Directions: Write the letter of the correct/best answer for each question.

1. A scientist is investigating the process of mitosis using the dermal cells of mice. He
noticed that every nth time, each cell divides to two identical daughter cells. In 1839,
Theodor Schwann proposed the classical cell theory. Based on the situation given, which
of the postulates was observed by the scientist? (a. All organisms are made of cells.)
b. Cells are the basic units of life.
c. Cells come from preexisting cells.
d. Energy flow occurs within cells.
2. In eukaryotic cells, which of the following organelles is the primary site of ATP
synthesis?
a. Lysosome
b. Ribosome
c. (Mitochondrion)
d. Golgi Apparatus
3. In comparison to eukaryotes, prokaryotes_________.
a. Are more structurally complex
b. Have similar flagellar structure
c. (Do not have membrane-bound organelles)
d. Do not have membranes
4. Using a microscope, a cell plate was observed to develop across the middle of the cell
and nuclei forming on either side of the cell’s pole. The cell is most likely ___________.
a. (A plant cell in the process of cytokinesis)
b. An animal cell in the process of cytokinesis
c. A plant cell in anaphase of mitosis
d. An animal cell in metaphase of mitosis
5. Which of the following processes occurs when homologous chromosomes cross over in
Meiosis I?
a. Exchange of identical pieces of DNA occurs
b. (Segments of non-sister chromatids are exchanged.)
c. Two sister chromatids get tangled and re-sequencing of DNA occurs.
d. Segments of sister chromatids are re-sequenced.
6. Which of the following cellular transport requires ATP?
a. Simple diffusion through lipid bilayer
b. Osmosis through lipid bilayer
c. Sodium-Potassium Pump
d. (Facilitated Diffusion through non-specific transporter)
7. In animals, catabolism of _______ results in the production of nitrogenous wastes.
a. Starch and Cellulose
b. (Proteins and Nucleic Acids)
c. Triglycerides and steroids
d. Phospholipids and glycolipids.
8. DNA is an abbreviation for _____________.
a. Deoxyribocleic Acid
b. (Deoxyribonucleic Acid)
c. Di-ox ribonucleic Acid
d. Deoxyribose-Nucleic Acid

9. Where in a plant cell does the dark reactions (Calvin cycle) of Photosynthesis take place?
a. Inner membrane of the Mitochondria
b. Thylakoid space
c. (Stroma of the chloroplast)
d. Thylakoid membrane

10. In plant cells, ATP synthesis by chemiosmosis occurs during which metabolic processes?
a. Photosynthesis only
b. Respiration only
c. (
 d. Both Photosynthesis and Respiration)
e. Photosynthesis, Respiration and Fermentation
11. Which of the following light wavelengths is NOT absorbed by Chlorophyll a/b?
a. Orange
b. Blue
c. Yellow
d. (Green)
12. During the three major phases of cellular respiration, which phase produces the most
ATP?
a. Glycolysis
b. Formation of Acetyl CoA
c. Krebs Cycle
d. (Electron Transport Chain)
13. When the blood glucose level rises, the pancreas secretes insulin which results in the
decline of the blood glucose level. On the other hand, when the body detects a low blood
glucose level, below threshold, the pancreas secretes glucagon to increase blood glucose
level. This regulation of blood glucose is a result of ________?
a. (Positive feedback)
b. Negative feedback
c. Protein-protein interaction
d. Catalytic feedback
14. When the body ‘s internal environment experiences a drastic change, various processes
occur automatically to maintain a constant and optimal internal condition. This is termed
as _____________.
a. Balanced equilibrium
b. (Homeostasis)
c. Static Equilibrium
d. Thermal equilibrium
15. In pea plants, purple flower phenotype is dominant over white flower phenotype. If a
heterozygous pea is crossed with a homozygous pea with white flowers, what is the
probability that the offspring will have purple flowers?
a. 0
b. 1
c. ½
d. ¼
16. During DNA replication, RNA primers are typically added after unwinding of the double
helix structure by an enzyme called helicase. Shown below is a sequence of nucleotides
near the replication fork and the addition of RNA primers begin at the underlined
nucleotide of the template.

3’ C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C 5’
Which of the following represents the primer sequence?
a. 5’ G C C T A G G 3’
b. 5’ C G T T U G G 3’
c. 5’ A C G U U A G G 3’
d. 5’ A C G T T A G G 3’
17. Which of the following lists geological periods from oldest to most recent?
a. Cambrian, Devonian, Permian, Cretaceous
b. Devonian, Cambrian, Permian, Cretaceous
c. Cambrian, Permian, Devonian, Cretaceous
d. Permian, Cambrian, Cretaceous, Devonian
18. Arrange the following from most general to most specific.
I. Sexual selection
II. Evolution
III. Microevolution
IV. Natural Selection
V. Intrasexual selection
 a. II, III, IV, V, I
b. II, IV, III, I, V
c. II, III, IV, I, V
d. I, IV, II ,V, III

19. Human arms and dolphin flippers contain several bones which developed from similar
embryonic tissues. These structural similarities are an example of _______.
a. Homology
b. Convergent evolution
c. (Divergent evolution)
d. Evolution of common structure as a result of common function
20. A land snail, a clam, and an octopus all share which common structure?
a. Radula
b. (Mantle)
c. Gills
d. Distinct cephalization

21. Identify what chemical properties of matter is being described in the example below. “A
pea-sized piece of potassium reacts explosively when combined with a small volume of
water.”
a. Acidity
b. Flammability
c. (Reactivity)
d. Toxicity

22. A technique to measure the amount of carbon 14 (C14) isotope present in an organic
sample (a seed, bone, or even piece of wood) to estimate how long ago that sample died
or began to decompose. a. Radioactive dating
b. (Radiocarbon dating)
c. Stratigraphy
d. Typology

23. This isotope is commonly found in medical radiation therapy devices; calibrating
radiation detection equipment; industrial devices that measure density and thickness; as
a byproduct of nuclear fission processes in nuclear reactors (e.g., power plants). a.
Americium-241
b. Cesium-137 (Cs-137)
c. Cobalt-60 (Co-60)
d. Iodine-131 (I-131)

24. Which of the following structural formulas of Acetic Acid is INCORRECT?

a. CH₃COOH
b. .

c.

d. .
25. What is the symbol/formula given the name of the compound. “Ammonium Sulfate”?
a. (NH4)2SO4
b. (NH2)4SO3
c. NH4SO3
d. NH32(SO4)

26. The empirical formula of a compound of boron and hydrogen is BH3. Its molar mass is
27.7g/mol. Determine the molecular formula of the compound.
a. B2H6
b. B3H4
c. B2H5
d. B2H2
27. A gas sample is found to contain 39.10% carbon, 7.67% hydrogen, 26.11% oxygen,
16.82% phosphorus, and 10.30% fluorine. If the molecular mass is 184.1 g/mol, what is
the molecular formula? a. C4H10OP3F
b. C2H2O3PF
c. N6H14O2PF
d. C6H14O3PF

28. Balance the chemical equation below.

____ Pb(OH)2 + ____ HCl -> ____ H2O + ____ PbCl2

a. 2, 1, 1, 2
b. 1, 2, 2, 1
c. 1, 2, 1, 2
d. 1, 2, 2, 2

29. A container containing 5.00 L pf gas is collected at 100 K and then allowed to expand to
20.0 L. What must the new temperature be to maintain the same pressure?
a. 278K
b. 380K
c. 400K
d. 480K

30. What pressure will be required to contain 0.5 moles of SO2 gas in a 25.0 L container at
a temperature of 100. C? a. 0.416 atm
b. 0.612 atm
c. 0.728 atm
d. 2.4 atm

31. It Describes the geometry around a central atom bonded to two other atoms placed at a
bond-angle of 180°. a. Linear
b. Tetrahedral
c. Octahedral
d. Seesaw

32. A Carbonyl-containing functional group, in which the carbon atom is bonded to an OH

group on one side and either a carbon or hydrogen atom on the other. a. Aldehydes
b. Carboxylic Acids
c. Esters
d. Ketones
33. What state or states of matter does each statement describe?
“Has a Definite Volume”
a. This statement describes either the liquid state or the solid state.
b. This statement describes either the liquid state or the gas state.
c. This statement describes the liquid state.
d. This Statement describes either the gas state

34. In the heating curve of water, the temperature is shown as heat is continually added.
Why Changes of state occur during plateaus?
a. Because the temperature is gradually increasing
b. (Because the temperature is constant)
c. Because the temperature is no longer manageable
d. Because the temperature is in equilibrium

35. What is the molarity of a solution that was prepared by dissolving 14.2 g of NaNO3
(molar mass = 85.0 g/mol) in enough water to make 350 mL of solution?

a. 0.477 M
b. 0.60 M
c. 0.909 M
d. 1.212 M

36. Calculate the mass/volume percent of a 762.5 milliliter solution that is prepared by
dissolving 289.15 grams of calcium azide, Ca(N3)2, in water. a. 28% m/vCa(N3)2
b. 37% m/vCa(N3)2
c. 47% m/vCa(N3)2
d. 54% m/vCa(N3)2

37. What does the first law of thermodynamics tell us about the energy of the universe?
a. A closed system is a system that has external interactions, such as energy transfers
into or out of the system boundary.
b. (A measure of energy transfer that occurs when an object is moved over a distance
by an external force is known as heat.)
c. In this modern era, it is already possible to create or build a perpetual motion
machine.
d. The transformation of chemical energy into kinetic and heat energy by a car engine.

A spontaneous process is a process that occurs without the need for an external input of
energy. Spontaneous processes are driven by an increase in entropy, which is a measure of
the disorder or randomness of a system. Which of the following statement is not a
spontaneous process?
e. When a gas is cooled, its molecules slow down and become less disordered,
resulting in a decrease in the entropy of the system.
f. When a solute dissolve in a solvent, the solute molecules become dispersed
throughout the solvent.
g. When a solid melts and becomes a liquid, the molecules of the substance can move
more freely.
h. When two gases are mixed together, their combined entropy increases because the
molecules are able to spread out and occupy more volume.

38. An oxidation reaction is a chemical reaction in which a molecule, atom, or ion loses one
or more electrons. This process is accompanied by an increase in the oxidation state of
the species, which is a measure of the number of electrons that it has lost or gained.
Which of the following reactions is incorrect?
a. 4 Fe + 3 O2 + 6 H2O 2 Fe2O3·3H2O
b. C2H5OH + O2 CH3CHO + H2O
c. CuO + H2 Cu + H2O
d. O2 + 22O + H2
39. A student wants to measure the volume of a liquid in a graduated cylinder. The volume
of the liquid is given as 500 mL. However, the student accidentally reads the graduated
cylinder as if it were marked in millimeters instead of milliliters. What is the correct
volume of the liquid in milliliters?
a. 0.5 mL
b. 5 mL
c. 50 mL
d. 500 mL

40. A student is using a balance to measure the mass of a sample of a chemical compound.
The student obtains the following results for five consecutive measurements: 10.0 g,
10.1 g, 10.1 g, 10.2 g, and 10.2 g. Which of the following statements is true? a.
The measurements are accurate, but not precise.
b. The measurements are precise, but not accurate.
c. The measurements are both accurate and precise.
d. The measurements are neither accurate nor precise.

41. A ball is dropped from a height of 50 meters and hits the ground after 2 seconds. Using
the equation for uniformly accelerated motion, v = u + at, where v is the final velocity, u
is the initial velocity, a is the acceleration due to gravity, and t is the time taken, what is
the initial velocity of the ball?
a. 25 m/s
b. 50 m/s
c. 75 m/s
d. 100 m/s

42. A car is traveling at a speed of 50 km/h along a straight road. Another car is traveling at
a speed of 60 km/h along the same road in the opposite direction. What is the relative
velocity of the two cars as seen by an observer standing on the side of the road? a.
110 km/h
b. 100 km/h
c. 90 km/h
d. 50 km/h

43. Which of the following frames of reference is inertial?

a. The frame of reference of a person standing on a moving train
b. The frame of reference of a person standing on the Earth
c. The frame of reference of a person standing on the Moon
d. The frame of reference of a person standing on a roller coaster

44. Which of the following statements is true about static friction and kinetic friction?
a. Static friction is always greater than kinetic friction.
b. Kinetic friction is always greater than static friction.
c. The magnitude of static friction is independent of the surface area in contact.
d. The magnitude of kinetic friction is independent of the surface area in contact.

45. A car is traveling at a constant velocity of 20 m/s when it collides with a truck that is
stationary. The car has a mass of 1000 kg and the truck has a mass of 2000 kg. After the
collision, the car and truck become stuck together and move off at a velocity of 15 m/s.
What is the velocity of the center of mass of the car-truck system after the collision?
Use the concept of momentum to solve this problem.

Hint: The momentum of a system is equal to the mass of the system multiplied by the
velocity of the center of mass.

a. 20 m/s
b. 15 m/s
c. 30 m/s
d. 50 m/s
46. What is the weight of a 5 kg object on the surface of the Earth, given the gravitational
force between it and a 10 kg object is 6.67 x 10^-11 N?

a. 6.67 x 10^-11 N
b. 0.65 N
c. 5N
d. 9.8 N

47. Which of the following properties of an ideal gas is NOT described by the ideal gas
law?
A) Pressure
B) Volume
C) Temperature
D) Viscosity

48. Which of the following describes the relationship between the change in internal energy
and the work done on or by a system, as described by the first law of thermodynamics?
A) The change in internal energy is equal to the work done on the system.
B) The change in internal energy is equal to the work done by the system.
C) The change in internal energy is equal to the work done on the system minus the work
done by the system.
D) The change in internal energy is independent of the work done on or by the system.

49. Charged subatomic particles include protons, has a positive charge, and electrons, has a
negative charge. Which of the following is the SI unit of charge?
a. Ohm
b. Volts
c. Coulomb
d. Ampere
50. Which of the following statements about electric potential is true?
a. Like electric field, electric potential is a scalar quantity.
b. The SI unit for electric potential is Coulomb (C).
c. A negative test charge will spontaneously move from a position of lower electrical
potential to a position of higher electrical potential.
d. A negative test charge will spontaneously move from a position of higher electrical
potential to a position of lower electrical potential.

51. Which of the following relationships is true about total capacitance and type of circuit
arrangement?
a. Capacitance decreases as more capacitors are added in series.
b. Capacitance increases as more capacitors are added in series.
c. Capacitance decreases as more capacitors are added in parallel.
d. Total capacitance does not change whether capacitors are connected in series or
parallel.
52. Rubber is an example of a dielectric material. It has a dielectric constant of 7. What is
likely to happen to the total capacitance if rubber is inserted in between the plates of the
capacitors?
a. Capacitance will be tripled.
b. Capacitance will decrease four times its original value.
c. Total Capacitance will increase by a value of 7.
d. Total capacitance will increase seven (7) times.

53. Which of the following properties does not affect the resistance of a resistor?
a. Temperature
b. Length
c. Cross-sectional Area
d. Mass
54. Calculate resistance if you have a circuit with a 6V cell and a current (I) value of 0.5 A.
 a. 12 Ω
b. 3Ω
c. 0.3 Ω
d. 0.12 Ω
55. Which of the following symbols represent a capacitor in a circuit diagram? a.

b.

c.

d.

56. Calculate the total resistance of the circuit as shown below.

a. 0.67 Ω
b. 6.0 Ω
c. 1.0 Ω
d. 3.0Ω
57. In the equation, E = mc2, c refers to the universal constant for the speed of light in
vacuum with a value of _________. a. 3.0 x 107 m/s
b. 2.9979 x 109 m/s
c. 2.9979 x 108 m/s
d. 2.0 x 108 m/s
58. If the half-life of a certain isotope is 3 years, what fraction of a sample of that isotope
will remain after 12 years? a. 1/6
b. 1/10
c. 1/16
d. 1/8