NVS Assistant Section Officer: Previous Year Paper

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NVS Assistant Previous Year Paper

Section Officer 10 March 2022 (English)
https://testbook.com/ https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.testbook.tbapp
Test Date 10/03/2022

Test Time 8:30 AM - 11:00 AM
Subject Assistant Section Officer
Section : Reasoning Ability
Q.1 नीचे दिए गए अनुक्रम में ऐसे कितने व्यंजन हैं जिनके ठीक बाद एक संख्या और ठीक पहले एक स्वर है?
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OK305A6O7WE8U3VE8NEM6A64Z1C2ED32E3A4PU4T4
Ans 1. 5
2. 4
3. 6
4. 3
Question ID : 7532299607
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.2 ‘A & B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’
‘A # B’ means ‘A is the son of B’
If F @ G + C @ S & K # T, then how is C related to T?

Ans 1. Son
2. Daughter’s husband
3. Son’s wife
4. Nephew
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Page - 1
Q.3 70 छात्रों की एक कक्षा में, गीतिका ने 17 छात्रों से अधिक अंक प्राप्त किए और श्रेयांश ने 37 छात्रों से कम अंक
प्राप्त किए। कितने छात्रों ने गीतिका से अधिक अंक प्राप्त किए लेकिन श्रेयांश से कम अंक प्राप्त किए?
Ans 1. 15
2. 12
3. 13
4. 14
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.4 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the given number series?
75, 91, 127, 191, 291, ?

Ans 1. 425
2. 435
3. 430
4. 418
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.5
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Page - 2
Q.6 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to sequentially replace the *
signs and to balance the given equation.
12 * 8 * 96 * 16 * 23 *79
Ans 1. ×, +, ÷, –, =
2. +, –, ÷, ×, =
3. +, ÷, –, ×, =
4. ÷, ×, –, +, =
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.7 Select the option that is related to the third letter-cluster in the same way as the
second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster.
PLURAL : ODUXOS :: PROTEGY : ?

Ans 1. SURWGJB
2. BJKWTUS
3. BJHXRVS
4. BJHWRUS
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.8 Which two numbers and two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation
correct?
72 ÷ 9 × 8 – 40 + 6 = 0
Ans 1. 40 and 6, + and ×
2. 40 and 6, ÷ and ×
3. 40 and 6, – and ×
4. 9 and 6, – and ×
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.9 At the time of sunrise, Kunal is standing in a park facing Garv. If the shadow of Garv
falls to the left of Kunal, which direction is Garv facing?
Ans 1. South
2. East
3. West
4. North
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Page - 3
Q.10 छ: मित्रों P, Q, R, S, T और U में से; U की आयु के वल एक व्यक्ति से अधिक है। T और S के बीच उतने ही
व्यक्ति हैं जितने R और Q के बीच हैं। R की आयु S से अधिक है लेकिन P से कम है। S की आयु U से अधिक
है। Q की आयु P से अधिक है। किसकी आयु R से अधिक लेकिन Q से कम है?
Ans 1. P
2. U
3. S
4. T
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.11 Which term will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
TV-16, QZ-125, ND-36, KH-343, ?

Ans 1. HM-64
2. HL-64
3. GH-512
4. HL-216
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.12 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III.
Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
No employer is a doctor.
All leaders are doctors.
All bureaucrats are leader.
Conclusions:
I. No bureaucrat is an employer.
II. No leader is an employer.
III. Some doctors are bureaucrats.
Ans 1. Only conclusions I and II follow
2. Only conclusions I and III follow
3. All conclusions I, II and III follow
4. Only conclusion I follows
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.13 If Q < T = R > G > D > E = M > W, then which of the following conclusions is correct?
Ans 1. T< D
2. Q = D
3. M < R
4. M > T
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Page - 4
Q.14 Pointing to the photograph of Raina, Pramod said, “She is my wife’s mother’s
daughter-in-law.” How is Raina’s husband related to Pramod’s wife?
Ans 1. Nephew
2. Son
3. Brother
4. Father
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.15
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.16 How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘PERCOLATION’ that have as many
letters between them as in the English alphabet. (Considering both left to right and
right to left sequence)
Ans 1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 4
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Page - 5
Q.17 नीचे दिए गए अनुक्रम में ऐसे कितने स्वर हैं जिनके ठीक बाद और ठीक पहले एक संख्या है?
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OK305A6O7WE8U3VE8NEM6A64Z1C2ED32E3A4PU4T4
Ans 1. 13
2. 12
3. 10
4. 11
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.18 Shalini walks 150 m towards the north from her shop. Then, she turns left and walks
180 m. She again turns left and walks 300 m. She finally turns left and walks 180 m.
How far and in which direction is she now with reference to her shop?
Ans 1. 150 m, East
2. 150 m, South
3. 180 m, South
4. 180 m, North
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.19 What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
equation?
63.997 ÷ 7.959 + 47.999 + 8.997 – 11.992 × 3.989 + 35.010 ÷ 4.996 = ?

Ans 1. 13
2. 18
3. 31
4. 24
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.20 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in some manner and one is
different. Identify the one that is different.
Ans 1. TWZCF
2. DGJMP
3. CFILO
4. NRUXA
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Page - 6
Comprehension:
दी गई जानकारी को पढ़िए और उससे संबंधित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
आठ मित्र A, B, C, D, E, F, G और H इसी क्रम में एक मेज के परितः मेज के कें द्र की ओर मुख करके समान दू री पर
वामावर्त्त बैठे हुए हैं। F दक्षिण-पश्चिम दिशा में बैठा है।
SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21 E का मुख किस दिशा में है?
Ans 1. पश्चिम
2. दक्षिण-पूर्व
3. पूर्व
4. उत्तर-पश्चिम
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:
Read the given information and answer the questions that follows.
Eight friends, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting anticlockwise in the same sequence

around a circular table, facing the centre, at equal distances between them. If F is sitting in
the south-west direction.
SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22 Then in which direction is C sitting?
Ans 1. North-east
2. South
3. North
4. South-east
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Comprehension:
A certain number of people are sitting in a line from left to right, all facing the same direction.
Sagar is towards the left of Mitali. Pulkit is at one of the ends. Only 4 students are sitting
between Mitali and Virat. Ketaki is to the immediate right of Virat and is at the 10th place from
the right end of the line. Sagar is 9th from the left end, and 11 students are sitting between
Sagar and Mitali. Pulkit and Sagar have 7 students between them. Mitali is 21st from the left
end and 16th from the right end. Jenny is at one of the ends, and 8 students are sitting
between Jenny and Ketaki.
SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23 What is Virat’s position from the right end of the line?
Ans 1. 12th
2. 11th
3. 10th
4. 9th
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Page - 7
Comprehension:
A certain number of people are sitting in a line from left to right, all facing the same direction.
Sagar is towards the left of Mitali. Pulkit is at one of the ends. Only 4 students are sitting
between Mitali and Virat. Ketaki is to the immediate right of Virat and is at the 10th place from
the right end of the line. Sagar is 9th from the left end, and 11 students are sitting between
Sagar and Mitali. Pulkit and Sagar have 7 students between them. Mitali is 21st from the left
end and 16th from the right end. Jenny is at one of the ends, and 8 students are sitting
between Jenny and Ketaki.
SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24 How many students are sitting in the line?
Ans 1. 37
2. 39
3. 38
4. 36
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Comprehension:
In the diagram, the ‘pentagon’ stands for ‘girls’, the ‘hexagon’ stands for ‘entrepreneurs’, and
the ‘circle’ stands for ‘tax-payers’. The numbers in different segments show the numbers of
persons in that segment.
SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25 How many tax-payers are entrepreneurs but NOT girls?
Ans 1. 32
2. 28
3. 10
4. 30
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Page - 8
Comprehension:
In the diagram, the ‘pentagon’ stands for ‘girls’, the ‘hexagon’ stands for ‘entrepreneurs’, and
the ‘circle’ stands for ‘tax-payers’. The numbers in different segments show the numbers of
persons in that segment.
SubQuestion No : 26
Q.26 How many girls are both tax-payers and entrepreneurs?
Ans 1. 22
2. 48
3. 28
4. 20
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Comprehension:
The codes for some letters are given below.
If the first letter of the word is a consonant and the fifth letter is a vowel, then both these
letters will be coded as ‘@’.
If the second letter of the word is a consonant and the fourth letter is also a consonant, then
both these letters will be coded as ‘Z’.
SubQuestion No : 27
Q.27 If the code for any letter is missing in the table, it would be coded as Y.
What is the code for the word ‘CUSTOMER’?
Ans 1. @ ^ > = @ Y + #
2. & ^ > Z @ Y + #
3. & ^ > = % Y + #
4. @ Z > Z @ Y + #
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Page - 9
Comprehension:
The codes for some letters are given below.
If the first letter of the word is a consonant and the fifth letter is a vowel, then both these
letters will be coded as ‘@’.
If the second letter of the word is a consonant and the fourth letter is also a consonant, then
both these letters will be coded as ‘Z’.
SubQuestion No : 28
Q.28 What is the code for the word ‘DECISION’?
Ans 1. = % @ ^ > % + &
2. = % # ^ > ^ + &
3. @ % # ^ @ ^ + &
4. = Z # Z > ^ + &
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
दी गई जानकारी को पढ़िए और उससे संबंधित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए।
जब संख्याओं की एक इनपुट पंक्ति संख्या व्यवस्थित करने वाली मशीन में डाली जाती है, तो मशीन प्रत्येक चरण में एक
विशेष नियम का पालन करते हुए उन्हें पुनर्व्यवस्थित करती है। इनपुट और पुनर्व्यवस्था के चरणों का एक उदाहरण
निम्नलिखित है।
इनपुट: 17, 41, 38, 58, 69, 85, 61

चरण I: 85, 17, 41, 38, 58, 69, 61
चरण II: 85, 69, 17, 41, 38, 58, 61
चरण III: 85, 69, 61, 17, 41, 38, 58
चरण IV: 85, 69, 61, 58, 17, 41, 38
चरण V: 85, 69, 61, 58, 42, 17, 38
चरण VI: 85, 69, 61, 58, 41, 38, 17
चरण VI अंतिम चरण है।
SubQuestion No : 29
Q.29 उपरोक्त चरणों में अपनाए गए नियम के अनुसार, नीचे दिए गए इनपुट के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा चरण
अंतिम चरण होगा?
इनपुट: 56, 15, 30, 46, 88, 99, 64

Ans 1. 99, 88, 56, 64, 46, 30, 15
2. 99, 88, 64, 56, 46, 15, 30
3. 99, 88, 64, 46, 56, 30, 15
4. 99, 88, 64, 56, 46, 30, 15
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Page - 10
Comprehension:
A number arrangement machine, when given an input line of numbers, rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of the input and the
steps of rearrangement.
Input: 17, 41, 38, 58, 69, 85, 61

Step I: 85, 17, 41, 38, 58, 69, 61
Step II: 85, 69, 17, 41, 38, 58, 61
Step III: 85, 69, 61, 17, 41, 38, 58
Step IV: 85, 69, 61, 58, 17, 41, 38
Step V: 85, 69, 61, 58, 42, 17, 38
Step VI: 85, 69, 61, 58, 41, 38, 17
Step VI is the last step in this case.
SubQuestion No : 30
Q.30 In accordance with the rule followed in the above steps, which of the following will be
the Step III for the following input?
Input: 56, 15, 30, 46, 88, 99, 64

Ans 1. 99, 88, 56, 15, 30, 64, 46
2. 99, 88, 64, 56, 15, 30, 46
3. 99, 88, 64, 15, 56, 46, 30
4. 99, 64, 88, 56, 15, 30, 46
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Section : Quantitative Aptitude
Q.1
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.2
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Page - 11
Q.3
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.4
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.5
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.6
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Page - 12
Q.7
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.8
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Marked For Review
Chosen Option : 3
Q.9
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.10
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Page - 13
Q.11
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.12
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.13
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.14
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Page - 14
Q.15
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.16
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.17
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.18
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Page - 15
Q.19
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.20
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 21
Q.21
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Page - 16
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 22
Q.22
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Page - 17
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 23
Q.23
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Page - 18
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 24
Q.24
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 25
Q.25
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Page - 19
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 26
Q.26
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 27
Q.27
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Page - 20
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 28
Q.28
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 29
Q.29
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Page - 21
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 30
Q.30
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Section : Language Competency Test
Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
I ______ a detective novel these days.

Ans 1. have read
2. reads
3. read
4. am reading
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
General
Ans 1. Common
2. Ordinary
3. Regular
4. Particular
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Page - 22
Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Rely
Ans 1. Defend
2. Avoid
3. Attend
4. Depend
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.4 Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in
the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. That is why they are in demand in all progressing countries.

B. Such brilliant Indians are offered attractive salaries abroad.
C. Indians have proved their brains worldwide.
D. But this loss of talent hinders the progress of India.
Ans 1. CABD
2. CBDA
3. BDAC
4. BADC
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Live up to
Ans 1. To take care of
2. To prove oneself worthy
3. To enjoy a life of luxury
4. To exist peacefully
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Are you afraid ______ all insects?

Ans 1. by
2. with
3. of
4. from
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Page - 23
Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Stand up for
Ans 1. To support
2. To cheer
3. To respect
4. To applaud
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
He ______ several pairs of shoes.

Ans 1. have
2. is having
3. has
4. was having
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
She ______ by a honey bee last evening.

Ans 1. was stung
2. is sting
3. stung
4. had stung
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.10 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of
words.
An arrangement of flowers to be given as a gift

Ans 1. Bundle
2. Stack
3. Pack
4. Bouquet
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Page - 24
Comprehension:
Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Natural vegetation refers to a plant community, which has grown naturally without human aid
and has been left undisturbed by humans for a long time. Thus, cultivated crops and fruits,
orchards form part of vegetation but not natural vegetation.
Land affects the natural vegetation directly and indirectly. The nature of land influences the
type of vegetation. The fertile land is generally devoted to agriculture. The rough terrains are
areas where grassland and woodlands develop and give shelter to a variety of wildlife.
The soils also vary over space. Different types of soils provide basis for different types of
vegetation. The sandy soils of the desert support cactus and thorny bushes, while wet,
marshy soils support mangroves. The hill slopes with loamy soil have conical trees.
The vegetation cover of India in large parts is no more natural in the real sense. Except in
some inaccessible regions, like the Himalayas, the hilly region of central India and the
marusthali (desert), the vegetation in most of the areas has been modified at some places, or
replaced or degraded by human occupancy.
SubQuestion No : 11
Q.11 Agriculture is mainly practiced on:
Ans 1. grasslands
2. fertile land
3. woodland
4. rough land
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 12
Q.12 What is natural vegetation?
Ans 1. Crops that grow in fertile soil
2. Crops that are cultivated without fertilisers
3. Plants that grow without human help
4. Plants cultivated by man
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Page - 25
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 13
Q.13 What kind of soil is favorable for mangrove forests?
Ans 1. Dry soil
2. Marshy soil
3. Sandy soil
4. Loamy soil
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 14
Q.14 Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Ans 1. Most of the vegetation cover in India is natural.
2. Crop farms and orchards are not natural vegetation.
3. The type of vegetation depends on the nature of land.
4. Sandy soils support the growth of thorny bushes.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Page - 26
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 15
Q.15 Which word in the passage means ‘out of reach’?
Ans 1. Undisturbed
2. Degraded
3. Devoted
4. Inaccessible
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.16 ‘नेताजी दिल्ली गए।’ वाक्य का काल है:

Ans 1. पूर्ण भूत
2. संदिग्ध भूत
3. अपूर्ण भूत
4. सामान्य भूत
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.17 निम्न में से कौन सा शब्द ‘संयोजक’ समुच्चयबोधक है?

Ans 1. इसलिए
2. तथा
3. अथवा
4. पर
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.18 ‘पत्र आता होगा।’ वाक्य का काल है:

Ans 1. संभाव्य भविष्य
2. सामान्य वर्तमान
3. सामान्य भविष्य
4. संदिग्ध वर्तमान
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Page - 27
Q.19 ‘दु : + प्रकृ ति’ का सही संधिरूप होगा:

Ans 1. दुष्प्रवृत्ति
2. दुस्प्रकृ ति
3. दुष्प्रकृ ति
4. दुश्प्रकृ ति
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.20 ‘आग’ का तत्सम शब्द है:

Ans 1. अग्नि
2. अगन
3. अग्गि
4. अग्नी
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.21 ‘ऐसा घर मैंने नहीं देखा।’ वाक्य का रेखांकित शब्द किस प्रकार का विशेषण है?
Ans 1. संख्यावाचक
2. सार्वनामिक
3. परिमाणबोधक
4. गुणवाचक
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.22 ‘सरसिज’ किसका पर्यायवाची है?

Ans 1. कमल
2. तालाब
3. समुद्र
4. बादल
Chosen Option : --
Q.23 ‘षडानन’ का सही संधि-विच्छेद क्या होगा?

Ans 1. षट + आनन
2. षड + आनन
3. षड् + आनन
4. षट् + आनन
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Page - 28
Q.24 ‘आँ ख एक नहीं कजरौटा दस-दस’ लोकोक्ति का सही अर्थ है:

Ans 1. अपव्यय
2. व्यर्थ आडंबर
3. अथक प्रयास
4. अकू त संपत्ति
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.25 ‘फूँ क-फूँ क कर कदम रखना’ मुहावरे का सही अर्थ है:

Ans 1. सावधानी से कार्य करना
2. हड़बड़ी में कार्य करना
3. रास्ता साफ करते हुए आगे बढ़ना
4. डरते हुए आगे बढ़ना
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:
क्रोध दु:ख के कारण के परिज्ञान या साक्षात्कार से होता है। अतः एक तो जहाँ इस ज्ञान में त्रुटि हुई वहाँ क्रोध धोखा देता
है। दू सरी बात यह है कि क्रोध जिस ओर से दुख आता है उसी ओर देखता है। अपने धारणकर्ता की ओर नहीं। जिससे
दु:ख पहुँचा है या पहुँचेगा उसका नाश हो या उसे दु:ख पहुँचे यही क्रोध का लक्ष्य है, जिसे दु:ख पहुँचा है उसका फिर क्या
होगा इससे उसे कु छ सरोकार नहीं। इसी से एक तो मनोवेग ही एक दू सरे को परिमित किया करते हैं दू सरे विचारशक्ति भी
उन पर अंकु श रखती है। यदि क्रोध इतना उग्र हुआ कि हृदय के दु:ख के कारण की अवरोधावरोधिनी शक्ति के रूप और
परिणाम के विचार तथा भय आदि और विचारों के संचार के लिए जगह ही न रही तो बहुत हानि पहुँच जाती है।
उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के आधार पर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए:
SubQuestion No : 26
Q.26 गद्यांश में प्रयुक्त ‘उग्र’ का आशय है-
Ans 1. तीव्र
2. मंद
3. धीर
4. क्षीण
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Page - 29
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 27
Q.27 विचारशक्ति मनोवेगों को:
Ans 1. प्रभावित नहीं करती है
2. बढ़ाती है
3. नियंत्रित करती है
4. घटाती है
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 28
Q.28 क्रोध किधर उन्मुख रहता है?
Ans 1. उद्धारकर्ता की ओर
2. अपहरणकर्ता की ओर
3. धारणकर्ता की ओर
4. कारणकर्ता की ओर
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Page - 30
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 29
Q.29 गद्यांश का कें द्रीय विषय क्या है?
Ans 1. विचार
2. क्रोध
3. भय
4. दुःख
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 30
Q.30 क्रोध का उद्देश्य क्या है?
Ans 1. दुःखियों की सहायता करना
2. जिसे दुःख पहुँचा है, उसका ख्याल रखना
3. दुःख देने वालों को दुःख पहुँचाना
4. दुःखियों की सेवा करना
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Section : Domain Knowledge
Q.1 In MS PowerPoint 2010, the New Slide button located on the Home tab in the Slides
group can be used to add a new slide. Which of the following keyboard shortcuts
helps to insert a new slide in a PowerPoint presentation?
Ans 1. Ctrl + N
2. Ctrl + O
3. Ctrl + W
4. Ctrl + M
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Page - 31
Q.2 Which of the following is NOT an operating system?

Ans 1. OS/400
2. Blu-Ray
3. Windows OS
4. Linux
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.3 निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन ग़लत है?

Ans 1. GUI एक कं प्यूटर प्रोग्राम है जो उपभोक्ता को ग्राफिकल आइकन जैसे बटन, मेनू, कर्सर आदि के माध्यम से
कं प्यूटर के साथ जुड़ने में सक्षम बनाता है।
2. आधुनिक ऑपरेटिं ग सिस्टम, ग्राफिकल यूज़र इं टरफे स (GUI) का उपयोग करते हैं।
3. ऑपरेटिं ग प्रणालियाँ सामान्यतः कं प्यूटर पर प्री-लोडेड होती हैं।
4. CPU ऑपरेटिं ग प्रणाली को नियंत्रित करता है।
Chosen Option : --
Q.4 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of e-commerce?

Ans 1. A customer can shop 24×7
2. Low costs
3. Security issues
4. Quick delivery of goods
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.5 What is the keyboard shortcut to select all files and sub-folders in a main folder?
Ans 1. Alt + C
2. Alt + A
3. Ctrl + C
4. Ctrl + A
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.6 For weather forecasting, oil and gas exploration and scientific simulation a great
amount of computation is necessary. Which of the following types of computer is ideal
for these tasks?
Ans 1. Microcomputers
2. Mainframe computers
3. Minicomputers
4. Supercomputers
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Page - 32
Comprehension:
Read the following paragraph to understand the context information and answer the following
question/s related with given context.
Computers are classified on different parameters. Based on purposes, there are General and
Special Purpose computers. Analog, Digital and Hybrid Computer are classifications of
computers on the basis of hardware design and type. Based on size, computers are of four
types. A supercomputer is the most powerful and fastest, and also the most expensive of all
computers. It can process large amounts of data and do a great amount of computation very
quickly. Supercomputers are useful for applications involving very large databases. The
examples of supercomputers are CRAY-1, ETA A-10, etc.
Mainframe computers are large computers that can store enormous amounts of information
and can perform many tasks at the same time. They also have multiple processors and are
mainly used for large information processing jobs.
Mainframe computers are also very expensive. Mainframe computers are used in large
institutions such as government, banks and large corporations. The popularity of mainframe is
gradually dwindling due to the development of microcomputers, the smallest of all computers.
A microcomputer uses a single chip (microprocessor) for its central processing unit (CPU).
Though sometimes referred to as personal computers, any kind of small computer like a
desktop computer, laptop, tablet, smartphone, etc. are examples of microcomputers. They are
excellent for small businesses, homes and classrooms. A minicomputer is intermediate in
size, power, speed, storage capacity, etc., between a mainframe and a microcomputer.
Microcomputers are used by small organisations.
Analog computers are computers that are designed to process the analog data. They
measure physical units like voltage, pressure, electric current, temperature and convert them
into digits. Analog computers cannot store statistics. Speedometer and mercury thermometer
are examples of analog computers. Digital computers are designed to perform calculations
and logical operations at high speed. They run on electronic signs and use binary numeral
method for calculations. Desktops or laptops are best examples of digital computers. A hybrid
computer has features of both, analog and digital computer. It is fast like an analog computer
and has memory and accuracy like digital computers.
SubQuestion No : 7
Q.7 Which of the following types of computers is mostly used in homes?
Ans 1. Supercomputer
2. Mini computer
3. Mainframe
4. Micro computer
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Page - 33
Comprehension:
Business-to-Business (B2B) e-commerce includes all electronic transactions of goods or

services conducted between companies. Producers and traditional commerce wholesalers
typically operate with this type of e-commerce.
The Business-to-Consumer (B2C) type of electronic commerce is distinguished by the
establishment of electronic business relationships between businesses and final consumers.
It resembles the retail section of e-commerce, where traditional retail trade normally operates.
The Business-to-Consumer model developed enormously due to the advent of the web.
Consumer-to-Consumer (C2C) type e-commerce encompasses all electronic transactions of
goods or services conducted between consumers. Generally, these transactions are
facilitated by a third party. The third party provides an online platform where the actual
transactions takes place.
In C2B, there is a complete reversal of the traditional sense of exchanging goods. In this type
of electronic commerce, many individuals make their products or services available for
purchase for companies.
SubQuestion No : 8
Q.8 Which e-commerce business model entails the experience of eating out at a
restaurant?
Ans 1. C2C
2. B2C
3. C2B
4. B2B
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Comprehension:
Page formatting is the layout of the page when it is printed using a printer. MS Word offers a
variety of page layout and formatting options like page orientation, paper size and page
margins depending on how you want your document to appear. There are two page
orientation options: landscape and portrait. But it can be changed to landscape from the Page
Layout tab. Mostly, documents are printed in portrait mode. However, monitors have a
landscape display.
By default, the page size of a new document is 8.5 inches by 11 inches. However, MS Word
offers many predefined page size options. But you should always check to see which page
sizes your printer can accommodate.
Margins are the blank spaces that line the top, bottom, and left and right sides of a document.
Page margins make a document look neat and professional. In MS Word, each page
automatically has a one-inch margin.
SubQuestion No : 9
Q.9 Which of the following statements best describes the difference between paper size
and page margins in MS Word 2010?
Ans 1. Page margins is the pre-defined layout to fit content. Paper size is the outside area of
a page that can be made adjusted to fit content.
2. There is no difference between paper size and page margins.
3. Paper size means the orientation of the page. Page margins are the areas of the
document where text is aligned.
4. Paper size is the size of the paper for printing a document. Page margins are the
empty space along the edges of a page that can be increased or decreased to fit content.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Page - 34
Comprehension:
Page formatting is the layout of the page when it is printed using a printer. MS Word offers a
variety of page layout and formatting options like page orientation, paper size and page
margins depending on how you want your document to appear. There are two page
orientation options: landscape and portrait. But it can be changed to landscape from the Page
Layout tab. Mostly, documents are printed in portrait mode. However, monitors have a
landscape display.
By default, the page size of a new document is 8.5 inches by 11 inches. However, MS Word
offers many predefined page size options. But you should always check to see which page
sizes your printer can accommodate.
Margins are the blank spaces that line the top, bottom, and left and right sides of a document.
Page margins make a document look neat and professional. In MS Word, each page
automatically has a one-inch margin.
SubQuestion No : 10
Q.10 Which of the following options best describes page margins in MS Word 2010?
i.Blank areas around the four sides of a page

ii.Blank areas around the left and right sides of a page
iii.The blank space that appears on each side of a paragraph
Ans 1. i, ii and iii
2. Only iii
3. i and ii
4. Only i
Chosen Option : --
Q.11 As per RBI guidelines, payment banks in India, as on January 2022, need to have a
minimum paid-up capital of:
Ans 1. ₹400 crores
2. ₹100 crores
3. ₹200 crores
4. ₹300 crores
Chosen Option : --
Q.12 Who won the best FIFA Men's Footballer award 2021?
Ans 1. Cristiano Ronaldo
2. Kylian Mbappé
3. Robert Lewandowski
4. Lionel Messi
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Page - 35
Q.13 In which year was the Deoband Seminary founded which published thousands of
fatwas telling Muslim readers how to conduct themselves in their everyday lives, and
explaining the meanings of Islamic doctrines?
Ans 1. 1862
2. 1867
3. 1872
4. 1860
Chosen Option : --
Q.14 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is related to the duration of
the Houses of Parliament?
Ans 1. Article 93
2. Article 101
3. Article 76
4. Article 83
Chosen Option : --
Q.15 A network of long fibres that make up the cell’s structural framework is known as:
Ans 1. cytoskeleton
2. golgi apparatus
3. lysosomes
4. mitochondria
Chosen Option : --
Q.16 The Humsafar Trust is a community-based organisation working on health and human
rights of the LGBTQ community since:
Ans 1. 1992
2. 1994
3. 1998
4. 1996
Chosen Option : --
Q.17 Jagoi and Cholom are main two main divisions in the ______ classical dance.
Ans 1. Mohiniattam
2. Manipuri
3. Odissi
4. Sattriya
Chosen Option : --
Page - 36
Comprehension:
The land of India has very physical variations; that’s why the physical features of India can be
grouped in many physiographic divisions. We can group the physical features as (1) the
Himalayan Mountains, (2) the Northern Plains, (3) the Peninsular Plateau, (4) the Indian
Desert, (5) the Coastal Plains (6) and the Islands. Time of formation of these physical features
is also different. Among these physical features, the Peninsular Plateau is one of the ancient
landmasses of the earth’s surface, and it has most stable land blocks.
SubQuestion No : 18
Q.18 Which of the following rivers does NOT originate from the most ancient physiographic
divisions mentioned in the passage?
Ans 1. Krishna
2. Godavari
3. Yamuna
4. Mahanadi
Chosen Option : --
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 19
Q.19 Which physiographic divisions among the physiographic divisions mentioned in the
passage are most recent?
Ans 1. The Himalayas Mountains and the Northern Plains
2. The Peninsular Plateau and the Himalayas Mountains
3. The Indian Desert and the Northern Plains
4. The Indian Desert and the Himalayas Mountains
Chosen Option : --
Page - 37
Comprehension:
SubQuestion No : 20
Q.20 Which of the following physiographic divisions mentioned in the paragraph lies
towards the western margins of the Aravali Hills?
Ans 1. The Peninsular Plateau
2. The Coastal Plains
3. The Indian Desert
4. The Northern Plains
Chosen Option : --
Q.21 As per Right to Information Act,2005 ( As amended) the second appeal against the
decision made under first appeal shall lie ______ from the date on which the decision
was actually received.
Ans 1. Within sixty days
2. Within one hundred twenty days
3. Within ninety days
4. Within Thirty days
Chosen Option : --
Q.22 Which of the following Rule of the All India Services (Conduct )Rules,1968 Debar a
member of the service from taking part in politics .
Ans 1. Rule 5
2. Rule 7
3. Rule 6
4. Rule 4
Chosen Option : --
Q.23 Which Section of the Right to Information Act,2005 states that”, the provisions of this
Act shall have effect notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in the
Official Secrets Act,1923 and any other law for the time being in force or in any
instrument having effect by virtue of any law other then this Act.”
Ans 1. Section 20
2. Section 21
3. Section 25
4. Section 22
Chosen Option : --
Page - 38
Q.24 Rule 19 (3) of the All India Services (Conduct )Rules,1968 deals with
Ans 1. Bar on bigamous marriage
2. Requirement to intimate the fact of marriage with foreign national to the government
3. Bar on consumption of intoxicating drink in public place
4. Bar on marriage with foreign national
Chosen Option : --
Q.25 The modern Indian Legal System is based on --

Ans 1. Ancient Hindu Scripture
2. Islamic law
3. Common Law System
4. Civil law system
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.26 Which of the following is Not a salient feature of the Constitution of India
Ans 1. Independence of judiciary
2. Parliamentary form of government
3. Judicial review
4. Oldest written constitution of the world
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.27 With reference to the Right to Information Act,2005 (As amended) who is ‘competent
authority’ in case of Supreme Court.
Ans 1. Senior Judge of Supreme Court as designated by Chief Justice of India
2. Chief Justice of India
3. Registrar General
4. Attorney General of India
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.28 Section 8 of to the Right to Information Act,2005 ( As amended) deals with-

Ans 1. Request for obtaining information
2. Third party information
3. Exemption from disclosure of information
4. Grounds for rejection to access
Chosen Option : --
Page - 39
Q.29 Under Section 32 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act,
2012(POCSO) the Special Public Prosecutor is appointed only if he has been in
practice for not less than______years
Ans 1. Five
2. Twelve
3. Ten
4. Seven
Chosen Option : --
Q.30 Which of the following is not included in ‘right to information’ as envisaged in Section
2(j) of the Right to Information Act,2005 ( As amended)
Ans 1. Inspection of record
2. Taking of certified copy of document
3. Opinion of public authority
4. Taking certified sample of material
Chosen Option : --
Q.31 Which Section of the Right to Information Act,2005 (As amended) cast obligation on
public authorities to provide as much information suo motu to public at regular
interval through various means of communication
Ans 1. Section 4
2. Section 12
3. Section 3
4. Section 11
Chosen Option : --
Q.32 Which Section of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act,2012(POCSO)
states that” No child shall be detained in the police station in the night for any
reason”.
Ans 1. Section 23
2. Section 24(2)
3. Section 24(1)
4. Section 24(4)
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.33 ‘Child’ according to Section 2(d) of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences
Act, 2012 (POCSO) means-
Ans 1. Any person below age of eighteen years
2. Any person below age of twenty one years
3. Any person below age of nineteen years
4. Any person below age of twenty years
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Page - 40
Q.34 Under Section 4 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act,2012(POCSO)
whoever commits penetrative sexual assault on child below ______ years of age shall
be punished with not less than twenty years.
Ans 1. Eighteen
2. Seventeen
3. Twenty
4. Sixteen
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Comprehension:
To deal with child sexual abuse cases, the Government has brought in a special law, namely,
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012. The Act has come into
force with effect from 14th November, 2012 along with the Rules framed thereunder. The
POCSO Act, 2012 is a comprehensive law to provide for the protection of children from the
offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment and pornography, while safeguarding the
interests of the child at every stage of the judicial process by incorporating child-friendly
mechanisms for reporting, recording of evidence, investigation and speedy trial of offences
through designated Special Courts. The POCSO Act defines different forms of sexual abuse,
including penetrative and non-penetrative assault, as well as sexual harassment and
pornography, and deems a sexual assault to be “aggravated” under certain circumstances,
such as when the abused child is mentally ill or when the abuse is committed by a person in a
position of trust or authority vis-à-vis the child, like a family member, police officer, teacher, or
doctor. People who traffic children for sexual purposes are also punishable under the
provisions relating to abetment in the said Act. The said Act prescribes stringent punishment
graded as per the gravity of the offence, with a maximum term of rigorous imprisonment for
life, and fine. In keeping with the best international child protection standards, the said Act
also provides for mandatory reporting of sexual offences. This casts a legal duty upon a
person who has knowledge that a child has been sexually abused to report the offence; if he
fails to do so, he may be punished with six months‟ imprisonment and/ or a fine. The said Act
also casts the police in the role of child protectors during the investigative process. Thus, the
police personnel receiving a report of sexual abuse of a child are given the responsibility of
making urgent arrangements for the care and protection of the child, such as obtaining
emergency medical treatment for the child and placing the child in a shelter home, should the
need arise. The police are also required to bring the matter to the attention of the Child
Welfare Committee (CWC) within 24 hours of receiving the report, so the CWC may then
proceed where required to make further arrangements for the safety and security of the child.
SubQuestion No : 35
Q.35 The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act,2012(POCSO) has come into
effect on
Ans 1. 14 November 2012
2. 1 December 2012
3. 24 October 2013
4. 26June 2012
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Page - 41
Comprehension:
To deal with child sexual abuse cases, the Government has brought in a special law, namely,
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012. The Act has come into
force with effect from 14th November, 2012 along with the Rules framed thereunder. The
POCSO Act, 2012 is a comprehensive law to provide for the protection of children from the
offences of sexual assault, sexual harassment and pornography, while safeguarding the
interests of the child at every stage of the judicial process by incorporating child-friendly
mechanisms for reporting, recording of evidence, investigation and speedy trial of offences
through designated Special Courts. The POCSO Act defines different forms of sexual abuse,
including penetrative and non-penetrative assault, as well as sexual harassment and
pornography, and deems a sexual assault to be “aggravated” under certain circumstances,
such as when the abused child is mentally ill or when the abuse is committed by a person in a
position of trust or authority vis-à-vis the child, like a family member, police officer, teacher, or
doctor. People who traffic children for sexual purposes are also punishable under the
provisions relating to abetment in the said Act. The said Act prescribes stringent punishment
graded as per the gravity of the offence, with a maximum term of rigorous imprisonment for
life, and fine. In keeping with the best international child protection standards, the said Act
also provides for mandatory reporting of sexual offences. This casts a legal duty upon a
person who has knowledge that a child has been sexually abused to report the offence; if he
fails to do so, he may be punished with six months‟ imprisonment and/ or a fine. The said Act
also casts the police in the role of child protectors during the investigative process. Thus, the
police personnel receiving a report of sexual abuse of a child are given the responsibility of
making urgent arrangements for the care and protection of the child, such as obtaining
emergency medical treatment for the child and placing the child in a shelter home, should the
need arise. The police are also required to bring the matter to the attention of the Child
Welfare Committee (CWC) within 24 hours of receiving the report, so the CWC may then
proceed where required to make further arrangements for the safety and security of the child.
SubQuestion No : 36
Q.36 The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act,2012(POCSO) cast duty on Police
officer as______
Ans 1. Promoter of child welfare
2. Friend of family of child
3. Strict investigator
4. Protector of child during investigation process
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Page - 42
Comprehension:
The present civil services of India are mainly based on the pattern of the former Indian Civil
Service of British India.
During the British raj, Warren Hastings laid the foundation of civil service and Charles
Cornwallis reformed, modernised, and rationalised it. Hence, Charles Cornwallis is known as
'the Father of civil service in India'.
Cornwallis introduced two divisions of the Indian Civil service—covenanted and
uncovenanted. The covenanted civil service consisted of only Europeans (i.e., British
personnel) occupying the higher posts in the government. The uncovenanted civil service was
solely introduced to facilitate the entry of Indians at the lower rung of the administration.
With the passing of the Government of India Act 1919, the Imperial Services headed by the
Secretary of State for India were split into two—the All India Services and the Central
Services.
The All India and Central Services (Group A) were designated as Central Superior Services
as early as 1924. From 1924 to 1934, the administration of India consisted of 10 All India
Services (including Indian Education Service, Indian Medical Service) and 5 central
departments, all under the control of the Secretary of State for India, and 3 central
departments under joint Provincial and Imperial Control.
Modern era
The present modern civil service was formed after the partition of India in 1947. It was Sardar
Patel's vision that the civil service should strengthen cohesion and national unity. The values
of integrity, impartiality, and merit remain the guiding principles of the Indian civil services.
By the early 21st century, especially in Indian media, Indian civil servants were regularly
colloquially called 'babus' (as in 'the rule of babus'),] while Indian bureaucracy is called
'babudom'.
The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, located in New Delhi, is
unofficially the 'Ministry of Civil Services'. The Ministry is responsible for training, reforms and
pensions for the civil service system in India.
SubQuestion No : 37
Q.37 Who is known as ‘father of civil services in India’
Ans 1. Jawaher Lal Nehru
2. Charles Cornwallis
3. Morarji Desai
4. Warren Hastings
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Page - 43
Comprehension:
The present civil services of India are mainly based on the pattern of the former Indian Civil
Service of British India.
During the British raj, Warren Hastings laid the foundation of civil service and Charles
Cornwallis reformed, modernised, and rationalised it. Hence, Charles Cornwallis is known as
'the Father of civil service in India'.
Cornwallis introduced two divisions of the Indian Civil service—covenanted and
uncovenanted. The covenanted civil service consisted of only Europeans (i.e., British
personnel) occupying the higher posts in the government. The uncovenanted civil service was
solely introduced to facilitate the entry of Indians at the lower rung of the administration.
With the passing of the Government of India Act 1919, the Imperial Services headed by the
Secretary of State for India were split into two—the All India Services and the Central
Services.
The All India and Central Services (Group A) were designated as Central Superior Services
as early as 1924. From 1924 to 1934, the administration of India consisted of 10 All India
Services (including Indian Education Service, Indian Medical Service) and 5 central
departments, all under the control of the Secretary of State for India, and 3 central
departments under joint Provincial and Imperial Control.
Modern era
The present modern civil service was formed after the partition of India in 1947. It was Sardar
Patel's vision that the civil service should strengthen cohesion and national unity. The values
of integrity, impartiality, and merit remain the guiding principles of the Indian civil services.
By the early 21st century, especially in Indian media, Indian civil servants were regularly
colloquially called 'babus' (as in 'the rule of babus'),] while Indian bureaucracy is called
'babudom'.
The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, located in New Delhi, is
unofficially the 'Ministry of Civil Services'. The Ministry is responsible for training, reforms and
pensions for the civil service system in India.
SubQuestion No : 38
Q.38 Which of the following is responsible for training, reforms and pension for civil
services in India
Ans 1. Ministry of Homes
2. Ministry of Human Resources
3. Ministry of Personnel ,Public Grievances and Pension
4. Union Public Service Commission
Chosen Option : --
Comprehension:
What is Legal Aptitude
Legal Aptitude or Legal Reasoning is a section in law entrance exams that holds maximum
weightage and demands candidates to possess good knowledge of fundamentals. Through
this section, the exam conducting authorities test the legal awareness, analytical skills and
problem-solving ability of candidates.
Legal Aptitude questions tests the student’s problem-solving ability about the legal issues in
hand. Basically, the Legal Aptitude section consists of two types of questions – Legal
Reasoning and Legal GK (including legal maxims, important judgments).
Legal Reasoning is the most significant component of the legal aptitude section, in terms of
marks allotted. The other component is Legal Knowledge, which consists of questions based
on legal facts and current events related to the field of law.
It includes learning with number patterns, calculations without formulas, logical relationships,
historical data and analysis etc.
SubQuestion No : 39
Q.39 Which of the following is not the objective of Legal Aptitude Test
Ans 1. Analytical skills
2. Test of legal awareness
3. Problem solving abilities of candidate
4. Test of expert knowledge about specific law
Chosen Option : --
Page - 44
Comprehension:
What is Legal Aptitude
Legal Aptitude or Legal Reasoning is a section in law entrance exams that holds maximum
weightage and demands candidates to possess good knowledge of fundamentals. Through
this section, the exam conducting authorities test the legal awareness, analytical skills and
problem-solving ability of candidates.
Legal Aptitude questions tests the student’s problem-solving ability about the legal issues in
hand. Basically, the Legal Aptitude section consists of two types of questions – Legal
Reasoning and Legal GK (including legal maxims, important judgments).
Legal Reasoning is the most significant component of the legal aptitude section, in terms of
marks allotted. The other component is Legal Knowledge, which consists of questions based
on legal facts and current events related to the field of law.
It includes learning with number patterns, calculations without formulas, logical relationships,
historical data and analysis etc.
SubQuestion No : 40
Q.40 Which of the following subject is not part of Legal Aptitude Test
Ans 1. Goods and Service Tax Act
2. Constitutional Law
3. Law of Torts
4. Criminal Law
Chosen Option : --
Page - 45

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NVS Assistant Previous Year Paper

Test Date 10/03/2022

Section : Reasoning Ability

Q.2 ‘A & B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’

If F @ G + C @ S & K # T, then how is C related to T?

75, 91, 127, 191, 291, ?

PLURAL : ODUXOS :: PROTEGY : ?

TV-16, QZ-125, ND-36, KH-343, ?

2. Only conclusions I and III follow

3. All conclusions I, II and III follow

4. Only conclusion I follows

63.997 ÷ 7.959 + 47.999 + 8.997 – 11.992 × 3.989 + 35.010 ÷ 4.996 = ?

Eight friends, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, are sitting anticlockwise in the same sequence

The codes for some letters are given below.

The codes for some letters are given below.

इनपुट: 17, 41, 38, 58, 69, 85, 61

चरण VI अंतिम चरण है।

इनपुट: 56, 15, 30, 46, 88, 99, 64

2. 99, 88, 64, 56, 46, 15, 30

3. 99, 88, 64, 46, 56, 30, 15

4. 99, 88, 64, 56, 46, 30, 15

Input: 17, 41, 38, 58, 69, 85, 61

Step VI is the last step in this case.

Input: 56, 15, 30, 46, 88, 99, 64

2. 99, 88, 64, 56, 15, 30, 46

3. 99, 88, 64, 15, 56, 46, 30

4. 99, 64, 88, 56, 15, 30, 46

Section : Quantitative Aptitude

Section : Language Competency Test

Q.1 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I ______ a detective novel these days.

Q.2 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

Q.3 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

A. That is why they are in demand in all progressing countries.

Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

2. To prove oneself worthy

3. To enjoy a life of luxury

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Are you afraid ______ all insects?

Q.7 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He ______ several pairs of shoes.

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

She ______ by a honey bee last evening.

An arrangement of flowers to be given as a gift

2. Crops that are cultivated without fertilisers

3. Plants that grow without human help

4. Plants cultivated by man

2. Crop farms and orchards are not natural vegetation.

3. The type of vegetation depends on the nature of land.

4. Sandy soils support the growth of thorny bushes.

Q.16 ‘नेताजी दिल्ली गए।’ वाक्य का काल है:

Q.17 निम्न में से कौन सा शब्द ‘संयोजक’ समुच्चयबोधक है?

Q.18 ‘पत्र आता होगा।’ वाक्य का काल है:

Q.19 ‘दु : + प्रकृ ति’ का सही संधिरूप होगा:

Q.20 ‘आग’ का तत्सम शब्द है:

Q.22 ‘सरसिज’ किसका पर्यायवाची है?

Q.23 ‘षडानन’ का सही संधि-विच्छेद क्या होगा?

Q.24 ‘आँ ख एक नहीं कजरौटा दस-दस’ लोकोक्ति का सही अर्थ है:

Q.25 ‘फूँ क-फूँ क कर कदम रखना’ मुहावरे का सही अर्थ है:

2. हड़बड़ी में कार्य करना