught-In/Between
D. Electrocutions
E. All the above cause an equal amount of workplace fatalities

265
3. Hazards can be divided into two major group types. These are?
A. Biological and Physical

B. Health and Safety (correct answer)
C. Construction and General industry
4. The accident investigation process generally follows what sequence?
A. Notify appropriate people, report, investigate, secure the scene

B. Secure the scene, report, notify people, investigate
C. Secure the scene, Notify the appropriate people, Investigate, Report (correct answer)
D. The sequence does not really matter at all.
5. Typical workplace records to examine to aid in hazard recognition include which of the
following?
A. Financial reports
B. Incident reports and worker's compensation claims
C. Inspection reports
D. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)
E. B, C and D above (correct answer)
6. Which of the items below may require testing and metering to better understand a hazard
or potential
hazard?
A. Chemical hazards
B. Electrical hazards
C. Soils evaluation
D. Noise
7. Workplace _________ is a regular and common method of recognizing hazards.
A. Organization
B. Cleanliness
C. Inspection (correct answer)
D. All of the above

265
8. In general there are Four Steps to Effective Investigations. These include: Secure and
manage the scene;
Notify the appropriate people; Investigate and:
A. Minimize
B. Substitute
C. Report (correct answer)
E. A and B above
9. One common hazard recognition tool is the use of ______:
A. Guardrails
B. Investigations (correct answer)
A. Lawsuits
10. What is the most effective means of hazard mitigation or control?
A. Elimination (correct answer)

B. Substitution
C. Engineering
D. Work practice
E. PPE
11. Five steps for making sure hazards are recognized in your workplace include setting
standards,
communicating, training, evaluating and follow-up and:
A. Avoid confrontation
B. Punish offenders
C. Acknowledge success and make improvements (correct answer)
12. Which below are steps in effective inspections?
A. Always use experts with degrees in safety

B. Ensure you have funding for the inspection then gather your inspection team
C. Establish procedures, prepare, conduct, report findings, follow-up (correct answer)
D. Don appropriate PPE, read Safety Data Sheet, conduct inspection
13. What is the point of preventive maintenance?
A. Comply with OSHA regulations

B. Save money
C. Get the work done before repairs or replacement is needed (correct answer)

265
14. The information gained from examining records can be used to:
A. identify injuries and illnesses and trends

B. measure the effectiveness of your health and safety program
C. raise awareness and support decisions affecting health and safety
D. help to make recommendations and priorities
15. A test often conducted to initially identify and evaluate potential worker safety and health
risks is:
A. Mobilization survey
B. Baseline survey (correct answer)
C. Mechanical test
16. The information gained from examining records can be used to which of the following?
A. Identify injuries and illnesses and trends

B. Measure the effectiveness of your health and safety program
C. Raise awareness and support decisions affecting wealth and safety
D. Help to make recommendation and priorities
17. Effective communications includes which of the following?
A. Always use the worksite bulletin board for postings

B. Make sure workers know the standards and how and why to report hazards
C. Results of inspections are communicated to the appropriate persons
D. Radius are generally the tool for effective communications
E. B and C above (correct answer)
18. Generally the organization that establishes workplace exposure levels to chemical hazards
in the air?
A. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) (correct answer)
C. Local health department (LHD)
19. Test often conducted to initially identify and evaluate potential worker safety and health
risks.
A. Mobilization survey
B. Baseline survey (correct answer)
C. Mechanical test

20. Personal protective equipment is often donned when?
A. When exposure to hazards cannot be engineered completely out

B. When other controls are insufficient to minimize exposure to acceptable levels
C. While other controls are being instituted
D. In emergencies
21. Scheduling operations with the highest exposure potential during periods when the fewest
employees are
present is an example of what type of control?
A. Hazard elimination
B. Engineering control
C. Administrative control (correct answer)
D. Personal protective equipment control
22. The point of preventive maintenance is to ________________
A. Comply with OSHA regulations

B. Save money
C. Get the work done before repairs or replacement is needed (correct answer)
23. What is hazard control?
A. A type of hazard mitigation (correct answer)

B. Technique to acquire funding for ventilation
C. Process where the hazard is always eliminated from the jobsite
24. Which below is a required hazard recognition step?
A. Set standards
B. Communicate
C. Training
D. Follow-up and acknowledge success
25. Develop standards and procedures for which of the following?
A. Air quality standards (e.g. 10 milligrams per cubic meter of air)

B. Responding to observations and worker concerns, inspections
C. Investigations, records examination, task/process analysis
D. All of the above
E. Principally B and C above (correct answer)
26. Which below may require testing and metering to better understand a hazard or potential
hazard.
A. Air contaminants
B. Electrical hazards
C. Soils evaluation
D. Noise
27. Generally the first and best strategy to control the hazard at its source.
A. Personal protective equipment

B. Administrative control
C. Work practice control
D. Engineering control (correct answer)
E. All of the above
MODULE 27: LEADING CULTURE CHANGE
1. The general duty clause imposes requirements on:
A. Employers only
B. Employees only
C. Employers and Employees (correct answer)
2. OSHA applies to employees as well as employers. Employees:

A. Must comply with all OSHA standards and rules
B. Are encouraged but not required to comply with OSHA requirements
C. Can be held accountable for not complying with established requirements

265
3. "To furnish to each of his employees employment and a place of employment which are
free from
recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to
his employees"
is a statement from:
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. The "General Duty Clause", Section 5 of Federal OSHA requirements (correct
answer)
C. The National Labor Relations Board motto
4. What is the definition of a near miss?
A. Something narrowly avoided; a lucky escape (correct answer)

B. Something avoided as a consequence of my actions
C. Something avoided as a result of training
5. Who is responsible for your safety?
A. The Safety Manager

B. Your Supervisor
C. The Owner of the Company
D. Everyone, especially yourself (you) (correct answer)
6. To have the best chance at being effective, training must:
A. Address needs of employees and explain Safety Requirements

B. Require testing and solicit feedback from trainees
7. What are the most commonly used terms to describe the "cause" of incidents & injuries?
A. Unrelated simultaneous events

B. Multi-dimensional cause and effect events
C. Unsafe acts and unsafe conditions (correct answer)
D. All of the above
8. An unsafe act is an:
A. Undesirable behavior that precedes an injury or incident (correct answer)

B. Unsatisfactory condition that exists and contributes to an injury or incident
C. Unplanned event that results in negative consequences

265
9. An incident is defined as an:
A. Undesirable behavior that precedes an injury or incident

B. Unplanned event that results in negative consequences (correct answer)
C. Unplanned event that, except for luck, could have resulted in death, injury or damage
10. What are the four basic elements for correcting unsafe conditions?
A. See, think, feel and do.

B. Recognize, evaluate, eliminate or control & re-evaluate (correct answer)
C. Engineering, architectural, work practice and PP
11. The primary causes of incidents and injuries are:
A. Lack of training and off-hours activities

B. Unsafe acts and unsafe conditions (correct answer)
C. Worker's desires to take "safety shortcuts"
D. Unsafe acts and lack of training
12. Keys for Safety Leadership include:
A. Individuals with great communication skills

B. Individuals work to gain trust and respect of others
C. The overall sharing of vision and passion
13. What are the steps for preventing unsafe conditions?
A. Recognize the conditions

B. Evaluate the conditions and related hazards
C. Eliminate and/or control the hazards
D. Re-evaluate as the situation changes
14. A change in safety culture requires:
A. Management Leadership & Behavior and Employee Behavior & Engagement (correct
answer)
B. A strong disciplinary program
C. A heavy focus on incentive programs
D. Increased OSHA regulations
15. We know that many workers take risks in the workplace. Many exhibit unsafe behaviors
because over the
years these behaviors have been:
A. Learned and applied.

B. Borrowed from out-of-state workers
C. Allowed, Encouraged or Ignored. (correct answer)
16. Unsafe acts are:
A. Totally under your control (correct answer)

B. Prescribed by your supervisor
C. Due to the company
D. Not preventable
17. The primary cause of unsafe and unhealthy incidents is:
A. Lack of training and off-hours activities

B. Unsafe acts and conditions (correct answer)
C. Safety shortcuts
D. Lack of training
18. Which of the following is a standard that employees are responsible for complying with?
A. OSHA standards and rules

B. Company-established health and safety requirements
C. Established state and local safety and health requirements
19. Who's best to rely on for your safety?
A. Employer
B. Supervisor
C. Company owner
D. Yourself
20. The leading cause of death in construction is:
A. Overexertion
C. Falls (correct answer)
D. Suffocation
21. Which of the following is a basic step for eliminating unsafe conditions?
A. Recognize the conditions

B. Evaluate the conditions and related hazards
C. Eliminate and/or control the hazards
D. Re-evaluate as the situation changes
22. Why, sometimes, do construction workers take risks?
A. Schedule pressures and negative co-worker attitudes (correct answer)

B. Lack of concern about getting hurt
C. Lack of knowledge on how to protect themselves
23. Which of the following responses to risk behaviors can result in a poor safety culture?
A. Risk behaviors are allowed

B. Risk behaviors are encouraged
C. Risk behaviors are ignored
A. Learned beliefs, values and shared assumptions

B. Stability, consistency and meaning
C. Mutual trust and respect

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A. Positive role models who are committed to safety (correct answer)

B. Strong disciplinary program
C. A heavy focus on incentive programs
D. Increased OSHA regulations
26. Of the following methods, which is the best method for improving safety performance?
A. Reading technical literature

B. Contacting friends in the industry when there's an issue to discuss
C. Benchmarking with competitors, trade organizations, governmental agencies, and
consultants (correct answer)
D. Contacting OSHA on a weekly basis
27. Successful safety leaders:
A. Possess excellent people and communication skills

B. Work to gain the trust and respect of others
C. Share their vision and passion for safety with others
28. Safety leadership includes:
A. Providing appropriate feedback, such as coaching

B. Asking for feedback from employees and coworkers
C. Providing timely praise and recognition when appropriate
D. Setting reasonable expectations for safe performance
E. E. All the above (correct answer)
29. The General Duty Clause of the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSH Act) requires
employers to
A. Furnish a place of employment that is free from recognized hazards that cause or are
likely to cause death or
serious physical harm to employees (correct answer)
B. Provide personal time off, as needed, for improvement of health
C. Eliminate all chemicals in the workplace so as to avoid any chemical exposure
D. All the above
30. Who's best to rely on for your safety?
A. Employer
B. Supervisor
C. Company owner
D. Yourself
31. The following is needed to change the construction safety culture:
A. Positive role models, coaches, and mentors (correct answer)

B. 30 hours of safety training for every construction worker
C. 1 certified safety professional for every 10 workers
D. All the above
32. A negative motivator that may lead to an unsafe act:
A. Bad safety attitude

B. Pressure to produce the product as opposed to working safely
C. Cost-related issues that impact work performance
33. Unsafe conditions are:
A. Recognizable with appropriate training

B. Controllable with training and procedures
C. More easily discovered by buddy teams of 2 or more
34. What is one reason why construction workers die every year?
A. Desire to get hurt
B. Aging workforce
C. Poor contractual agreements
D. Lack of an established, positive safety culture (correct answer)

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TIP: Press CTRL + F on PC or Command + F on Macintosh computers to quickly find the

A. True (correct answer)

OSHA 30 Construction Quizzes (v. 2.0) Page 2 of 265

5. Load chart ratings will differ when:

A. Outriggers are fully-extended

6. The most important

7. Complexity of training depends on which of the following?

A. Size and complexity of the worksite

9. If it cannot fix a serious hazard immediately, you should

OSHA 30 Construction Quizzes (v. 2.0) Page 3 of

11. Underground electrical hazards are:

A. An overhead expense that is a wasteful part of doing business

13. Which of the following is necessary training topics for employees?

A. The workplace plan in case of a fire or other emergency

14. Which statement below would be most correct?

OSHA 30 Construction Quizzes (v. 2.0) Page 4 of 265

16. Successful safety leaders generally possess which of the following

A. Good people and communication skills

17. An incident investigation:

A. Is good for finding who to blame when an incident occurs

A. All roof fall hazards that may be encountered

19. Hand Arm Vibration (HAV) can

A. Result from using hand-held power tools

OSHA 30 Construction Quizzes (v. 2.0) Page 5 of

20. An annual inspection of each crane:

A. Saving on the need for additional compliance officers

A. An inspection of the area and isolation of combustibles and flammable materials

24. Which of the following is allowed for accessing a scaffold?

25. Hazard Prevention and Control includes which of the following?

A. Elimination and control workplace hazards

A. Not less than 1 foot

27. A safety and health program should be

A. Consistent with standard industry-wide programs

29. A __________________ must be available to direct workers who are constructing or

OSHA 30 Construction Quizzes (v. 2.0) Page 7 of

A. True (correct answer)

32. The top section of an extension on a straight ladder should:

A. True (correct answer)

A. A registered professional engineer experienced in lift-slab construction. (correct

A. Positive safety latches or similar safety devices. (correct answer)

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MODULE 1: INTRODUCTION TO OSHA

1. When the employer receives an OSHA citation, it must be:

A. Contested and filed with the courts

3. Which of the following is a type of OSHA violation?

A. DEA and DOJ

6. The creation of OSHA provided this important right to workers:

A. The right to equal employment opportunities

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A. Additional pay and benefits

10. What does OSHA require employers to post for 3 days?

A. Employee of the month recognition

12. Workers must be trained in which of the following?

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A. Codes 501 through 1000

A. Employee dress code

A. Eye witness accounts of the exposure incident

A. Hard hats (correct answer)

A. All first aid treatment forms

19. What is OSHA's mission?

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