Ent Exam Ism

Scanned by CamScanner
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
View Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
Active Answered Skiped
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
Question (1/21)
A 1 -year-child with anotia (absence of Pinna) on right side is brought by the parents to ENT clinic
with concern of hearing loss on right side. What is the best device in such a case, if hearing loss is
confirmed?
Options
Cochlear implant immediately
Cochlear implant at 6 years
BAHA immediately
BAHA at 6 years of age
Ideal time for treatment of hearing loss for language development is:
Options
6 months
1 year
2 years
3 years
Bone anchored hearing aid is composed of all of the following except:
Options
Titanium implant
Receiver
External abutment
Sound processor
Following
Prev implantation of cochlear implant, activation of the device is done after:
Skip
Options
Next
1 week
1 day
2 weeks
3-4 weeks
All of the following investigations are done before implanting cochlear implant except:
Options
CT
MRI
Pure tone audiometry
X-ray
Cochlear implant, which is true:
Options
Not contraindicated in cochlear malformation
Contraindicated in children < 5 years of age
Indicated in mild-moderate hearing loss
Port is inserted through oval window
Site for placing an auditory brainstem implant:
Options
Lateral ventricle
Fourth ventricle
Round window
Scala tympani
Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for rehabilitation of a patient,
who has bilateral profound deafness following surgery for bilateral acoustic schwannoma:
Options
Bilateral high powered digital hearing aid
Bilateral cochlear implant
Unilateral cochlear implant
Brainstem implant
A child aged 3 years, presented with severe sensorineural deafness was prescribed hearing aids,
but showed no improvement. What is the next line of management:
Options
Fenestration surgery
Stapes mobilisation
Cochlear implant
Conservative
A 10-year-old boy Rajan is having sensorineural deafness, not benefited by hearing aids. Next best
management is:
Options
Cochlear implant
Stapes fixation
Stapedectomy
Fenestration
In cochlear implants electrodes are most commonly placed at:

Options
Oval window
Round window
Horizontal semicircular canal
Cochlea
Cochlear implant is done in:
Options
Scala vestibuli
Scala tympani
Cochlear duct
Endolymphatic duct
Which of the following statement regarding cochlear implant is true:
Options
Cochlear malformation is not a Cl to its use
Contraindicated in children < 5 yrs of age
Indicated in mild-moderate hearing loss
Approached through oval window
Cochlear implant is done if the following is intact:
Options
Outer hair cell
Inner hair cell
Spiral ganglion cell
Auditory nerve
Which intervention is best in patients operated for bilateral acoustic neuroma for hearing
rehabilitation:
Options
Brainstem hearing implant
Bilateral cochlear implant
Unilateral cochlear implant
High power hearing aid
True about BAHA:
Options
Useful in canal atresia and microtia
Useful in bilateral severe SNHL
Useful after surgery in neurofibromatosis 2 for acoustic neuroma
It can bypass cochlea
Father of neuro-otology is:
Options
William F House
Julius Lempert
John Shea
Hayes Martin
All are true about cochlear implant except:
Options
Minimum age is 1 year
PTA of 70 dB or more
Switch on is done after 3 weeks
MRI has no role in preop assessment
A two year old child was planned for brainstem implant. All are indications of brainstem implant
except:
Options
B/L neurofibromatosis
Absent auditory nerves
Absent cochlea
Mondini deformity
Which of the following part of cochlear implant is implanted during surgery:
Options
Receiver stimulator
Transmitting coil
Microphone
Speech processor
What is placed during surgery for cochlear implant:
Options
Microphone
Speech processor
Transmitting coil
Receiver stimulator
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
Question (1/19)
Acoustic schwannoma most common site is:
Options
CP angle
Fossa of Rosenmuller
Retropharyngeal space
None of the above
IOC for acoustic neuroma is:
Options
HRCT
PET scan
Gadolinium enhanced MRI
CSF examination
Most common cerebellopontine angle tumour is:
Options
Acoustic neuroma
Cholesteastoma
Meningioma
All of the above
Schwannoma involves the:
Options
Prev
SkipVestibular part of VIIIth nerve
NextCochlear part of VIIIth nerve
Vagus nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
Acoustic neuroma commonly arise from:
Options
Superior vestibular nerve
Inferior vestibular nerve
Cochlear nerve
Facial nerve
In acoustic neuroma cranial nerve to be involved earliest is:
Options
5
7
10
9
The earliest symptom of acoustic nerve tumor is:
Options
Sensorineuran hearing loss
Tinnitus
Vertigo
Otorrhea
Earliest sign seen in Acoustic neuroma is:
Options
Facial weakness
Unilateral deafness
Reduced corneal reflex
Cerebellar signs
Acoustic neuroma causes:
Options
Cochlear deafness
Retrocochlear deafness
Conductive deafness
Any of the above
Hitzelberger's sign is seen in:
Options
Vestibular schwannoma
Mastoiditis
Bells palsy
Cholesteatoma
In acoustic neuroma all are seen except:
Options
Loss of corneal reflex
Tinnitus
Facial palsy
Diplopia
In a patient with acoustic neuroma all are seen except:
Options
Facial nerve may be involved unilateral deafness
Reduced corneal reflex
Cerebellar signs
Acute episode of vertigo
Earliest ocular finding in acoustic neuroma:
Options
Diplopia
Ptosis
Loss of corneal sensation
Papilloedema
Vestibular neuroma not correct:
Options
Nystagmus
High frequency sensorineural deafness
Absence of caloric response
Normal corneal reflex
True about Acoustic neuroma:
Options
Malignant tumor
Arises form vestibular nerve
Upper pole displaces IX, X, XI nerves
Lower pole displaces trigeminal cranial nerve
Progressive loss of hearing, tinnitus and ataxia are commonly seen in a case of:
Options
Otitis media
Cerebral glioma
Acoustic neuroma
Ependymoma
Acoustic neuroma of 1 cm diameter, the investigation of choice:
Options
CT scan
MRI scan
Plain X-ray skull
Air encephalography
A patient is suspected to have vestibular schwannoma the investigation of choice for its diagnosis
is:
Options
Contrast enhanced CT scan
Gadolinium enhanced MRI
SPECT
PET scan
A 70-year-old male presents with loss of sensation in external auditory meatus (Hitselberger sign
positive). The likely diagnosis is:
Options
Vestibular Schwannoma
Mastoiditis
Bell's palsy
Cholesteatoma
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
Question (1/21)
Impedance matching occurs due to:
Options
Difference of surface are of tympanic membrane and foot plate
Semicircular canal fluid
Utricle and saccule
None of the above
Primary receptor cells of hearing:
Options
Supporting cell
Tectorial membrane
Tunnel of corti
Hair cells
Otolith organs are concerned with function of:
Options
Hearing
Rotatory nystagmus
Linear acceleration
Angular acceleration
Appreciation of sound occurs in:
Options
Prev
SkipOrgan of Corti
NextBasilar membrane
Cochlear nuclei
Transverse temporal gyrus
Trapezoid body is associated with:
Options
Auditory pathway
Visual pathway
Extrapyramidal system
Pyramidal system
Best discrimination of pitch occurs at ___ frequency:
Options
100-400 Hz
100- 1000 Hz
1000-4000 Hz
20-20000 Hz
Threshold of hearing in a young normal adult is:
Options
0 dB
10 dB
20 dB
30 dB
All of the following are true for organ of Corti except:
Options
Hensen cell
Hensen node
Deiters cell
Pillar cell
The centre of stapedial reflex is:
Options
Superior olivary complex
Medial geniculate body
Superior colliculus
Lateral lemniscus
Stapedial reflex is mediated by:
Options
V and VII nerves
V and VIII nerves
VII and VI nerves
VIl and VIII nerves
Perilymph contains:
Options
Na+
K+
Mg++
Cl-
Endolymph in the inner ear:
Options
Is a filtrate of blood serum
Is secreted by stria vascularis
Is secreted by basilar membrane
Is secreted by hair cells
All of the following are concerned with auditory pathway except:
Options
Trapezoid body
Medial geniculate body
Genu of internal capsule
Lateral lemniscus
Higher auditory center determine:
Options
Sound frequency
Loudness
Speech discrimination
Sound localization
Bones of middle ear are responsible for which of the following?
Options
Amplification of sound intensity
Reduction of sound intensity
Protecting the inner ear
Reduction of impedance to sound transmission
Semicircular canals are stimulated by:
Options
Gravity
Linear acceleration
Rotation
Sound
Horizontal semicircular canal responds to:
Options
Horizontal acceleration
Rotational acceleration
Gravity
Anteroposterior acceleration
Angular movements are sensed by:
Options
Cochlea
Saccule
Utricle
Semicircular canals
All are correctly matched except:
Options
Otolith-Made up of uric acid crystals
Position of otolith-Changes with head position
Otoliths-Stretch receptors
Otolith organs-Stimulated by gravity and linear acceleration
Singular nerve is a:
Options
Superior vestibular nerve supplying posterior semicircular canal
Interior vestibular nerve supplying posterior semicircular canal
Superior vestibular nerve supplying anterior semicircular canal
Interior vestibular nerve supplying anterior semicircular canal
Endocochlear potential is:
Options
+45 mv
-45mv
+ 60 mv
+85 mv
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
Question (1/23)
The sensor neural hearing loss in Meniere's disease is characterized by:
Options
Low frequency hearing loss initially
High frequency hearing loss initially
Both high and low frequencies affected simultaneously
No hearing loss at all
Tulio phenomenon is seen in all except:
Options
Meniere's disease
Superior canal dehiscence
Otosclerosis
Perilymph fistula
Chromosome responsible for hereditary Meniere's disease is:
Options
6
9
11
14
Diagnostic test for Meniere's disease:
Options
Prev
SkipBERA
NextPTA
Electrocochleography
CT
Which of the following is not a typical feature of Meniere's disease?

Options
Sensorineural deafness
Pulsatile tinnitus
Vertigo
Fluctuating deafness
Meniere's disease is characterized by all except:
Options
Diplopia
Tinnitus
Vertigo
Fullness of pressure in ear
All are manifestations of Meniere's disease except:
Options
Tinnitus
Vertigo
Loss of consciousness
Meniere's disease is manifested by all of the symptoms except:
Options
Tinnitus
Vertigo
Deafness
Otorrhea
Meniere's disease is characterized by:
Options
Conductive hearing loss and tinnitus
Vertigo, ear discharge, tinnitus and headache
Vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss and headache
Vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss
All are true about Meniere's disease except:
Options
Triad of recurrent vertigo, fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss, and tinnitus are found
Treatment consists of use of thiazide
Drop attack occurs
Onset only after > 50 years
Meniere's disease is:
Options
Perilymphatic hydrops
Endolymphatic hydrops
Otospongiosis
Coalescent mastoiditis
True about Endolymphatic hydrops:
Options
B/L Condition
Females more common
3rd to 4th decades
Conductive deafness
Glycerol test is done in:
Options
Otosclerosis
Lateral sinus thrombosis
Meniere's disease
None of the above
In a classical case of Meniere's disease which one of the following statements is true?
Options
Carhart's Notch is a characteristic feature in puretone audiogram
Schwartz's sign is usually present in the tympanic membrane
Low frequency sensorineural deafness is often seen in pure tone audiogram
Decompression fallopian canal is the treatment of choice
Recruitment phenomenon is seen in:
Options
Otosclerosis
Meniere's disease
Acoustic nerve schwannoma
Otitis media with effusion
Vasodilators in Meniere's disease are useful because they:
Options
Dilate lymphatic vessels
Decrease endolymph secretion
Increase endolymph reabsorption
Are of no use
Endolymphatic decompression is done in:
Options
Tinnitus
Acoustic neuroma
Meniere's disease
Endolymphatic fistula
Destructive procedure for Meniere's disease is:
Options
Fick's procedure
Cody tack procedure
Vestibular neurectomy
Labyrinthectomy
Differential diagnosis of Meniere's disease are all except:
Options
Acoustic neuroma
CNS disease
Labyrinthitis
Suppurative otitis media
A 55-year-old female presents with tinnitus, dizziness and n/o progressive deafness. Which of the
following is not a D/D?
Options
Acoustic neuroma
Meningitis
Histiocytosis 'X'
Initial mechanism of action of intra-tympanic gentamicin microwick catheter inserted into inner
ear in treatment of Meniere's disease:
Options
Damage outer hair cell
Binds to hair cell Na+-K+ ATPase channel
Acts on mechanoreceptors of outer hair cell
Bind to Mg2+ channel
Which of the following is true about Meniere's disease?
Options
Surgery is the mainstay of treatment
Electrocochleography is the gold standard investigation for diagnosis
Semont's maneuver is used for treatment
In initial stages, inverted 'V' shaped audiogram is seen
Auditory neurotherapy is an effective modality of treatment for which of the following

abnormalities of hearing?
Options
Meniere's disease
Malignant Otitis Externa
CSOM
Otosclerosis
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/35)
Question
30. 30
31. 31
Malignant otitis externa is:
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.Malignancy
34 of external ear
35.Caused
35 by hemophilus
Blackish mass of Aspergillus
Pseudomonas infection in diabetic patients
IOC for early diagnosis of malignant otitis externa:
Options
Tc-99 scan
Ga-67 scan
In 111 labelled leukocyte scan
MRI
IOC to detect the intracranial complications of malignant otitis externa:
Options
CT scan
MRI
Biopsy
Tc-99 scan
IOC for resolution of infection in malignant otitis externa:
Options
Prev
SkipCT scan
NextMRI
Ga-67 scan
Tc-99 scan
IOC to detect the extent of bone erosion in malignant otitis externa:
Options
CT scan
MRI
Ga-67 scan
Tc-99 scan
Diffuse otitis externa is also known as:
Options
Glue ear
Malignant otitis externa
Telephonist's ear
ASOM
Regarding necrotizing otitis externa all are true except:
Options
Caused by pseudomonas
Surgery never done
Facial nerve involved
Common in diabetics
Chondritis of aural cartilage is most commonly due to:
Options
Staphylococcus
Pseudomonas
Candida
Streptococcus
Otitis externa hemorragica is caused by:
Options
Influenza
Proteus
Staph
Streptococcus
Congenital displacement of the pinna is:
Options
Coloboma lobuli
Melotia
Scroll ear
Cleft pinna
Blue drum is seen in:
Options
Tympanosclerosis
Secretory otitis media
Otosclerosis
Myringitis bullosa
Keratosis obturans is:
Options
Foreign body in external auditory canal
Desquamated epithelial cell + cholesterol
Cholesterol crystals surrounded by calcium
Wax in ext. auditory canal
External otitis is also known as:
Options
Glue ear
Telephonist's ear
ASOM
Fungus causing otomycosis most commonly is:
Options
Aspergillus fumigatus
Candida
Mucor
Penicillin
Myringitis bullosa is caused by:
Options
Virion
Fungus
Bacteria
Virus
In Ramsay Hunt syndrome, all nerves are involved except
Options
5
7
8
9
Hemorrhagic external otitis media is caused by:

Options
Influenza
Proteus
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
A patient has come with furuncle of ear. What is the commonest method of treatment?
Options
Ear pack with 10% ichthammol in glycerin wick
Antibiotic and rest
Antibiotic and drainage
Analgesic
Malignant otitis externa is caused by:
Options
S. aureus
S. albus
P. aeruginosa
E. coli
True statement about malignant otitis externa is:
Options
Not painful
Common in diabetics and old age
Caused by streptococcus
All of the above
Malignant otitis externa is:
Options
Malignancy of external ear
Caused by hemophilus influenzae
Blackish mass of aspergillus
Pseudomonas infection in diabetic patient
All of the following are true about malignant otitis externa except:
Options
ESR is used for follow-up after treatment
Granulation tissues are seen on superior wall of the external auditory canal
Severe hearing loss is the chief presenting complaint
Pseudomonas is the most common cause
An elderly diabetic present with painful ear discharge and edema of the external auditory canal
with facia palsy, not responding to antibiotics. An increased uptake on technetium bone scan is
noted. The most probable diagnosis is:
Options
Malignant otitis external
Malignancy of the middle ear
Infective disease of the middle ear
Malignancy of nasopharynx with Eustachian tube obstruction
A 75-year-old diabetic patient presents with severe ear pain and granulation tissue at external
auditory canal with facial nerve involvement. The most likely diagnosis is:
Options
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Acute suppurative otitis media
Chronic suppurative otitis media
An old diabetic male presented with rapidly spreading infection of the external auditory canal
with involvement of the bone and presence of granulation tissue. The drug of choice for this
condition is:
Options
Ciprofloxacin
Penicillin
Second generation cephalosporin
Aminoglycosides
Which of the following is not a typical feature of malignant otitis externa?
Options
Caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Patients are usually old
Mitotic figures are high
Patient is immunocompromised
Facial nerve palsy is seen in:
Options
Seborrheic otitis externa
Otomycosis
Eczematous otitis externa
Keratosis obturans is:
Options
Foreign body in external auditory canal
Desquamated epithelial cell + cholesterol
Cholesterol crystals surrounded by calcium
Wax in external auditory canal
Chalky white tympanic membrane is seen in:

Options
ASOM
Otosclerosis
Tympanosclerosis
Cholesteatoma
A 60-year-old man presented with left sided ear discharge for 7 years with dull earache. O/eintact
tympanic membrane on both sides, mass is seen in the posterior canal wall on left side. Diagnosis
is?
Options
Keratosis obturans
CSOM
External otitis
Carcinoma of external auditory canal
Cauliflower ear is:
Options
Keloid
Perichondritis in Boxers
Squamous cell carcinoma
Anaplastic cell carcinoma
Not true about auricular hematoma:
Options
All case should receive antibiotic
Commonly seen in rugby player
Resolve spontaneously
None
Direction of water jet while doing syringing of ear should be:
Options
Anteroinferior
Posterosuperior
Anterosuperior
Posteroinferior
A newborn presents with bilateral microtia and external auditory canal atresia. Corrective
surgery is usually performed is:
Options
< 1 year of age
5-7 years of age
Puberty
Adulthood
Dysfunction of tympanic membrane is characterized by all except:

Options
Normal 'cone of light'
Retracted TM
Non prominent umbo
Prominent malleolar folds
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/31)
Question
30. 30
31. 31
Conductive hearing loss occurs in:
Options
Travelling in an aeroplane
Trauma to labyrinth
Stapes abnormal at oval window
High noise
All are causes of sensorineural deafness except:
Options
Old age
Cochlear otosclerosis
Loud sound
Rupture of tympanic membrane
Resonance of tympanic membrane is:
Options
800 Hz
800-1600 Hz
3000 Hz
None of the above
TM and ear ossicles efficiently transmit sound of frequency:
Options
Prev
Skip3000-5000 Hz
Next300-500 Hz
500-2000 Hz
5000-20000 Hz
Virus causing acute SNHL:
Options
Corona virus
Mumps virus
Adenovirus
Rotavirus
Threshold for moderate hearing loss is:
Options
26-40 dB
0-25 dB
41 -55 dB
More than 91 dB
A person has frequent difficulty in understanding normal speech. The approximate hearing loss in
the person is:
Options
26-40 dB
41 -55 dB
56-70 dB
71 -90 dB
All of the following are true regarding retrocochlear SNHL except:
Options
Recruitment present
Tone decay significant
Speech discrimination is highly impaired
Rollover phenomenon present
Impairment of hearing due to noise starts at:
Options
1000 Hz
2000 Hz
3000 Hz
4000 Hz
Delayed speech in a 5-year-old child with normal motor and adaptive development, is most likely
due to:
Options
Mental retardation
Cerebral palsy
Kernicterus
Deafness
According to WHO definition of hearing loss, what is the value to clarify as profound hearing loss:
Options
61 -71 dB
>81 dB
> 91 dB
> 101 dB
According to WHO classification, for severe degree of impairment of hearing is at:
Options
26-40 dB
41 -60 dB
61 -80 dB
> 81 dB
At which level sound is painful:
Options
100-120 dB
80-85 dB
60-65 dB
20-25 dB
Ear sensitive to:
Options
500-3500 Hz
1000-3000 Hz
300-5000 Hz
5000-8000 Hz
After rupture of tympanic membrane the hearing loss is:
Options
10-40 dB
5-15 dB
20 dB
300 dB
Which of the following conditions causes maximum hearing loss?
Options
Ossicular disruption with intact tympanic membrane
Disruption of malleus and incus with intact tympanic membrane
Partial fixation of the stapes footplate
Ottitis media with effusion
In a patient audiogram shows hearing loss of 54 dB. Most probably it is due to:
Options
Ossicular disruption with intact TM
Ossicular disruption with TM perforation
Complete fixation of stapes footplate
Commonest cause of hearing loss in children is:
Options
CSOM
ASOM
Acoustic - neuroma
Chronic secretory otitis media
Commonest cause of hearing loss in children is:
Options
Microtia with atresia of external auditory meatus
Trauma
Bony canal
Commonest cause of deafness is:
Options
Trauma
Wax
Acute mastoiditis
Meniere's disease
All of the following can cause hearing loss except:
Options
Measles
Mumps
Chickenpox
Rubella
Hyperacusis is defined is:
Options
Hearing of only loud sound
Normal sounds heard as loud and painful
Completely deaf
Ability to hear in noisy surroundings
Conductive hearing loss is seen in all of the following except:

Options
Otosclerosis
Suppurative otitis media
A patient has bilateral conductive deafness, tinnitus with positive family history. The diagnosis is:
Options
Otospongiosis
Tympanosclerosis
Meniere's disease
B/L otitis media
A 55-year-old female presents with tinnitus, dizziness and h/o progressive deafness. Differential
diagnosis includes all except:
Options
Acoustic neuroma
Meningioma
Histiocytosis-X
All are ototoxic drugs except:
Options
Streptomycin
Quinine
Diuretics
Propranolol
Post head injury, the patient had conductive deafness and on examination, tympanic membrane
was normal and mobile. Likely diagnosis is:
Options
Distortion of ossicular chain
Hemotympanum
EAC sclerosis
Otosclerosis
All are causes of sensorineural deafness except:
Options
Old age
Loud sound
Rupture of tympanic membrane
Fluctuating recurring variable sensorineural deafness is seen in:

Options
Serous otitis media
Hebimotympanum
Perilabyrinthine fistula
Labirinthine concussion
Prolonged exposure to noise levels greater than the following can impair hearing permanently:
Options
40 decibels
85 decibels
100 decibels
140 decibels
A steel factory worker is suffering from noise induced hearing loss. Which of the following is most
likely to be affected?
Options
Inner hair cells
Macula
Crista ampullaris
Saccule
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/31)
Question
30. 30
31. 31 sign seen in:
Schwartz
Options
Glomus jugulare
Otosclerosis
Meniere's diseases
Acoustic neuroma
A pure tone audiogram with a dip at 2000 Hz is characteristic of:
Options
Ototoxicity
Noise induced hearing loss
Otosclerosis
Presbyacusis
In otosclerosis the tympanogram is:
Options
Low compliance
High compliance
Normal compliance
Any of the above
Wide habenula perforata can lead to problem during which surgery?
Options
Prev
SkipMastoidectomy
NextFESS
Stapedectomy
Transsphenoidal pituitary surgery
First stapedectomy was done by:
Options
Julius Lempert
Dr Hayes Marten
John Shea
William House
Bezold triad is seen in:
Options
Meniere disease
Otosclerosis
Glomus tumor
Nasal polyp
Otospongiosis is inherited as:
Options
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X-linked dominant
X-linked recessive
Common age for otosclerosis is:
Options
5-10 years
10-20 years
20-30 years
30-45 years
Most common site of otosclerosis is:
Options
Round window
Oval window
Utricle
Ossicles
The part most commonly involved in otosclerosis is:
Options
Oval window
Round window
Tympanic membranes
Malleus
Most common site for the initiation of otosclerosis is:
Options
Footplate of stapes
Margins of stapes
Fissula ante fenestram
Fissula postfenestram
Otospongiosis causes:
Options
U/L conductive deafness
B/L conductive deafness
U/L sensorineural deafness
B/L sensori neural deafness
Paracusis willisii is feature of:
Options
Tympanosclerosis
Otosclerosis
Meniere's disease
Presbycusis
A patient hears better in noise. The diagnosis is:
Options
Hyperacusis
Hypoacusis
Presbycusis
Paracusis
Otosclerosis tinnitus is due to:
Options
Increased vascularity in lesion
Conductive deafness
All of the above
In majority of the cases with otosclerosis the tympanic membrane is:
Options
Normal
Flamingo-pink
Blue
Yellow
Schwartz sign seen in:

Options
Glomus Jugulare
Otosclerosis
Meniere's diseases
Acoustic neuroma
Gelle's test is for:
Options
Otosclerosis
NIHL
None of these
Feature in otosclerosis includes:
Options
Sounds not heard in noisy environment
Normal tympanum
More common in males
Malleus is most commonly effected
Carhart's notch in audiogram is deepest frequency of:
Options
0.5 kHz
2 kHz
4 kHz
8 kHz
Carhart's notch in audiometery is seen in:
Options
Ocular discontinuity
Haemotympanum
Otomycosis
Otosclerosis
In the pure tone audiogram shown below, identify the likely cause:
Options
Meniere's disease
Otosclerosis
Ototoxicity
Acoustic dip occurs at:
Options
2000 Hz
4000 Hz
500 Hz
1500 Hz
Lady has B/L hearing loss since 4 years which worsened during pregnancy. Type of impedance
audiometry graph will be:
Options
Ad
As
B
C
Characteristic feature of otosclerosis are all except:
Options
Conductive deafness
Positive Rinne's test
Paracusis willisii
Mobile ear drum
A 30-year old woman with family history of hearing loss from her mother's side developed
hearing problem during pregnancy. Hearing loss is bilateral, slowly progressive, Pure tone
audiometry bone conduction hearing loss with an apparent bone conduction hearing loss at 2000
Hz. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options
Otosclerosis
Acoustic neuroma
Sigmoid sinus thrombosis
Medication which may prevent rapid progress of cochlear otosclerosis is:
Options
Steroids
Antibiotics
Fluorides
Vitamins
All are true statements regarding use of sodium fluoride in the treatment of otosclerosis except:
Options
It inhibits osteoblastic activity
Used in active phase of otosclerosis when Schwartz sign is positive
Has proteolytic activity (bone enzymes)
Contraindicated in chronic nephritis
A 31 -year-old female patient complains of bilateral impairment of hearing for the 5 year. On
examination, tympanic membrane is normal and audiogram shows a bilateral conductive
deafness. Impedance audiometry shows As type of curve and acoustic reflexes are absent. All
constitute part of treatment, except:
Options
Hearing aid
Stapedectomy
Sodium fluoride
Gentamicin
In otosclerosis during stapes surgery prosthesis used is:
Options
Teflon piston
Grommet
Total ossiculear replacement
All of the above
Which of the following is not resected in stapedotomy?
Options
Anterior crus of stapes
Posterior crus of stapes
Stapedial ligament
Lenticular process of incus
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/114)
Question
30. 30
31. of
Part 31pinna which lies behind the external auditory meatus is:
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.Scaphoid
34 fossa
35.Concha
35
36. 36
Cymba concha
37. 37
38.Tragus
38
39. 39
Part
40. of
40pinna lying between ascending crest of helix and tragus is called as:
41. 41
Options
42. 42
43.Scaphoid
43 fossa
44.Concha
44
45.Incisura
45 terminalis
46.Darwin's
46 tubercle
47. 47
48. 48
Major part of the skin of pinna is supplied by:
49. 49
Options
50. 50
51.Auriculotemporal
51 nerve
52.Auricular
52 branch of vagus
53. 53
54.Lesser
54 occipital nerve
55.Greater
55 auricular nerve
56. 56
Arnolds
57. 57 nerve is a branch of:
58. 58
Options
Prev
59. 59
60.Vagus
Skip 60
Glossopharyngeal
Next 61
61.
62.Auditory
62
63.Facial
63
64. 64
65. 65 the area marked 'X':
Identify
66. 66
67. 67
68. 68
69. 69
70. 70
71. 71
72. 72
73. 73
74. 74
75. 75
76. 76
77. 77
78. 78
79. 79
80. 80
81. 81
82. 82
83. 83
84. 84
Options
85. 85
Cymba concha
86. 86
87.Incisura
87 terminalis
88.Scaphoid
88 fossa
89.Ascending
89 crux of helix
90. 90
Which
91. 91of the following statement is correct with respect to EAC of newborn?
92. 92
Options
93. 93
94.In94
newborn, cartilaginous part of EAC is absent
95.In95
newborn, bony part of EAC is absent
96.Both
96 bony and cartilaginous part are present but EAC is short
97. 97
98.Both
98 bony and cartilaginous part are present and EAC of newborn and adults are of same size
99. 99
All of the following are seen in bony part of EAC except:
100. 100
101. 101
Options
102. 102
Foramen of Huschke
103. 103
104.Fissure
104 of Santorini
105.Isthmus
105
106.Anterior
106 meatal recess
107. 107
The
108.cough
108 response caused while cleaning the ear canal is mediated by stimulation of:
109. 109
Options
110. 110
111.The
111V cranial nerve
112.In112
nervation of external ear canal by C1, C2
113. 113
The X cranial nerve
114. 114
Branches of the VII cranial nerve
True about tympanic membrane:
Options
Attached to oval window
Forms an angle of 55° with external auditory canal
Chorda tympani nerve passes through pars tensa
Cone of light forms on arteriosuperior quadrant
Korner's septum is seen in:
Options
Petrosquamous suture
Temporal squamous suture
Petromastoid suture
Frontozygomatic suture
Space between pars flaccida and neck of malleus is called as:
Options
Von Troeltsch anterior pouch
Facial recess
Sinus tympani
Prussak's space
Identify the space marked as 'X' in above figure:
Options
Epitympanum
Mesotympanum
Hypotympanum
Prussak's space
Space between pars tensa and anterior malleolar fold is called as:
Options
Von Troeltsch anterior pouch
Facial recess
Sinus tympani
Prussak's space
Portion of middle ear around the tympanic orifice of Eustachian tube is:
Options
Mesotympanum
Epitympanum
Hypotympanum
Protympanum
Stenvers view is used for:
Options
Mastoid air cells
Temporal bone
Paranasal sinuses
Tonsils
The site exit of chorda tympani from middle ear is called as:
Options
Glaserian fissure
Fissure of Santorini
Foramen of Huschke
Canal of Huguier
Scutum is:
Options
Bony part of outer attic wall
Bony part of inner attic wall
Cartilaginous part of outer attic wall
Cartilaginous part of inner attic wall
Which of the following is not a pneumatic bone?
Options
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
Maxillary
Mastoid
Length of Eustachian tube is:
Options
24 mm
36 mm
46 mm
26 mm
Patulous Eustachian tube is seen in:
Options
Pregnancy
Cleft lip
Down syndrome
Turner's syndrome
Eustachian tube is opened if pressure difference is more than:
Options
15 mm of Hg
30 mm of Hg
50 mm of Hg
90 mm of Hg
Schuller's view is for:
Options
Sphenoid sinus
Mastoid air cells
Round window
Carotid canal
Not included in bony labyrinth:
Options
Cochlea
Semicircular canal
Organ of Corti
Vestibule
The bony cochlea is a coiled tube making...turns around a bony pyramid called:
Options
2, 1/4 modiolus
2, 1/2 helicotrema
2, 3/4 modiolus
2, 3/4 helicotrema
Sense organ for hearing:
Options
Organ of Corti
Cristae
Macula
None
Where is electrode kept in cochlear implant?

Options
Round window
Oval window
Scala vestibuli
Scala tympani
Surgical landmark for endolymphatic sac during surgery is:
Options
Solid angle
Trautman triangle
Utelli's angle
Donaldson line
Cochlea endolymph has potential of:
Options
+ 80 mV
- 80 mV
+ 60 mV
-60 mV
The bony labyrinth has following except:
Options
Oral window
Round window
Endolymphatic sac
Cochlear aqueduct
Function of structure marked with 'X' is:
Options
Perilymph secretion
Endolymph secretion
Both perilymph and endolymph secretion
CSF secretion
Endolymph is present in:
Options
Scala media
Scala vestibulae
Scala tympani
Cochlear aqueduct
Pinna attains adult size by:
Options
6 hours after birth
8-9 years after birth
6-8 months after birth
2-4 years after birth
A new born presents with bilateral microtia and external auditory canal atresia. Corrective
surgery is usually performed at:
Options
< 1 year of age
5-7 years of age
Puberty
Adulthood
Identify the condition shown i n the figure:
Options
Bat ear
Microtia
Macrotia
Crotia
External auditory canal is formed by:

Options
1st branchial groove
1st visceral pouch
2nd branchial groove
2nd visceral pouch
Call Aural fistula is:
Options
1st branchial cleft anomaly
2nd branchial cleft anomaly
1stbranchial pouch anomaly
2nd branchial pouch anomaly
Which of the following is derived from otic placode?
Options
Mastoid
Tympanic antrum
Ear ossicles
Cochlea
Which of the following is a derivative of otic capsule?
Options
Membranous labyrinth
Perilymphatic labyrinth
Bony labyrinth
Ossicles
Identify the condition shown in the figure:
Options
Dermoid cyst of pinna
Keloid on pinna
Cauliflower ear
Preauricular sinus
Identify the ear instrument shown in figure:
Options
Ear speculum
Otoendoscope
Siegel speculum
Politzer bag
Ceruminous glands present in the ear are:
Options
Modified eccrine glands
Modified apocrine glands
Mucous gland
Modified holocrine glands
Nerve supply for external ear are all except:
Options
Greater occipital nerve
Greater auricular nerve
Auriculotemporal nerve
Lesser occipital nerve
All of the following nerves supply auricle and external meatus except:
Options
Trigeminal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Facial nerve
Vagus nerve
Which of the following nerves has no sensory supply to the auricle?
Options
Lesser occipital nerve
Greater auricular nerve
Auricular branch of vagus nerve
Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve
Sensory supply of external auditory meatus is by:
Options
Pterygomandibular ganglion
Geniculate ganglion
Facial nerve
Skin over pinna is fixed:
Options
Firmly on both sides
Loosely on medial side
Loosely on lateral side
Loosely on both side
Dehiscence of anterior wall of the external auditory canal cause infection in the parotid gland via:
Options
Fissure of Santorini
Notch of ramus
Petrous fissure
Retropharyngeal fissure
What is the color of the normal tympanic membrane?
Options
Pearly white
Gray
Yellow
Red
The most mobile part of the tympanic membrane:
Options
Central
Peripheral
Both
None of the above
Pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane is also called:

Options
Reissner's membrane
Shrapnell's membrane
Basilar membrane
Secondary tympanic membrane
Anterior wall of tympanic cavity contains:
Options
Promontory
Bony part of pharyngotympanic tube
Processus cochleariformis
Tensor tympani muscle
The distance between tympanic membrane and medial wall of middle ear at the level of center is:
Options
3 mm
4 mm
6 mm
2 mm
Distance of promontory from tympanic membrane:
Options
2 mm
5 mm
6 mm
7 mm
Narrowest part of middle ear is:
Options
Hypotympanum
Epitympanum
Attic
Mesotympanum
Surface area of tympanic membrane:
Options
55 mm2
70 mm2
80 mm2
90 mm2
The effective diameter of the tympanic membrane:
Options
25 mm2
30 mm2
40 mm2
45 mm2
Lever ratio of tympanic membrane is:
Options
1.4:1
1.3 : 1
18.2:1
1.5 : 1
"Cone of light" is due to:
Options
Malleolar fold
Handle of malleus
Anterior inferior quadrant
Stapes
In otoscopy, the most reliable sign is:
Options
Lateral process of malleus
Handle of malleus
Umbo
Cone of light
Nerve supply of the tympanic membrane is by:
Options
Auriculotemporal
Lesser occipital
Greater occipital
Parasympathetic ganglion
Which of the following is false about tympanic membrane?
Options
Cone of light is anteroinferior
Shrapnell's membrane is also known as pars flaccida
Healed perforation has three layers
Anterior malleolar fold is longer than posterior
Sensory nerve supply of middle ear cavity is provided by:
Options
Facial
Glossopharyngeal
Vagus
Trigeminal
In carcinoma base of tongue pain is referred to the ear through:
Options
Hypoglossal nerve
Vagus nerve
Lingual nerve
Which of the following pain is not referred to ear?
Options
Pharynx
Tongue
TM joint
Vestibule of nose
Stapedius is supplied by:
Options
Maxillary nerve
Facial nerve
Auditory nerve
Mandibular disease
Regarding stapedial reflex, which of the following is true?
Options
It helps to enhance the sound conduction in middle ear
It is a protective reflex against loud sounds
It helps i n masking the sound waves
It is unilateral reflex
Tensor tympani is supplied by:
Options
Anterior part of V nerve
Posterior part of V nerve
IX nerve
VII nerve
Nerve of the pterygoid canal is also known as:
Options
Arnold's nerve
Vidian nerve
Nerve of Kuntz
Criminal nerve of Grassi
All are components of epitympanum except:
Options
Body of incus
Head of malleus
Chorda tympani
Footplate of stapes
Prussak's space is situated in:
Options
Epitympanum
Mesotympanum
Hypotympanum
Ear canal
Tegmen seperates middle ear from the middle cranial fossa containing temporal lobe of brain by:
Options
Medical wall of middle ear
Lateral wall of middle ear
Roof of middle ear
Anterior wall of middle ear
Whlie doing posterior tympanotomy through the facial recess there are chances of injury to the
following except:
Options
Facial nerve horizontal part
Chorda tympani
Dislodgement of short process of incus from fossa incudis
Vertical descending part of facial nerve
All are true about facial recess except:
Options
Suprapyramical recess
Medially it is bounded by chordatympani and laterally by facial nerve
Important in cochlear implant
Middle ear can be a pproached through it
Floor of middle ear cavity is in relation with:
Options
Internal carotid artery
Bulb of the internal jugular vein
Sigmoid sinus
Round window
Promontory seen in the middle ear is:
Options
Jugular bulge
Basal turn of cochlea
Semicircular canal
Head of incus
Process cochleariformis attaches to:
Options
Tendon of tensor tympani
Basal turns of helix
Handle of malleus
Lncus
Macewen's triangle is the landmark for:
Options
Maxillary sinus
Mastoid antrum
Frontal sinus
None
The suprameatal triangle overlies:
Options
Mastoid antrum
Mastoid air cells
Antrum
Facial nerve
Anatomical landmark indicating position of mastoid antrum:
Options
Suprameatal triangle
Spine of Henle
Tip of the mastoid process
None
All of the following form the boundary of Macewen's triangle except:
Options
Temporalline
Posterosuperior segment of bony external auditory canal
Promontory
Tangent drawn to the external auditory meatus
What is the type of joint between the ossicles of ear?

Options
Fibrous joint
Primary cartilaginous
Secondary cartilaginous
Synovial joint
Eustachian tube opens into middle ear cavity at:
Options
Anterior wall
Medial wall
Lateral wall
Posterior wall
The length of Eustachian tube is:
Options
16 mm
24 mm
36 mm
40 mm
Which of the following causes opening of Eustachian tube?
Options
Salpingopharyngeus
Levator veli palatine
Tensor veli palatini
None of the above
True about Eustachian tube:
Options
Length is 36 mm in adults and 1.6 to 3 mm in children
Higher elastin content in adults
Ventilatory function of ear better developed in infants
More horizontal in adults
Inner ear is present in which bone:
Options
Parietal bone
Petrous part of temporal bone
Occipital bone
Petrous part of squamous bone
Inner ear bony labyrinth is:
Options
Strongest bone in the body
Cancellous bone
Cartilaginous bone
Membranous bone
Cochlear aqueduct:
Options
Connects internal ear with subarachnoid space
Connects cochlea with vestibule
Contains endolymph
Same as S media
Infection of CNS spread in inner ear through:
Options
Cochlear aqueduct
Endolymphatic sac
Vestibular aqueduct
Hyrtl fissure
Which of the following is not a route of spread of infection from middle ear?
Options
Directly through openings such as rou n d window and oval window
By bony invasion
Osteothrombotic route
Lymphatics
Crus commune is a part of:
Options
Cochlea
Middle ear
Semicircular canal
Vestibule
Stapes footplate covers:
Options
Round window
Oval window
Inferior sinus tympani
Pyramid
Organ of Corti is situated in:
Options
Scala media
Sinus tympani
Sinus vestibuli
Saccule
Movement of stapes causes vibration in:
Options
Scala media
Scala tympani
Scala vestibuli
Semicircular canal
Lateral wall of middle ear formed by:
Options
Tegmen tympani
Mastoid process
Promontory
Tympanic membrane
Spine of Henle is a:
Options
Cortical bone
Cancellous bone
Sclerotic bone
Long bone with Haversian system
Labyrinthine artery is a branch of:
Options
Basilar artery
Posterior cerebellar artery
Anteroinferior cerebellar artery
Endolymphatic duct connects which structure:
Options
Scala media to subdural space
Scala vestibule to aqueduct of cochlea
Scala tympani to aqueduct of cochlea
Scala tympani to subdural space
Site where endolymph is seen:
Options
Scala vestibuli
Scala media
Helicotrema
Organ of Corti
Endolymph in inner ear:
Options
Is a filtrate of blood serum
Is secreted by striae vascularis
Is secreted by basilar membrane
Is secreted by hair cells
The function of stria vascularis is:
Options
To produce perilymph
To absorb perilymph
To maintain electric milieu of endolymph
To maintain electric milieu of perilymph
Pinna develops from:
Options
1st pharyngeal arch
1st and 3rd pharyngeal arch
1st and 2nd pharyngeal arch
2nd pharyngeal arch
The following structure represents all the 3 components of the embryonic disc:
Options
Tympanic membrane
Retina
Meninges
None of the above
Vertical crest at the internal auditory canal is:
Options
Bill's bar
Ponticulus
Cog
Falciform crest
Eustachian tube develops from:
Options
2nd and 3rd pharyngeal pouch
1st pharyngeal pouch
4th pharyngeal pouch
3rd pharyngeal pouch
All of the following are of adult size at birth except?
Options
Mastoid antrum
Earossicles
Tympanic cavity
Maxillary antrum
Which of the following attain adult size before birth?
Options
Ear ossicles
Maxilla
Mastoid
Parietal bone
True regarding "Preauricular sinus" is:
Options
Improper fusion of auricular tubercles
Persistent opening of first branchial arch
Autosomal recessive pattern
None
Stapes develop from:
Options
1st arch
2nd arch
3rd arch
4th arch
Fetus starts hearing by what time in intrauterine life:
Options
14 weeks
20 weeks
32 weeks
33 weeks
The commonest genetic defect of inner ear causing deafness is:
Options
Michel aplasia
Mondini aplasia
Scheibe dysplasia
Alexander aplasia
Feature(s) of Scheibe's syndrome is/are:

Options
Semicircular canal fistula
Abnormality in bony labyrinth
Dysplasia of cochlea
Middle ear anaomaly
Not correctly matched pair is:
Options
Utricle and sacule -Semicircular canal
Oval window -Footplate of staps
Aditus ad antrum -Macewen's triangle
Scala vestibule -Reissner's membrane
Which is t h e most common type o f congenital ossicular dysfunction?
Options
Isolated stapes defect
Stapes defect with fixation of footplate and lenticular process involvement
Defective lenticular process of incus
None of the above
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
Question (1/16)
IOC for Glomus tumor:
Options
CT scan
Catecholamine levels
MRI
Biopsy
A 42-year-female presents with U/L progressive conductive hearing loss with pulsatile tinnitus
and blood stained discharge. She also complains of headache, sweating and palpitations. All of the
following investigations are warranted in this case except:
Options
Otoscopy
Serum catecholamines
Urine VMA
Biopsy
FISCH classification is used for:
Options
Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
Nasopharyngeal ca
Vestibular schwannoma
Glomus tumor
M/C
Prevbenign tumor of the external auditory canal is:
Skip
Options
Next
Glomus tumor
Exostosis
Osteoma
Hemangioma
M/C benign tumor of middle ear is:
Options
Glomus tumor
Hemangioma
Exostosis
Osteoma
The usual location of Glomus jugular tumor is:
Options
Epitympanum
Hypotympanum
Mastoidal cell
Promontory
Earliest symptom of glomus tumor is:
Options
Pulsatile tinnitus
Deafness
Headache
Vertigo
Pulsatile tinnitus in ear is due to:
Options
Malignant otitis media
Osteoma
Mastoid reservoirs
Glomus jugulare tumor
All are true about glomus jugulare tumors except:
Options
Common in female
Causes sensory neural deafness
It is a disease of infancy
It invades labyrinth, petrous pyramid and mastoid
Brown sign is seen in:
Options
Glomus tumor
Meniere's desease
Acoustic neuroma
Otoscleorsis
Phelp's sign is seen in:
Options
Glomus jugulare
Vesti bular Schawannoma
Maniere's disease
Neurofibromatosis
The glomus tumor invasion of jugular bulb is diagnosed by?
Options
Carotid angiography
Vertebralvenousvenography
X-ray
Jugular venography
A patient presents with bleeding from the ear pain tinnitus and progressive deafness. On
examination, there is a red swelling behind the intact tympanic membrane which blanches on
pressure with pneumatic speculum. Management includes all except:
Options
Radiotherapy
Surgery
Interferons
Preoperative embolization
Which is the most pulsatile tumor found i n external auditary meatus which bleeds on touch?
Options
Squamous cell ca of pinna
Basal cell ca
Adenoma
Glomus tumor
Mass in ear, on touch bleeding heavily, causes:
Options
Glomus Jugulare
Ca mastoid
Acoustic neuroma
Angiofibroma
Most common bony tumour of middle ear is:
Options
Adenocarcinoma
Glomous tumor
Acoustic neuroma
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
Question (1/14)
Citelli's angle is:
Options
Sold angle
CP angle
Sinodural angle
Part of MC Evans triangle
Which of the following is a feature of tympanic membrane perforation (printed esophageal

rupture in paper)?
Options
Tinnitus
Vertigo
Conductive deafness
Fullness in ear
Use of Siegel's speculum during examination of the ear provides all except:
Options
Magnification
Assessment of movement of the tympanic membrane
Removal of foreign body from the ear
As applicator for the powdered antibiotic of ear
The focal length of the mirror used in head lamp:

Prev
Options
Skip
85 mm
Next
150 mm
250 mm
400 mm
Focal length of head mirror used in ENT-OPD:
Options
9 inch
10 inch (25 cm)
11 inch
12 inch
Diameter of head mirror in ENT is:

Options
20 cm
22 cm
10 cm
26 cm
Impedance denotes:
Options
Site of perforation
Disease of cochlea
Disease of ossicles
Higher function disorder
During normal conversation sound heard at 1 meter distance is:
Options
80 dB
60 dB
90 dB
120 d B
Prolonged exposure to noise levels greater than the following can impair hearing permanently:
Options
40 decibels
85 decibels
100 decibels
140 decibels
A man Rajan, age 70 years, presents with tinnitus. Most probable diagnosis is:
Options
Acoustic neuroma
ASOM
Labyrinthitis
Acoustic trauma
Gustatory sweating and flushing (Frey's syndrome) follows damage to the:
Options
Trigeminal nerve
Facial nerve
A patient has bilateral conductive deafness, tinnitus with positive family history. The diagnosis:
Options
Otospongiosis
Tympanosclerosis
Menitere's disease
Bilateral otitis media
Presbycusis is:
Options
Loss of accommodation power
Hearing loss due to aging
Congenital deafness
Second primary tumor of head and neck is most commonly seen in malignancy of:
Options
Oral cavity
Larynx
Hypopharynx
Paranasal sinuses
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/44)
Question
30. 30
31. 31of Wrisberg is:
Nerve
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.Sensory
34 part of facial nerve
35.Motor
35 part of facial nerve
36. 36
Branch of trigeminal nerve
37. 37
38.Branch
38 of vestibular nerve
39. 39
The
40.longest
part of facial nerve is:
40
41. 41
Options
42. 42
43.Intracranial
43
44.Intratemporal
44
Extracranial
Labyrinthine
Facial nerve lies in....... part of Internal Acoustic meatus:
Options
Anterosuperior part
Posterosuperior part
Anteroinferior part
Posteroinferior part
Most common segment of facial nerve involved in Bell's Palsy:
Options
Prev
SkipMeatal segment
NextLabyrinthine segment
Horizontal segment
Vertical segment
Most common site for congenital dehiscence of fallopian canal:
Options
Meatal segment
Labyrinthine segment
Horizontal segment
Vertical segment
Greater superficial petrosal nerve arises from:
Options
Meatal segment
Horizontal segment
Vertical segment
Processus cochleariformis is related to which segment of facial nerve:
Options
Meatal segment
Horizontal segment
Vertical segment
A patient following injury presents with normal Schirmer test but stapedial reflex is absent on
right side. The approximate site of injury of facial nerve is:
Options
Intrameatal part
Horizontal part
Vertical part
At stylomastoid foramen
IOC to detect temporal bone fracture is:
Options
MRI
HRCT
X-ray
PET scan
All of the following nerve grafts can be used in facial nerve injury except:
Options
Greater auricular N
Sural N
Lateral cutaneous N of thigh
Occipital N
First branch of the facial nerve is:
Options
Greater petrosal nerve
Lesser petrosal nerve
Chorda-tympani nerve
Nerve to the stapedius
All the following muscles are innervated by the facial nerve except:
Options
Occipito-frontalis
Anterior belly of digastric
Risorius
Procerus
Lacrimation is affected when facial nerve injury is at:
Options
Geniculate ganglion
In semicirculalr canal
At sphenopalatine gangila
At foramen spinosum
A patient presents with hyperacusis, loss of lacrimation and loss of taste sensation in the anterior
2/3rd of the tongue. Edema extends u p to which level of facial nerve:
Options
Vertical part
Vertical part beyond nerve to stapedius
Vertical part and beyond nerve to stapedius
Proximal to geniculate ganglion
Dryness of eye is caused by injury to facial nerve at:
Options
Chorda tympani
Cerebellopontine angle
Tympanic canal
Geniculate ganglion
Hyperacusis in Bell's palsy is due to the paralysis of the following muscle:
Options
Tensor tympani
Levator palatii
Tensor veli palatii
Stapedius
Intratemporal lesion of chorda tympani nerve results in:

Options
Loss of taste sensations from papilla of tongue
Loss of taste sensations from anterior 2/3rd of tongue
Loss of taste sensations from posterior 1/3rd of tongue
Loss of secretomotor fibers to the submandibular salivary gland
Dryness of mouth with facial nerve injury - site of lesion is at:
Options
Chorda tympani nerve
Cerebellopontine angle
Geniculate ganglion
Concussion of Tympanic membrane
Facial nerve palsy at sternomastoid canal can cause:
Options
Loss of corneal reflex at site of lesion
Loss of corneal taste sensation anterior 2/3 of ipsilateral tongue
Loss of lacrimation at site of lesion
Hyperacusis
Right upper motor neuron lesion of facial nerve causes:
Options
Loss of taste sensation in right anterior part tongue
Loss of corneal reflex right side
Loss of wrinkling of forehead left side
Paralysis of lower facial muscles left side
Which one of the following statements is correct in facial paralysis?
Options
The nasolabial fold is obliterated on the same side
The nasolabial fold is obliterated on the o pposite side
The face deviates to the same side
The face deviates to the opposite side
Which test can detect facial nerve palsy occurring due to lesion at the outlet of stylomastoid:
Options
Deviation of angle of mouth towards opposite side
Loss of taste sensation in anterior 2/3 of tongue
Loss of sensation over right cheek
Deviation of tongue towards opposite side
Crocodile tears is due to:
Options
Cross innervation of facial nerve fibers
Cross innervation of trigeminal nerve fibers
Improper regeneration of trigeminal nerve
Improper regeneration of facial nerve
Iatrogenic traumatic facial nerve palsy is most commonly caused during:
Options
Myringoplasty
Stapedectomy
Mastoidectomy
Ossiculoplasty
Which fracture of the petrous bone will cause facial nerve palsy:
Options
Longitudinal fractures
Transverse fractures
Mastoid
Facial nerve injury is always complete
Facial nerve palsy is seen in this condition:
Options
Seborrheic otitis externa
Otomycosis
Cerebellar abscess
Which part of the facial nerve is commonly exposed through natural dehiscence in the fallopian
canal?
Options
Horizontal part
Upper half of the vertical part
Lower half of the vertical part
Labyrimthine part
Most common cause of facial palsy:
Options
Post operative
Trauma
Ramsay Hunt syndrome
Bell's palsy
Most common cause of lower motor neuron facial palsy is:
Options
Cholesteatoma
Cerebello-pontine angle tumours
Bell's palsy
Postoperative (ear surgery)
Bell's palsy is paralysis of:
Options
UMNV nerve
UMN VII nerve
LMN V nerve
LMN VII nerve
True regarding Bell's palsy is all except
Options
Steroids are used
U/L facial weakness
Role of herpes simplex in etiology
Immediate surgical decompression is required
Which of the following is not true about Bell's palsy?
Options
Acute onset
Always recurrent
Spontaneous remission
Increased predisposition in Diabetes Mellitus
Which one of the following statements truly represent Bell's paralysis:
Options
Hemiparesis and contralateral facial nerve paralysis
Combined paralysis of the facial, trigeminal, and abducens nerves
Idiopathic ipsilateral paralysis of the facial nerve
Facial nerve paralysis with a dry eye
All of the following are seen in Bell's palsy except:
Options
Ipsilateral-facial palsy
Ipsilateral-loss of taste sensation
Hyperacusis
Ipsilateral ptosis
Bell's palsy patient comes on day 3. Treatment given would be:
Options
Intratympanic steroids
Oral steroids + vitamin B
Oral steroids + Acyclovir
Vitamin B Vasodilator
A case of Bell's palsy on steroids, shows no improvement after two weeks. Next step in
manangement is:
Options
Vasodilators and ACTH
Physiotherapy
↓ Steroids dose
Electrophysiological nerve testing
Evidence based therapy of Bell's palsy include(s):
Options
Facial nerve massage
Facial nerve stimulation
Steroid
Acyclovir
Treatment of choice for mastoid fracture with facial nerve palsy is:
Options
Nerve decompression
High dose of steroid
Sling operation
Repair the fracture and wait and watch
A patient presents with facial nerve palsy following head trauma with fracture of the mastoid:
best intervention here is:
Options
Immediate decompression
Wait and watch
Facial sling
Steroids
A man presents with vesicles over external acoustic meatus with ipsilateral facial palsy of LMN
type. The cause is:
Options
Herpes zoster
Herpes simpex virus-I
Varicella
None of the above
Ramsay Hunt syndrome is caused by:
Options
H. simplex
H. zoster
Influenza
Adenovirus
Ramsay Hunt syndrome all are true except:
Options
VII Nerve is involved
Facial muscle are involved
Facial vesicle is seen
Herpes zoster is etiologic agent
All of the following are true for Ramsay Hunt syndrome, except:
Options
It has viral etiology
Involves VII th nerve
May involve VIII th nerve
Results of spontaneous recovery are excellent
True about Ramsay Hunt syndrome except:
Options
Involves VII nerve
May involves VIII nerve
Surgical removal gives excellent prognosis
Causative agent is virus
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/120)
Question
30. 30
31. 31
Myringotomy is:
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.Surgical
34 opening in Eustachian tube
35.Surgical
35 opening in tympanic membrane
36. 36
Surgical opening in semicircular canal
37. 37
38.None
38
39. 39
For
40.ASOM
40 Myringotomy is done in which quadrant:
41. 41
Options
42. 42
43.Antero-inferior
43
44.Antero-superior
44
45.Postero-superior
45
46.Postero-inferior
46
47. 47
48. 48
Light house sign is seen in ASOM in which stage:
49. 49
Options
50. 50
51.Stage
51 of suppuration
52.Stage
52 of hyperemia
53. 53
54.Stage
54 of resolution
55.Stage
55 of pre-suppuration
56. 56
M/c
57.organism
57 of AOM:
58. 58
Options
Prev
59. 59
60.Pneumococcus
Skip 60
Staphylococcus
Next 61
61.
62.Streptococcus
62
63.H.63
influenzae
64. 64
65. standard
Gold 65 investigation for otitis media with effusion:
66. 66
Options
67. 67
68.Pneumatic
68 otoscopy
69.Tympanometry
69
70. 70
Audiometry
71. 71
72.None
72
73. 73
M/c
74.cause
74 of conductive deafness in children is:
75. 75
Options
76. 76
77.Secretory
77 otitis media
78.Otosclerosis
78
79.Congenital
79 stapes fixation
80.Trauma
80
81. 81
82. 82
Otitic barotrauma results due to:
83. 83
Options
84. 84
85.Ascent
85 in air
86.Descent
86 in air
87. 87
88.Linear
acceleration
88
89.Sudden
89 acceleration
90. 90
Eustachian
91. 91 tube gets blocked if pressure difference is more than:
92. 92
Options
93. 93
94.1594mm Hg
95.3095mm Hg
96.5096mm Hg
97.9097mm Hg
98. 98
99. 99
Witt-Mack's theory of cholesteatoma formation is related to:
100. 100
Options
101. 101
102.Squamous
102 metaplasia
103.Basal
103 cell hyperplasia
104. 104
105.Invagination
105 of pars flaccida
106.None
106 of the above
107. 107
Which
108. 108is true of cholesteatoma?
109. 109
Options
110. 110
111.Physiological
111
112.Erodes
112 bone
113.Benign
113 neoplasm
114.Contains
114 cholesterol
115. 115
Cholesteatoma
116. 116 is commonly caused by:
117. 117
Options
118. 118
119.Atticoantral
119 perforation
120.Tubotympanic
120 disease
Central perforation of tympanic membrane
Meniere's disease
TOC of perforation in pars flaccida of tympanic membrane with cholesteatoma is:
Options
Myringoplasty
Modified radical mastoidectomy
Antibiotics
Radical mastoidectomy
The following are seen in mastoiditis except:
Options
Light house sign
Mastoid reservoir sign
Mastoid tenderness
Griesinger's sign
M/c extracranial complication related to ASOM:
Options
Mastoiditis
Petrositis
Labyrinth
Facial N palsy
M/c abscess following mastoiditis:
Options
Bezold
Citelli
LUC
Subperiosteal
Mastoid infection which erodes through the outer cortex results in:
Options
Subperiosteal abscess
Epidural abscess
Perichondritis
Tobey-Ayer test is positive in:

Options
Petrositis
Cerebral abscess
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Appearance of fever with rigor in a person with otitis media should make you suspect:
Options
Cerebellar abscess
Extradural abscess
Apex petrositis
M/c intracranial complication of CSOM is:
Options
Meningitis
Brain abscess
Subdural abscess
Myringotomy is contraindicated in case of:
Options
Aero otitis media
Glomus tumor
Bulging ear drum
Atelectatic ear
Tympanoplasty is mainly used for:
Options
Otosclerosis
CSOM
ASOM
None
What is tympanoplasty:
Options
Eradication of middle ear disease with reconstruction of tympanic membrane and ossicles
Eradication of disease from internal ear
Eradication of middle ear disease with repair of tympanic membrane only
Eradication of middle ear disease with repair of ossicles only
Austin's classification for ossicular chain defects depends on:
Options
Malleus head and stapes footplate
Malleus handle and stapes suprastructure
Malleus head and stapes suprastructure
Malleus head and stapes head
A 3 years old child presents with fever and ear ache. After a course of antibiotic, his condition is
still not relieved. What is the next step in management?
Options
Myringotomy with antibiotics
Myringotomy with grommet insertion
Oral antibiotics and decongestants
Anti-allergic and decongestants only
Myringostapediopexy is classified as which type of tympanoplasty:
Options
Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4
Temporal fascia is used in tympanoplasty operations because:
Options
It is closer to the ear
It is easy to remove
It has low metabolic rate
Has some consistency as that of tympanic membrane
Tympanoplasty is most commonly performed for tympanic membrane perforation greater than:
Options
10-20% of the size of tympanic membrane
TOC of CSOM with vertigo and facial nerve palsy is:
Options
Antibiotics and labyrinthine sedative
Myringoplasty
Immediate mastoid exploration
Labyrinthectomy
Throat infection causes Ear infection through:
Options
Blood spread
Eustachian tube
Nasocranial spread
Simultaneous infection
Commonest cause of acute otitis media in children is:
Options
H. influenzae
S. pneumoniae
S. aureus
Pseudomonas
Commonest causative organism for ASOM in 2 years child is:
Options
Pneumococcus
H. influenzae
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
True statement about ASOM is:
Options
Most frequently it resolves without sequelae
Commonly follows painful parotitis
Radical mastoidectomy is required for treatment
Most common organism is pseudomonas
Cart Wheel sign is seen in:
Options
ASOM
AOM
OME
CSOM
Acute suppurative otitis media is treated using all except:
Options
Erythromycin
Penicillin
Streptomycin
Cephalosporin
A child presents with barotrauma pain. There is no inflammation of middle ear, management is:
Options
Antibiotics
Paracetamol
Suppurative
Grommet tube insertion
Pulsatile otorrhea seen in:
Options
Glomus tumour
CSF otorrhea
ASOM
Fistula
Most common perforation site in tympanic membrane in ASOM:
Options
Antero-inferior
Postero-inferior
Antero-superior
Postero-superior
Light house sign is seen in:
Options
ASOM
CSOM
Menieres disease
Cholesteatoma
A boy with ASOM undergoing treatment with penicillin therapy for 7 days now presents with
subsidence of pain and persistence of deafness, diagnosis is:
Options
Ototoxicity
Secretory otitis media
Adhesive otiti media
Tympanosclerosis
Cause of U/L secretory otitis media in an adult is:
Options
CSOM
Mastoiditis
Foreign body of external ear
Acute non suppurative otitis media in adults is due to:
Options
Allergic rhinitis
URTI
Trauma
Malignancy
Glue ear:
Options
Is painful
Is painless
Radical mastoidectomy is required
NaF is useful
Bluish tympanic membrane is seen in:
Options
Early ASOM
Glue ear
Cholesteatoma
Cholesterol granuloma
Treatment of choice for glue ear is:
Options
Myringotomy with cold knife
Myringotomy with diode laser
Myringotomy with ventilation tube insertion
Conservative treatment with analgesics and antibiotics
A 6-year-old child with recurrent URTI with mouth breathing and failure to grow with high
arched palate and impaired hearing is:
Options
Tonsillectomy
Grommet insertion
Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion
Myringotomy is done after how long of medical management:
Options
1 month
3 months
6 months
1 year
In serous otitis media which one of the following statements is true?
Options
Sensorineural deafness occurs as a complication in 80% of the cases
Intracranial spread of the infection complicates the clinical courses
Tympanostomy tubes are usually required for treatment
Gram-positive organisms are grown routinely in culture in the aspirate
Medical treatments is NOT effective in which type of suppurative media:

Options
Tuberculous OM
Secretory OM
Acute suppurative OM
Chronic suppurative OM
Which of the following is characteristic of T. B otitis media:
Options
Marginal perforation
Attic perforation
Large central perforation
Multiple perforation
Tuberculous otitis media is characterized by all except:
Options
Multiple perforations
Pale granulations
Pain
Thin odorless fluid
A child presents with barotrauma pain without middle ear inflammation. Management is:
Options
Antibiotics
Myringotomy
Supportive
Grommet
To do myringotomy in ASOM, the incision is given in posteroinferior region, this is the preferred
region for all the following reasons except.
Options
It is easily accessible
Damage to ossicular chain does not occur
Damage to chorda tympani is avoided
It is the very vascular region
Ossicle M/c involved in CSOM:
Options
Stapes
Long process of incus
Head of malleus
Handle of malleus
True about safe CSOM:
Options
Etiology is multiple bacteria
Oral antibiotics are not affective
Ear drops have no role
Ottic hydrocephalus is a known complication
Treatment of choice in central safe perforation is:
Options
Modified mastoidectomy
Tympanoplasty
Myringoplasty
Conservative management
What is true in case of perforation of pars flaccida?
Options
CSOM is a rare cause
Associated with cholesteatoma
Usually due to trauma
All of the above
Perforation of tympanic membrane with destruction of tympanic annulus is called:
Options
Attic
Marginal
Subtotal
Total
Cholesteatoma is commonly caused by:
Options
Attico-antral perforation
Tubotympanic disease
Central perforation of tympanic membrane
Meniere's disease
Cholesteatoma is usually present at:
Options
Anterior quadrant of tympanic membrane
Posteroinferior quadrant of tympanic membrane
Attic region
Central part
Cholesteatoma occurs in:
Options
CSOM with central perforation
Masked mastoiditis
Acute necrotizing otitis media
Cholesteatoma is seen in:
Options
ASOM
CSOM
Secretory ottitis media
Osteosclerosis
Most accepted theory for the formation of secondary cholesteatoma:
Options
Congenital
Squamous metaplasia
Ingrowth of squamous epithelium
Retraction pocket
Prior H/O ear surgery Scanty, foul smelling, painless discharge from the ear is characteristic
feature of which of the following lesions:
Options
ASOM
Cholesteatoma
Central perforation
Otitis externa
True about cholesteatoma is/are:
Options
It is a benign tumor
Metastasizes to lymph node
Contains cholesterol
Erodes the bone
Cholesteatoma commonly perforates:
Options
Lat. Semicircular canal
Sup. semicircular canal
Promontory
Oval window
The treatment of choice for atticoantral variety of chronic suppurative otitis media is:
Options
Mastoidectomy
Medical management
Underlay myringoplasty
Insertion of ventilation tube
Treatment of choice for Perforation in pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane with
cholesteatoma is:
Options
Myringoplasty
MRM
Antibiotics
The posterosuperior retraction pocket, if allowed to progress, will lead to:
Options
Sensori-neural hearing loss
Secondary cholesteatoma
Tympanosclerosis
Tertiary cholesteatoma
Most difficult site to remove cholesteatoma in sinus tympani is related with:
Options
Anterior facial ridge
Posterior facial ridge
Epitympanum
Hypotympanum
A child presents with ear infection with foul smelling discharge. On further exploration a small
perforation is found in the pars flaccida of the tympanic membrance. Most appropriate next step
in the management would be:
Options
Topical antibiotics and decongestants for 4 weeks
IV antibiotics and follow-up after a month
Tympanoplasty
Tympano-mastoid exploration
A 5-year-old boy has been diagnosed to have posterior superior retraction pocket. All would
constitute part of the management except:
Options
Audiometry
Mastoid exploration
Tympanoplasty
Myringoplasty
The most common complication of chronic suppurative otitis media is:
Options
Meningitis
Intracerebral abscess
Cholesteatoma
Conductive deafness
Commonest intracranial complication of CSOM is:
Options
Mastoiditis
Brain absess
Meningitis
M/c nerve to get damaged in CSOM is:
Options
III
IV
VI
VII
Most common complication of acute otitis media in children:
Options
Deafness
Mastoiditis
Cholesteatoma
Facial nerve palsy
Most common extracranial complication of ASOM is:
Options
Facial nerve paralysis
Mastoiditis
Brain abscess
Mastoid reservoir phenomenon is positive in:
Options
CSOM
Petrositis
Coalescent otitis media
Mastoiditis
Acute mastoiditis is characterized by all except:
Options
Clouding of air cells
Obliteration of retroau ricular sulcus
Deafness
Outward and downward deviation of the pinna
Essential radiological feature of acute mastoiditis is:
Options
Temporal bone pneumatisation
Clouding of air cells of mastoid
Rarefaction and tuning of petrous bone
Thickening of temporal bone
Mastoid tip is involved in:
Options
Bezold abscess
Luc abscess
Parapharyngeal abscess
Bezolds abscess is located in:
Options
Submandibular region
Sternomastoid muscle
Digastric triangle
Infratemporal region
Bezold abscess is seen in:
Options
Deep part of bony meatus
Preauricular area
Postauricular area
Upper part of neck
The diagnosis in a patient with 6th nerve palsy, retroorbital pain and persistent ear discharge is:
Options
Gradenigo's syndrome
Sjogren's syndrome
Frey's syndrome
Rendu Osler Weber disease
All are true for Gradenigo's syndrome except:
Options
It is associated with jugular vein tenderness
It is caused by an abscess in the petrous a pex
It leads to involvement of the Cranial nerves V and VI.
It is characterized by retro-orbital pain
Gradenigo's syndrome characterized by all except:
Options
Retroorbital pain
Profuse discharge from the ear
VII nerve palsy
Diplopia
Treatment of cholesteatoma with facial paresis in child is:
Options
Antibiotics to dry ear and then mastoidectomy
Immediate mastoidectomy
Observation
Only antibiotic ear drops
Treatment of choice for CSOM with vertigo and facial nerve palsy is:
Options
Myringoplasty
Labyrinthectomy
Most potential route for transmission of Meningitis from CNS to Inner ear is:
Options
Cochlear Aqueduct
Endolymphatic sac
Vestibular Aqueduct
Hyrtle fissure
Commonest cause of brain abscess:
Options
CSOM
Pyogenic meningitis
Trauma
Chr. sinusitis
Patient is having scanty, foul smelling discharge from middle ear, develops fever, headache and
neck rigidity. CT of the temporal lobe shows a localized ring enhancing lesion, which of the
following is least likely cause of this condition:
Options
S. aureus
Pseudomonas
S. Pneumoniae
H. influenzae
Lateral sinus thrombosis is associated with all except:
Options
Greisinger sign
Gradenigo sign
Lily-Crowe sign
Tobey Ayer test
Griesinger's sign is seen in:
Options
Meningitis
Brain abscess
Cerebellar abscess
Tobey-Ayer's test is/are used for:
Options
CSF rhinorrhea
Sigmoid sinus thrombosis
To check patency of Eustachian tube
A child was treated for H.influenza meningitis for 6 month. Most important investigation to be
done before discharging the patient is:
Options
MRI
Brainstem evoked auditory response
Growth screening test
Psychotherapy
A patient of CSOM has cholesteatoma and presents vertigo with. Treatment of choice would be:
Options
Myringoplasty
Labyrinthectomy
Most common nerve to be damaged in CSOM is:
Options
III
VII
IV
VI
A 7-year-old child presenting with acute otitis media, does not respond to ampicillin. Examination
reveals full and bulging tympanic membrane, the treatment of choice is:
Options
Systemic steroid
Ciprofloxacin
Myringotomy
Cortical mastoidectomy
A 3-year-old child presents with fever and earache. On examination there is congested tympanic
membrane with slight bulge. The treatment of choice is:
Options
Myringotomy with penicillin
Myringotomy with grommet
Only antibiotics
Wait and watch
Procedure for serous otitis media is:
Options
Tympanoplasty
Mastoidectomy
Myringotomy
Medical treatment
For ASOM, myringotomy is done in which quadrant:
Options
Antero-inferior
Antero-superior
Postero-superior
Postero-inferior
Ideal site for myringotomy and grommet insertion:
Options
Anterior superior quadrant
Anterior inferior quadrant
Posterior superior
Posterior inferior
Myringoplasty is plastic repair of:
Options
Middle ear
Internal ear
Eustachian tube
Tympanic membrane
Which of the following is true regarding myringoplasty:
Options
In underlay graft is placed medial to the annulus
In underlay graft is placed lateral to the malleus
In overlay g raft is placed lateral to the malleus
In overlay g raft is placed medial to the annulus
Columella effect is seen in:
Options
Tympanoplasty
Septoplasty
Tracheostomy
None of the above
Surgery on ear drum is done using:
Options
Operative microscope
Laser
Direct vision
Blindly
Which focal length in the objective piece of microscope is commonly used for ear surgery:
Options
100 mm
250 mm
450 mm
950 mm
Schwartz operation is also called as:
Options
Cortical mastoidectomy
Radial mastoidectomy
Fenestration operation
Simple mastoidectomy is done in:
Options
Acute mastoiditis
Cholesteatoma
Localized chronic otitis media
Cortical mastoidectomy is indicated in:
Options
Cholesteatoma without complication
CSOM with brain abscess
Perforation in Pars flaccida
Radical mastoidectomy is done for:
Options
ASOM
CSOM
Atticoantral cholesteatoma
Acute mastoiditis
All of the following steps are done in radical mastoidectomy except:
Options
Lowering of facial ridge
Removal of middle ear mucosa and muscles
Removal of all ossicles of Eustachian tube plate
Maintenance of patency of Eustachian tube
Radical mastoidectomy includes all except:
Options
Closure of the auditory tube
Ossicles removed
Cochlea removed
Exteriorisation of mastoid
Nerve damaged in radical mastoidectomy is:
Options
Facial
Cochlear
Vestibular
All of the above
Modified redical mastoidectomy is indicated in all except:
Options
Safe SCOM
Unsafe CSOM with atticoantral disease
Limited mastoid pathology
Not self retaining hand held retractor(s) is/are:

Options
Mollison's mastoid retractor
Jansen's mastoid retractor
Lempert's endaural retractor
Davis retractor
A 30-yead-old male is having Attic cholesteatoma of left ear with lateral sinus thrombophlebitis.
Which of the following will be the operation of choice?
Options
Intact canal will be the operation of choice
Simple mastoidectomy with Tympanoplasty
Canal wall down mastoidectomy
Mastodidectomy with cavity obliteration
All of the following techniques are used to control bleeding from bone during mastoid surgery
except:
Options
Cutting drill over the bleeding area
Diamond drill over the bleeding area
Bipolar cautery over the bleeding area
Bone wax
Communication between middle ear and Eustachian tube is obliterated in which surgery:
Options
Tympanoplasty
Schwartz operation
Mr. Ramu presented with persistent ear pain and discharge, retro-orbital pain, modified radical
mastoidectomy was done to him. Patient comes back with persistent discharge, what is your
diagnosis?
Options
Diffuse serous labyrinthitis
Purulent labyrinthitis
Petrositis
Latent mastoiditis
An intraoperative photograph of cortical mastoidectomy. Which of the following is the lateral

semicircular canal?
Options
A
B
C
D
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/39)
Question
30. 30
31. 31
True about central nystagmus is:
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.Duration
34 not limited
35.Direction
35 fixed
36. 36
Latency present
37. 37
38.Suppressed
38 by visual fixation
39. 39
True about peripheral nystagmus is:
Options
Duration not limited
Direction fixed
No latency
Vertigo not present
BPPV of posterior semicircular canal produces:
Options
Horizontal nystagmus
Pure vertical nystagmus
Pendular nystagmus
Torsional vertical nystagmus
Dunda's grant apparatus is used in:
Options
Prev
SkipCold air caloric test
NextFitzgerald Hallpike's test
Bithermal caloric test
Rinne test
M/C type of nystagmus seen in central vestibular lesions:
Options
Pure vertical
Pure horizontal
Pure torsional
Vertical and torsional
Which of the following is being done in the figure?
Options
Determining Eustachian tube patency
Testing vestibulo-ocular reflex by injecting cold water
Politzerization
Syringe of ear in patient with CSOM and meningitis
Fistula test stimulates:
Options
Lateral SCC
Posterior SCC
Anterior SCC
Cochlea
False positive fistula test is associated with:
Options
Perilymph fistula
Malignant sclerosis
Congenital syphilis
Cholesteatoma
Identify the procedure being done in the figure:

Options
Determining Eustachian tube patency
Syringing
Politzerization
Fitzgerald test
Identify the instrument shown in the figure:
Options
Otoendoscope
Siegel speculum
Politzer bag
Otoscope
Which of the following statement regarding eustachian tube dysfunction is wrong?
Options
Undistorted light image on the anterior quadrant of tympanic membrane
No movement of the tympanic membrane on Siegel's method
Malleus is easily visible
Lusterless tympanic membrane
Common cause of Eustachian diseases is due:
Options
Adenoids
Siegle's
Otitis media
Pharyngitis
All are tests to check Eustachian tube patency except:
Options
Valsalva maneuver
Fistula's test
Frenzel's maneuver
Tonybee's maneuver
Eustachian tube function is best assessed by:
Options
Politzer test
VEMP
Rhinomanometry
Tympanometry
Positive Romberg test with eyes closed detects defect in:
Options
Proprioceptive pathway
Cerebellum
Spinothalamic tract
Peripheral nerve
Site of lesion in unilateral past pointing nystagmus is:
Options
Posterior semicircular canal
Superior semicircular canal
Flocculonodular node
Cerebellar hemisphere
Positional vertigo is:
Options
Lateral
Superior
Inferior
Posterior
What is the treatment for Benign Positional vertigo?
Options
Vestibular exercises
Vestibular sedatives
Antihistamines
Diuretics
On otological examination all of the following will have positive fistula test except:
Options
Dead ear
Labyrinthine fistula
Hypermobile stapes footplate
Following fenestration surgery
A positive fistula test during Siegelization indicates:
Options
Ossicular discontinuity
Paralabyrinthitis due to erosion of lateral semicircular canal
CSF leak through the ear
Fixation of stapes bone
False positive fistula test is associated with:
Options
Perilymph fistula
Malignant sclerosis
Congenital syphilis
Cholesteatoma
Hall pike test is done for:
Options
Vestibular function
Corneal test
Cochlear function
Audiometry
Fitzgerald's caloric test uses temperature at:
Options
30°C and 44°C
34°C and 41°C
33°C and 21°C
37°C and 41°C
At what angle is Hall pike thermal caloric test done:
Options
15°
30°
45°
60°
Cold caloric test stimulates:
Options
Cochlea
Lateral semicircular canal
All of the above
In 'cold caloric stimulation test1 , the cold water, induces movement of the eye ball in the
following direction:
Options
Towards the opposite side
Towards the same side
Upwards
Downwards
In Fitzgerald Hallpike differential caloric test, cold-water irrigation at 30 degrees centigrade in the
left ear in a normal person will include:
Options
Nystagmus to the right side
Nystagmus to the left side
Direction changing nystagmus
Positional nystagmus
Which of the following is not true of caloric test?
Options
Induction of nystagmus by thermal stimulation
Normally, cold water induces nystatmus to opposite side and warm water to same side.
In canal paresis the test is inconclusive
None of the above
Caloric test has:
Options
Slow component only
Fast component only
Slow + Fast component
Fast component occasionally
Spontaneous vertical nystagmus is seen in the lesion of:
Options
Midbrain
Labyrinth
Vestibule
Cochlea
Third window effect is seen in:
Options
Perforated tympanum
Dehiscent superior semicircular canal
Round window
Oval window
Vertigo is defined as:
Options
Subjective sense of imbalance
Objective sense of imbalance
Both of the above
Round movement
Calorie test based on thermal stimulation stimulates of which part of the semi circular canals:
Options
Posterior
Anterior
Lateral
All of the above
Nystagmus is associated with all except:
Options
Cerebellar disease
Vestibular disease
Cochlear disease
Arnold Chiari malformation
Spontaneous pure vertical nystagmus is seen in the lesion of:
Options
Medulla
Labyrinth
Middle ear
Cochlea
Destruction of right labyrinth causes nystagmus to:
Options
Right side
Left side
Pendular nystagmus
No nystagmus
Positional vertigo is due to stimulation of:
Options
Lateral semicircular canal
Superior semicircular canal
Inferior semicircular canal
In cold caloric stimulation test, the cold water, induces movement of the eye ball in the following
direction:
Options
Towards the opposite side
Towards the same side
Upwards
Downwards
Epley's maneuver is done in:
Options
Positional vertigo
Otosclerosis
ASOM
CSOM
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/61)
Question
30. 30
31. 31
Frequency of tuning fork mostly used in most commonly ENT is:
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.256
34 Hz
35.512
35 Hz
36. 36
1024 Hz
37. 37
38.2048
38 Hz
39. 39
Positive
40. 40 Rinne test indicates:
41. 41
Options
42. 42
43.AC
43> BC
44.BC
44> AC
45.BC
45= AC
46.None
46 of the above
47. 47
A 48. 48
negative Rinne's test indicates the presence of:
49. 49
Options
50. 50
51.Profound
51 SNHL
52.Conductive
52 hearing loss
53. 53
54.Recruitment
54
55.None
55
56. 56
In57.
conductive
57 deafness, Weber's test is lateralized to:
58. 58
Options
Prev
59. 59
60.Deaf
Skip 60 ear
61.Normal
Next 61 ear
Both ears
Any of the above
In a patient, Rinne test positive in both ears, Weber's lateralizes to the right. This implies:
Options
Right sensorineural deafness
Left sensorineural deafness
Right conductive deafness
Left conductive deafness
In Bing test on alternately compressing and relaxing the tragus the sound increases and
decreases. This indicates:
Options
Adhesive otitis media
Otosclerosis
CSOM
Advantages of PTA ever tuning force tests are all except:
Options
It confirms the type of hearing loss
It confirms the degree of hearing loss
It can tell response to the treatment
It can be used in neonates
U-shaped curve in audiometry is seen in:
Options
Congenital SNHL
Otosclerosis
Meniere's disease
A down sloping audiogram is characteristic of:
Options
Meniere's disease
Otosclerosis
Presbycusis
Congenital hearing loss
Impedance audiometry is for pathology of:
Options
External ear
Middle ear
Mastoid air cell
Inner cell
In a patient of tympanic membrane perforation Tympanometry shows curve:
Options
Flat
As curve
Ad curve
C type
Stapedial reflex is absent in:
Options
VI nerve lesion
X nerve lesion
VIII nerve lesion
V nerve lesion
In facial nerve palsy of right side, Stapedial reflex will be absent on:
Options
Right side
Left side
Both sides
Not absent
In monaural diplacusis the lesion is in the:
Options
Cochlea
Auditory nerve
Brainstem
Cerebrum
40 dB compared to 20 dB is:
Options
Double
10 times
100 times
1000 times
All are tunning fork test except:
Options
Schwaback test
Grant's test
Rinne's test
Weber's test
Tuning fork of 512 FPS is used to test the hearing because it is:
Options
Better heard
Better felt
Produces over tones
Not heard
Gelle's test is done in:
Options
Senile deafness
Traumatic deafness
Osteosclerosis
Serous otitis media
Which one of the following test is used to detect malingering?
Options
Stenger's test
Bunge's test
Weber's test
Rinne's test
Rinne's test is negative in:
Options
Acoustic neuroma
Tympanosclerosis
Meniere's disease
Rinne's test negative is seen in:
Options
Presbycusis
CSOM
Labyrinthitis
Meniere's disease
Rinne's test is negative if minimum deafness is:
Options
15-20 dB
25-30 dB
35-40 dB
15-50 dB
Positive Rinne test is seen in:
Options
Otosclerosis
CSOM
Wax impacted ear
Presbycusis
Rinne's test is positive in:
Options
Chronic suppurative otitis media
Normal individual
Wax in ear
Otomycosis
Weber test is best elicited by:
Options
Placing the tuning fork on the mastoid process and comparing the bone conduction of the
patient with that of the exam iner
Placing the tunning fork on the vertex of the skull and determining the effect of gently
occluding the auditory canal on the threshold of low freq uencies
Placing the tuning fork on the mastoid process and comparing the b o n e conduction in the
patient
Placing the tuning fork on the forehead and asking him to report in which ear he hears it
better.
In the right middle ear pathology, Weber's test will be:
Options
Normal
Centralized
Lateralized to right side
Lateralized to left side
Weber's test in conductive deafness:
Options
Sound louder in normal ear
Sound louder in diseased ear
Heard with equal intensity in both ears
Inconclusive test
What should be the least hearing loss for Weber test to lateralize?
Options
5 dB
10 dB
15 dB
20 dB
A 38-year-old gentleman reports of decreased hearing in the right ear for the last two years. On
testing with a 512Hz tuning fork the Rinne's test without masking is negative on the right ear and
positive on the left ear. With the Weber's test the tone is perceived as louder in the left ear. The
most likely patient has:
Options
Right conductive hearing loss
Right sensorineural hearing loss
Left sensorineural hearing loss
Left conductive hearing loss
A middle-aged women presented with right sided hearing loss, Rinne's test shows positive result
on left side and negative result on right side Weber's test showed lateralization to left side,
diagnosis is:
Options
Right sided conductive deafness
Right sided sensorineural deafness
Left sided sensorineural deafness
Left sided conductive deafness
One m a n had 30 dB deafness in left ear with Weber test showing more sound in left ear and BC
(Bone conduction] more on left side and normal hearing i n right ear, his test ca n be summarized
as:
Options
Weber's test-left lateralized; Rinne test-right positive, BC>AC on left side
Weber's test-right lateralized; Rinne test-left positive, AC>BC on right side
Weber's test-left lateralized; Rinne test-false positive on right side, BC>AC on left side
Weber's left lateralized; Rinne test-equivocal, BC>AC on right side
A patient presents to your clinic for evaluation of defective hearing. Rinne's test shows air
conduction greaterthanthe bone conduction on both sides with Weber test lateralized to right ear.
What is the next logical step?
Options
Normal test
Schwabach's test
Repeat Rinnie's test on right side
Wax removal
A 38-year-old male presented with a suspected diagnosis of suppurate labyrinthitis. A positive

Rinne's test and positive fistula test was recorded on initial examination. The patient refused
treatment, and returned to the emergency department after 2 weeks complaining of deafness in
the affected ear. On examination, fistula test was observed be negative. What is the likely
expected finding on repeating the Rinne test?
Options
True positive Rinne's test
False positive Rinne's test
True negative Rinne's test
False negative Rinne's test
In pure tone audiogram the symbol X is used to mark:
Options
Air conduction in right ear
Air conduction in left ear
Bone conduction in right ear
No change in air conduction in right ear
The 'O' sign in a pure tone audiogram indicates:
Options
Air conduction of right ear
Air conduction of left ear
Bone conduction of right ear
Bone conduction of left ear
Tone decay test is done for:
Options
Cochlear deafness
Neural deafness
Middle ear problem
Otosclerosis
All are subjective tests for audiometry except:
Options
Tone decay
Impedance audiometry
Speech audiometry
Impedance audiometry is for pathology of:
Options
External ear
Middle ear
Mastoid air cell
Inner ear
Impedance audiometry is done using frequency probe of:
Options
220 Hz
550 Hz
440 Hz
1000 Hz
Which of the following test assesses resistance in middle ear?

Options
Impendence audiometry
Caloric test
Brainstem evoked response audiometry
True about pure tone audiometry:
Options
The frequency tested is 2000-9000Hz
Done in silent room
Air conduction for right ear is represented on audiogram by symbol 'X'
Air conduction for left ear is represented on audiogram by symbol 'O'
High frequency audiometry is used in:
Options
Otosclerosis
Ototoxicity
Nonorganic hearing loss
Meniere's disease
A lady has B/L hearing loss since 4 years which worsened during pregnancy. Type of impedance
audiometry graph will be:
Options
Ad
As
B
C
B-type tympanogram is seen in:
Options
Serous otitis media
Otosclerosis
All of the above
Flat and dome-shaped graph in tympanogram is found in:
Options
Otosclerosis
TM perforation
Middle ear fluid
In osteogenesis imperfecta, the tympanogram is:
Options
Flat
Noncompliance
High-compliance
Low-compliance
A young man presents with an accident leading to loss of hearing in right ear. On otoscopic
examination, the tympanic membrane was intact pure tone audiometry that shows an air-bone
gap of 55 dB in the right with normal cochlear reserve. Which of the following will be the like
tympanometry finding:
Options
As type tympanogram
Ad type tympanogram
B type tympanogra
C type tympanogram
Which is the best test for screening of the auditory function of neonates?
Options
Stapedial reflex
Otoacoustic emissions (OAE)
Brainstem evoked auditory response
Which is the investigation of choice in assessing hearing loss in neonates?
Options
Brainstem evoked response audiometry (BERA)
Free field audiometry
Behavioral audiometry
Which of the following tests is recommended for neonatal screening of hearing?
Options
Automated auditory brainstem response
Spontaneous OAE
Evoked OAE
Distorted product OAE
To distinguish between cochlear and post cochlear damage test done is:
Options
Brainsterm evoked response audiometry
Auditory cochlear potential
In normal adult wave v is generated from:

Options
Cochlear nucleus
Superior olivary complex
Lateral lemniscus
Inferior colliculus
Test of detecting damage to cochlea
Options
Caloric test
Weber test
Rinne's test
ABC test
Threshold for bone conduction is normal and that for air conduction is increased in disease of:
Options
Middle ear
Inner ear
Cochlear nerve
Temporal lobe
Stapedial reflex is mediated by:
Options
V and VII nerves
V and VIII nerves
VII and VI nerves
VII and VIII nerves
Vestibular evoked myogenic potential (VEMP) detects lesion of:
Options
Cochlear nerve
Superior vestibular nerve
Inferior vestibular nerve
Inflammatory myopathy
In electrocochleography:
Options
It measures middle ear latency
Outer hair cells are mainly responsible for cochlear microphonics and sum mation potential
Summation potential is a compound of synchronus auditory nerve potential
Total AP represents endocochlear receptor potential to an external auditory stimulus
Electrocochleography is
Options
Probe, stimulation of outer hair cells only
Summation of microphonics
AP of cochlear nerve
Evoked potential generated in cochlea and auditory nerve
Which one of the following test is used to detect malingering?
Options
Stenger test
Bing test
Weber test
Rinne test
Which of the following does not show negative Rinne test in the right ear?
Options
Sensorineural hearing loss of 45 dB in left ear and normal right ear
Profound hearing loss
Conductive hearing loss of 40 dB in both ears
Conductive hearing loss of 40 dB in right ear and left ear normal
A 35 years old pregnant female complaining of hearing loss, which aggravated during pregnancy,
was sent for tympanometry. Which of the following graph will be seen?
Options
As
Ad
B
C
MOHAMMAD
RIZWAN
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11 NOSE,
12. 12
13. 13 PHARYNX,
14. 14
15. 15
LARYNX,
16. 16
17. 17
ORAL CAVITY
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/51)
Question
30. 30
31.shape
The 31 of septal cartilage is:
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.Triangular
34
35.Quadrilateral
35
36. 36
Rectangle
37. 37
38.Pyramidal
38
39. 39
The
40.part
40 between the 2 nasal vestibules is called as:
41. 41
Options
42. 42
43.Rhinon
43
44.Nasion
44
45.Columella
45
46.Root
46 of nose
47. 47
48. 48
Osseocartilaginous j unction on the dorsum of nose is:
49. 49
Options
50. 50
51.Nasion
51
Rhinion
Columella
Glabella
Sensory epithelium of nose is derived from:
Options
Prev
SkipNeural crest
NextNeural tube
Endoderm
Mesoderm
Nasal valve i s bounded by all except
Options
Superior turbinate
Nasal septum
Upper lateral cartilage
Pyriform aperture
Internal nasal valve is bounded by:
Options
Septal cartilage
Lower lateral cartilage
Upper lateral cartilage
Alae
Patency of nasal valve is checked by:
Options
Caloric test
Rhinoscopy
Cottle test
Probing
Which of the following i s an independent bone?
Options
Superior turbinate
Middle turbinate
Inferior turbinate
All of the a bove
Sphenopalatine foramen is related to . . . . . . turbinate
Options
Superior turbinate
Middle turbinate
Inferior turbinate
None of the above
The plate show an important area of nose-identify it:

Options
Nasal valve
Columella
Osteomeatal complex
Vestibule
All of the following drain in middle meatus except
Options
Maxillary sinus
Frontal sinus
Ethmoidal sinus
Nasolacrimal duct
Match the following: A Agger cells I Posterior most ethmoidal cells B Haller cells II Cells in roofof
maxillary sinus C Onodi cell Ill Cells anterior to attachment of middle turbinate D Concha bullosa
IV Pneumatisation of middleturbinate
Options
A Ill B I C II D IV
A I B II C Ill D II
A Ill B II C I D IV
A II B Ill C I D IV
Anterior ethmoidal artery arises from:
Options
Maxillary artery
Mandibular artery
Superficial temporal artery
Ophthalmic artery
Which of the following is not a function of nose?

Options
Olfaction
Air pressure control
Humidification of air
Temperature control of inspired air
Ciliary movement rate of nasal mucosa is:
Options
1 -2 mm/min
2-5 mm/min
5-10 mm/min
1 0- 12 mm/min
Parosmia is:
Options
Perversion of smell sensation
Absolute loss of smell sensation
Decreased smellsensation
Perception of bad smell
Nasal cycle is the cyclical alternate nasal blockage occurring:
Options
Every 6- 1 2 hours
Every 2-4 hours
Every 4-8 hours
Every 1 2-24 hours
Function of mucociliary action of upper respiratory tract is:
Options
Temperature regulation
Increased the velocity of inspired air
Traps the pathogenic organisms in inspired air
Has no physiological role
Movement of mucous in nose is by:
Options
Mucociliary action
Inspiration
Expiration
Both inspiration and expiration
Odour receptors are present in:
Options
Olfactory epithelium
Olfactory tract
Amygdala
Olfactory bulbs
Thudichum speculum is used for visualizing
Options
Posterior nasal cavity
Posterior nares
Larynx
Anterior nasal cavity
Which is not visualized on posterior rhinoscopy?
Options
Eustachian tube
Inferior meatus
Middle meatus
Superior concha
The figure shows structure seen on posterior rhinoscopy- ldentify the structure shown by 'X':
Options
Superior meatus
Middle meatus
Inferior meatus
Eustachian tube opening
IOC for paranasal sinus:
Options
CT
MRI
X-ray
Sinoscopy
Turbinate which articulates with ethmoid is:
Options
Superior
Middle
Inferior
All of the above
Frontonasal duct opens into:
Options
Inferior meatus
Middle meatus
Superior meatus
Inferior turbinate
Frontal sinus drain into:
Options
Superior meatus
Inferior meatus
Middle meatus
Ethmoid recess
Paranasal sinus opening in middle meatus:
Options
Maxillary
Anterior ethmoid
Posterior ethmoid
Frontal
The maxillary sinus opens into middle meatus at the level of:
Options
Hiatus semulinaris
Bulla ethmoidalis
Lnfundibulum
None of the above
All drains into middle meatus except:
Options
Lacrimal duct
Maxi llary sinus
Frontal sinus
Ethmoidal sinus
Hiatus semilunaris is present in:
Options
Superior meatus
Middle meatus
Inferior meatus
Spenoethmoidal recess
Bulla ethmoidalis is seen in:
Options
Superior meatus
Inferior meatus
Middle meatus
Sphenoethmoidal recess
Opening of posterior ethmoid sinus is in:
Options
Sphenoethmoid recess
Superior meatus
Inferior meatus
Middle meatus
Sphenoidal sinus opens into:
Options
Inferior meatus
Middle meatus
Superior meatus
Nasolacrimal duct opens into:
Options
Superior meatus
Middle meatus
Inferior meatus
Sphenopalatine recess
Inferior turbinate is a:
Options
Part of maxil la
Part of sphenoid
Separate bone
Part of ethmoid
Ethmoid bone forms A/E:
Options
Superior turbinate
Middle turbinate
Interior turbinate
Uncinate process
Which of the following is known as fourth turbinate?
Options
Superior turbinate
Aggernasi
Supreme turbinate
Bulous turbi nate
Turbinate that articulates with ethmoid is:
Options
Superior
Middle
Inferior
All of the above
External nose is formed from:
Options
3 paired + 3 unpaired cartilages
3 paired + 1 unpaired cartilages
3 paired + 4 unpaired
1 paired + 1 unpaired
Choana is:
Options
Anterior nares
Posterior nares
Tonsils
Larynx
Direction of nasolacrimal duct is:
Options
Downward, backward and medially
Downward, backward and laterally
Downward, forward and medially
Downward, forward and laterally
Which of the following bones do not contribute the nasal septum?
Options
Sphenoid
Lacrimal
Palatine
Ethmoid
Quadrilateral cartilage is attached to all except:
Options
Ethmoid
Vomer
Sphenoid
Maxilla
All these structures are found in the lateral nasal wall except:
Options
Superior turbinate
Vomer
Agger nasi
Hasner's vale
Nasal valve i s formed by all except:
Options
Septum
Middle turbinate
Lower end of upper lateral cartilage
Inferior turbinate
Onodi cells and Haller cells are seen in relation to:
Options
Optic nerve and floor of orbit
Optic nerve and frontal sinus
Optic nerve and ethmoidal air cells
Orbital chiasma and nasolacrimal duct
Osteomeatal complex (OMC) connects:
Options
Nasal cavity with maxillary sinus
Nasal cavity with sphenoid sinus
The two nasal cavities
Ethmoidal sinus with ethmoidal bulla
Nasal mucosa is supplied by:
Options
Only external carotid artery
Only internal carotid
Mainly external carotid artery
Mainly internal carotid artery
During inspiration the main current of airflow in a normal nasal cavity is through
Options
Middle part of the cavity in middle meatus in a parabolic curve
Lower part of the cavity in the inferior meatus in a parabolic curve
Superior part of the cavity in the superior meatus
Through olfactory area
Function of mucociliary action of upper respiratory tract is:
Options
Protective
Increase the velocity of inspired air
Traps the pathogenic organisms in inspired air
Has no physiological role
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/33)
Question
30. 30
31. 31 the condition of nose shown in plate:
Identify
32. 32
33. 33
Options
Crooked nose
Deviated nose
Saddle nose
Humped nose
Identify the condition of nose shown in plate:
Prev
Skip
Next
Options
Crooked nose
Deviated nose
Saddle nose
Humped nose
All are true about Rhinophyma except:
Options
Also called as elephantiasis of nose
Hypertrophy of holocrine gland
Most commonly due to diabetes mellitus
Associated with acne rosacea
Rhinophyma is associated with:
Options
Hypertrophy of sebaceous gland
Hypertrophy of salivary gland
Hypertrophy of sweat gland
Hypertrophy of Bartholin's gland
A polypoidal swelling is noted in an infant near the glabella. The swelling is compressible and
increases in size on coughing All of the flowing investing actions should be done except:
Options
Biopsy
CT scan
MRI
Anterior Rhinoscopy
Frustenberg sign is positive in:

Options
Nasal glioma
Nasal encephalocele
Nasal dermoid
None of the above
A 2 years old infant is boughtto OPD by the mother with case of frequent nasal blockage. On
examination a solitary polypoidal mass is seen to arise from the roof of the nose. First step in
investigation is:
Options
Biopsy
CT scan
X-ray
MRI
Identify the incision shown in plate:
Options
Killian's incision
Freer's incision
Weber-Ferguson incision
Schobinger incision
Bony nasal septal perforation is seen in:
Options
TB
Leprosy
Syphilis
Rhinosporidiosis
M/C fractured bone in the face is:

Options
Nasal
Molar
Zygomatic
Temporal
What is not true about septaI hematoma?
Options
It can appear spontaneously
It resolves itself
Need surgical correction
Can cause secondary infection
Treatment of septaI hematoma is:
Options
Immediate evacuation
Wait and watch for spontaneous regression
Nasal decongestants
Antibiotics
Nasal septum abscess leads to:
Options
Pyogenic granuloma
Septal perforation
Cutaneous fistula
Retropharyngeal abscess
Identify the condition shown in the plate:
Options
Hemangioma of nose
Rhinophyma of nose
Papilloma of nose
Neurofibroma
Rhinophyma is associated with:

Options
Hypertrophy of the sebaceous glands
Hypertrophy of sweat glands
Hyperplasia of endothelial cells
Hyperplasia of epithelial cells
Most common presentation of infant with bilateral choanal atresia
Options
Difficulty in breathing
Dysphagia
Smiling
Difficulty in wal king
All are true about nasolabial cysts except:
Options
They are B/L
They present in adults
Derived from odontogenic epithelium
Strong female predilection
Depressed bridge of the nose may be due to any of the following except
Options
Leprosy
Syphilis
Thalassemia
Acromegaly
A crooked nose is due to:
Options
Deviated dorsum but tip midline
Depressed dorsum
Humped dorsum
Deviated dorsum and tip
Percentage of newborns with deviation of nasal septum
Options
2%
10%
20%
60%
Features associated with DNS include all of the following except:
Options
Epistaxis
Atrophy of turbinate
Hypertrophy of turbinate
Recurrent sinusitis
DNS may be associated with all the following except
Options
Recurrent sphenoiditis
Acute otitis media
Hypertrophy of the inferior turbinate
Recurrent maxillary sinusitis
All of the following true of septoplasty operation for DNS except:
Options
Indicated in septal deviation
Mucoperichondrium is removed
Preferably done after 16 years of age
Done in some cases of epistaxis
Alternative for SMR:
Options
Tympanoplasty
Septoplasty
Caldwell-Luc operation
Turboplasty
Crooked nose is due to:
Options
Deviated ala
Deviated septum
Humping nasal septum
Deviated dorsum and septa
Killian's incision is used for:
Options
Submucous resection of nasal septum
I ntranasal antrostomy
Myringoplasty
Which of the following surgery is not contraindicated below 12 years of age?
Options
Rhinoplasty
FESS
SMR
Septoplasty
To prevent synachiae formation after nasal surgery, which one of the following packings is the
most useful?
Options
Mitomycin
Ribbon gauze
Ribbon gauza with liquid paraffin
Ribbon gauza steroids
Septal perforation is not seen in:
Options
Septa! abscess
Leprosy
Rhinophyma
Trauma
The etiology of anterior ethmoidal neuralgia is:
Options
Inferior turbinate pressing on the nasal septum
Middle turbinate pressing on the nasal septum
Superior turbinate pressing on the nasal septum
Causing obstruction of sphenoid opening
Cattle's test tests the patency of the nares in:
Options
Atrophic rhinitis
Rhinosporidiosis
Deviated nasal septum
Hypertrophied inferior turbinate
After laproscopic appendicectomy, patient had fall from bed on her nose after which she had
swelling in nose and difficulty in breathing. Next step in management:
Options
IN antibiotics for 7-10 days
Observation in hospital
Surgical drainage
Discharge after 2 days and follow up of the patient after 8 weeks
A 2-year-old child is brought to the hospital with a compressible swelling at the root of nose, most
likely diagnosis is:
Options
AV malformation
Lacrimal sac cyst
Ethmoid sinus cyst
Meningoencephalocele
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/48)
Question
30. 30
31. 31
Tapir nose is seen in:
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.Leprosy
34
35.Syphilis
35
36. 36
Rhinoscleroma
37. 37
38.Lupus
38 vulgaris
39. 39
Nasal polypoidal mass with subcutaneous nodules on skin are seen in:
40. 40
41. 41
Options
42. 42
43.Zygomycosis
43
44.Rhinosporidiosis
44
45.Sporotrichosis
45
46.Aspergil
46 losis
47. 47
48. 48
Ideal treatment of rhinosporodiosis is:
Options
Rifampicin
Excision with cautery at base
Tetracycline
Laser
Strawberry skin appearance of nasal mucosa is seen in:
Options
Prev
SkipWegener's granulomatosis
NextSarcoidosis
Kawasaki disease
Rhinosporidiosis
Mulberry shaped polypoidal mass is seen in:
Options
Rhinosporidiosis
Rhinoscleroma
Rhinophyma
Inferior turbinate
Aspergillosis is M/c caused by:
Options
A. fumigatus
A. niger
A. flavus
None of these
Which of the following is a lethal midline granuloma of nose?
Options
Wegener's granuloma
Rhinosporidium
Lupus
Stewarts granuloma
Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies are seen in:
Options
Rhinoscleroma
Rhinosporidiasis
Scleroderma
Lupus vulgaris
Mitral cells are seen in:
Options
Rhinoscleroma
Olfactory tract
Rhinosporidiosis
Optic nerve
Frog face deformity is seen in:
Options
Nasal polyp
Syphilis of nose
Wegner's granulomatosis
TB of nose
Most common nasal mass:
Options
Polyp
Papilloma
Angiofibroma
None of these
Antrochoanal polyp arises from:
Options
Maxillary sinus
Frontal sinus
Ethmoidal sinus
Sphenoidal sinus
A 68-year-old Chandu is a diabetic and presented with black, foul smelling discharge from the
nose. Examination revealed blackish discoloration of the inferior turbinate. The diagnosis is:
Options
Mucormycosis
Aspergil losis
Infarct of inferior turbinate
Foreign body
IDDM patient presents with septal perforation of nose with brownish black d ischarge probable d
iagnosis
Options
Rhinosporidiosis
Aspergillus
Leprosy
Mucormycosis
Rhinosporidiosis is caused by:
Options
Fungus
Virus
Bacteria
Protozoa
True statement about Rhinosporidiosis is:
Options
Most common organism is klebsiella rhinoscleromatis
Seen only in immunocompromised patients
Presents as a nasal polyp
Can be diagnosed by isolation of organism
Ideal treatment of rhinosporidiosis is:
Options
Rifampicin
Excision with cautery at base
Dapsone
Laser
Rhinoscleromatis is caused by:
Options
Klebseilla
Autoimmune
Spirochetes
Rhinosporidium
Mikulicz cell and russel bodies are characterisitc of:
Options
Rhinoscleroma
Rhinosporidiosis
Plasma cell disorder
Lethal midline granuloma
Atrophic dry nasal mucosa, extensive encrustations with woody' hard external nose is suggestive
of
Options
Rhinosporidiosis
Rhinoscleroma
Atrophic rhinitis
Carcinoma of nose
Apple-jelly nodules on the nasal septum are found in case of:
Options
Tuberculosis
Syphilis
Lupus vulgaris
Rhinoscleroma
Killian term is used for which of the following polyp?
Options
Ethmoidal
Antrochoanal
Tonsillar cyst
Tonsillolith
All the following are true of antrochoanal polyp except:

Options
Common in children
Single and unilateral
Bleeds on touch
Treatment involves avulsion
All of the following are true about antrochonal polyp, except:
Options
Single
Unilateral
Premalignant
Arises from maxillary antrum
The most appropriate management for antrochoanal polyp in children is:
Options
Intranasal polypectomy
Corticosteroids
Wait and watch
A patient presents with antrochoanal polyp arising from the medial wall of the maxilla. Which of
the following would be the best management for the patient?
Options
FESS with polypectomy
Medial maxillectomy (TEMM)
Caldwell-Luc procedure
I ntranasal polypectomy
Treatment for recurrent atrochoanal polyp:
Options
FESS
Simple polypectomy
Both a and b
The current treatment of choice for a large antrochoanal polyp in a 1 0-year-old is:
Options
FESS
Lateral rhinotomy and excision
The current treatment of choice for a large antrochoanal polyp in a 30-year-old man is:
Options
Functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS)
Lateral rhinotomy and excision
Which of the following statements is not correct for Ethmoidal polyp?
Options
Al lergy is an etiological factor
Occur in the first decade of life
Are bilateral
Are often associated with bronchial asthma
Regarding ethmoidal polyp, which one of the following is true?
Options
Epistaxis
Uni lateral
<10 years
Associated with bronchial asthma
Recurrent polyps are seen in:
Options
Antrochoanal polyp
Ethmoidal polyp
Nasal polyp
Hypertrophic turbinate
Most common location of nasal hemangioma:
Options
Nasal septum
Inferior turbinate
Vestibule
Nasopharynx
About nasal syphilis the following is true:
Options
Perforation occurs in septum
Saddle nose deformity may occur
In newborn, it presents as snuffles
Secondary syphilis is the common association
In a patient with multiple bilateral nasal polyps with X-ray showing opacity in the para nasal
sinuses. The treatment consists of all of the following except:
Options
Epinephrine
Corticosteroids
Amphoterecin B
Antihistamines
Patient with ethmoidal polyp undergoes polypectomy. Presents 6 months later with ethmoidal
polyp. Correct Rx:
Options
Intranasal ethmoidectomy
Extranasal ethmoidectomy
Caldwell-Luc procedure
Polypectomy
"Bernoulli's theorem" explains:
Options
Nasal polyp
Thyroglossal cyst
Zenker's diverticulum
Laryngomalacia
Topical steroids are not recommended post-surgery for:
Options
Allergic fungal n usitis
Chronic rhinosinusitis
Antrochoanal polyp
Lingual nerve
In Caldwell-Luc operation the nasoantral window is made through:
Options
Superior meatus
Inferior meatus
Middle meatus
None of the above
Most common complication of Caldwell-Luc operation is:
Options
Oroantral fistula
Infraorbital nerve palsy
Hemorrhage
Orbital cellulitis
Multiple nasal polyp in children should guide the clinician to search for underlying:
Options
Mucoviscidosis
Celiac disease
Hirschsprung's disease
Sturge-Weber syndrome
A Rapidly destructive infection of nose and paranasal sinuses in diabetics is:
Options
Histoplasmosis
Sporotrichosis
Mucormycosis
Sarcoidosis
Frish bacillus causes:
Options
Rhinosleroma
Rhinosporidiosis
Rhinophyma
Lupus vulgaris
Most common cause of U/L mucopurulent rhinorrhea in a child is:
Options
Foreign body
Adenoids which are blocking the airways
Deviated nasal septum
Inadequately treated acute frontal sinusitis
A child has retained disc battery in the nose. What is the most important consideration in the
management?
Options
Battery substance leaks and cause tissue damage
It can lead to tetanus
Refer the child to a specialist for removal of battery
Insti ll nasal drops
What is a Rhinolith:
Options
Foreign body in nose
Stone in nose
Deposition of calcium around foreign body in nose
M isnomer
Maggots in the nose are best treated by:
Options
Chloroform diluted with water
Liquid paraffin
Systemic antibiotics
Lignocaine spray
The combination of nasal polyps, bronchial asthma and aspirin sensitivity is referred to as:
Options
Santer's triad
Saint's triad
Virchow's triad
Trotter's triad
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
Question (1/22)
Merciful anosmia is seen in:
Options
Atrophic rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis
Ethmoidal polyposis
Wegener's granulomatosis
Ozaena is another name for:
Options
Hypertrophic rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis
Rhinitis sicca
Atrophic rhinitis
Young's operation is indicated for:
Options
Vasomotor rhinitis
Atrophic rhinitis
Rhinitis sicca
Rhinitis caseosa
Rhinitis sicca is characterized by:
Options
Prev
SkipDrying of anterior 1 /3 of nasal cavity
NextDrying of middle 1 /3 of nasal cavity
Drying of posterior 1 /3 of nasal cavity
Drying of entire nasal cavity
Vidian neurectomy is done in:
Options
Al lergic rhinitis
Atrophic rhinitis
Vasomotor rhinitis
Rhinitis sicca
Rhinitis medimentosa is due to:
Options
Nasal decongestants
Steroid
Antihistaminics
Surgery
Allergic rhinitis treatment includes all except:
Options
Antibiotics
Avoiding allergen
Corticosteroids
Surgery
All of the following drugs can lead to rhinitis except:
Options
ACE inhibitors
Methyldopa
Reserpine
Oxymetazoline
Allergic salute is seen in:
Options
Acute rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis
Hypertrophic rhinitis
Atrophic rhinitis
TOC of vasomotor rhinitis is:
Options
Vidian neurectomy
Steroids
Antibiotics
Surgery
Common cold is caused primarily by: [
Options
Viruses
Bacteria
Fungi
Lergy
In Allergic rhinitis nasal mucosa is:
Options
Pale and swol len
Pink and swollen
Bluish and atrophied
Bradykinin
All of the following surgical procedures are used for allergic rhinitis except:
Options
Radiofrequency ablation of the inferior turbinate
Laser ablation of the inferior turbinate
Submucosal placement of silastic in inferior turbinate
Inferior turbinectomy
All are implicated in etiology of atrophic rhinitis except:
Options
Chronic sinusitis
Nasal deformity
DNS
Strong hereditary factors
Which of the following organisms is known to cause Atrophic Rhinitis?
Options
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Klebsiella ozaenae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus foetidis
Cause of nasal obstruction in atrophic rhinitis:
Options
Crusting
Polyp
Secretions
DNS
All are true regarding atrophic rhinitis except:
Options
More common in males
Crusts are seen
Anosmia is noticed
Young's operation is useful
All are true about ozaenae except:
Options
Common in female
It is usually uni lateral
Nasal cavity is fil led with greenish crusts
Atrophic pharyngitis
Alkaline douche solution of nose does not contain:
Options
NaCl
Na biborate
NaHC03
Glucose
Young's operation is done for:
Options
Allergic rhinitis
Atropic rhinitis
Vasomotor rhinitis
Idiopathic rhinitis
Vidian neurectomy is done in:
Options
Vasomotor rhinitis
Rhinitis sicca
Allergic sinusitis
Epistaxis
Mulberry appearance of nasal mucosal membrane is seen in:
Options
Coryza
Atrophic rhinitis
Maxillary sinusitis
Chronic hypertrophic rhinitis
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
Question (1/28)
Location of Woodruff plexus is:
Options
Posterior end of middle turbinate
Anterior end of septum
Posterior end of inferior turbinate
Posterior end of superior turbinate
MIC cause of epistaxis in children is:
Options
Nose picking
Tumor
Hypertension
Adenoid
Causes of epistaxis are all except:
Options
Allergic rhinitis
Foreign body
Tumor
Hypertension
Most common site of nose bleed in child:
Options
Prev
SkipWoodruff area
NextBrown area
Little's area
None
Posterior epistaxis is commonly seen in:
Options
Children with ethmoidal polyps
Foreign bodies of the nose
Hypertension
Nose picking
A child with unilateral nasal obstruction a long with a mass in cheek and profuse and recurrent
epistaxis:
Options
Glomus tumor
Antrochoanal polyp
Juvenile nasal angiofibroma
Rhinolith
Which is known as artery of epistaxis?
Options
Anterior ethmoidal artery
Sphenopalatine artery
Greater palatine artery
Septa I branch of superior labial artery
Which of the following is not a cause of epistaxis?
Options
Alcohol
Environment
NSAID's
Antrochoanal polyps
Woodruff's plexus is seen at:
Options
Anteroinferior part of superior turbinate
Middle turbinate
Posterior part of inferior turbinate
Anterior part of inferior turbinate
Little's area is situated in nasal cavity in:
Options
Anteroinferior
Anterosuperior
Posteroinfesion
Posterosuperior
Main vascular supply of Little's area is all except:
Options
Septal branch of superior labial artery
Nasal branch of sphenopalatine artery
Palatal branch of sphenopalatine artery
Which artery does not contribute to Little's area?
Options
Septal branch of facial artery
Posterior ethmoidal artery
Which of the following arteries of the Kiesselbach's plexus is not a branch of External carotid
artery:
Options
Anterior and middle ethmoid arteries
Septa I branch of the superior labial artery
Most common cause for nose bleeding is:
Options
Trauma to Little's area
AV aneurysm
Posterosuperior part of nasal septum
Hiatus semilunaris
MIC cause of epistaxis in 3-year-old child:
Options
Nasal polyp
Foreign body
Upper respiratory catarrh
Atrophic rhinitis
In a 5-year-old child, most common cause of unilateral epistaxis is:
Options
Foreign body
Polyp
Atrophic rhinitis
Maggot's
Recurrent epistaxis in a 15-year-old female the most common cause is

Options
Juvenile nasopharyngeal fibroma
Rhinosporiodiosis
Foreign body
Hematopoietic disorde
Diagnosis in a 10-year-old boy with recurrent epistaxis and a unilateral nasal mass is:
Options
Antrochoanal polyp
Ethmoidal polyp
Angiofibroma
Rhinolith
Epistaxis in elderly person is common in:
Options
Foreign body
Allergic rhinitis
Hypertension
Systemic causes of epistaxis are all except:
Options
Hypertension
Anticoagulant treatment
Hereditary telangiectasia
Hemophilia
A 70-year-aged patient with epistaxis, hypertensive with BP = 200/100 mm Hg. On examination no

active bleeding noted, next step of management is
Options
Observation
I nternal maxillary artery ligation
Anterior and posterior nasal pack
Anterior nasal pack
Source of epistaxis after ligation of external carotid artery is:
Options
Maxillary artery
Superior labial artery
Ethmoidal artery
If posterior epistaxis cannot be controlled, which artery is ligated:
Options
Posterior ethmoidal artery
Maxillary artery
External carotid artery
In case of uncontrolled epistaxis, ligation of internal maxillary artery is to be done in the:
Options
Maxil lary antrum
Pterygopalatine fossa
At the neck
Medial wall of orbit
Treatment of choice in recurrent epistaxis in a patient with hereditary hemotelangiectasis:
Options
Anterior ethmoidal artery ligation
Septal dermoplasty
External carotid artery ligation
Internal carotid artery ligation
Kiesselbach's plexus is situated on the:
Options
Medial wall of the middle ear
Lateral wall of the nasopharynx
Medial wall of the nasal cavity
Laryngeal aspect of epiglottis
Posterior epistaxis occurs from:
Options
Woodruff's plexus
Kiesselbach's plexus
Atherosclerosis
Little's area
In intractable epistaxis, following vessels can be ligated except:
Options
External carotid artery
Maxillary artery
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/54)
Question
30. 30
31. 31 of Highmore is:
Antrum
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.Maxillary
34 sinus
35.Frontal
35 sinus
36. 36
Ethmoid sinus
37. 37
38.Sphenoid
38 sinus
39. 39
Sinus which is not present at birth?
40. 40
41. 41
Options
42. 42
43.Maxillary
43
44.Frontal
44
45.Ethmoid
45
46.Sphenoid
46
47. 47
48. paranasal
First 48 sinus to develop at birth is:
49. 49
Options
50. 50
51.Maxillary
51
52.Ethmoidal
52
53. 53
54.Frontal
54
Sphenoidal
The sinus which is most superior in face is?
Options
Prev
SkipMaxillary
NextFrontal
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
In Water's view which sinus cannot be visualized?
Options
Maxillary
Frontal
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
In Basal view, sinus which can be best seen?
Options
Maxillary
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Frontal
Best view for ftontal sinus:
Options
Water's view
Lateral view
Basal view
Caldwell-Luc view
Howarth procedure is related to:
Options
External frontonasal ethmoidectomy
Frontal stnus trephine
Endoscopic sinus surgery
Maxillary antrostomy
Antral puncture (proof puncture) is done through:
Options
Superior meatus
Inferior meatus
Middle meatus
None
Sudden death in case of maxillary wash is due to
Options
Hemorrhage
Meningitis
Air embolism
Thrombus of maxillary artery
Proof puncture is done in:
Options
Ethmoid sinusitis
Sphenoid sinusitis
Maxillary sinusitis
Frontal sinusitis
Infundibulotomy is done for:
Options
Approaching nasolacrimal duct
Approaching middle meatus
Rhinoplasty
Choanal atresia repair
M/C sinus involved in fungal ball:
Options
Maxillary
Sphenoid
Frontal
Ethmoid
MIC sinus involved in allergic fungal rhinosinusitis:
Options
Maxillary
Sphenoid
Frontal
Ethmoid
Bilateral proptosis and bilateral 6th nerve palsy in seen is:
Options
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Meaningitis
Hydrocephalus
Orbital cellulitis
Orbital cellulitis most commonly occurs after which sinus infection?
Options
Maxillary
Frontal
Ethmoidal
Sphenoidal
Which of the following is not a complication of sinusitis?

Options
Nasal furunculosis
Preseptal cellulitis
Osteomyelitis
In Caldwell-Luc operation the nasoantral window is made through:
Options
Superior meatus
Inferior meatus
Middle meatus
None of the above
Commonest complication of Caldwell-Luc operations is:
Options
Oroantral fistula
Infraorbital nerve injury
Hemorrhage
Orbital cel lulitis
Caldwell-Luc surgery approach is via.
Options
Hard palate
Sublabial sulcus
Inferior meatus
Superior meatus
Nerve injured in Caldwell-Luc surgery is:
Options
Lingual nerve
Infraorbital nerve
Optic nerve
Facial nerve
In functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS) opening is made through:
Options
Osteomeatal complex
Inferior turbinate
Middle turbinate
Most feared compl ication of endoscopic sinus surgery is:
Options
Retro-orbital hematoma
CSF rhinorrhea
Internal carotid injury
Nasolacrimal duct injury
In nasal endoscopy, eustachian tube is examined at:
Options
1 st pass
2nd pass
3rd pass
4th pass
Endoscopic surgery through intranasal approach is used for surgery of all organs except:
Options
Lacrimal gland
Cerebellum
Pituitary gland
Optic nerve
Which sinus is NOT a part of paranasal sinus?
Options
Frontal
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
Pyriform
True about sphenoid sinus:
Options
Lined by stratified squamous epithelium
Duct open in middle meatus
Open in sphenoethmoid recess
Present at birth
All are pneumatization patterns of sphenoid sinus except:
Options
Pre sellar
Post sella
Concha bullosa
Concha
Sinus not present at birth is:
Options
Ethmoid
Maxillary
Sphenoid
Frontal
Which facial sinus continues to grow even in adulthood?:
Options
Frontal
Maxillary
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
Pain sensations from the ethmoidal sinus are carried by :
Options
Supraorbital nerve
Lacrimal nerve
Nasociliary nerve
Lnfraorbital nerve
Maxillary sinus achieves maximum size at:
Options
At birth
At primary dentition
At secondary dentition
At puberty
Which among the following sinuses is most commonly affected in a child?
Options
Sphenoid
Frontal
Ethmoid
Maxillary
In acute sinusitis, the sinus most often involved in children is :
Options
Maxillary
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Frontal
Sinus least involved in sinusitis is:
Options
Maxillary
Ethmoid
Frontal
Sphenoid
Which of the following is the most common etiological
Options
Aspergillus sp
Histoplasma
Conidiobolus coronatus
Candida albicans
All of the following are diagnostic criteria of allergic fungal sinusitis (AFS) except:
Options
Areas of High attenuation on CT scan
Orbital invasion
Allergic eosinophilic mucin
Type 1 Hypersensitivity
Periodicity is a characteristic feature in which sinus infecion
Options
Maxillary sinus infection
Frontal sinus infection
Sphenoid sinus infection
Ethmoid sinus infection
Sphenoid sinusitis pain is referred most commonly to:
Options
Occiput
Cost of nose
Frontal
Temporal region
Best view for frontal sinus:
Options
Caldwell
Towne
Water's
Lateral view
Caldwell view is done for
Options
Sphenoid sinus
Maxillary sinus
Ethmoid sinus
Frontal sinus
For viewing superior orbital fissure-best view is:
Options
Plain AP view
Caldwell view
Towne view
Basal view
Angular vein infection commonly causes thrombosis
Options
Cavernous sinus
Sphenoidal sinus
Petrosal sinus
Sigmoid sinus
A patient with sinus infection develops chemosis, B/L proptosis and fever, the diagnosis goes in
favor of:
Options
Frontal lobe abscess
Meningtitis
Most definitive diagnosis of sinusitis is:
Options
X-ray PNS
Proof puncture
Sinoscopy
Transillumination test
Pathognomic feature of maxillary sinusitis is:
Options
Mucopus in the middle meatus
Inferior turbinate hypertrophy
Purulent nasal discharge
Atrophic sinusitis
Frontal mucocele presents as:
Options
Swelling above medial canthus, below the floor offrontal sinus
Swelling above eyebrow lateral to grabella
External proptosis
Lntianasal swel ling
Mucocele is commonly seen in sinus:

Options
Frontal
Maxillary
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
Most common site for osteoma is:
Options
Maxillary sinus
Ethmoid sinus
Frontal sinus
Sphenoid sinus
A 2-year-old child with purulent nasal discharge, fever and pain since 2 months. His fever is 102-
103°C, and leucocyte count is 12000 cu/mm. X-ray PNS showed opacification of left ethmoidal air
cells. The culture of the eye discharge was negative. Which of the following would be most useful
further step in evaluation of this patient?
Options
CT scan
Urine culture
Blood culture
Repeat culture of the eye discharge
A 24-year-old female with long standing history of sinusitis present with fevers, headache (recent
origin) and personality changes; Fundus examination revealed papilledema. Most likely diagnosis
is:
Options
Frontal lobe abscess
Meningitis
Encephalitis
Frontal bone osteomyelitis
Cavernous sinus thrombosis following sinusitis results in all of the following signs except:
Options
Constricted pupil in response to light
Engorgement of retinal veins upon ophthalmoscopic examination
Ptosis of eyelid
Ophthalmoplegia
The best surgical treatment for chronic maxillary sinusitis is:
Options
Repeated antral washout
Fiberoptic endoscopic sinus surgery
Caldwell-Luc's operation
Horgan'.s operation
FESS means:
Options
Factual endoscopic sinus surgey
Functional endonasal sinus surgery
Factual endonasal sinus surgery
Functional endoscopic sinus surgery
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
Question (1/21)
Moh's surgery is done in:
Options
Squamous cell CA of nose b
Laryngeal cancer
Basal cell CA of nose
Dermoid cyst of nose
M/C site for fibrous dysplasia is:
Options
Maxillary
Frontal
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Ohngren's classification of maxillary sinus carcinoma is based on: Imaginary plane between
lateral canthus of eye and angle of mandible
Options
Imaginary plane between the medical canthus of eye and angle of mandible
Imaginary plane between lateral canthus of eye and angle of mandible
Two horizontal lines, one passing through floor of orbit and other through floor of antrum
None
Line of Sebileau passes through:

Prev
Options
Skip
Floor of orbit and maxillary antrum
Next
Floor of nasal cavity and maxillary antrum
Floor of orbit and nasal cavity
Floor of orbit and roof of mouth
First lymph node involved in maxillary carcinoma:
Options
Submental
Submandibular
Clavicular
Lower jugular
Tumor arising from olfactory nasal mucosa:
Options
Nasal glioma
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Esthesioneuroblastoma
Ohngren's line that divides maxillary sinus into superolateral and inferomedial zone is related to:
Options
Maxillary sinusitis
Maxillary carcinoma
Maxillary osteoma
Lnfratemporal carcinoma
Inverted papilloma arises from:
Options
Roof of nasal cavity
Medial wall of nose
Lateral wall of nose
None
Inverted papilloma is characterized by all except:
Options
Also called as Schneiderian papilloma
Seen more often in females
Presents with epistaxis and nasal obstruction
Originates from lateral wall of nose
True about tumors of PNS and Nasal Ca: [PG/ Dec 06]
Options
Squamous cell Ca is the most common type
Adenocarcinoma can occur
Melanoma is most common
Adenoid cystic Ca is most common
Most common malignancy in maxillary antrum is:
Options
Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma
Adeno cystic Ca
Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell Ca
Wood workers are associated with sinus Ca:
Options
Adeno Ca
Squamous cell Ca
Anaplastic Ca
Melanoma
Adenocarcinoma of ethmoid sinus occurs commonly in:
Options
Fire workers
Chimney workers
Watch makers
Wood workers
Ca maxillary sinus stage Ill (T3 NO MO), treatment of choice is/Ca maxillary sinus is treated by:
Options
Radiotherapy
Surgery + Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Chemotherapy + Surgery
True about basal cell carcinoma:
Options
Equal incidence in male and female
Commoner on the trunk
Radiation is the only treatment
Chemotherapy can be given
Which of the following nasal tumors originates from the olfactory mucosa?
Options
Neuroblastoma
Nasal gl ioma
Esthesioneuroblastoma
Antrochoanal polyp
Most common site for osteoma is:
Options
Maxillary sinus
Ethmoid sinus
Frontal sinus
Sphenoid sinus
Commonest site of Ivory osteoma:
Options
Frontal-Ethmoidal region
Mandible
Maxilla
Sphenoid
Ground glass appearance of maxillary sinus on CT scan is seen on:
Options
Maxillary sinusitis
Maxillary carcinoma
Maxillary polyp
Maxillary fibrous dysplasia
Identify the line marked on face in the picture below?
Options
Ohngren's line
Kasami line
Frankfurt's line
Donaldson line
The patient came with an ulcer on the side of the nose as shown, which bleeds on itching. What is
the diagnosis?
Options
Squamous cells carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Marjolin's ulcer
Nevus
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/76)
Question
30. 30
31. 31
Areas of carcinoma of oral mucosa can be identified by Staining with:
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.1%
34zinc chloride
35.2%
35silver nitrate
36. 36
Gentian violet
37. 37
38.2%
38toluidine blue
39. 39
The
40.most
40 common site of oral cancer among Indian population is:
41. 41
Options
42. 42
43.Tongue
43
44.Floor
44 of mouth
45.Alveobuccal
45 complex
46.Lip
46
47. 47
48. 48
Abbe-Estlander flap is used for:
49. 49
Options
50. 50
51.Lip
51
52.Tongue
52
53. 53
54.Eyelid
54
55.Ears
55
56. 56
Abbe-Estlander
57. 57 flap is based on:
58. 58
Options
Prev
59. 59
60.Lingual
Skip 60 artery
61.Facial
Next 61 artery
62.Labial
62 artery
63.Internal
63 maxillary artery
64. 64
65. 65
Stain used to detect premalignant lesion of lip is:
66. 66
Options
67. 67
68.Crystal
68 violet
69.Giemsa
69
70. 70
Toluidine blue
71. 71
72.Silver
72 nitrate
73. 73
M/C
74.site
74 of metastasis of CA of buccal mucosa is:
75. 75
Options
76. 76
Regional lymph nodes
Liver
Brain
Heart
In the reconstruction following excision of previously irradilted cheek, the flap will be:
Options
Tongue
Cervical
Forehead
Pectoralis major myocutaneous
Commando's operation is for:
Options
Mandible
Oral Cancer
Maxillary CA
Nasal CA
M/C site for cancer of tongue is:
Options
Lateral border
Dorsum
Posterior 1/3
Tip of tongue
Orodental fistula is most common after extraction of:
Options
2nd incisor
2nd premolar
1st premolar
1st molar
Parasympathetic fibers of the sublingual salivary gland are found in:
Options
Facial N
Glossopharyngeal N
Vagus N
Hypoglossal N
Perineural invasion is seen in:
Options
Adeno CA
Squamous cell CA
Percentage of submaxillary calculi that can be visualized by X-ray:
Options
20%
60%
100%
80%
Chevallet fracture of nasal septum is:
Options
Horizontal backward
Vertically backwards
Transverse backwards
Oblique backwards
In Jarjavay fracture of nasal bone, the fracture line is:
Options
Oblique
Comminuted
Vertical
Horizontal
Tripod fracture is seen in:
Options
Mandible
Maxilla
Nasal bone
Zygoma
CSF rhinorrhea occurs due to fracture of:

Options
Roof of orbit
Cribriform plate of ethmoid bone
Frontal sinus
Sphenoid bone
The pathognomic test for CSF in suspected CSF rhinorrhea is:
Options
Glucose concentration
Handkerchief test
Halo sign
Beta-2 transferrin
CSF rhinorrhea TOC is:
Options
Putting swab in nose
Craniotomy
Advising freq uent blowing of nose
Wait and watch for 7 days and start antibiotics
Management of persistent cases of CSF rhinorrhea is:
Options
Head low position on bed
Straining activities
Endoscopic repair
All of the above
A patient present with enophthalmos after a trauma to face by blunt object. There is no fever and
no extraocular muscle palsy. Diagnosis is:
Options
Fracture maxilla
Fracture zygoma
Blow out fracture
Fracture ethmoid
Grayish white membrane in throat may be seen in all of the following infections except:
Options
Streptococcal tonsilitis
Diphtheria
Adenovirus
Ludwig's angina
Black color patch in the mouth is seen in:
Options
Acute tonsillitis
Peritonsillar abscess
Vincent's angina
Leukemia
Trench mouth is:
Options
Submucosal fibrosis
Tumor at uveal angle
Ulcerative lesion of the tonsil
Retension cyst of the tonsil
The typical characteristic of diphtheric membrane is:
Options
Loosely attached
Pearly white in color
Firmly attached and bleeds on removal
Fast component occasionally
Battle sign is:
Options
Periorbital ecchymosis
Ecchymosis around mastoid area
Facial congestion and cyanosis
Pulsatile ear discharge
Battle sign is associated with:
Options
Fracture zygoma
Fracture of anterior cranial fossa
Fracture of middle cranial fossa
Nasoethmoid fracture
Identify the condition shown in the plate:
Options
Leukoplakia
Erythroplakia
Submucous fibrosis
Malignancy of tongue
Fordyce's (Spots) Granules in oral cavity arise from:
Options
Mucous glands
Sebaceous glands
Taste buds
Minor salivary glands
Regarding Ranula all are true except:
Options
Retention cyst
Arises from submandibular gland
Translucent
Plunging may be a feature
True regarding Ranula:
Options
It is also called as epulis
It is a cystic swelling in the floor of mouth.
It is a type of thyroglossal cyst
It is a type of mucus retention cyst
Which of the following is premalignant condition
Options
Chronic glossitis
Submucous fibrosis
Hypertrophic glossitis
Aphthous stomatitis
The most common premalignant condition of oral carcinoma is:
Options
Leukoplakia
Erythroplakia
Lichen planus
Fibrosis
The most common site of oral cancer among Indian population is:
Options
Tongue
Floor of mouth
Alveobuccal complex
Lip
Carcinoma tongue most frequently develops from:
Options
Tip
Lateral border
Dorsal portion
All portions equally
A patient has carcinoma of right tongue on its lateral border of anterior 2/3rd, with lymph node of
size 4 cm in level 3 on left side of the neck, stage of disease is:
Options
N0
N1
N2
N3
A patient with Ca tongue is found to have lymph nodes in the lower neck. The treatment of choice
for the lymph nodes is:
Options
Lower cervical neck dissection
Suprahyoid neck dissection
Teleradiotherapy
Radical neck dissection
Carcinoma of buccal mucosa commonly drain to the following lymph nodes sites:
Options
Submental
Submandibular
Supraclavicular
Cervical
Metastasis of carcinoma buccal mucosa goes to:
Options
Regional lymph node
Liver
Heart
Brain
A patient presented with a 1 x 1.5 cm growth on the lateral border of the tongue. The treatment
indicated would be:
Options
Laser ablation
Interstitial brachytherapy
External beam radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
A 70-year-old male who has been chewing tobacco for the past 50 years present with a six months
history of large, fungating, soft papillary lesions in the oral cavity. The lesion has penetrated into
the mandible. Lymph nodes are not palpable. Two biopsies taken from the lesion proper show
benign appearing papillomatosis with hyperkeratosis and acanthosis infiltrating the subjacent
tissues. The most likely diagnosis is:
Options
Squamous cell papilloma
Verrucous carcinoma
Malignant mixed tumor
An 80-year-old patient present with a midline tumor of the lower jaw, involving the alveolar
margin. He is edentulous. Treatment of coice:
Options
Hemimandibulectomy
Commando operation
Segmental mandibulectomy
Marginal mandibulectomy
An old man who is edentulous squamous cell carcinoma in buccal mucosa that has developed
infiltrated to the alveolus. Following is not indicated in treatment:
Options
Radiotherapy
Segment mandibulectomy
Marginal mandibulectomy i nvolving removal of outer table only
Marginal mandibulectomy involving removal of upper half of mandible
Which Ca has best prognosis:
Options
Carcinoma lip
Carcinoma cheek
Carcinoma tongue
Carcinoma palate
In carcinoma of lower lip secondaries are seen in:
Options
Upper cervical LN
Supraclavicular LN
Axillary LN
Mediastinal LN
Calculus is most commonly seen in which salivary gland
Options
Sublingual
Palatal
Parotid
Submandibular
The most common tumor of the salivary gland is:
Options
Mucoepidermoid tumor
Warthin's tumor
Acinic cell tumor
Pleomorphic adenoma
Most common salivary gland tumor in children:
Options
Lymphoma
Adenoid cystic Ca
Pleomorphic adenoma
Mucoepidermoid Ca
Treatment of choice for pleomorphic adenoma:
Options
Superficial parotidectomy
Radical parotidectomy
Enucleation
Radiotherapy
Ramavati, a 40-year-old female, presented with a progressively increasing lump in the parotid
region. On oral examinations, the tonsil was pushed medially. Biopsy showed it to be pleomorphic
adenoma. The appropriate treatment is:
Options
Lumpectomy
Conservative total parotidectomy
Enucleation
Which of the following is not an indication of radiotherapy in pleomophic adenoma of parotid
Options
Involvement of deep lobe
2nd histologically benign recurrence
Microscopically positive margins
Malignant transformation
Mixed tumors of the salivary glands are:
Options
Most common in submandibular gland
Usually malignant
Most common incarotid gland
Associated with calculi
In which one of the following head and neck cancer perineural invasion is most commonly seen:
Options
Adenocarcinoma
A Warthin's tumor is:
Options
An adenolymphoma of parotid gland
A pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid
A carcinoma of the parotid
A carcinoma of submandibular salivary gland
All of the following are true regarding Warthin's tumor except:
Options
More common in females
Commonly involve the parotid glands
They arise from the epithelial and the lymphoid cells
10% are bilateral
Treatment of choice for Warthin's tumor is:
Options
Enucleation
Radiotherapy
Injection of a sclerosing agent
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma of parotid arises from:
Options
Mucus secreting and epidermal cells
Excretory cells
Myoepithelium cells
Acinus
In which of the following conditions sialography is contraindicated
Options
Ductal calculus
Chronic parotitis
Parotid obstruction
Acute sialadenitis
Most common cause of unilateral parotid swelling in a 27 year old male is:
Options
Warthin's tumor
Pleomorphic adenoma
Adenocarcinoma
Hemangioma
A patient of head injury was brought to the hospital. Patient was conscious having clear nasal
discharge through right nostril. NCCT head was done which reveated non-operable injury to
frontobasal area. What is the most appropriate management?
Options
Wait and watch for 4-5 days to allow spontaneous healing
Do an MRI to localize the leak and control the discharge endoscopically
Put a dural catheter to control CSF leak
Approach transcranially to repair the damaged frontobasal region
True about quinke disease:
Options
Bacterial infection
Vocal cord edema
Edema of uvula
Le Fort's fracture does not involve:
Options
Zygoma
Maxilla
Nasal bone
Mandible
Craniofacial dissociation is seen in:
Options
Le Fort 1 fracture
Le Fort 2 fracture
Le Fort 3 fracture
Tripod fracture
Which of the following is/are true about Leforts fracture:
Options
It is fracture of zygomatic bone
May cause CSF rhinorrhea
Type 1: complete separation of facial bones from the cranial bones
Classified as types 1 to 5
Tear drop sign is seen in:

Options
Fracture of floor of orbit
Fracture of lateral wall of nose
Le Fort's fracture
Fracture on zygomatic arch
Fracture zygoma shows all the features except:
Options
Diplopia
CSF rhinorrhea
Epistaxis
Trismus
Tripod fracture is seen in:
Options
Mandible
Maxilla
Nasal bone
Zygoma
Which is not seen in fracture maxilla?
Options
CSF rhinorrhea
Malocclusion
Anesthesia upper lip
Surgical emphysema
CSF rhinorrhea occurs due to fracture of:
Options
Roof of orbit
Cribriform plate of ethmoidal bone
Frontal sinus
Sphenoid bone
The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhea is:
Options
Ethmoid sinus
Frontal sinus
Petrous part of temporal bone
Sphenoid sinus
Target sign is seen in a blot test from nasal discharge in which of these conditions?
Options
Traumatic CSF leak
Fracture mastoid
Spontaneous CSF leak
Meningoencephaloccle
Immediate treatment of CSF rhinorrhea requires:
Options
Antibiotics and observation
Plugging with paraffin guage
Blowing of nose
Craniotomy
CSF rhinorrhea is diagnosed by:
Options
Beta-2 microglobulin
Beta-2 transferrin
Thyroglobulin
Transthyretin
The pathognomonic test for CSF in suspected CSF rhinorrhea is:
Options
Glucose concentration
Handkerchief test
Halo sign
Beta-2 transferrin
After laparoscopic appendectomy, patient had fall from bed on her nose after which she had
swelling in nose and slight difficulty in breathing. Next step in management:
Options
IV antibiotics for 7-10 days
Observation in hospital
Surgical drainage
Discharge after 2 days and follow-up of the patient after 8 weeks
Ideal time of correcting fracture of nasal bone is:
Options
Immediately
After few days
After 2 weeks
After 3-4 weeks
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/45)
Question
30. 30
31. 31
True regarding nasopharynx are all except:
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.Fossa
34 of rosenmuller corresponds to the internal carotid artery
35.Lateral
35 wall has pharyngeal opening of Eustachian tube
36. 36
Passavant's muscle is formed by Stylopharyngeus
37. 37
38.Also
38 called as epipharynx
39. 39
Lower
40. 40limit of hypopharynx is:
41. 41
Options
42. 42
43.Lower
43 border of cricoid cartilage
44.Upper
44 border of cricoid cartilage
45.Upper
45 border of thyroid cartilage
Lower border of thyroid cartilage
Tonsils are lined by:
Options
Ciliated columnar epithelium
Stratified squamous epithel ium
Cuboidal epithelium
Transition at epithelium
Which of the following is called as gateway of Tears?
Options
Prev
SkipSinus of morgagni
NextWaldeyer's ring
Killian's dehiscence
Passavant ridge
All of the following are true regarding zenkers diverticulum except:
Options
It occurs in children
M/C symptom is dysphagia
It is a false diverticulum
M/C site for diverticulum is killians dehiscence
Boyce sign is seen in:
Options
Zenkers diverticulum
Barretts esophagus
Epiglottis
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
Dohlmann procedure is done in:
Options
Achlasia cardia
Barretts oesophagus
Zenkers diverticulum
Schatzki ring
A patient presents with regurgitation of food with foul smelling breath and intermittent
dysphagia and diagnosis is:
Options
Achalasia cardia
Tracheoesophageal fistula
Zenker's diverticulum
Diabetic gastropathy
Gerlach tonsil is another name for:
Options
Tubal tonsil
Palatine tonsil
Adenoids
Lingual tonsil
Which of the following does not form the Waldeyer ring?
Options
Palatine tonsil
Adenoids
Jugulodigastric node
Lateral pharyngeal band
Stylopharyn eus is supplied by:
Options
VIII cranial nerve
IX cranial nerve
X cranial nerve
None of the above
Crypta magna is seen in:
Options
Nasopharyngeal tonsil
Tubal tonsil
Palatine tonsi
Lingual tonsil
Tonsils reach their maximum size by:
Options
1 year
3 years
5 years
12 years
Arterial supply of tonsil is mainly by:
Options
Maxillary artery
Tonsillar branch of facial artery
Middle meningeal artery
The palatine tonsil receives its arterial supply from all of the following except:
Options
Tonsillar branch of facial artery
Ascending palatine artery
Sphenopalatine a rtery
Dorsal lingual artery
During tonsillitis, pain in ear is due to involvement of:
Options
Vagus N
Chorda tympani N
Glossopharyngeal N
Hypoglossal N
Ervin Moqre sign in positive in:

Options
Acute tonsillitis
Chronic tonsillitis
Chronic tonsillitis
Epiglottitis
Torrential bleed during tonsillectomy is due to:
Options
Facial artery
Tonsilar artery
Paratonsillar vein
None of the above
MIC cause of hemorrhage during tonsilectomy:
Options
Paratonsillar
Maxillary A
Lingual A
Middle meningeal A
After tonsil lectomy, secondary hemorrhage occurs:
Options
Within 24 hours
After 2 weeks
5-10 postoperative days
After 1 month
Tonsillectomy is contraindicated in:
Options
Small atrophic tonsils
Quinsy
Poliomyelitis epidemic
Tonsillolith
Tonsillectomy is indicated in all except:
Options
Quinsy
Atrophic tonsillitis
Polioepidemic
Recurrent acute tonsillitis
Swelling between tonsillar area and superior constrictor muscle is known as:
Options
Quinsy
Dental abscess
T/t for peritonsillar abscess is:
Options
L&D
Antibiotics
Tonsillectomy
I & D and antibiotics
Location of adenoids on pharyngeal wall is:
Options
Superior
Lateral
Inferior
Posterior
Hot potato voice is seen in all except:
Options
Glottic cancer
Tonsillar malignancy
Posterior tongue malignancy
Which of the following part is NOT included in hypopharynx is?
Options
Pyriform sinus
Post cricoid region
Anterior pharyngeal wall
Posterior pharyngeal wall
Which of the following structures is seen in oropharynx?Pharyngotympanic tube
Options
Pharyngotympanic tube
Fossa of Rosenmuller
Palatine tonsil
Pyriform fossa
The lymphatic drainage of pyriform fossa is to:
Options
Upper deep cervical nodes
Prelaryngeal node
Parapharyngeal nodes
Mediastinal nodes
Killian's dehisence is seen in:
Options
Oropharynx
Nosophrynx
Cricopharynx
Vocal cords
6-year-old child with recurrent URTI with mouth breathing and failure to grow with high arched
palate and impaited hearing is:
Options
Tonsil lectomy
Grommet insertion
Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion
Indication for Adenoidectomy in children include all except:
Options
Recurrent respiratory tract infections
Recurrent middle ear infection with deafness
Chronic serous otitis media
Multiple adenoids
The inner Waldever's group of lymph nodes does not include:
Options
Submandibular lymph node
Tonsils
Lingual tonsils
Adenoids
The most common organism causing acute tosillitis is:
Options
Staph aureus
Anaerobes
Hemolytic streptococci
Pneumococcus
All of the following cause a gray-white membrane on the tonsils, except:
Options
Infectious mononucleosis
Ludwig's angina
Streptococcal tonsillitis
Diphtheria
Tonsillectomy is indicated in:
Options
Acute tonsillitis
Aphthous ulcers in the pharynx
Rheumatic tonsillitis
Physiological enlargement
A 5-year-old patient is scheduled of for tonsillectomy. On the day of surgery he had running nose,
temperature,37 .5°C and dry cough. Which of the following should be the most appropriate
decision for surgery?
Options
Surgery should be canceled
Can proceed for surgery, if chest is clear and there is nohistory of asthma
Should get X-ray chest before proceeding for surgery
Cancel surgery for 3 weeks and patient to be on antibiotic
Tonsillectomy: following peritonsillar abscess is done after weeks:
Options
1 -3 weeks
6-8 weeks
4-6 weeks
8-12 weeks
Most common postoperative complication of tonsilectomy is :
Options
Palatal palsy
Hemorrhage
Injury to uvula
Nfection
Secondary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy develops:
Options
Within 12 hrs
Within 6hrs
Within 6 days
Within 1
Ramu, 15 years of age presents with hemorrhage 5 hours after tonsillectomy. Treatment of choice
is:
Options
External gauze packing
Antibiotics and mouth wash
Irrigation with saline
Reopen immediately
In which of the following locations, there is collection of pus in the quinsy:
Options
Peritonsillar space
Parapharyngeal space
Retropnaryngeal space
Within the tonsil
7-year-old child has peritonsillar abscess presents with trismus, the best treatment is:
Options
Immediate abscess drain orally
Drainage externally
Systemic antibiotics up to 48 hours then drainage
Tracheostomy
All of the following are true about Zenker's diverticulum except:
Options
It is an acquired condition
It is a false diverticulum
Barium swallow, lateral view is the investigation of chioce
Out poucing of anterior pharyngeal wall above circopharyngeus muscles
Which of the following is not a complication of adenoidectomy?
Options
Hyponasality of speech
Retro pharyngeal abscess
Velopharyngeal insufficiency
Grisel syndrome
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
Question (1/17)
Gillette space is seen in:
Options
Parapharyngeal space
Retropharyngeal space
Peritonsillar space
None of the above
Nodes of Rouviere are:
Options
Retropharyngeal nodes
Parapharyngeal nodes
Cervical nodes
Adenoids
Danger space is bounded by:
Options
Buccopharyngeal fascia anteriorly and alarfascia posteriorly
Alar fascia anteriorly and prevertebral fascia posteriorly
Prevertebral fascia anteriorly and vertebral body posteriorly
Tonsils a nteriorly and superior constrictor muscle posteriorly
Which is the following is not true about acute retropharyngeal abscess?
Options
Prev
SkipDysphagia
NextSwelling on posterolateral wall
Torticollis
Caries of cervical spine is usually a common cause
Regarding retropharyngeal abscess all are true except:
Options
Lies only on one side
Presents behind prevertebral fascia
Surgical drainage is required
Can be palpated by inserting finger in mouth
The medial bulging of pharynx is seen in:
Options
Paratonsillar abscess
Trismus in parapharyngeal abscess is due to spasm of:
Options
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid
Masseter
Temporalis
Middle age diabetic with tooth extraction with ipsilateral swelling over middle one-third of
sternocleidomastoid and displacement of tonsils towards contralateral side:
Options
Ludwig's angina
None of the above
Thornwaldt cyst is also called:
Options
Laryngeal cyst
Nasopharyngeal cyst
Ear cyst
None
All of the following are true about Thornwaldt's abscess except:
Options
Marsupialization is done
Also called as nasopharyngeal bursa
Presents as persistent postnasal drip
Antitubercular treatment is given
A male Shyam, age 30 years presented with trismus, fever, swelling pushing the tonsils medially
and spreading laterally posterior to the middle sternocleidomastoid. He gives H/O excision of 3rd
molar few days back for dental caries. The diagnosis is:
Options
Ludwig's angina
Submental abscess
A postdental extraction patient presents with swelling in posterior one third of the
sternocleidomastoid, the tonsil is pushed medially. Most likely diagnosis is:
Options
Retopharyngeal abscess
Ludwig angina
Vincent angina
The medial bulging of pharynx is seen in:
Options
Pharyngomaxillary abscess
Retropharyngeal a bscess
Paratonsillar abscess
Trismus in parapharyngeal abscess is due to spasm to:
Options
Masseter muscle
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid
Temporalis
Most common cause of chronic retropharyngeal abscess:
Options
Suppuration of retropharyngeal lymph node
Caries of cervical spine
Infective foreign body
Caries teeth
Retropharyngeal abscess, false is [A/IMS Nov 10]
Options
It lies lateral to midline
Causes difficulty in swallowing and speech
Can always be palpated by finger at the post pharyngeal wall
It is present beneath the vertebral fascia.
Infection of submandibular space is seen in:
Options
Ludwig angina
Vincent angina
Prinzmetal angina
Unstable angina
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/43)
Question
30. 30
31. face
Frog 31 deformity of nose is caused by:
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.Rhinoscleroma
34
35.Angiofibroma
35
36. 36
Antral polyp
37. 37
38.Ethmoidal
38 polyp
39. 39
Angiofibroma is classified as stage-if it extends to one or more paranasal sinuses:
40. 40
41. 41
Options
42. 42
43.Stage
43 I
Stage II
Stage Ill
Stage IV
Pharyngeal angiofibroma is treated with:
Options
Surgery
Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
None of the above
Main arterial supply of nasopharyngeal fibroma is:
Options
Prev
SkipFacial artery
NextInternal maxillary artery
Ascending pharyngeal artery
Characteristic sign of nasopharyngeal fibroma on CT scan is:
Options
Antral sign
Lhermitte's sign
Furstenberg sign
Ervin Moore sign
IOC for angiofibroma:
Options
MRI
CECT
Carotid angiography
Biopsy
Nasopharyngeal cancer occurs most commonly in:
Options
India
Bangladesh
Pakistan
China
Undifferentiated carcinoma of nasopharynx belongs to which category as per WHO classification

7
Options
Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4
Most common presentation in nasopharyngeal carcinoma:
Options
Epistaxis
Hoarseness of voice
Nasal stuffiness
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Trotter's triad includes all except:
Options
Sensory disturbance over distribution of 5th cranial nerve
Diplopia
Conductive deafness
Palatal palsy
A 70-year-old man with cervical lymphadenopathy. What can be the cause?
Options
B. Angiofibroma
Acoustic neuroma
Otosclerosis
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is an occupational hazard of:
Options
Asbestos industry
Cement industry
Wood workers
Chimney workers
Trotter's triad is seen in carcinoma of:
Options
Maxilla
Larynx
Nasopharynx
Ethmoid sinus
Following is true of carcinoma of nasopharynx:
Options
Unknown etiology
Excellent prognosis
High incidence of nodal metastasis
Surgery offers good chances of cure
TOC for nasopharyngeal carcinoma:
Options
Surgery
Radiotherapy
RT + CT
Surgery + CT
Most common site of origin of nasopharyngeal angiofibroma:
Options
Roof of nasopharynx
At sphenopalatine foramen
Vault of skull
Lateral wall of nose
Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is: [TN 91)

Options
Benign
Malignant
Benign but potentially malignant
None of the above
A 1 4-year old boy presents with history of frequent nasal bleeding. His Hb was found to be 6.4
g/dl and peripheral smear showed normocytic hypochromic anemia. The most probable diagnosis
is:
Options
Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
Hemangioma
Antrochonal polyp
Carcinoma of nasopharynx
Chandu a 1 5-year-aged boy presents with unilateral nasal blockade mass in the cheek and
epistaxis; likely diasnosis is:
Options
Nasopharyngeal
Angiofibroma
Inverted papilloma
None of the above
In angiofibroma of nasopharynx all are correct except:
Options
Common in female
Most common presentation is epistaxis
Arises from roof of nasopharynx
In late cases frog-face deformity occurs
The main vessel involved in bleeding from Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma:
Options
Internal maxillary artery
Facial artery
Anterior Ethmoidal artery
The main vessel involved in bleeding from Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma:
Options
Internal maxillary artery
Facial artery
Anterior Ethmoidal artery
Angiofibroma bleeds excessively because:

Options
It lacks a capsule
Vessels lack a contractile component
It has multiple sites of origin
All of the above
Most appropriate investigation for angiofibroma is:
Options
Angiography
CT scan
MRI scan
Plain X-ray
A 2 years child presents with B/L nasal pink masses. Most important investigation prior to
undertaking surgery is:
Options
CT scan
FNAC
Biopsy
Ultrasound
A 1 0-year-old boy presents with nasal obstruction and intermittent profuse epistaxis. He has a
firm pinkish mass in the nasopharynx. All of the following i nvestigations are done in this case
except:
Options
X-ray base of skull
Carotid angiography
CT scan
Biopsy
IOC for angiofibroma is:
Options
CT scaan
MRI
Angiography
Plain X-ray
An 1 8-year-old boy presented with repeated epistaxis and there was a mass arising from the
lateral wall of his nose extending into the nasopharynx. It was decided to operate him. All of the
following are true regarding his management except:
Options
Requires adequate amount of blood to be transfused
A lateral rhinotomy approach may be used
Transpalatal approach used
Transmaxillary approach
Treatment of choice for angiofibroma:
Options
Surgery
Radiotherapy
Both
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy is used in treatment of angiofibroma when it involves:
Options
Cheek
Orbit
Middle cranial fossa
Cavernous sinus
Most common site for nasopharyngeal carcinoma:
Options
Nasal septum
Fossa of Rosen muller
Vault of nasopharynx
Anterosuperior wall
Nasopharyngeal Ca is caused by:
Options
EBV
Papilloma virus
Parvo virus
Adeno virus
Most common presentation in nasopharyngeal carcinoma is with:
Options
Epistaxis
Hoarseness of voice
Nasal stuffiness
Cervical lymphadenopathy
A 70-year-old male presents with Neck nodes. Examination reveals a Dull Tympanic Membrance,
deafness and tinnitus and on evaluation Audiometry gives Curve B. The most probable diagnosis
is:
Options
Fluid in maddle ear
Tumor in interior ear
Sensorineuronal hearing loss
A 70-year-old man presented with left sided conductive hearing loss, o/e Tt'I intact and Type B
curve on tympanogram. Next step is:
Options
Myrinogotomy and grommet insertion
Conservative management
Type 3 tympanoplasty
Endoscopic examination to look for nasopharyngeal causes
Nasopharyngeal Ca causes deafness by:
Options
Temporal bone metastasis
Middle ear infiltration
Serous effusion
Radiation therapy
Homer's syndrome is caused by:
Options
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma metastasis
Facial bone injury
Maxillary sinusites
Ethmoid polyp
Trotter's triad is seen in carcinoma of:
Options
Maxilla
Larynx
Nasopharynx
Ethmoid sinus
Trotter's triad includes all of the following except:
Options
Mandibular Neuralgia
Deafness
Palatal palsy
Seizures
Which among the following is not true regarding nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
Options
Associated with EBV infection
Starts in the fossa of Rosen muller
Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice
Adenocarcinoma is usual
Which of the following is not true about nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
Options
Bimodal age distribution
EBV is implicated as etiological agent
Squamous cell carcinoma is common
Nasopharyngectomy and lymph node dissection is mainstay of treatment
Treatment of choice in nasopharyngeal carcinoma:
Options
Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy
Surgery
Surgery and radiotherapy
True about Plummer-Vinson syndrome:
Options
Web is M/C in lower esophagus
Web is M/C in mid esophagus
Web is M/C in postcricoid region
It occurs due to abnormal vessels
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Question (1/5)
Gold standard test in evaluation of OSA is :

Options
Polysomnography
CT
MRI
EEG
Muller's maneuver is done in:
Options
Nasophar yngeal CA
Tongue CA
OSA
Oropharyngeal CA
All of the following are true about obstructive sleep apnea syndrome except:
Options
Females affected more than males
Commonly associated w ith hypertension
Day time sleepiness is seen
>5 episodes of apnea per hou r
A 36 years old obese man was suffering from hypertension and snoring. Patient was a known
smoker. In Sleep test, there were 5 apnea/hyperapnoes episodes per hour He was given anti
hypertensives
Prev and advised to quit smoking. Next line of management
Skip
Options
Next
Uvu lopalatopharyngeoplasty
Weight reduction and diet plan
Nasal CPAP
Mandibular repositioning sling
All are true about esophagoscopy except:
Options
Compr ess the poster ior part of tongue
Tip of the esophagoscope lies in pyriform fossa
Epiglottis should be lifted up
Incisiors mu st act as fulcrum
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/40)
Question
30. 30
All31.
of31the following are hyaline cartilages except:
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.Epiglottis
34
35.Arytenoid
35
36. 36
Cricoid
37. 37
38.Thyroid
38
39. 39
Thyroid
40. 40 cartilage develops from:
Options
4th brachial arch
6th brachial arch
Both of the above
None of the above
Epiglottis develops from
Options
Second arch
Third arch
Fourth arch
Six arch
Identify the membrane marked as 'X' in the figure :
Prev
Skip
Next
Options
Thyrohyoid membrane
Cricothy roid membrane
Cricotracheal membrane
None
Which of the following is not attached at oblique line?
Options
Sternothyroid
Thyrohyoid
Middle constrictor
Inferior constrictor
Leaf-shaped cartilage of larynx is:
Options
Thyroid
Epiglottis
Cricoid
Erythroid
All o f the following spaces are seen in relation to larynx except:
Options
Space of Boyer
Space of Tucker
Reinke's space
Space of Gillette
Narrowest part in respiratory tract in adult is:
Options
Trachea
Glottis
Supraglottis
Subglottis
Narrowest part in an infant's respiratory tract is:
Options
Subglottis
Glottis
Carina
None
Which of the following is not true about Reinke's space?
Options
Potential space with scanty subepithelial connective tissue
Lies under the epithelium of true vocal cords
Lies superficial to elastic layer of vocal cords
Lies under the epithelium of false vocal cords
Which of the following is the only intrinsic muscle of larynx that lies outside the laryngeal
framework?
Options
Cricothiroid
Superior constrictor
Cricopharyngeus
Lateral cricothyroid
Abductor of vocal cord is
Options
Posterior cricoarytenoid
Cricothyroid
Lateralcricoarytenoid
None of the above
Laryngeal mirror is warmed before use by placing:
Options
Glass surface on flame
Ba ck of mirror on flame
Whole mirror into flame
Mirror in boiling water
Palpatory thud or audible slap is seen in:
Options
Tracheal foreign body
Bronchial foreign body
Laryngeal foreign body
None of the above
Laryngeal cartilage forming complete circle:

Options
Arytenoid
Cricoid
Thyroid
Hyoid
Narrowest part of infantile larynx is:
Options
Supraglottic
Subglottic
Glottic
None of the above
Abductor of vocal cord is:
Options
Cricothyroid
Lateral cricoarytenoid
Cricohyoid
All are elevators of larynx except:
Options
Thyrohyoid
Digastric
Stylohyoid
Sternohyoid
Sensory nerve supply of larynx below the level of vocal cord is:
Options
External branch of superior laryngeal nerve
Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Inferior pharyngeal
Supraglottis includes all of the following except:
Options
Aryepiglottic fold
False cord
Lingual surface of epiglottis
Laryngeal surface of epiglottis
The water cane in the larynx (saccules) are present in:
Options
Paraglottic space
Pyriform fossa
Reinke's space
Laryngeal ventricles
Vocal cord is lined by:
Options
Stratified columnar epithelium
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium
Cuboidal epithelium
Inlet of larynx is formed by:
Options
Ventricular fold
Aryepiglottic fold
Glossoepiglottic
Vocal ford
A neonate while suckling milk can respire without difficulty due to:
Options
Start soft palate
Small tongue
High larynx
Small pharynx
Laryngocele arises from:
Options
Anterior commissure
Saccule of the ventricle
True cords
False cords
Laryngocele arises as herniation of laryngeal mucosa through the following membrane
Options
Thyrohyoid
Cricothyroid
Cricotracheal
Crisosternal
Most common congenital anomaly of larynx:
Options
Laryngeal web
Laryngomalacia
Laryngeal stenosis
Vocal and palsy
Which is not true about laryngomalacia?
Options
Omega-shaped epiglottis
Stridor increases on crying, but decreases on placing the child in prone position
Most common congenital anomaly of the larynx
Surgical management of the airway by tracheostomy is the preferred initial treatment
Most common mode of treatment for laryngomalacia is:
Options
Reassurance
Medical
Surgery
Wait and watch
M/C cause of intermittent stridor in a 10-day-old child shortly afterbirth is:
Options
Laryngomalacia
Foreign body
Vocal nodule
Hypertrophy of turbinate
Most common cause of stridor in children is:
Options
Laryngomalacia
Congenital laryngeal paralysis
Foreign body in larynx
Congenital laryngeal tumors
Main treatment of congenital laryngeal stridor is:
Options
Tracheostomy
Steroid therapy
Reassurance to the child's parents
Amputating epiglottis
Stridor is caused by all except
Options
Hypocalcemia
Asthma
Epiglottis
Laryngeal tumor
A 2-year-old boy presenting with sudden severe dyspnea, most common cause is:
Options
Foreign body
Bronchiolitis
Asthmatic attack
None
Stridor in adults is most commonly caused by
Options
Reinke's edema
Malignancy
Acute severe asthma
Toxic gas inhalation
The most common cause of laryngeal stridor in a 60-yearold male is:
Options
Thyroid carcinoma
Foreign body aspiration
Carcinoma larynx
Laryngofissure is:
Options
Opening the larynx in midline
Making window in thyroid cartilage
Removal of arytenoids
Removal of epiglottis
Which of the following is difficult to visualize or examine on indirect laryngoscopy?
Options
True vocal cord
Anterior commmissure
Epiglottis
False vocal cord
Microlaryngoscopy was started by:
Options
Bruce Benjamin
Kleinsasser
Chevalier Jackson
None of the above
The procedure that should precede microlaryngoscopy is:
Options
Pharyngoscopy
Esophagoscopy
Rhinoscopy
Laryngoendoscopy
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/41)
Question
30. 30
31. 31 sign is seen in:
Steeple
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.Croup
34
35.Acute
35 epiglottis
36. 36
Laryngomalacia
37. 37
38.Quinsy
38
39. 39
A 40.
6-year-old girl complaining of high fever, hoarseness of voice and respiratory distress was
40
bought
41. 41to ENT OPD. The child gets some relief in the position shown in figure. The most probable
diagnosis is:
Options
Croup
PrevLaryngitis
Skip
Epig lottitis
NextPseudocroup
All of the following are true about pachydermia laryngitis except;
Options
Hoarseness of voice
Biopsy shows acanthosis and hyperkeratosis
Premalignant condition
Involves posterior part of larynx
The cause of contact ulcer in vocal cord is:
Options
Voice a buse
Smoking
TB
Malignancy
Mouse nibbled appearance of vocal cord is seen in
Options
Vocal cord palsy
Vocal nodules
Larynx Ca
TB larynx
Turban shaped epiglottis is seen in:
Options
Acute laryngitis
Allergic laryngitis
Laryngeal TB
Carcinoma larynx
The muscle responsible for falset to voice of puberphonia is:
Options
Vocalis
Cricothyroid
Thyroarytenoid
Voice abnormality due to faulty use of false vocal cords is:
Options
Dysphonia plica ventricularis
Functional aphonia
Puberphonia
Mogiphonia
Identify the condition shown in plate:

Options
Vocal nodule
Vocal polyp
Leucoplasia of vocal cords
Vocal cord cyst
Following is not true about spasmodic dysphonia
Options
Patient with the abductor type have strained and strangled voice
Botulinum toxin is the standard treatment for it
May be associated with other focal dysphonia
Local laryngeal disorder
Gutzman pressure test is done for:
Options
Laryngomalacia
Puberphonia
Laryngeal polyp
Vocal cord polyp
Epiglottitis in a 2-year-old child occurs most commonly due to infection with:
Options
Influenza virus
Staphylococcus aureus
Haemophius influenzae
Respiratory syncytial virus
A child with features of upper respiratory infection, on investigations is found to have

'thumbprint sign' diagnosis is:
Options
Acute larynagotracheobronchitis
Acute epiglottitis
Acute laryngeal diphtheria
Laryngomalacia
Thumb sign in lateral X-ray of neck seen in:
Options
Epiglottitis
Internal hemorrhage
Saccular cyst
Ca epiglottis
In acute epiglottis, common cause of death is:
Options
Acidosis
Respiratory obstruction
Atelactasis
Laryngospasm
The antibiotic of choice in acute epiglottitis pending culture sensitivity report is:
Options
Erythromycin
Rolitetracycline
Doxycycline
Ampicillin
An 1-year-old infant has biphasic stridor, barking cough and difficulty in breathing since 3-4 days.
He has highgrade fever and leukocyte count is increased. Which of the following would not be a
true statement regarding the clinical condition of the child?
Options
It is more common in boys than in girls
Subglotic area is the common site of involvement
Antibiotics are mainstay of treatment
Narrowing of subglottic space with ballooning of hypopharynx is seen
Pachydermia laryngitis-M/C site of involvement:
Options
Arytenoids cartilage
Posterior 1/3 and anterior 1/3 commissure
Anterior 1/3 commissure
Vestibular fold
The cause for contact ulcer in vocal cords is:
Options
Voice a buse
Smoking
TB
Malignancy
Which of the following statements is not true for contact ulcer?
Options
The commonest site is the junction of a nterior 1/3rd and middle 1/3rd of vocal cord and
gastroesophageal reflux is the causative factor
Can be caused by intubation injury
The vocal process is the site and is caused/aggravated by acid reflux
Can be caused by adductor dysphonia
In a patient hoarseness of voice was found to be having pachydermia laryngitis. All of the
following are true except:
Options
It is a hyperkeratotic lesion present within the anterior 2/3rd of the vocal cords
It is not premalignant lesion
Diagnosis is made by biopsy
On microscopy it shows acanthosis and hyperkeratosis
A middle-aged male comes to the outpatient department (OPD) with the only complaint of
hoarseness of voice for the past 2 years. He has been a chronic smoker for 30 years. On
examination, a reddish area of mucosal irregularity overlying a portion of both cords was seen.
Management would include all except:
Options
Cessation of smoking
Bilateral cordectomy
Microlaryngeal surgery for biopsy
Regular follow-up
Steeple sign is seen in:
Options
Croup
Acute epiglottitis
Laryngomalacia
Quinsy
Wrong about laryngitis sicca:
Options
Also known as laryngitis atrophica
Caused by Klebsiella ozaena
Caused by Rhinosporodium
Common in women
Tubercular laryngitis affects primarily

Options
Anterior commissure
Posterior commissure of larynx
Anywhere within the larynx
Superior surface of larynx
Mouse-nibbled apperance of vocal cord is seen in:
Options
TB
Syphillis
Cancer
Papilloma
Patient following peanut consumption presented with laryngeal edema, stridor, hoarseness:
Options
Angioneurotic edema
Pharyngeal abscess
Foreign body larynx
Foreign body bronches
Patient following peanut consumption presented with laryngeal edema, stridor, hoarseness of
voice and swelling of tongue. Most likely diagnosis is:
Options
Angioneurotic edema
Pharyngeal abscess
Foreign body larynx
Foreign body bronchus
Reinke's edema is seen in:
Options
Vestibular folds
Edges of vocal cords
Between true and false vocal cords
In pyriform fossa
Reinke's layer seen in:
Options
Vocal cord
Tympanic membrane
Cochlea
Reissner's membrane
Pharyngeal pseudosulcus is seen secondary to:
Options
Vocal abuse
Laryngopharyngeal reflux
Tuberculosis
Corticosteroid usage
In dysphonia plica ventricularis, sound is produced by:
Options
False vocal cords
True vocal cords
Ventricle of larynx
Tongue
Rhinolalia clausa is associated with all of the following except:
Options
Allergic rhinitis
Palatal paralysis
Adenoids
Nasal polyps
In a patient with hypertrophied adenoids, the voice abnormality that is seen is:
Options
Rhinolalia clausa
Rhinolalia aperta
Hot potato voice
Staccato voice
Young man whose voice has not broken is called
Options
Puberphonia
Androphonia
Plica ventricularis
Functional aphonia
Androphonia can be corrected by doing:
Options
Type 1 thyroplasty
Type 2 thyroplasty
Type 3 thyroplasty
Type 4 thyroplasty
Key nob appearance is seen in:
Options
Functional aphonia
Puberphonia
Phonasthenia
Vocal cord paralysis
Most common location of vocal nodule
Options
Anterior 1/3 and posterior 2/3 junction
Anterior commissure
Posterior 1/3 and anterior 2/3 junction
Posterior commissure
All are true about vocal cord nodule except:
Options
Caused by phonotrauma
Commonly occur at Junction of middle and posterior 1/3
Common at junction of A 1/3 with P 2/3
Common in teachers
According to European Laryngeal Society, subligamentous cordectomy is classfied as:
Options
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Change in pitch of sound is produced by which muscle?
Options
Post cricoarytenoids
Lateral cricoarytenoids
Cricothyroid
Vocalis
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/31)
Question
30. 30
31. 31of vocal cord includes
Tensor
Options
Cricothyroid
Thyroarytenoid
Interarytenoid
Which of the following muscle is not supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve?
Options
Post cricoarytenoid
Thyroarytenoid
Lateral cricoarytenoid
Cricothyroid
Cricothyroid muscle is supplied by:
Options
Superior laryngeal nerve
External laryngeal nerve
Vagus nerve
Position of vocal cord in cadaver is:
Options
Prev
SkipMedian
NextParamedian
Intermediate
Full abduction
Why vocal cord looks pale?
Options
Vocal cord is muscle, lack of blood vessels network
Absence of mucosa, no blood vessels
Absence of submucosa, no blood vessels
Absence of mucosa with blood vessels
Right sided-vocal cord palsy seen in:
Options
Larynx carcinoma
Aortic aneurysm
Mediastinal lymphadenopathy
Right vocal nodule
The most common cause of vocal cord palsy is:
Options
Total thyroidectomy
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Aneurysm of aorta
Tubercular lymph nodes
Left-sided vocal cord palsy is commonly due to:
Options
Left hilar bronchial carcinoma
Mitral stenosis
Thyroid malignancy
Thyroid surgery
Vocal cord palsy is not associated with
Options
Vertebral secondaries
Left atrial enlargement
Secondaries in mediastinum
Most common cause of B/L recurrent laryngeal paralysis:
Options
Thyroid surgery
Cancercervical oesophagus
Blow from nasal cavity
Thyroid cancer
Which one of the following lesions of vocal cord is dangerous to life?
Options
Bilateral abductor paralysis
Combined paralysis of left side superior and recurrent laryngeal nerve
Superior laryngeal nerve paralysis
In complete bilateral palsy of recurrent laryngeal nerves, there is:
Options
Complete loss of speech with stridor and dyspnea
Complete loss of speech but not difficulty in breathing
Preservation of speech with severe stridor and dyspnea
Preservation of speech and not difficu lty in breathing
The voice in a patient with bilateral abductor paralysis of larynx is:
Options
Puberphonia
Phonasthenia
Dysphonia plicae ventricularis
Normal or good voice
In B/L, abductor palsy of vocal cords following is done except
Options
Teflon paste
Cordectomy
Nerve muscle implant
Arytenoidectomy
Injury to superior laryngeal nerve causes:
Options
Hoarseness
Paralysis of vocal cords
No effect
Loss of timbre of voice
Paralysis of recurrent laryngeal nerve true is:
Options
Common in left side
50% idiopathic
Cord will be laterally
Speech therapy given
Partial recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy produces vocal cord in which position:
Options
Cadaveric
Abducted
Adducted
Paramedian
Type I thyroplasty is for:
Options
Vocal cord medialization
Vocal cord lateralization
Vocal cord shortening
Vocal cord lengthening
In thyroplasty type 2, vocal cord is:
Options
Lateralized
Medialized
Shorterned
Lengthened
A 10-year-old boy developed hoarseness of voice following an attack of diphtheria. On

examination, his right vocal cord was paralyzed. The treatment of choice for paralyzed vocal cord
will be:
Options
Gel foam injection of right vocal cord
Fat injection of right vocal cord
Thyroplasty type-I
Wait for spontaneous recovery of vocal cord
A patient presented with stridor and dyspnea which he developed after an attack of upper
respiratory tract infection. On examination he was found to have a 3 mm glottic opening. All of
the following are used in the management except:
Options
Tracheostomy
Arytenoidectomy
Teflon injection
Cordectomy
Which of the following is the most common cause of vocal cord palsy?
Options
Trauma
Malignancy
Inflammatory
Surgical
All of the following are true about superior laryngeal nerve except;
Options
Supplies cricothyroid
Internal laryngeal branch supplies larynx above vocal cord
External laryngeal nerve tenses vocal cord
Supplies all muscles except cricothyroid
Galens anastomosis between SLN and RLN is:
Options
Pure sensory
Pure motor
Secretomotor
Mixed
Glottic chink, in cadaveric positions of vocal cords is:
Options
3.5 mm
7 mm
19 mm
3 mm
Wagner and Grossman theory is related to:
Options
Palatal palsy
Vocal cord palsy
Facial palsy
Hypoglossal palsy
Most common nerve injured in ligation of superior thyroid artery
Options
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Facial nerve
Mandibular nerve
External laryngeal nerve
The voice is not affected in:
Options
Unilateral abductor palsy
Lateral adductor palsy
B/L superior laryngeal palsy
Total adductor palsy
Which of the following is life threatening?

Options
U/L abductor paralysis
B/L abductor paralysis
U/L adductor paralysis
B/L adductor paralysis
Muscular voice in females is treated by:
Options
Thyroplasty type 1
Thyroplasty type 2
Thyroplasty type 3
Thyroplasty type 4
Voice in B/L abductor palsy:
Options
High pitch
Aphonia
Normal
Hoarseness
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/39)
Question
30. 30
31.benign
M/C 31 tumor of larynx in a child from 2-5 years is:
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.Chondroma
34
35.Juvenile
35 laryngeal papilloma
36. 36
Infantile hemangioma
37. 37
38.Scleroma
38
39. 39
Juvenile papillomatosis is caused by:
Options
HPV
EBV
CMV
HSV
M/C site for laryngeal cartilaginous tumors is:
Options
Arytenoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Cricoid cartilage
Corniculate cartilage
Chondromas are most commonly seen in which cartilage?
Options
Prev
SkipCricoid
NextThyroid
Arytenoid
Epiglottis
Benign juvenile papilloma in children is:
Options
Solitary and senile
Has tendency to develop into papillary carci noma
Multiple and friable
Has familial inheritance
Identify the condition shown in the plate
Options
Su praglottic CA
Glottic CA
Subglottic CA
None
Ackerman's tumor is best treated by:
Options
Surgery
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy
Combined T It
Structures preserved in radical neck dissection is:
Options
Vagus nerve
Submandibular gland
Sternocleidomastoid
Internal Jugular Vein
Which structure is preserved during modified radical neck dissection?
Options
Phrenic nerve
Submandibular gland
Sternocleidomastoid
Thoracic duct
Level V cervical nodes includes:
Options
Upper jugular nodes
Middle jugular nodes
Lower jugular nodes
Posterior triangle nodes
Maintenance of airway during laryngectomy in a patient with carcinoma of larynx is best done
by:
Options
Tracheostomy
Laryngeal mask airway
Laryngeal tube
Combitube
IOC to detect involvement of laryngeal cartilage, laryngeal tumors
Options
CT
MRI
Biopsy
Toluidine blue staining
Bloom singer prosthesis for voice rehabilitation is used in:
Options
Total laryngectomy
Near laryngectomy
Hemi laryngectomy
None
Staging of glottic carcinoma of larynx with fixation of vocal cord is:
Options
T1
T2
T3
T4
Structures preserved in supracricoid partial laryngectomy are all except:

Options
Hyoid bone
Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Recurrent laryngeal N
Which of the following is precancerous lesion:
Options
Pachydermia of larynx
Laryngitis sicca
Keratosis of larynx
Scleroma larynx
Of the following statements about Recurrent Laryngeal papillomatosis are true, except:
Options
Caused by human papilloma virus (HPV)
HPV6 and HPVl 1 are most commonly implicated
HPV6 is more virulent than HPVl 1
Transmission to neonate occurs through contact with mother during vaginal delivery
True about multiple papillomatosis:
Options
HSV is causative agent
Radiotherapy treatment of choice
It is premalignant
It is more common in 15 to 33 yrs
Topical treatment for recurrent respiratory papillomatosis includes:
Options
Acyclovir
Cidofovir
Ranitidine
Zinc
All the following are true about Laryngeal carcinoma except:
Options
More common in females
Common in patients over 40 years of age
After laryngectomy, esophageal voice can be used
Poor prognosis
The most common and earliest manifestation of carcinoma of the glottis is:
Options
Hoarseness
Hemoptysis
Cervical lymph nodes
Stridor
Lymph mode metastasis in neck is a lmost never seen with:
Options
Carcinoma vocal cords
Supraglottic carcinoma
Carcinoma of tonsil
Papillary carcinoma thyroids
Which of the following carcinomas commonly presents with neck nodes:
Options
Cricoid
Glottic
Epiglottis
Anterior commissure
True statement about infraglottic carcinoma larynx:
Options
Commonly spreads to mediastinal nodes
Second most common carcinoma
Most common carci noma
Spreads to submental nodes
The treatment of choice for stage I cancer larynx is:
Options
Radical surgery
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy
Surgery followed by radiotherapy
In laryngeal cancer if anterior commissure is involved best management would be:
Options
Laryngectomy
Conservative surgery
RT
Chemotherapy
For a mobile tumor on vocal cord, treatment is:
Options
Surgery
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy
None of the above
For carcinoma larynx stage Ill treatment of choice:
Options
Radiotherapy and surgery
Chemotherapy with cisplatin
Partial laryngectomy with chemotherapy
Radiotherapy with chemotherapy
An elderly male presents with T3NO laryngeal carcinoma. What would be the management?
Options
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed b y radiotherapy
Concurrent chemoradiotherapy
Radial radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
Radical radiotherapy without chemotherapy
Radiotherapy is the TOC for:
Options
Nasopharyngeal Ca T3 N
Supraglottic Ca T3 N0
Glottic Ca T3 N1
Subglottic Ca T3 N0
A patient of carcinoma larynx with stridor presents in casualty, immediate management is:
Options
Planned tracheostomy
Immediate tracheostomy
High dose steroid
Intubate, give bronchodilator and wait for 1 2 hours, if no response, proceed to tracheostomy
Which of the following is not the indication of near total Laryngectomy?
Options
T3 stage
Anterior commissure involvement
Supraglotic involvement
Both arytenoids involved
A patient presents with carcinoma of the larynx involving the left false cord, left a rytenoids and
the left a ryepiglottic folds with bilateral mobile true cords. Treatment of choice is:
Options
Vertical hemilaryngectomy
Horizontal hemilaryngectomy
Radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy
Total laryngectomy
A case of carcinoma larynx with the involvement of anterior commissure and right vocal cord,
developed perichondritis of thyroid cartilage. Which of the following statements is true for the
management of this case?
Options
He should be given radical radiotherapy as this can cure early tumors
He should be treated with combination of chemotherapy and radiotherapy
He should first receive radiotherapy and if residual tumor is present then should under go
laryngectomy
He should first undergo laryngectomy a nd then postoperative radiotherapy
Treatment of choice for carcinoma larynx T1 NOMO stage:
Options
External beam radiotherapy
Radioactive implants
Surgery
Surgery and radiotherapy
The preferred treatment of verrucous carcinoma of the larynx is:
Options
Pulmonary surgery
Electron bea m therapy
Total laryngectomy
Endoscopic removal
Laryngofissure is:
Options
Opening the larynx in midline
Making window in thyroid cartilage
Removal of arytenoids
Removal of epiglottis
Laser used in laryngeal work?
Options
Argon
CO2
Holmium
Nd Yag
A S-year-old male with worsen i n g hoa rseness for 3 months and stridor for 2 weeks. What is the
likely diagnosis?
Options
Vocal nodule
Acute epiglottis
Respiratory papillomatosis
Carcinoma larynx
Main
Overview
Prime Questions
Videos
Prime Assessment
Q-Paper
Create Test
Performance
BookMarked
Profile
Profile
Profile
Help Sign out
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26
27. 27
28. 28
29. 29 (1/33)
Question
30. 30
31. 31of the following anesthetics should be avoided in middle ear surgery?
Which
32. 32
Options
33. 33
Halothane
N2O
Ether
Isoflurane
Brewer-Luckhardt reflex includes the following except:
Options
Associated with ear surgeries
Associated with tonsil lectomy
Causes laryngospasm
Causes cardiac arrhythmias/tachypnea
High tracheostomy is indicated in:
Options
Carcinoma
TB
Tetanus
Diphtheria
LAM is related to:
Options
Prev
SkipLaser assisted myringoplasty
NextLaser assisted myringotomy
Laser assisted meatoplasty
Laser assisted mastoidectomy
Commonest indication for myringotomy is:
Options
Myringitis bullosa
Serous otitis media
Middle ear defect
Mastoiditis
Tracheostomy is indicated in all except:
Options
Tracheal stenosis
Bilateral vocal cord palsy
Foreign body larynx
Uncomplicated bronchial asthma
Tracheostomy is indicated in all except:
Options
Carcinoma larynx
Uncomplicated bronchial asthma
Diphtheria
Comatose patient
The most common indication for tracheostomy is:
Options
Laryngeal diphtheria
Carcinoma
Asthma
Tracheostomy is not indicated in:
Options
Emphysema
Bronch iectosis
Atelectasis
Pneumothorax
A high tracheostomy may be indicated in:
Options
Scleroma of the larynx
Multiple papillomatosis of larynx
Bilateral vocal cord paralysis
Carcinoma of larynx
True about tracheostomy tube are all except:
Options
Double tube
Made of titanium silver alloy
Cuffed tube for IPPV
Has to be changed ideally in every 2 to 3 days
All are true about tracheostomy tube except:
Options
Jackson's tube has 2 lumens
Removal of metallic tube in every 2-3 days
Cuffed tube is used to prevent aspiration of pharyngeal secretion
Made up of titanium-silver alloy
Montgomery tube used in ENT procedure is a:
Options
Double barrel tube
Lobster tail tube
Airway tube
Silicone tube
In emergency tracheostomy following structures are damaged except
Options
Isthmus of thyroid
Inferior thyoid vein
Inferior thyroid artery
Thyoid IMA
A 30-year-old Ravi presented with gradually increasing respiratory distress since 4 days. She gives
history of hospitalization and mechanical ventilation with orotracheal intubation for 2 weeks.
Now she is diagnosed as having severe laryngotracheal stenosis. Next step in the management is:
Options
Laser excision and stent insertion
Steroid
Tracheal dilation
Resection and end-to-end anastomosis
Topical Mitomycin C is useful in treatment of?
Options
Angiofibroma
Tracheal stenosis
Skull base osteomyelitis
Laryngeal carcinoma
The commonest site of aspiration of a foreign body in the supine position is into the:
Options
Right upper lobe apical
Right lower lobe apical
Left basal
Right medial
"Gold standard" surgical procedure for prevention of aspiration is:
Options
Thyroplasty
Tracheostomy
Tracheal division and permanent tracheostomy
Feeding gastrostomy/jejunostomy
Best management for inhaled foreign body in an infant is:
Options
Bronchoscopy
IPPV and intubation
Steroid
Tracheostomy
Openings of the tube of bronchoscope are known as:
Options
Holes
Apertures
Vents
Any of the above
In a one-year-old child intubation is done using:
Options
Straight blade with uncuffed tube
Cu rved blade with uncuffed tube
Straight blade with cuffed tube
Straight curved blade with cuffed tube
A 2-year-old child with intercostal retraction and increasing cyanosis was brought with a history
of foreign body aspiration which might be a lifesaving in this situation
Options
Oxygen through face mask
Heimlich's manoeuvre
Extracardiac massage
Intracaridiac adrenaline
Bronchoscopy visualizes all except:

Options
Trachea
Vocal cords
First segmental subdivision of bronchi
Subcarinal lymph nodes
Which of the following is not a contraindication for bronchoscopy:
Options
Lesions of cervical spine
Cardiac failure
Active bleeding
Trismus
A 2-year-old child develops acute respiratory distress. O/E breath sounds are decreased with
wheeze on right side. Chest X-ray shows diffuse opacity on right sideMost probable diagnosis:
Options
Pneumothorax
Pleural effusion
U/L emphysema
A 5-year- old boy having dinner suddenly becomes aphonic and is brought to causality for the
complaint of respiratory difficulty. What is the most appropriate management?
Options
Cricothyroidotomy
Tracheostomy
Humidified O2
Heimlich maneuver
Route of approach of glossopharyngeal neurectomy:
Options
Tonsillectomy approach
Transpalatal approach
Transmandibular approach
Transpharyngeal approach
All are true statement about tracheostomy and larynx in children except:
Options
Omega shaped epiglottis
Laryngeal cartilages are soft and collapsable
Larynx is high in children
Trachea can be easily palpated
Kashima operation is done for:

Options
Vocal cord palsy
Recurrent cholesteatoma
Atrophic rhinitis
Choanal atresia
Structures preserved in radical neck dissection
Options
Internal jugular vein
Carotid artery
Accessory nerve
Brachial plexus
In right-handed person, direct laryngoscope is held by which hand?
Options
Left
Right
Both
Either of these
Laser uvulopharyngopa latoplasty is the surgery done for which of the following?
Options
Snoring of diseases of ear
Recurrent pharyngotonsillitis
Cleft palate
Stammering
A construction worker met with an accident and presented to the trauma centre when a heavy
concrete block fell over his face. He was found to have severe maxillofacial and laryngeal injury.
He was not able to open his mouth and, on examination, he is found to have multiple fractures
and obstruction in nasopharynx as well as oropharynx. In order to maintain a patent airway, the
following procedure was done for him . Which of the following options correct define the
procedure?
Options
Submental endotracheal intubation
Emergency tracheostomy
Cricothyroidotomy
Subcutaneous tracheostomy
MOHAMMAD
RIZWAN

Ent Exam Ism

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Ent Exam Ism

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Scanned by CamScanner

Active Answered Skiped

Bone anchored hearing aid is composed of all of the following except:

Cochlear implant, which is true:

Site for placing an auditory brainstem implant:

In cochlear implants electrodes are most commonly placed at:

Cochlear implant is done in:

Which of the following statement regarding cochlear implant is true:

Cochlear implant is done if the following is intact:

True about BAHA:

Father of neuro-otology is:

All are true about cochlear implant except:

Which of the following part of cochlear implant is implanted during surgery:

What is placed during surgery for cochlear implant:

Active Answered Skiped

Acoustic schwannoma most common site is:

IOC for acoustic neuroma is:

Most common cerebellopontine angle tumour is:

Schwannoma involves the:

Acoustic neuroma commonly arise from:

In acoustic neuroma cranial nerve to be involved earliest is:

The earliest symptom of acoustic nerve tumor is:

Earliest sign seen in Acoustic neuroma is:

Acoustic neuroma causes:

Hitzelberger's sign is seen in:

In acoustic neuroma all are seen except:

Earliest ocular ﬁnding in acoustic neuroma:

Vestibular neuroma not correct:

True about Acoustic neuroma:

Acoustic neuroma of 1 cm diameter, the investigation of choice:

Active Answered Skiped

Impedance matching occurs due to:

Primary receptor cells of hearing:

Otolith organs are concerned with function of:

Appreciation of sound occurs in:

Trapezoid body is associated with:

Best discrimination of pitch occurs at ___ frequency:

Threshold of hearing in a young normal adult is:

All of the following are true for organ of Corti except:

The centre of stapedial reﬂex is:

Stapedial reﬂex is mediated by:

Endolymph in the inner ear:

All of the following are concerned with auditory pathway except:

Higher auditory center determine:

Bones of middle ear are responsible for which of the following?

Semicircular canals are stimulated by:

Horizontal semicircular canal responds to:

Angular movements are sensed by:

All are correctly matched except:

Endocochlear potential is:

Active Answered Skiped

The sensor neural hearing loss in Meniere's disease is characterized by:

Tulio phenomenon is seen in all except:

Chromosome responsible for hereditary Meniere's disease is:

Diagnostic test for Meniere's disease:

Which of the following is not a typical feature of Meniere's disease?

Meniere's disease is characterized by all except:

All are manifestations of Meniere's disease except:

Meniere's disease is manifested by all of the symptoms except:

Meniere's disease is characterized by:

All are true about Meniere's disease except:

Meniere's disease is:

True about Endolymphatic hydrops: