2ND QUARTER EXAM SOURCE G11

BAED-ELSC2111 Earth and Life Science

BAED-EAPP2111 English for Academic and Professional
Purposes
BAED-ENGL2111 Oral Communication in Context
BAED-PEDH2111 Physical Education & Health G11A
BAED-ICT2112 Empowerment Technologies (E-Tech):
ICT for Professional Tracks
BAED-UCSP2111 Understanding Culture, Society and
Politics
BAED-PHIL2121 Introduction to the Philosophy of the
Human Person/Pambungad sa Pilosopiya ng Tao
BAED-PREC2111 Pre-Calculus
BAED-ENGL2121 21st Century Literature from the
Philippines and the World
BAED-ESCI2111 Earth Science

BAED-GMAT2111 General Mathematics

BAED-EAPP2111 English for Academic and
Professional Purposes
1. Home
2. My courses
3. BAED-EAPP2111-2212S
4. QUARTER 2 EXAMINATION
5. QUARTER 2 EXAMINATION

Started on Monday, 6 February 2023, 2:35 PM

State Finished
Completed on Monday, 6 February 2023, 2:37 PM
Time taken 2 mins 1 sec
Marks 16.00/50.00
Grade 32.00 out of 100.00
Question 1
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Question text
It may means cutting from both ends and leaving a part to stand for the whole

a.
Clipping

b.
Blending

c.
Compounding

d.
Cutting
 Feedback
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Question 2
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Question text
Concerns unity of all sentences in a paragraph

a.
Coherence

b.
Refutation

c.
Refutation

d.
 Cohesion
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Question 3
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Question text
Cosmonaut

a.
 Blending
b.
Conversion

c.
Clipping

d.
Compounding
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Question 4
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Question text
They have ________ a great webpage.

a.
create

b.
created

c.
creating

d.
was created
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Question 5
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Question text
Choice of words to convey a message.

a.
 Conciseness

b.
Concreteness

c.
Correctness

d.
Courtesy

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Question 6
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 Flag question

Question text
These transitions are words that are used to add emphasis or to introduce more evidence
EXCEPT?

a.
B. Thereafter

b.
A. Truly

c.
D. In fact

d.
C. Surprisingly
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 Question text
Which transition word shows sequence in this sentence?
That house felt very creepy inside; __________, it was sunny outside.

a.
A. At first

b.
B. Meanwhile

c.
C. Therefore

d.
D. Instead
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Question 8
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Question text
Which transitional word is used to add information, repeat information or emphasize
information?
a.
D. Furthermore

b.
B. In brief

c.
A. To conclude

d.
C. Once in a while

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Question 9
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Question text
What is the meaning of this word SCUBA?

a.
Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus

b.
None of the above
c.
Self- Culminated Breathing Apparatus

d.
 Self- Contained Breathing Aquarius

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Question 10
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Question text
HTML

a.
Acronymy

b.
Derivative

c.
Borrowing

d.
Blending
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Question 11
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Question text
The section where the argument is presented. 

a.
A. Introduction

b.
D. Thesis statement

c.
B. Body

d.
C. Conclusion
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Question 12
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Question text
Julie ________ living in Italy since May.

a.
C. has been

b.
D. have been

c.
A. has being

d.
B. is been
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Question 13
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Question text
Opposite thoughts of the argument are presented.
a.
Refutation

b.
Explanation of the Issue

c.
 Conclusion

d.
Proofs/ evidences
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Question 14
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Question text
PERM

a.
Conversion

b.
Clipping

c.
Borrowing
d.
Blending
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Question 15
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Question text
The author presents an overall solution or one or more major problems with a subject.

a.
C. Conclusion

b.
D. All of the above

c.
A. Introduction

d.
B. Body
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Question text
It involves exposition, explanation, definition or interpretation of a given issue.

a.
Negative argument

b.
subjective

c.
Positive argument

d.
Objective

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Question 17
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Question text
They are words and phrases that help readers organized their thoughts in writing to achieve
unity and coherence.

a.
C. Transition signals

b.
A. Prefix

c.
D. none of the above

d.
A. Prefix
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Question 18
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Question text
State what needs to be said in as few words as possible.

a.
Correctness

b.
Conciseness

c.
Concreteness

d.
 Completeness
 Feedback
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Question 19
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Question text
______ you ever ___________ anyone?

a.
Are / message

b.
 Have / messaged

c.
 Did / messaged

d.
Were / messaged
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Question 20
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Question text
Because it is efficient, economical, and reliable, public transportation is the best way to reduce
the number of traffic jams. There are other possible ways to address this problem, but using
public transportation is clearly the best. Traffic jams during very busy hours on the road can
be reduced and more people can get to work on time and avoid the frustration caused by sitting
in the middle of a long line of cars. Cities and governments should consider ways to improve
their public transportation system and encourage more people to use it. If they do, they will
surely see fewer traffic jams on their roads and much happier drivers. What component of
problem- and-  solution structure is this? 

a.
Body

b.
Both A and B are correct

c.
 Conclusion

d.
Introduction
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Question 21
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Question text
My cousins ________ on the internet

a.
has chatted

b.
 have chatted
c.
 have chating

d.
 are chatted

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Question 22
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Question text
What alternatives can you use in this phrase; Despite the fact that

a.
until

b.
 even
c.
 Instead

d.
although
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Question 23
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Question text
Transitional devices are all of the following EXCEPT ?

a.
B. Clear connections between ideas

b.
A. A bridge between parts of your paper

c.
D. A way to treats paragraphs as separate ideas

d.
C. Cues that help the reader to interpret ideas a paper develops

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Question 24
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Question text
Details involve the content and appearance of the message. 

a.
Completeness

b.
Correctness

c.
Conciseness

d.
. Concreteness
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Question 25
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Question text
Words formed from initial letter or syllables of several words in succession
a.
Cutting

b.
Acronymy

c.
Blending

d.
 folk

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Question 26
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Question text
Compose messages that are simple and easy to understand

a.
 Concreteness

b.
Courtesy

c.
Conciseness
d.
Clarity
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Question 27
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It has _____ snowing a lot this week

a.
 none of the above

b.
A. be

c.
 being

d.
been

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Question 28
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 Question text
Include all pertinent information.

a.
 Concreteness

b.
Correctness

c.
 Conciseness

d.
 Completeness
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Question 29
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Question text
Which of the following is not included from the group.

a.
lazy

b.
 thank you

c.
damaged
d.
. sorry
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Question 30
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Question text

It promotes good will, a feeling of confidence based on honesty and reliable service.

a.
Clarity

b.
 Courtesy

c.
Concreteness

d.
Conciseness
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Question 31
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 Flag question

Question text
It restates the main argument in the introductory part but in another words.

a.
A. Introduction

b.
D. Thesis statement

c.
C. Conclusion

d.
B. Body
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Question 32
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Have you ________ downloaded music?
a.
 since

b.
yet

c.
never

d.
 ever
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Question 33
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Which of the following is a gender-free word?

a.
 policeman

b.
Mail carrier

c.
 foreman

d.
waitress
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Question 34
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Question text
Which transitional word is used to give an example?

a.
D. None of the above

b.
B. Surprisingly

c.
A. Truly

d.
C. In fact
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 Question text
The purpose of which is to invite the audience or readers to reflect on them and consider the
references to strengthen the arguments.

a.
Outline of argument

b.
Conclusion

c.
Proofs/ evidences

d.
Refutation
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Question 36
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Question text
Words formed from initial letter or syllables of several words in succession.

a.
Cutting

b.
 Acronymy

c.
Blending
d.
Compounding
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Question 37
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Comes from the word baccalaria , meaning a grazing farm. A baccalarius was a person
employed on a grazing farm. Later it came to mean a simple young knight who followed the
banner of another.. Later in 1809, it refers to a man or woman taking a first degree at a
university. The name was changed to baccalareaus which means an unmarried man. This is an
example of?

a.
Cutting

b.
Blending

c.
Acronymy

d.
folk/ Etymology
 Feedback
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Question 38
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Question text
Also called portmanteau, a combination of two words blended into one.

a.
. Cutting

b.
Blending

c.
Clipping

d.
Compounding
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Question 39
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Question text
The speaker or writer desire to communicate certain ideas to provoke the audience. What type
of argumentative text is this? 
a.
Positive argument

b.
Objective

c.
 subjective

d.
Negative argument
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Question 40
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It promotes good will, a feeling of confidence based on honesty and reliable service.

a.
Clarity

b.
Courtesy

c.
Concreteness
d.
Conciseness

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Question 41
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Question text
They ________ a lot of books

a.
 have sold

b.
have sell

c.
sells

d.
were sold
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Question 42
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 Question text
I can play quite a few musical instruments, ____________the flute, the guitar, and the piano.

a.
C. For example

b.
D. Meanwhile

c.
A. However

d.
B. Yet
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Question 43
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Question text
Aimed to reinforce the truth of the thesis based on relevant authors, personal experience or
analogy

a.
Negative argument

b.
Objective

c.
Positive argument
d.
 subjective
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Question 44
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Question text
Phone

a.
. Blending

b.
Borrowing

c.
Conversion

d.
Clipping
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Question 45
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Question text
Which of the following has a positive tone?
a.
Whether you like it or not, you are required to attend the meeting today at 2 PM, July 10, 2016,
at the Conference room. I will issue a memo for those who will not attend the meetin

b.
With your receipt, you may exchange any purchase.

c.
We do not make exchanges for purchases without receipts.

d.
Never allow customers to shop Without first greeting them.
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Question 46
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Question text
BRUNCH

a.
Blending

b.
Conversion

c.
Compounding
d.
Clipping
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Question 47
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Question text
Another reason that public transportation is the best solution to traffic jams is because it is so
economical. People want to use public transportation instead of driving their own car because
they can save money. Public transportation usually does not cost very much, especially for
people who use it often. There are discounts for seniors and students, which makes it an even
more economical way for these groups to travel around town. Using public transportation also
eliminates the need to pay for parking, car insurance, and car maintenance, not to mention
gasoline. All of the expenses related to owning a car are replaced with one simple fare. Because
it is so economical, public transportation is a good solution to traffic jams by encouraging more
people to travel together and reduce the number of cars on the road. What component of
problem- and-  solution structure is this? 

a.
Body

b.
 Both A and B are correct

c.
Conclusion
d.
 Introduction

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Question text
It is  separated by a hyphen (-)

a.
Cutting

b.
Clipping

c.
Compounding

d.
Blending
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Question 49
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 Flag question

Question text
Aimed to refute the arguments or ideas against the main thesis to be developed.

a.
Objective

b.
Positive argument

c.
subjective

d.
Negative argument
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Question 50
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Question text
What is the meaning of this word: AWOL

a.
Absence with leave

b.
Absence without leave

c.
Absence with late

d.
 Absence without late
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BAED-ELSC2111 Earth and Life Science

1. Home
2. My courses
3. BAED-ELSC2111-2212S
4. SECOND QUARTER EXAMINATION
5. QUARTER 2 EXAM

Started on Monday, 16 January 2023, 10:26 PM

State Finished
Completed on Monday, 16 January 2023, 10:29 PM
Time taken 2 mins 33 secs
Marks 11.00/50.00
Grade 22.00 out of 100.00
Question 1
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Question text
Which combination of sex chromosomes results in a male human being?
a.
Either XX or YY

b.
XY

c.
YY

d.
XX

Question 2
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Question text
Which of these traits is controlled by a gene with multiple alleles?

a.smile dimples
b.blood type
c.straight hairline
d.widow’s peak
Question 3
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Question text
Which of these are not competed for by plants?

a.Warmth
b.Minerals
c.Water
d.Light
Question 4
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Question text
Genetic engineering involves?

a.
reinserting DNA into living organisms.

b.
cutting out a DNA sequence.

c.
changing a DNA sequence.

d.
all of the above

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Question text
Which of the following would be a biotic factor in an ecosystem?

a.
rainfall

b.
soil

c.
bacteria
d.
temperature

Question 6
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What is the correct term to describe the entire genetic material of an organism?

a.Gene
b.Genome
c.Nucleus
d.DNA
Question 7
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Question text
What are multiple alleles?

a.
More than two genes that control a trait

b.
Three or more chromosomes that determine a trait

c.
Three or more forms of a gene that code for a single trait

d.
More than two codominant genes in a chromosome
Question 8
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Question text
Abiotic factors affect an ecosystem and include all of these except the?

a.
quantity and quality of water

b.
quantity of minerals

c.
nitrogen-fixing bacteria

d.
amount of light available

Question 9
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Question text
Individuals that are well adapted to their environment will survive and produce?

a.better traits
b.fewer mutations
c.more offspring
d.stronger genes
Question 10
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 Flag question

Question text
What factors can effect a person's height?

a.the sex chromosomes a person inherits

b.Both genes and environmental factors
c.Environmental factors only
d.Genes only
Question 11
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Question text
What the plants absorb from the soil?

a.hygroscopic water
b.capillary water
c.gravitational water
d.both hygroscopic and gravitational water
Question 12
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Question text
Which one of the following factors is biotic?

a.photoperiod
b.texture and porosity of soil
 c.rainfall
d.CO2 content of the soil
Question 13
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Question text
What is the small circular pieces of DNA found inside bacteria in addition to their chromosome?

a.
DNA

b.
RNA

c.
a clone

d.
a plasmid

Question 14
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Question text
Which term refers to physical characteristics that are studied in genetics?

a.offspring
b.hybrids
c.traits
d.generations
Question 15
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Question text
What is the major source of water for the soil?

a.ground water
b.precipitation
c.combined water
d.capillary water
Question 16
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Question text
Adaptive evolution can be caused by?

a.
natural selection.

b.
gene flow.

c.
genetic drift.

d.
the bottleneck effect.

Question 17
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 Flag question

Question text
Fossil evidence shows that structures considered vestigial in living organisms?

a.were useful to their ancestors

b.are not found in ancient organisms
c.do not fill gaps in the fossil record
d.have always been vestigial
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What is a disadvantage of adult stem cells over embryonic stem cells?

a.
They can differentiate into a limited number of cell types.

b.
They are difficult to locate since there are so few of them.

c.
All of the above are disadvantages.

d.
They are difficult to grow in large numbers.

Question 19
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 Flag question

Question text
What is a man made ecological factor?

a.
grazing

b.
farming

c.
fire

d.
ploughing

Question 20
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Question text
A DNA molecule produced by combining DNA from different sources is known as?

a.
a change

b.
a mutant.

c.
strange DNA

d.
recombinant DNA.
Question 21
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Which of the following is most often associated with the elaborate courtship rituals conducted by
many birds?

a.
kin selection

b.
migration

c.
species recognition

d.
feeding response

Question 22
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Question text
The process of making changes in the DNA code of living organisms is called?

a.hybridization.
b.genetic engineering.
c.inbreeding
d.selective breeding.
Question 23
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 Flag question

Question text
Which of the following would represent an ecosystem?

a.A prairie
b.A lake
c.A fish tank
d.all of these
Question 24
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What naturalist described the concept of natural selection?

a.
Carolus Linnaeus

b.
Georges Buffon

c.
Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck

d.
Alfred Wallace

Question 25
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 Flag question

Question text
All the nonliving parts of an ecosystem are referred to as?

a.abiotic factors
b.the community
c.biomes
d.biotic factors
Question 26
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Question text
Where does protein synthesis take place?

a.
on the ribosomes in the cytoplasm of the cell

b.
in the chromosomes in the nucleus of the cell

c.
in the ribosomes in the nucleus of the cell

d.
on the chromosomes in the cytoplasm of the cell

Question 27
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Question text
Ecology is the study of the interaction of living organisms?

a.with each other and their physical environment.

b.with each other and their habitat.
c.and their communities.
d.and the food they eat.
Question 28
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What is the term for a feature that allows an organism to survive better in its environment?

a.
homologous structure

b.
variation

c.
vestigial structure

d.
adaptation

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Question text
Which of the following would not be included in a description of an organism’s niche?

a.when it reproduces
b.its number of chromosomes
c.the humidity and temperature it prefers
d.its trophic level
Question 30
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Question text
What does a Punnett square show?

a.
only the dominant alleles in a genetic cross

b.
all of Mendel’s discoveries about genetic crosses

c.
only the recessive alleles in a genetic cross

d.
all the possible outcomes of a genetic cross

Question 31
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 Flag question

Question text
Which genetic disorder causes the body to produce unusually thick mucus in the lungs and
intestines?

a.cystic fibrosis
b.Down syndrome
c.hemophilia
d.sickle-cell disease
Question 32
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The theory of evolution by natural selection was independently developed by?

a.Charles Lyell and Charles Darwin

b.Charles Lyell and James Hutton
c.Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace
d.Erasmus Darwin and Lamarck
Question 33
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What is the science that dealing with the soil?

a.pedology
 b.aerology
c.palaeontology
d.geology
Question 34
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What is the process in which humans breed organisms for certain traits?

a.
natural selection

b.
descent without modification

c.
artificial selection

d.
inheritance of acquired characteristics

Question 35
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Question text
A technique which can be used to seperate DNA fragments of differnt sizes is called?

a.Gel electrophoresis
b.transformation
c.PCR
d.Restriction enzyme
Question 36
Incorrect
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Question text
Which theory states that floods and earthquakes have occurred often in Earth’s history?

a.
natural selection

b.
uniformitarianism

c.
catastrophism

d.
artificial selection

Question 37
Incorrect
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Question text
The study of interactions between living organisms and environment is called?

a.
ecosystem

b.
phytosociology

c.
phytogeography
d.
ecology

Question 38
Incorrect
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Question text
The physical location of an ecosystem in which a given species lives is called a?

a.
tropical level.

b.
niche.

c.
biotic zone.

d.
habitat.

Question 39
Incorrect
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Question text
All the individuals of a species that live in a particular area are called a?

a.
group

b.
fossil
c.
population

d.
variation

Question 40
Incorrect
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Question text
Which of these is an example of the benefits of genetic engineering?

a.
analyzing karyotypes and pedigree charts

b.
creating human insulin to treat people with diabetes

c.
growing a new plant from a cutting

d.
cross-breeding to create disease-resistant crops

Question 41
Incorrect
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Question text
Which of the following is not needed for DNA transcription?

a.
DNA
b.
Enzymes

c.
Ribosomes

d.
Nucleotides

Question 42
Incorrect
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Question text
DNA replication can be described as ?

a.
conservative

b.
semiconservative

c.
radical

d.
degenerative

Question 43
Incorrect
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Question text
What is the study of the distribution of organisms around the world?
a.
paleontology

b.
geology

c.
geography

d.
biogeography

Question 44
Incorrect
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Question text
Which scientist developed a classification system for organisms?

a.
Georges L.L. de Buffon

b.
Charles Darwin

c.
Carolus Linnaeus

d.
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

Question 45
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 Question text
The different forms of a gene are called?

a.
traits

b.
masks

c.
alleles

d.
factors

Question 46
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Question text
Why does height in humans have such a wide variety of phenotypes?

a.Height is controlled by sex-linked genes

b.Height is controlled by at least four genes
c.Height is controlled by a recessive allele
d.The gene for height has only two alleles
Question 47
Incorrect
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Question text
What is a section of DNA that codes for a protein called?
a.
Plasmid

b.
Allele

c.
Chromosome

d.
Gene

Question 48
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
Natural selection results in change overtime by acting on traits that are?

a.mutated
b.heritable
c.new
d.better
Question 49
Incorrect
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Question text
What is the cells removed from the blastocyst of a developing embryo?

a.blood cells
b.gametes
c.somatic cells
d.the inner cell mass
Question 50
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
All energy in a food chain originates from?

a.
The Sun

b.
a plant

c.
An electric outlet

d.
farmers

Finish review
◄ FIRST QUARTER EXAM
Jump to...

BAED-ENGL2111 Oral Communication in

Context
1. Home
2. My courses
3. BAED-ENGL2111-2212S
4. SECOND QUARTER EXAMINATION
5. Second Quarter Exam

Started on Monday, 16 January 2023, 9:19 PM

State Finished
Completed on Monday, 16 January 2023, 10:04 PM
 Time taken 45 mins 26 secs
Grade 48.00 out of 50.00 (96%)
Question 1
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This allows the speaker to make extraordinary meaning out of the mundane

Select one:

a.
Imagery

b.
Metaphor

c.
Analogy

Question 2
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
Parts of the Introduction

Select one:

a.
Attention getter, significance, credibility, thesis statement, Review of main points, transition to first
main point

b.
Attention getter, significance, credibility, thesis statement, preview, transition to first main point

c.
Attention, preview, transition to first main point, credibility, first main point

d.
Attention getter, over view of main points, preview, transition to first main point, credibility

Question 3
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
These are the windows to our soul. Unconscious movements may work agains the speaker

Select one:

a.
Pause

b.
Eyes

c.
Articulation

d.
Arms and hands

e.
Posture

f.
Expository speech

g.
Duration

h.
Appearance

i.
Speeech about events
j.
Impromptu

Question 4
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
Are created when air is stopped in the center by the tip of the tongue against the alveolar ridge, while
your breathe passes either one or both side of the tongue.

Select one:

a.
Dipthongs

b.
Nasal

c.
Affricates

d.
Lateral

e.
Semi-vowels

f.
Bilibial

Question 5
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Communicative competency and Communicative strategies are the same.
Select one:
True
False 

Question 6
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
This speech is delivered by reading a manuscript word-for-word.

Select one:

a.
Reading from manuscript

b.
Memorized Speech

c.
Persuasive Speech

d.
Extemporaneous speech

e.
Entertainment speech

Question 7
Incorrect
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Question text
This refers to the speaker's credibility

Select one:
a.
Pathos

b.
Logos

c.
Ethos

d.
Values

Question 8
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This is the correct articulation of words.

Select one:

a.
Volume

b.
Pitch

c.
Fluency

d.
Rhythm

e.
Enunciation

Question 9
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
 Flag question

Question text
Fluency is frequently observed in this kind of speech

Select one:

a.
Eyes

b.
Speeech about events

c.
Expository speech

d.
Impromptu

e.
Posture

f.
Duration

g.
Appearance

h.
Articulation

i.
Arms and hands

j.
Pause

Question 10
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
 Flag question

Question text
Too little may make you appear too rigid while too much may be to distracting and to theatrical for
the audience

Select one:

a.
Duration

b.
Pause

c.
Arms and hands

d.
Appearance

e.
Articulation

f.
Eyes

g.
Speeech about events

h.
Expository speech

i.
Posture

j.
Impromptu

Question 11
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
 Flag question

Question text
The sound when there is an explosive release of air after it comes in contact with parts of the speech
mechanism

Select one:

a.
Respiratory

b.
When strong emotions are expressed

c.
Larynx

d.
Vowel length

e.
Aspiration

Question 12
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Vocal chords are also vocal folds.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 13
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
 Flag question

Question text
How spoken words are arranged, alternating from stressed and unstressed elements

Select one:

a.
Rhythm

b.
Fluency

c.
Volume

d.
Enunciation

e.
Pitch

Question 14
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
[W] = WHY

Select one:

a.
Dipthongs

b.
Nasal

c.
Semi-vowels

d.
Lateral

e.
Bilibial

f.
Affricates

Question 15
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Object, process, event or concept are reasons why this kind of speech is given

Select one:

a.
Posture

b.
Arms and hands

c.
Duration

d.
Impromptu

e.
Eyes

f.
Pause

g.
Articulation
h.
Speeech about events

i.
Expository speech

j.
Appearance

Question 16
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
This body language communicates control, authority, and belief. Standing straight emphasizes
confidence.

Select one:

a.
Expository speech

b.
Arms and hands

c.
Appearance

d.
Impromptu

e.
Pause

f.
Eyes

g.
Posture

h.
Articulation

i.
Duration

j.
Speeech about events

Question 17
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
In what instance is Tone 4 used

Select one:

a.
When strong emotions are expressed

b.
Vowel length

c.
Aspiration

d.
Respiratory

e.
Larynx

Question 18
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Produced when the air passes through the nose and not the mouth.

Select one:

a.
Affricates

b.
Bilibial

c.
Lateral

d.
Nasal

e.
Semi-vowels

f.
Dipthongs

Question 19
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Refers to the length of time given to pronounce a vowel sound

Select one:

a.
When strong emotions are expressed

b.
Aspiration

c.
Vowel length

d.
Larynx

e.
Respiratory

Question 20
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
How high or low your tone is perceived.

Select one:

a.
Volume

b.
Pitch

c.
Enunciation

d.
Rhythm

e.
Fluency

Question 21
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Being an effective speaker and communicator is something you inherit.

Select one:
 True
False 

Question 22
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
These are created when air is not completely stopped but goes through with a hissing sound.

Select one:

a.
Bilibial stops

b.
No correct answer

c.
Fricatives

d.
Alveolar stops

Question 23
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Sounds produced when two vowels are combined which results to a blended sound within a syllable.

Select one:

a.
Nasal

b.
Affricates

c.
Dipthongs

d.
Bilibial

e.
Semi-vowels

f.
Lateral

Question 24
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This is the ability to express and speak smoothly without difficulty in using the appropriate words.

Select one:

a.
Volume

b.
Rhythm

c.
Fluency

d.
Pitch

e.
Enunciation

Question 25
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
 Flag question

Question text
Who said this "A speech has two parts. Necessarily you stae your case, and you prove it"

Select one:

a.
Hemingway

b.
Albert Einstein

c.
Pythagoras

d.
Aristotle

e.
Vince Rapisura

Question 26
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This determines the length of speech.

Select one:

a.
Articulation

b.
Speeech about events

c.
Impromptu

d.
Expository speech

e.
Appearance

f.
Eyes

g.
Duration

h.
Posture

i.
Arms and hands

j.
Pause

Question 27
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
There is no maximum or minimum length of speeches. It will depend on the purpose of the speech
and the event where it will be used.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 28
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
 Flag question

Question text
Parts of a speech

Select one:

a.
Introduction, body, conclusion

b.
Attention getter, main body, conclusion

c.
Attention getter, body, conclusion

d.
Introduction, Main body, Conclusion

Question 29
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This element is about the clothes you choose to wear on specific events to convey a particular idea

Select one:

a.
Posture

b.
Expository speech

c.
Duration

d.
Articulation

e.
Pause

f.
Appearance

g.
Impromptu

h.
Arms and hands

i.
Speeech about events

j.
Eyes

Question 30
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This speech is delivered to entertain, to be enjoyed or to make the audience smile and relax.

Select one:

a.
Memorized Speech

b.
Entertainment speech

c.
Extemporaneous speech

d.
Persuasive Speech
e.
Reading from manuscript

Question 31
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This part of the speech entails reviewing the main points.

Select one:

a.
Attention getters

b.
Conclusion

c.
Transitions

d.
Choosing the topic

Question 32
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
The loudness or softness of a sound.

Select one:

a.
Fluency

b.
Pitch
c.
Volume

d.
Rhythm

e.
Enunciation

Question 33
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
This is where the voice box is located

Select one:

a.
Vowel length

b.
Aspiration

c.
Larynx

d.
When strong emotions are expressed

e.
Respiratory

Question 34
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question
 Question text
This method cannot make use of note cards or manuscripts but it must be delivered word-for-word.

Select one:

a.
Reading from manuscript

b.
Persuasive Speech

c.
Memorized Speech

d.
Entertainment speech

e.
Extemporaneous speech

Question 35
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Consonants that sounds vowel-like. There is no friction made when making the sounds.

Select one:

a.
Affricates

b.
Nasal

c.
Semi-vowels

d.
Lateral
e.
Bilibial

f.
Dipthongs

Question 36
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
This speech rallies people to either do or not do something.

Select one:

a.
Entertainment speech

b.
Persuasive Speech

c.
Memorized Speech

d.
Reading from manuscript

e.
Extemporaneous speech

Question 37
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
The act of causing people to do or believe in something

Select one:
a.
Arguments

b.
Pathos

c.
Negotiation

d.
Persuasion

e.
Evidence

Question 38
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
The four elements affect our self-concept behavior, attitudes, values, and beliefs.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 39
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
This compels the persuasive speaker to be anbiased and free from special interests

Select one:

a.
Selflessness

b.
Emotions

c.
Values

d.
Virtues

Question 40
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
There is only one type of speech and you can use it in all kinds of situations.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 41
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Attitudes are inborn.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 42
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
 Flag question

Question text
Delivering this speech only uses an outline as a guide.

Select one:

a.
Extemporaneous speech

b.
Formal speech

c.
Memorized speech

d.
Reading from manuscript

Question 43
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
You have to use this to be able to move from one part of a speech to another

Select one:

a.
Choosing the topic

b.
Transitions

c.
Conclusion

d.
Attention getters

Question 44
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
This element is about creating an individual sound

Select one:

a.
Appearance

b.
Pause

c.
Posture

d.
Duration

e.
Eyes

f.
Impromptu

g.
Speeech about events

h.
Arms and hands

i.
Articulation

j.
Expository speech
Question 45
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
According to Anne Miller, this is the core of language that surprises, grabs, informs, and persuades
the readers as mere explanation will not.

Select one:

a.
Metaphor

b.
Analogy

c.
Imagery

Question 46
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Casual speech uses slang, jargon, and short sentences.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 47
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
 Flag question

Question text
This enables the audience to let the information sink in

Select one:

a.
Posture

b.
Articulation

c.
Arms and hands

d.
Pause

e.
Duration

f.
Appearance

g.
Speeech about events

h.
Impromptu

i.
Expository speech

j.
Eyes

Question 48
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
 Flag question

Question text
Factual persuasive speech is based on the question ____________

Select one:

a.
What's in it for the audience

b.
Where

c.
Is it true?

d.
Why?

Question 49
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Name the factors in creating the rhythm of a speech

Select one:

a.
no correct answer

b.
pitch, vocal quality, pronounciation, and frequency

c.
pitch, volume, enunciation, and fluency

d.
pitch, volume, enunciation, and frequency

Question 50
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
The final statement should also link back to the Intro.

Select one:
True 
False

BAED-ENGL2111 Oral Communication in

Context
1. Home
2. My courses
3. BAED-ENGL2111-2212S
4. SECOND QUARTER EXAMINATION
5. Second Quarter Exam

Started on Monday, 16 January 2023, 10:09 PM

State Finished
Completed on Monday, 16 January 2023, 10:21 PM
Time taken 12 mins 7 secs
Grade 48.00 out of 50.00 (96%)
Question 1
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Too little may make you appear too rigid while too much may be to distracting and to theatrical for
the audience
Select one:

a.
Duration

b.
Appearance

c.
Eyes

d.
Arms and hands

e.
Speeech about events

f.
Expository speech

g.
Posture

h.
Impromptu

i.
Pause

j.
Articulation

Question 2
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
This refers to the speaker's credibility

Select one:
a.
Ethos

b.
Values

c.
Logos

d.
Pathos

Question 3
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Parts of the Introduction

Select one:

a.
Attention getter, significance, credibility, thesis statement, preview, transition to first main point

b.
Attention, preview, transition to first main point, credibility, first main point

c.
Attention getter, significance, credibility, thesis statement, Review of main points, transition to first
main point

d.
Attention getter, over view of main points, preview, transition to first main point, credibility

Question 4
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question
 Question text
Refers to the length of time given to pronounce a vowel sound

Select one:

a.
Vowel length

b.
When strong emotions are expressed

c.
Aspiration

d.
Respiratory

e.
Larynx

Question 5
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Communicative competency and Communicative strategies are the same.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 6
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Delivering this speech only uses an outline as a guide.
Select one:

a.
Memorized speech

b.
Formal speech

c.
Reading from manuscript

d.
Extemporaneous speech

Question 7
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
This speech requires preparation and a word-for-word delivery. Speaker can move about freely as the
speaker can not use note cards nor manuscripts.

Select one:

a.
Reading from manuscript

b.
Memorized speech

c.
Formal speech

d.
Extemporaneous speech

Question 8
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
 Flag question

Question text
This body language communicates control, authority, and belief. Standing straight emphasizes
confidence.

Select one:

a.
Posture

b.
Expository speech

c.
Pause

d.
Arms and hands

e.
Duration

f.
Impromptu

g.
Appearance

h.
Speeech about events

i.
Eyes

j.
Articulation

Question 9
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
 Flag question

Question text
Produced when the air passes through the nose and not the mouth.

Select one:

a.
Bilibial

b.
Affricates

c.
Semi-vowels

d.
Nasal

e.
Lateral

f.
Dipthongs

Question 10
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Are created when air is stopped in the center by the tip of the tongue against the alveolar ridge, while
your breathe passes either one or both side of the tongue.

Select one:

a.
Semi-vowels
b.
Lateral

c.
Nasal

d.
Dipthongs

e.
Bilibial

f.
Affricates

Question 11
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
[W] = WHY

Select one:

a.
Dipthongs

b.
Bilibial

c.
Nasal

d.
Lateral

e.
Semi-vowels

f.
Affricates
Question 12
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
This determines the length of speech.

Select one:

a.
Posture

b.
Arms and hands

c.
Speeech about events

d.
Articulation

e.
Eyes

f.
Expository speech

g.
Duration

h.
Impromptu

i.
Pause

j.
Appearance

Question 13
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
How spoken words are arranged, alternating from stressed and unstressed elements

Select one:

a.
Rhythm

b.
Volume

c.
Pitch

d.
Enunciation

e.
Fluency

Question 14
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Audience analysis is important when preparing speeches.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 15
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
 Flag question

Question text
This speech is delivered by reading a manuscript word-for-word.

Select one:

a.
Persuasive Speech

b.
Reading from manuscript

c.
Memorized Speech

d.
Entertainment speech

e.
Extemporaneous speech

Question 16
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
This enables the audience to let the information sink in

Select one:

a.
Impromptu

b.
Expository speech

c.
Posture

d.
Articulation

e.
Pause

f.
Arms and hands

g.
Appearance

h.
Duration

i.
Speeech about events

j.
Eyes

Question 17
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Being an effective speaker and communicator is something you inherit.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 18
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
 Flag question

Question text
There is only one type of speech and you can use it in all kinds of situations.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 19
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Speech preparation does not include an in depth research on information you will be using.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 20
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
This part of the speech preparation process includes defining your goal.

Select one:

a.
Conclusion

b.
Choosing the topic

c.
Attention getters

d.
Transitions

Question 21
Correct
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Question text
Casual speech is a form of speech we use when we communicate with people who are very close to
us.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 22
Correct
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Question text
Vocal chords are also vocal folds.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 23
Correct
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 Flag question

Question text
The sound when there is an explosive release of air after it comes in contact with parts of the speech
mechanism

Select one:

a.
Respiratory

b.
When strong emotions are expressed

c.
Aspiration

d.
Vowel length

e.
Larynx

Question 24
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
These are created when air is not completely stopped but goes through with a hissing sound.

Select one:

a.
No correct answer

b.
Alveolar stops
c.
Bilibial stops

d.
Fricatives

Question 25
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
Who said this "A speech has two parts. Necessarily you stae your case, and you prove it"

Select one:

a.
Hemingway

b.
Albert Einstein

c.
Vince Rapisura

d.
Pythagoras

e.
Aristotle

Question 26
Correct
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Question text
The loudness or softness of a sound.

Select one:
a.
Fluency

b.
Pitch

c.
Enunciation

d.
Volume

e.
Rhythm

Question 27
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This speech rallies people to either do or not do something.

Select one:

a.
Entertainment speech

b.
Persuasive Speech

c.
Extemporaneous speech

d.
Reading from manuscript

e.
Memorized Speech

Question 28
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This part of the speech entails reviewing the main points.

Select one:

a.
Choosing the topic

b.
Transitions

c.
Conclusion

d.
Attention getters

Question 29
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This compels the persuasive speaker to be anbiased and free from special interests

Select one:

a.
Virtues

b.
Values

c.
Emotions
d.
Selflessness

Question 30
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This allows the speaker to make extraordinary meaning out of the mundane

Select one:

a.
Metaphor

b.
Analogy

c.
Imagery

Question 31
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
Factual persuasive speech is based on the question ____________

Select one:

a.
Where

b.
What's in it for the audience
c.
Why?

d.
Is it true?

Question 32
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
Name the factors in creating the rhythm of a speech

Select one:

a.
pitch, vocal quality, pronounciation, and frequency

b.
pitch, volume, enunciation, and fluency

c.
no correct answer

d.
pitch, volume, enunciation, and frequency

Question 33
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This element is about the clothes you choose to wear on specific events to convey a particular idea

Select one:

a.
Arms and hands
b.
Articulation

c.
Duration

d.
Eyes

e.
Speeech about events

f.
Posture

g.
Expository speech

h.
Appearance

i.
Impromptu

j.
Pause

Question 34
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This speech is delivered to entertain, to be enjoyed or to make the audience smile and relax.

Select one:

a.
Memorized Speech

b.
Reading from manuscript

c.
Entertainment speech

d.
Persuasive Speech

e.
Extemporaneous speech

Question 35
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This sound can be created when a stop is combined with a fricative.

Select one:

a.
Semi-vowels

b.
Bilibial

c.
Dipthongs

d.
Lateral

e.
Affricates

f.
Nasal

Question 36
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
 Flag question

Question text
This is where the voice box is located

Select one:

a.
Larynx

b.
Respiratory

c.
Aspiration

d.
When strong emotions are expressed

e.
Vowel length

Question 37
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
The act of causing people to do or believe in something

Select one:

a.
Arguments

b.
Persuasion

c.
Pathos

d.
Evidence

e.
Negotiation

Question 38
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This is the correct articulation of words.

Select one:

a.
Volume

b.
Fluency

c.
Enunciation

d.
Pitch

e.
Rhythm

Question 39
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
This is the ability to express and speak smoothly without difficulty in using the appropriate words.

Select one:

a.
Rhythm

b.
Enunciation

c.
Pitch

d.
Volume

e.
Fluency

Question 40
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
How high or low your tone is perceived.

Select one:

a.
Enunciation

b.
Fluency

c.
Pitch

d.
Volume

e.
Rhythm

Question 41
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
Object, process, event or concept are reasons why this kind of speech is given

Select one:

a.
Appearance

b.
Posture

c.
Eyes

d.
Speeech about events

e.
Arms and hands

f.
Expository speech

g.
Impromptu

h.
Duration

i.
Pause

j.
Articulation
Question 42
Correct
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Question text
The final statement should also link back to the Intro.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 43
Correct
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Question text
In what instance is Tone 4 used

Select one:

a.
Respiratory

b.
Larynx

c.
Vowel length

d.
Aspiration

e.
When strong emotions are expressed

Question 44
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Flag question

Question text
Sounds produced when two vowels are combined which results to a blended sound within a syllable.

Select one:

a.
Semi-vowels

b.
Lateral

c.
Dipthongs

d.
Bilibial

e.
Affricates

f.
Nasal

Question 45
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Question text
Consonants that sounds vowel-like. There is no friction made when making the sounds.

Select one:

a.
Dipthongs
b.
Nasal

c.
Semi-vowels

d.
Affricates

e.
Lateral

f.
Bilibial

Question 46
Correct
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Question text
Attitudes are inborn.

Select one:
True
False 

Question 47
Correct
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Question text
This speech brings light to things that happened, what is happening, and about to happen to make
audiences more conscious of that is happening or happened in our world

Select one:

a.
Posture

b.
Appearance

c.
Duration

d.
Speeech about events

e.
Impromptu

f.
Arms and hands

g.
Eyes

h.
Pause

i.
Expository speech

j.
Articulation

Question 48
Correct
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Question text
This element is about creating an individual sound

Select one:

a.
Impromptu
b.
Duration

c.
Appearance

d.
Articulation

e.
Pause

f.
Eyes

g.
Expository speech

h.
Speeech about events

i.
Arms and hands

j.
Posture

Question 49
Correct
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Question text
According to Anne Miller, this is the core of language that surprises, grabs, informs, and persuades
the readers as mere explanation will not.

Select one:

a.
Imagery

b.
Analogy

c.
Metaphor

Question 50
Correct
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Question text
There is no maximum or minimum length of speeches. It will depend on the purpose of the speech
and the event where it will be used.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 12
Incorrect

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Question text
For compound nouns, where does the stress go?

Select one:

a.

Second syllable

b.
Middle syllable

c.

Last syllable

d.

First syllable

BAED-PEDH2111 Physical Education & Health

G11A
1. Home
2. My courses
3. BAED-PEDH2111-2212S
4. SECOND QUARTER EXAMINATION
5. SECOND QUARTER EXAM 2

Started on Monday, 16 January 2023, 6:08 PM

State Finished
Completed on Monday, 16 January 2023, 6:29 PM
Time taken 21 mins 29 secs
Marks 28.00/50.00
Grade 56.00 out of 100.00
Question 1
Incorrect
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Question text
Post flyers in public places
a.
Digital and Social Media

b.
Communicate Your Message

c.
Low-tech Outreach

d.
Traditional Media
Feedback
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Question 2
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Question text
The success of an event lies in the ____________, from start to finish.

a.
communication

b.
none of the above

c.
teamwork

d.
organization
Feedback
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Question text
An step in organizing events wherein members agree upon clearly defined tasks

a.
Research and Setting a Goal

b.
Plan Your Project

c.
Finding a Location

d.
Building a Team
Feedback
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Question 4
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Question text
This community-based preparedness must be practiced in order for people to learn how to
respond to emergencies properly
a.
community emergency

b.
disaster management

c.
disaster recovery

d.
all of the above
Feedback
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Question 5
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Question text
Make follow-up phone calls to the news media

a.
Digital and Social Media

b.
Communicate Your Message

c.
Low-tech Outreach

d.
Traditional Media
 Feedback
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Question 6
Correct
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Question text
This is a form of accident caused by consumption of food or drink that is contaminated with
bacteria or viruses.

a.
dislocation

b.
choking

c.
strain

d.
food poisoning
Feedback
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Question 7
Correct
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Question text
A form of unintentional injury wherein there is a crack or breaking of bone.
a.
sprain

b.
dislocation

c.
strain

d.
fracture
Feedback
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Question 8
Correct
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Question text
Injuries which are also known as accidents.

a.
intentional injury

b.
special injury

c.
none of the above

d.
unintentional injury
 Feedback
Your answer is correct.

Question 9
Correct
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Question text
This accident occurs mostly among younger children, although it can happen to older ones
as well

a.
dislocation

b.
strain

c.
food poisoning

d.
choking
Feedback
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Question 10
Correct
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Question text
How will we reduce the economic impact of disasters on your household or property?
a.
Ensure that health insurance policies are current and meet your requirements

b.
Review property insurance policies regularly

c.
Protect your household's financial well-being before disaster strikes 

d.
all of the above
Feedback
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Question 11
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Question text
How manay gals per person should you put in your disaster supply kit?

a.
1

b.
4

c.
3

d.
2
 Feedback
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Question 12
Correct
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Question text
The following are steps in treating burns EXCEPT.

a.
Cover with bandage or clean cloth to prevent infection

b.
Apply burn ointment on the affected area

c.
Clean the injury with alcohol

d.
Remove the devitalized tissue and blister.
Feedback
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Question 13
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Question text
In lifting, when should we ask for a spotter?
a.
none of the above

b.
in lifting light load

c.
in lifting heavy load

d.
 evertime
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Question 14
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Question text
This occurs when the ligaments of a bone were teared or overstretched.

a.
sprain

b.
dislocation

c.
strain

d.
fracture
 Feedback
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Question text
This is an injury that resulted from improper use of muscles.

a.
food poisoning

b.
strain

c.
dislocation

d.
choking
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Question 16
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Question text
This determines if an individual’s heart rate is within the target zone during physical activity
a.
perceived exertion

b.
MET level

c.
talk test

d.
target heart rate
Feedback
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Question 17
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Question text
This is a form of behavior that makes a victim feel harassed and in danger.

a.
Gang/Youth violence

b.
extortion

c.
domestic violence

d.
stalking
 Feedback
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Question 18
Correct
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Question text
Why should we prepare for a disaster?

a.
To reduce fear and anxiety

b.
all of the above

c.
To know how to respond to a possible threat

d.
To prepare for hazards
Feedback
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Question 19
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Question text
After using a gym facility, what should we do?
a.
Lay on the bench until you fall asleep

b.
Leave the plates and dumbbells' on the area

c.
Put plates of the bench so that now one will use it

d.
Leave the venue clean and organized properly
Feedback
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Question 20
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Question text
This is a form of unwanted and aggressive behavior repeatedly committed towards a person
over time.

a.
domestic violence

b.
bullying

c.
stalking

d.
extortion
Feedback
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Question 21
Correct
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Question text
Injuries thay are basically a result of violence

a.
intentional injury

b.
special injury

c.
none of the above

d.
unintentional injury
Feedback
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Question 22
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Question text
The following are steps in treating wounds EXCEPT.

a.
Sterile bandages will not be applied

b.
Stop the bleeding by applying direct pressure on the area.

c.
Clean the wound

d.
Apply antibiotic ointment to reduce the chance of infection.
Feedback
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Question 23
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Question text
This refers to the act of unlawful taking of something (especially money) by means of force
or threats.

a.
Gang/Youth violence

b.
stalking

c.
extortion
d.
domestic violence
Feedback
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Question 24
Correct
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Question text
This determines the extent a person has enough breath to be able to speak during activity

a.
perceived exertion

b.
talk test

c.
target heart rate

d.
MET level
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Question 25
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 Question text
An step in organizing events wherein you utilize to-do list

a.
Communicate Your Message

b.
Manage Your Health and Fitness Event

c.
Low-tech Outreach

d.
Raise Resources for Equipment/Supplies
Feedback
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Question 26
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Question text
An step in organizing events wherein you do brainstorming.

a.
Finding a Location

b.
Plan Your Project

c.
Raise Resources for Equipment/Supplies
d.
Manage Your Health and Fitness Event
Feedback
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Question 27
Correct
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Question text
What are the importance of doing Physical Activity Assessments?

a.
all of the above

b.
to know if you are sick

c.
to determine your body's capability

d.
a way to know if your body is improving
Feedback
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Question 28
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 Question text
If you are going to organize an event, what is the most important part?

a.
Research and Setting a Goal

b.
Building a Team

c.
Finding a Location

d.
Plan Your Project
Feedback
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Question 29
Correct
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Question text
Refers to the partial or complete displacement of the bones.

a.
dislocation

b.
food poisoning

c.
choking
d.
strain
Feedback
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Question 30
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Question text
This refers to how hard you feel your body is working on a scale from 6-20.

a.
talk test

b.
target heart rate

c.
MET level

d.
perceived exertion
Feedback
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Question 31
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 Question text
It answers the question, Where would you like to hold your event? 

a.
Raise Resources for Equipment/Supplies

b.
Finding a Location

c.
Plan Your Project

d.
Manage Your Health and Fitness Event
Feedback
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Question 32
Correct
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Question text
If you’re training on a track, which lane should we take if we are walking?

a.
inner lane

b.
none of the above

c.
both lanes
d.
outer lane
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Question 33
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Question text
Which of the following are some of the different strategies which can help you at times of
emergency

a.
Plan how your household would stay in contact with each other if separated

b.
all of the above

c.
Know the natural or man-made hazards that could affect your community

d.
Talk to your household about potential hazards or emergencies
Feedback
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Question 34
Incorrect
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 Flag question

Question text
This act if assault commonly known to take place at home.

a.
stalking

b.
extortion

c.
bullying

d.
domestic violence
Feedback
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Question 35
Correct
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Question text
Caused by joining different young people prone to violence.

a.
extortion

b.
stalking

c.
Gang/Youth violence

d.
domestic violence
Feedback
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Question 36
Incorrect
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Question text
Which of the following are examples of community emergency.

a.
respiratory arrest

b.
terrorism

c.
all of the above

d.
heart attack
Feedback
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Question 37
Incorrect
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 Flag question

Question text
This community-based preparedness is the planned and coordinated process of supporting
disaster affected communities

a.
all of the above

b.
community emergency

c.
disaster management

d.
disaster recovery
Feedback
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Question 38
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Question text
Promote your project, and document the day, through Facebook, Tweets, and pictures

a.
Digital and Social Media
b.
Low-tech Outreach

c.
 Traditional Media

d.
Communicate Your Message
Feedback
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Question text
These injuries occur when an individual harms himself/herself on purpose.

a.
Self-inflicted injuries

b.
Assault

c.
Fracture

d.
Dislocation
Feedback
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Question text
The following are steps in using equipment and facilities properly at the gym EXCEPT for
one

a.
Do not monopolie the equipment

b.
Put all equipment back in place after use

c.
Shout after every rep to release tension

d.
Practice Good form
Feedback
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Question 41
Correct
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Question text
Getting volunteers to help you plan or implement your service activity

a.
Communicate Your Message

b.
Digital and Social Media

c.
Low-tech Outreach

d.
Traditional Media
Feedback
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Question 42
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Question text
It basically refer to unintentional or intentional damage to the body caused by various
factors.

a.
injury

b.
help

c.
comfort

d.
assistance
Feedback
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Question 43
Incorrect
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Question text
The following are gym etiquettes EXCEPT for one

a.
Avoid using mobile phones while inside the gym

b.
Be aware of the exercise area for each equipment

c.
 Drop barbell at the end of the set

d.
Put weights and dumbbells on designated racks
Feedback
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Question 44
Correct
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Question text
The following are the contents of a disaster supply kit EXCEPT for one.
a.
Flashlights and batteries

b.
Junkfoods and carbonated drinks

c.
Flashlights and batteries

d.
Drinking water in containers
Feedback
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Question 45
Correct
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Question text
How many weeks of medical supply will you prepare in preparing a disaster supply kit?

a.
2 days

b.
2 weeks

c.
5 days

d.
1 week
Feedback
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Question 46
Correct
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Question text
The following are factors caused by injuries EXCEPT one

a.
absence of heat

b.
extra precautionary measures

c.
exposure to electrical energy

d.
absence of oxygen
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Question 47
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Question text
Which of the following are some of the benefits of maintaining equipment and facilities.
a.
all of the above

b.
It is cost effective

c.
It ensures safety

d.
It leads to longer equipment life
Feedback
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Question 48
Correct
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Question text
This refers to the act of purposely harming another person.

a.
Self-inflicted injuries

b.
Dislocation

c.
Fracture

d.
Assault
Feedback
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Question 49
Correct
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Question text
Components of a coordinated school health program

a.
all of the above

b.
health education

c.
school health services such as counseling and social services

d.
physical education
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Question 50
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Question text
What are the Importance of health and fitness-related events?
a.
it address a variety of health and fitness issues

b.
it promotes healthy living

c.
it is an indicator of sustainable development

d.
all of the above
Feedback
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BAED-ICT2112 Empowerment Technologies

(E-Tech): ICT for Professional Tracks
1. Home
2. My courses
3. BAED-ICT2112-2212S
4. 2nd Quarterly Exam
5. Second Quarter Exam

Time left 1:47:33
Question 1
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Question text
An online location that points to a group of web pages is called a _____

Select one:

a.
web page 1
b.
domain

c.
website

d.
URL
Clear my choice

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Question text
A _____ is composed of points, lines, and shapes.

Select one:

a.
Raster image

b.
Prezi image

c.
GIF image

d.
Vector image
Clear my choice

Question 3
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 Question text
As of 2016, there are over 1 billion websites in the Internet

Select one:
True
False

Question 4
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Question text
Which Google Drive productivity tool is similar to Microsoft Excel?

Select one:

a.
Google Docs

b.
Google Sheets

c.
Google Slides

d.
My Drive
Clear my choice

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Question text
What is the name of the web-based word processor that we learned about in Chapter 11?
Select one:

a.
Google Docs

b.
Weebly

c.
GIMP

d.
Prezi
Clear my choice

Question 6
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Question text
Holacracy can be compared to what shape?

Select one:

a.
Square

b.
Triangle

c.
Rectangle

d.
Circle
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Question 7
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 Flag question

Question text
_____ is the process of planning, researching, creating, publishing, and maintaining information for
online publication.

Select one:

a.
Collaboration

b.
Graphic Design

c.
Presentation

d.
Web Content Development
Clear my choice

Question 8
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Question text
_____ is an open source graphics editor

Select one:

a.
Weebly

b.
GIMP

c.
Prezi

d.
Change.org
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Question text
The Presentation app included in Google Drive is called _____.

Select one:

a.
Prezi

b.
Google Sheets

c.
Google Docs

d.
Google Slides
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Question text
_____ is the delivery of a topic to an audience using a combination of speaking and visual aids.

Select one:
a.
Prezi

b.
Weebly

c.
Presentation

d.
Web content lifecycle
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_____ is the total number of visitors in a website and the number of web pages that they visit.

Select one:

a.
Likes

b.
Hashtag

c.
Followers

d.
Web traffic
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 Flag question

Question text
Some apps have both synchronous and asynchrounous features.

Select one:
True
False

Question 13
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Question text
Software tools that are used to create websites without having to deal with computer code are called
_____.

Select one:

a.
Website management system

b.
Webpage creators

c.
Website manager

d.
Website builders
Clear my choice

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 Flag question

Question text
_____ is an open source web application created by volunteer engineers after the Haiti earthquake.

Select one:

a.
Facebook Safety Check

b.
Change.org

c.
Google Earth

d.
Google Person Finder
Clear my choice

Question 15
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Question text
Unlike a slideshow that is made up of multiple slides, a prezi is composed of a single page called a
_____

Select one:

a.
Canvas

b.
Sheet

c.
Frame

d.
Presentation
Clear my choice

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Question text
What content management system did we use to create a blog?

Select one:

a.
Prezi

b.
Weebly

c.
WordPress

d.
Change.org
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Question 17
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Question text
Prezis created using free accounts can be viewed by anyone while paying users can make their
presentations private.
Select one:
True
False

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Question text
What do you call text, sounds, images, videos, and other media that are published online?

Select one:

a.
presentation

b.
web content

c.
social media

d.
web traffic
Clear my choice

Question 19
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Question text
What is the name of Google Drive's word processor

Select one:

a.
Google Sheets

b.
My Drive

c.
Google Slides

d.
Google Docs
Clear my choice

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GNU is the name of the organization that created GIMP.

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True
False

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In GIMP, you can make a _____ by isolating an area of the image so that your actions will apply to
that area alone.

Select one:

a.
JPEG
b.
selection

c.
compression

d.
vector
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A _____ is a program or a set of programs used by people to achieve a common goal.

Select one:

a.
Firmware

b.
Software

c.
Groupware

d.
Conference
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 Question text
_____ is the practice of giving other websites the permission to publish your original contents.

Select one:

a.
web marketing

b.
SEO

c.
Advertising

d.
Web syndication
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Question text
Information shared using _____ are not instantly displayed to other members of the group.

Select one:

a.
Multi-synchronous groupware

b.
Online groupware 1

c.
Asynchronous groupware

d.
Synchronous groupware
Clear my choice
Question 25
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_____ is the practice of moving outdated web content away from the main website.

Select one:

a.
Packaging

b.
Recording

c.
Packeting

d.
Archiving
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Question text
What web-based presentation program did we use in Chapter 10?

Select one:

a.
Change.org

b.
Prezi
c.
WordPress

d.
Weebly
Clear my choice

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Question text
What is the name of the online petition site that we learned about in Chapter 12?

Select one:

a.
Change.org 1

b.
Change.com

c.
Change.gov

d.
Change.net
Clear my choice

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You can sign up to Change.org using your Facebook account
Select one:
True
False

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Question text
Groupware that allow the sharing of information in real-time are called _____.

Select one:

a.
Asynchronous groupware

b.
Real-time groupware

c.
Multi-synchronous groupware

d.
Synchronous groupware
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Question text
A team structure where leadership responsibilities can be given to different members of the team is
called a _____.

Select one:
a.
Social Awareness

b.
Social Awareness

c.
Holacracy

d.
Team environment
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_____ is a social media feature that is activated during and after natural and man-made disasters
which enables users in disaster stricken areas to let people know that they are safe.

Select one:

a.
Change.org

b.
Holacracy

c.
Google Person Finder

d.
Facebook Safety Check
Clear my choice

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 Flag question

Question text
_____ is a technology that enables two or more people to send and receive short messages instantly.

Select one:

a.
Online Chat

b.
VoIP

c.
Shared calendar

d.
Videoconferencing
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Question text
_____is the ratio between the size of the image in pixels and its physical size when printed on paper.

Select one:

a.
Resolution

b.
Selection

c.
Compression
d.
Vector
Clear my choice

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The ALS Ice Bucket Challenge was used to raise social awareness and gather donations for the
treatment of the ZIKA Virus.

Select one:
True
False 1

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Question text
To persuade a person or a group to sponsor your project, you have to write a _____.

Select one:

a.
Sales Pitch

b.
Concept Paper

c.
Support Document

d.
Petition
Clear my choice

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Question text
In Chapter 9, we learned to use a website building tool. What is it called?

Select one:

a.
Weebly 1

b.
Change.org

c.
WordPress

d.
Prezi
Clear my choice

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Question text
A _____ is composed of a grid of dots.

Select one:

a.
Lossy image
b.
Lossless image

c.
Raster image

d.
Vector image
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PNG Can only recognize 256 colors

Select one:
True
False

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GIF supports 16 million colors

Select one:
True
False

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Question text
What is the name of Google's cloud-based file storage and sharing service?

Select one:

a.
Google Plus

b.
Google Drive

c.
Youtube

d.
My Drive
Clear my choice

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Question text
The unit unit of measurement for image resolution is called _____

Select one:

a.
Image resolution

b.
Pixel ratio

c.
Pixels per inch
d.
Vector capacity
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You cannot edit uploaded Microsoft Word files using Google Docs.

Select one:
True
False

Question 43
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Question text
_____ is a form of communication that uses visual elements like text and pictures to express an idea
or send a message.

Select one:

a.
Presentation

b.
Web page Design

c.
Graphics design

d.
Collaboration
Clear my choice

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Question text
Groupware is also known as _____

Select one:

a.
Native software

b.
Web Conferencing

c.
Word Processor

d.
Collaborative software
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_____ allows people to make voice calls through the Internet.

Select one:

a.
Online Chat
b.
Videoconferencing

c.
Wiki

d.
VoIP
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Question text
The _____ is the series of steps or phases that web content has to go through before and after it is
published.

Select one:

a.
SEO

b.
Archiving

c.
Web Syndication

d.
Web Content Lifecycle
Clear my choice

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 Flag question

Question text
In Prezi, the action of moving around the canvas is called _____

Select one:

a.
Pathing

b.
Switching

c.
Zooming

d.
Panning
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The header is also known as the _____.

Select one:

a.
byline

b.
masthead

c.
letterhead
d.
footer
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Question text
SEO stands for _____.

Select one:

a.
Single-end Organization

b.
Syndicated Engineering Operation

c.
Search Environment Optimization

d.
Search Engine Optimization
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Web traffic is used to measure the popularity of websites and web contents.

Select one:
True
 False

Finish attempt ...

◄ First Quarter Exam

Jump to...

BAED-UCSP2111 Understanding Culture,

Society and Politics
1. Home
2. My courses
3. BAED-UCSP2111-2212S
4. SECOND QUARTER EXAM
5. SECOND QUARTER EXAM

Started on Monday, 16 January 2023, 3:50 PM

State Finished
Completed on Monday, 16 January 2023, 3:59 PM
Time taken 9 mins 12 secs
Marks 13.00/50.00
Grade 26.00 out of 100.00
Question 1
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Question text
Which of the following is an example of nonformal education?

a.
primary schooling

b.
senior high school
c.
adult night classes

d.
doctorate program
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Question 2
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Question text
When Boaz spreads his cloak over Ruth, it is a sign of

a.
marriage

b.
forgiveness

c.
friendship

d.
concern
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 Question text
It is intentional, organized and structured form of learning, imparted in educational institutions like
school, college or university in order to modify the behavior of an individual.

a.
school

b.
 nonformal education

c.
formal education

d.
education
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Question 4
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Question text
This is defined as a political unit consisting of a government that has sovereignty presiding over a
group of people and well-defined territory and has the highest form of political organization.

a.
state

b.
nation-state

c.
nation

d.
state-nation
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Question text
Formal leadership exists and authority rests solely on the members of a select family.

a.
nation

b.
state

c.
tribe

d.
chiefdom
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Question text
It does not possess political sovereignty.

a.
state

b.
nation-state

c.
nation

d.
state-nation
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Question text
Conforming to a tradition's doctrines is called

a.
Obedience

b.
Orthopraxy

c.
Orthodoxy

d.
Morality
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 Flag question

Question text
The agricultural skill that brought about urban life started to develop around

a.
6000 BCE

b.
8000 BCE

c.
2500 BCE

d.
1000 BEC
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Question text
They are the funders and donors.

a.
Government Organizations

b.
People’s Organizations

c.
Global organizations

d.
Religious organizations 
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Question 10
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Question text
What term explains a social institution that formally socializes members of society?

a.
school

b.
nonformal education

c.
formal education

d.
education
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Question text
It is offered by private and public colleges and universities. 

a.
special education

b.
secondary education

c.
primary education

d.
tertiary education
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Question text
It is a financial institution that lends money both to public as well as private  organizations.

a.
trade unions

b.
labor union

c.
corporations

d.
banks
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Question 13
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Question text
This is defined as a political unit consisting of a government that has sovereignty presiding over a
group of people and well-defined territory and has the highest form of political organization.

a.
state

b.
nation-state

c.
nation

d.
state-nation
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Question text
A cooperative that performs a broader range of functions.

a.
housing cooperative

b.
electric cooperative

c.
farmer’s cooperative

d.
general  cooperative
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Question text
I had a stronger claim to Ruth than Boaz

a.
Chilion

b.
"Next of Kin"

c.
Moab

d.
Jesse
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 Flag question

Question text
It does not possess political sovereignty.

a.
nation

b.
nation-state

c.
state

d.
state-nation
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Question text
This is a business owned by its customers. Employees can also become members.

a.
banks

b.
corporations

c.
consumer’s cooperative

d.
agricultural cooperative
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Question text
Programs offered vary in duration from a few weeks to two years.

a.
nonformal education

b.
special education

c.
vocational education

d.
formal education
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Question text
It refers to an autonomous association whose membership is voluntary toward the attainment of
common economic, social and cultural needs or aspirations.

a.
bank

b.
cooperative 

c.
NGO

d.
labor union
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Question text
How many plagues did Naomi have in her life?

a.
nine

b.
six

c.
ten

d.
seven
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Question 21
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Question text
This where residents either own shares reflecting their equity in the cooperative’s real estate 

a.
electric cooperative

b.
housing cooperative

c.
general cooperative

d.
credit cooperative
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Question 22
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Question text
Which of the following is a primary function of education?

a.
socialization
b.
to work in group

c.
courtship

d.
finding a business partner
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Question text
According to this textbook, why should we learn about religion in the past?

a.
So we can become superior to primal society

b.
To pass the test

c.
To understand the role of religion in our world today

d.
So we do not make the same mistakes that previous religious leaders made
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Question 24
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 Flag question

Question text
Gleaning means to

a.
be allowed to gather food leftover from the harvest

b.
get food from the threshing floor

c.
be given money to buy food

d.
pray for God's help
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Question text
A continuing basic education from the elementary level and expanding it to include the learning of
employable, gainful skills.

a.
informal education

b.
secondary education
c.
primary education

d.
nonformal education
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Question text
These agencies are present in developing countries challenged by security conflict, food shortage,
climate change, financial instability and others

a.
financial market  

b.
economic organizations

c.
financial institution

d.
 development agencies
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 Question text
Studying religion as it was in first-century Rome is important because it is a clear example of how
religion has been about power and meaning in relation to

a.
Their gods and goddesses

b.
Modern Western religions

c.
Human destiny

d.
The natural world
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Question text
Formal leadership exists and authority rests solely on the members of a select family.

a.
nation

b.
state

c.
tribe

d.
chiefdom
 Feedback
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Question 29
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Question text
Which educational institution one will enroll if he/she is interested to learn in a short period of time
about shielded metal arc and welding, baking, food processing, etc.

a.
primary school

b.
tertiary school

c.
vocational school

d.
pre-school
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Question text
World Bank, International Monetary Bank and Asian Development Bank are examples of _____.

a.
Civil Society Organizations
b.
Global Organizations

c.
Economic Organizations

d.
Political Institutions
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Question 31
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Question text
It usually takes placed in a classroom setting and provided by trained teaching and nonteaching staff.

a.
formal education

b.
nonformal education

c.
education

d.
informal education
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 Flag question

Question text
Which of the following is included in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights

a.
 Everyone has the right to education.

b.
Education has to be free.

c.
Education is compulsory at least in the primary level.

d.
ALL OF THE ABOVE
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Question text
I did as my mother-in-law asked and returned to my mother's

a.
Naomi

b.
Orpah

c.
Ruth

d.
Leah
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Question 34
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Question text
Ownership of a corporation is through stockholders who own particular shares in the company.

a.
stock corporation

b.
nonstock corporation

c.
profit corporation

d.
nonprofit corporation
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Question 35
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Question text
A cooperative that provides credit facility to each member.

a.
credit cooperative

b.
housing cooperative

c.
farmer’s cooperative

d.
consumer’s  cooperative
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Question 36
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Question text
It refers to a broad category of nonstate organizations representing a company or group of people that
engages in a lawful activity in relation to a public function, such as the provision of a good or service
to the larger society.

a.
corporation 

b.
bank

c.
cooperative

d.
financial organization
 Feedback
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Question 37
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Question text
They exist to promote principled causes, ideas, and values to change international policy.

a.
 Transnational Advocacy Groups

b.
Development Agencies

c.
International Organizations

d.
Local Organizations
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Question text
Learning that goes on in daily life and can be received through daily experiences such as from
family, peer group, the media and other influences in a person’s environment.

a.
education
b.
nonformal education

c.
formal education

d.
informal education
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Question 39
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Question text
What is the term used to an organization of workers whose main objective is to protect the welfare of
its members?

a.
labor union

b.
NGO

c.
cooperative

d.
INGO
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Question 40
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 Flag question

Question text
The following banks are owned by private institutions except _________ . 

a.
Banco de Oro

b.
Bank of the Philippine Island

c.
Land Bank of the Philippines

d.
Metrobank
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Question text
In every religious tradition __________ convey(s) the deepest and most profound truths of life.

a.
Rituals

b.
Myths
c.
Nature

d.
The sacred
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Question 42
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Question text
Primary and secondary education is regulated by

a.
CHED

b.
TESDA

c.
DepEd

d.
Private Institutions
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Question 43
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 Question text
It is formed by several families living together based on marriage ties, common descendants,
friendship affiliations and members usually have common interest, or enemy. 

a.
chiefdom

b.
band

c.
tribe

d.
nation
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The world's oldest religious specialist

a.
Is extinct

b.
Dates to 75,000 years ago

c.
Is found only in tribal religion

d.
Is called the shaman
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It refers to the education of persons who are physically, mentally, emotionally, socially or culturally
different from so-called “normal” individuals.

a.
special education

b.
secondary education

c.
primary education

d.
tertiary education
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The following are government-owned institutions except ____________

a.
Jollibee Foods Corporation
b.
Home Mutual Development Fund

c.
Philhealth Insurance Corporation

d.
Development Bank of the Phils.
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A group usually headed by a village headman.

a.
nation-state

b.
chiefdom

c.
tribe

d.
state
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Acting in the manner prescribed by the tradition is called

a.
Orthodontics

b.
Orthopedics

c.
Orthodoxy

d.
Orthopraxy
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Which of the following is not a primary function of education?

a.
cultural innovation

b.
courtship

c.
socialization

d.
transmission of culture
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Tertiary education is  regulated by

a.
CHED

b.
Private Institutions

c.
DepEd

d.
TESDA
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PHILOSOPHY WEEK 11 – 20
WEEK 13
According to Gabriel Marcel, this refers to the "ultimate other self."

-God
The principle which claims that some non-physical mind, will, or soul overrides physical causality.

- Interactionist Dualism

An argument for consequentualism which states that actions are transient things, soon gone forever.

-Only results remain

This book by Voltaire claimed that "Liberty then is only and can be only the power to do what one
will."

-Select one:

a.Cartesian Meditations
b.On the Freedom of the Will
c.Dictionaire philosophique

This refers to a state of reality characterized by interiority, subjectivity, sentience, feeling,

experience, self-agency, meaning, and purpose.

-Philosophical consciousness

Another term for state consequentalism

-Mohist Consequentialism

He maintains that determinism is true because quantum phenomena are not events or things that
can be located in space and time, but are abstract entities.

-Ted Honderich

He suggested that no connection could be made between indeterminism of nature and freedom of
will.

-Niels Bohr

In consequentialism, this consists of the action itself and everything it causes.

-Consequences

The essay where Arthur Schopenhauer stated, "You can do what you will, but in any given moment
of your life you can will only one definite thing and absolutely nothing other than that one thing.

-On the Freedom of the Will

His research suggests that as babies, humans are biologically wired to "coordinate their actions with
others.
-Colwyn Trevarthen

It is the notion that all propositions, whether about the past, present, or future, are either true or
false.

-Logical determinism

WEEK 15
Persons with disabilities (PWDs), according the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons With
Disabilities, include those who have long-term physical, mental, intellectual or sensory impairments
which?may hinder their full and effective participation in society on an equal basis with others.?

-True

Habilitation is concerned with people who have acquired disabilities.?

-False

He introduced the concept of intersubjectivity aimed?to designate an individual capacity and a social

domain, hence the term "intersubjectivityof mutual understanding."

- Jurgen Habermas

This approach suggests that, instead of being individual or universal thinkers, human beings
subscribe to "thought communities"-communities of differing beliefs.

- Intersubjectivity

It is the notion that all propositions, whether about the past, present, or future, are either true or
false.

-Logical determinism

The UN Declaration on the Rights of Mentally Retarded Persons took place in what year?

-1971

In the US, This was signed into law in 1990 with the aim to end discrimination against individuals
with disabilities.

-Americans with Disabilities Act

Per UNICEF, what is the maximum age for the so-called "children with disabilities?"?
-18

The Philippines' "Magna Carta for Disabled Persons" is also known as ____.

-RA No. 7277

This refers to problems in body function or alterations in body structure, such as paralysis or
blindness.

-Impairment

A concept in consequentialism where an action is morally right if and only if it does not violate the set
of rules of behavior whose general acceptance in the community would have the best
consequences.

-Rule consequentialism

Which of these fields of study does not entail the use of the term "intersubjectivity?"

-biology

The work of Edith Stein which served as an extended basis of intersubjectivity.

-On the Problem of Empathy

Another term for state consequentalism

-Mohist Consequentialism

Edith Stein's doctoral dissertation which served as an extended basis of intersubjectivity.

-"On the Problem of Empathy"

This theory states that of any two things a person might do at any given moment, one is better than
another to the extent that its overall consequences are better than the other's overall consequences.

-Plain scalar consequentialism

It concentrates on the fundamental goods of the earth, communities of more limited economic and
political scale than in modern society, and on simple living.

- agrarianism
IFSW is a global organisation striving for social justice, human rights and social development
through the promotion of social work, best practice models and the facilitation of international
cooperation.What does IFSW stand for?

-International Foundation of Social Workers

It is the philosophy that all events of history, past, present and future, have been decided or are
known (by God, fate, or some other force), including human actions.

-Predeterminism

Aside from the Supplemental Security Disability Insurance (SSDI), what is the other program of the
US federal government to assist persons with disability?

-American Association of People with Disabilities (AAPD)

The essay where Arthur Schopenhauer stated, "You can do what you will, but in any given moment
of your life you can will only one definite thing and absolutely nothing other than that one thing.

-On the Freedom of the Will

This suggest that intdeterminacy of agent volition processes could map to the indeterminacy of
certain physical events, and the outcomes of these events could therefore be considered caused by
the agent.

-Efforts of will theory

He introduced the concept of intersubjectivity aimed?to designate an individual capacity and a social

domain, hence the term "intersubjectivityof mutual understanding."

-Jurgen Habermas

The author behind the doctoral dissertation "On the Problem of Empathy" which served as an
extended basis of intersubjectivity.?

-Edith Stein

He suggested that no connection could be made between indeterminism of nature and freedom of
will.

-Niels Bohr

WEEK 17
It refers to a society driven by the use of technology to enable mass production, thus supporting a
large population.

-  industrial society
The author of "The Sacrament of the Body and Blood of Christ—Against the Fanatics" which stated
that the Eucharist was actually and not virtually the body of Christ.

-Martin Luther

According to Socrates, the secret to this is in developing the capacity to enjoy less.

- happiness

This period is considered the transition to agriculture.

- Neolithic Revolution

The author behind "The Question Concerning Technology"

- Martin Heidegger

The primary source of energy within agrarian societies

- plant biomass

The philosopher behind virtuality.

- Gilles Deleuze

Feudalism was considered a way of life during this period.

- Medieval

The exact name of the sacrament in the Roman Catholic Church involved in Martin Luther's " The
Sacrament of the Body and Blood of Christ—Against the Fanatics"

- Holy Eucharist

Author of "Méditations sur le réel et le virtuel" which gave virtuality another core meaning

- Denis Berthier

This is where horticulture and agriculture as types of subsistence developed among humans
somewhere between 10,000 and 8,000 years ago.

- Fertile Circle

It is identified as a catalyst for the transition to post-modern society

- information technology
 WEEK 18-19
The state when the mind is in communion with universal and eternal ideas

f- contemplation

The term used to refer to an aspect of reality that is ideal yet real.

- virtual

Andrei Linde considered that just like space time, this might have its own intrinsic degrees of
freedom, and that one's perceptions may be as real as material objects.

- consciousness

The philosopher who considers our body as the source of endless trouble.

- Plato

An event that represents the permanent cessation of all biological functions that sustain a living
organism

- death

The philosopher behind virtuality.

- Gilles Deleuze

The primary source of energy within agrarian societies

- plant biomass

This period is considered the transition to agriculture.

- Neolithic Revolution

Another word for escaping existence.

- suicide

This is where horticulture and agriculture as types of subsistence developed among humans
somewhere between 10,000 and 8,000 years ago.

- Fertile Crescent

The philosopher behind Bergsonism

- Henri Bergson
The exact name of the sacrament in the Roman Catholic Church involved in Martin Luther's " The
Sacrament of the Body and Blood of Christ—Against the Fanatics"

- Holy Eucharist

It is a philosophical school of thought stating that the efforts of humanity to find inherent meaning will
ultimately fail (and hence are absurd) because the sheer amount of information as well as the vast
realm of the unknown make total certainty impossible.

- Absurdism

According to Socrates, the secret to this is in developing the capacity to enjoy less.

- happiness

It is identified as a catalyst for the transition to post-modern society

- information technology

Which is a focal point of agrarianism?

- both choices are correct

He characterized nihilism as emptying the world, and especially human existence, of meaning,
purpose, comprehensible truth, and essential value

-  Friedrich Nietzsche

It refers to the view that only reason is the chief source and test of knowledge.

- rationalism

It refers to a controversial field which tries to find neural correlates and mechanisms of religious
experience

Select one:

a.Absurdism

b.Neuroscience

c.any of the choices

d.Neurotheology

Albert Camus' chief work involving absurdism.

- The Myth of Sisyphus

Its focal points include simple living and fundamental goods of the earth.
- agrarianism

The German philosopher who stated that one cannot fully live unless he confronts his own mortality.

- Martin Heidegger

WEEK 20 QUARTERLY EXAM

In the US, This was signed into law in 1990 with the aim to end discrimination against individuals
with disabilities.

- Americans with Disabilities Act

It refers to the view that only reason is the chief source and test of knowledge.

- rationalism

The term used to refer to an aspect of reality that is ideal yet real.

- virtual

IFSW is a global organisation striving for social justice, human rights and social development
through the promotion of social work, best practice models and the facilitation of international
cooperation.What does IFSW stand for?

- International Foundation of Social Workers

It is a philosophical school of thought stating that the efforts of humanity to find inherent meaning will
ultimately fail (and hence are absurd) because the sheer amount of information as well as the vast
realm of the unknown make total certainty impossible.

- Absurdism

This refers to the capacity to know everything that there is to know and is a property often attributed
to a creator deity.

- Omniscience

The exact name of the sacrament in the Roman Catholic Church involved in Martin Luther's " The
Sacrament of the Body and Blood of Christ—Against the Fanatics"

- Holy Eucharist

Edmund Husserl's best-known text on intersubjectivity.

- Cartesian Meditations
This refers to the treatment or consideration of, or making a distinction in favor of or against, a
person based on the group, class, or category to which the person is perceived to belong rather than
on individual attributes.

- Discrimination

It refers to the capacity of a concept to be readily and accurately communicated between different
individuals and to be reproduced under varying circumstances for the purposes of verification

- Intersubjective verifiability

He is the founder of phenomenology.

- Edmund Husserl

This is concerned with people with developmental disabilities.

- Habilitation

Aside from the Supplemental Security Disability Insurance (SSDI), what is the other program of the
US federal government to assist persons with disability?

- American Association of People with Disabilities (AAPD)

The essay where Arthur Schopenhauer stated, "You can do what you will, but in any given moment
of your life you can will only one definite thing and absolutely nothing other than that one thing.

- On the Freedom of the Will

An event that represents the permanent cessation of all biological functions that sustain a living
organism

- death

The form of incompatibilism which posits that determinism is false and free will is possible.

- Metaphysical libertarianism

Daniel Stern developed this to focus on research on the non-verbal communication of infants, young
children, and their parents.

- Relational psychoanalysis

Per UNICEF, what is the maximum age for the so-called "children with disabilities?"?

- 18

He posits that causality was a mental construct used to explain the repeated association of events,
and repeated association of events, and that one must examine more closely the relation between
things regularly succeeding one another.

- David Hume
It states that human meaning is derived from a fundamental fear of death, and values are selected
when they allow us to escape the mental reminder of death.

- Terror Management Theory

Martin Heidegger, in "Being in Time," referred to this as something that shows itself in itself.

-  phenomenon

The Philippines' Department of Health implements Republic Act No. 7277, also known as the
"Magna Carta for Disabled Persons.?

- True

UNICEF released the so-called "Global Disability Action Plan 2014-2021" which intends?to help
countries direct their efforts towards specific actions in order to address health concerns of persons
with disabilities.?

- False

This book by Voltaire claimed that "Liberty then is only and can be only the power to do what one
will."

Select one:

a.Incompatibilism

b.Dictionnaire philosophique

c.No correct answer

d.Determinism

Rule consequentialism exists in these forms, except for...

- human thinking

This is where horticulture and agriculture as types of subsistence developed among humans
somewhere between 10,000 and 8,000 years ago.

- Fertile Crescent

Feudalism was considered a way of life during this period.

- Medieval

His research suggests that as babies, humans are biologically wired to "coordinate their actions with
others.

- Colwyn Trevarthen
Albert Camus' chief work involving absurdism.

- The Myth of Sisyphus

He characterized nihilism as emptying the world, and especially human existence, of meaning,
purpose, comprehensible truth, and essential value

- Friedrich Nietzsche

It states that everything that exists is no more extensive than its physical properties, hence, there are
no non-physical substances.

- Physicalism

It is the philosophy that all events of history, past, present and future, have been decided or are
known (by God, fate, or some other force), including human actions.

- Predeterminism

Martin Heidegger, in "Being in Time," referred to this as something that shows itself in itself.

- Phenomenon

Its focal points include simple living and fundamental goods of the earth.

- agrarianism

It is identified as a catalyst for the transition to post-modern society

- information technology

Jurgen Habermas introduced this concept in the concept of intersubjectivity?to designate an

individual capacity and a social domain.?

- Intersubjectivity of mutual understanding

This theory states that of any two things a person might do at any given moment, one is better than
another to the extent that its overall consequences are better than the other's overall consequences.

- Plain scalar consequentialism

This refers to problems in body function or alterations in body structure, such as paralysis or
blindness.

- Impairment

Daniel Stern developed this to focus on research on the non-verbal communication of infants, young
children, and their parents.

- relational psychoanalysis

Which is a focal point of agrarianism?

- both choices are correct

Another term for state consequentalism

- Mohist Consequentialism

Andrei Linde considered that just like space time, this might have its own intrinsic degrees of
freedom, and that one's perceptions may be as real as material objects.

- consciousness

He suggested that no connection could be made between indeterminism of nature and freedom of
will.

- Niels Bohr

The organization behind"Global Disability Action Plan 2014-2021" which intends?to help countries
direct their efforts towards specific actions in order to address health concerns of persons with
disabilities.

- World Health Organization

This holds that the mind is a nonphysical substance, the seat of consciousness and intelligence, and
is not identical with physical states of the brain or body.

- Cartesian dualism

Which of these fields of study does not entail the use of the term intersubjectivity?

- Biology

It is grounded in the idea that everything in the world can actually be reduced analytically to its
fundamental physical, or material, basis.

- reductive physicalism

Edith Stein's doctoral dissertation which served as an extended basis of intersubjectivity.

- "On the Problem of Empathy"

He maintains that determinism is true because quantum phenomena are not events or things that
can be located in space and time, but are abstract entities.

- Ted Honderich

"People First Language"?eliminates generalizations, assumptions and stereotypes by focusing on

the person rather discussing disability issues.?

-True

The organization behind "Global Disability Action Plan 2014-2021" which intends to help countries
direct their efforts towards specific actions in order to address health concerns of persons with
disabilities.

-WHO

He coined the term "intersubjectivity of mutual understanding" to designate an individual capacity

and social domain.
- Jurgen Habermas

He introduced the concept of intersubjectivity aimed?to designate an individual capacity and a social

domain, hence the term "intersubjectivityof mutual understanding."

- Jurgen Habermas

State of being conscious, and therefore alive, but completely paralyzed with the possible exception of
their eyes

Select one:
a.none of the choices
b.paralyzed
c.locked-in syndrome
d.locked-out syndrome
One of the main architects of quantum theory who suggested that no connection could be made
between indeterminism of nature and freedom of will.

Select one:
a.Robert Kane
b.Niels Bohr
c.George Berkely
d.William James

BAED-PREC2111 Pre-Calculus
1. Home
2. My courses
3. BAED-PREC2111-2212S
4. SECOND QUARTER EXAMINATION
5. SECOND QUARTER EXAM

Started on Thursday, 19 January 2023, 8:16 PM

State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 19 January 2023, 8:18 PM
Time taken 2 mins 21 secs
Marks 12.00/50.00
Grade 24.00 out of 100.00
Question 1
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 Flag question

Question text
Solve: sin x + √2 = −sin x

a.
x = 5𝜋/12 + 2𝜋𝑛;7𝜋/12 + 2𝜋𝑛

b.
x = 5𝜋/2 + 2𝜋𝑛;7𝜋/2 + 2𝜋𝑛

c.
x = 5𝜋/6 + 2𝜋𝑛;7𝜋/6 + 2𝜋𝑛

d.
x = 5𝜋/4 + 2𝜋𝑛;7𝜋/4 + 2𝜋𝑛
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Question text
An angle is in standard position if its vertex is located at the origin, and its initial side extends along the
positive x-axis.

a.
True

b.
Neither
c.
False

d.
Either
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Question text
Assume the orbit of Mercury around the sun is perfect circle. Mercury is approximately 36 million miles
from the sun. In one Earth day, it travels 2.58 million miles. What is the Mercury's movement, in radian
measure, in one Earth day?

a.
0.0771

b.
0.077

c.
0.0727

d.
0.0717
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 Question text
The center value of a sinusoidal function, the value that the function oscillates above and below, is called
the ___________ of the function, represented by the vertical shift in the equation.

a.
Period

b.
Axis

c.
Midline

d.
Amplitude
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Question text
To convert degrees to radian, multiply the given number of degrees by

a.
180°/𝜋

b.
2𝜋

c.
𝜋/180°

d.
3.1416
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Question text
The length of a line that bounds a circle.

a.
Arc

b.
Area of a Circle

c.
Radian

d.
Circumference
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Question text
What is the function values of cos 2𝜃 given cos𝜃 =3/5 and sin 𝜃 < 0.

a.
-7/25
b.
-24/25

c.
7/25

d.
24/25
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Question text
What is the midlinr in the given equation y = -3 cos(1/2𝑥) + 5?

a.
5

b.
4𝜋

c.
1/2

d.
3
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 Flag question

Question text
Convert 450° to radian measures.

a.
5𝝅/6

b.
𝟓𝝅/2

c.
5𝝅/12

d.
5𝝅/3 
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Question text
Trigonometric functions are also known as _______.

a.
Circular Angles

b.
Circular Functions

c.
Circular Identities

d.
Circular Motion
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Question text
It occurs when a specific horizontal shift, P, results in the original function; where (𝑥+𝑃) = (𝑥) for all
values of x.

a.
Area of a Sector

b.
Radian Arc of A circle

c.
Quadrantal Angle

d.
Circular Functions
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Question text
To convert radian to degrees, multiply the given number of radian by

a.
𝜋/180°

b.
180°/𝜋

c.
2𝜋

d.
3.1416
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Question text
Find the reference angle θ = 2.3.

a.
0.8416 radians

b.
0.8415 radians

c.
0.8426 radians

d.
0.8425 radians
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Question 14
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Question text
An automatic lawn sprinkler sprays a distance of 20 feet while rotating 30 degrees. What is the area of
the sector of grass the sprinkler water?

a.
≈104.72 ft^2

b.
≈104.75 ft^2

c.
 ≈104.69 ft^2

d.
≈104.71 ft^2
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Question text
It refers to the number of degrees or radians we must graph before it begins again.

a.
Amplitude

b.
Domain

c.
Period

d.
Range
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Question text
Find the exact values of cos 240°. 

a.
√3/2

b.
1/2

c.
−√3/2

d.
-1/2
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 Flag question

Question text
Find the exact values of sin(10𝝅/3)

a.
√3/3

b.
√3/2

c.
−√3/3

d.
−√3/2
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Question text
The simplified form of csc^4 x − 2 csc^2 x cot^2 x + cot^4 x is ________.

a.
-1

b.
0

c.
1

d.
None of the above
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Question text
All of the following statements are true except for

a.
A half revolution is equivalent to π radian.

b.
The length of an intercepted arc is the same as the length of the radius of a circle.

c.
A full revolution equals 2π radians.

d.
A full circle has exactly 6 rad.
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Question text
Convert 𝝅/4 to degree measures.
a.
45°

b.
135°

c.
50°

d.
75°
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Question text
The area of a sector of a circle with radius 𝑟 subtended by an angle ϴ, measured in radians, is

a.
A = 1/2𝜃r

b.
A = 𝝅/2𝜃r^2

c.
A = 𝝅/2𝜃r

d.
A = 1/2𝜃r^2
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Question 22
Correct
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Question text
𝝅/4 is equal to 45°

a.
True

b.
Neither

c.
Either

d.
False
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Question text
It is a special type of an angle whose terminal side lies on an axis. 

a.
Acute Angle

b.
Quadrantal Angle
c.
Special Angle

d.
Right Angle
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Question text
Solve 4 tan^2 𝜃 + 5 tan 𝜃 = 6 in the interval[0, 360] applying the inverse function.

a.
𝜃 = 37°, 217°, 117°, 297°

b.
𝜃 = 36°, 216°, 116°, 296°

c.
𝜃 = 36.9°, 216.9°, 116.6°, 296.6°

d.
𝜃 = 36.0°, 216.0°, 116.0°, 296.0°
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 Question text
One radian is the measure of a central angle of a circle that intercepts an arc in length to the radius of that
circle. The statement is ______.

a.
True

b.
Neither

c.
Either

d.
False
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Question text
Convert -135° to radian m easures. 

a.
-3𝝅/4

b.
-5𝝅/12

c.
-𝝅/3 

d.
-𝟓𝝅/2
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Assume the orbit of Mercury around the sun is perfect circle. Mercury is approximately 36 million miles
from the sun. In one Earth day, Mercury completes 0.0114 of its total revolution. How many miles does it
travel in one day?

a.
2.56 million miles

b.
2.57 million miles

c.
2.55 million miles

d.
2.58 million miles
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Question text
Find the domain of the equation y = sin x + 2.

a.
(−∞,∞)

b.
(∞,-2)

c.
(−∞,2)

d.
(−∞,-∞)
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Given the equation 2 cos𝜃 sin𝜃 = cos𝜃, solve for all possible values in degrees.

a.
x = 155 + 360n; x = 240 + 360n

b.
x = 155 + 360n; x = 225 + 360n

c.
x = 150 + 360n; x = 210 + 360n

d.
x = 145 + 360n; x = 215 + 360n
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 Flag question

Question text
The period in the given equation y = 3 cos(1/3𝑥) is ___.

a.
6𝜋

b.
2𝜋/3

c.
𝜋/3

d.
None of the above
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If tan𝜃 = −5/3, sec𝜃 in quadrant II is ______.

a.
−√34/9

b.
√34/3

c.
−√34/3

d.
√34/3
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Find the function values of sin 2𝜃 given cos𝜃 =3/5 and sin 𝜃 < 0.

a.
24/25

b.
-24/25

c.
-4/5

d.
4/5
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Convert 𝟑𝝅/4 to degree measures.
a.
145°

b.
155°

c.
135°

d.
165°
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What is the reference angle θ = 300°.

a.
45°

b.
90°

c.
30°

d.
60°
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Find the value of sin 15° using the sine half – angle relationship.

a.
-0.2588

b.
0.2588

c.
± 0.2588

d.
None of the above
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Find the exact value of tan 22.5° using the identity tan 𝐴/2 = sin 𝐴/1+cos 𝐴

a.
2√2 - 1

b.
√2 − 1
c.
√2 + 1

d.
2√2 + 1
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This is formed by two rays sharing a common endpoint called the vertex.

a.
None of these

b.
Initial Side

c.
Terminal Side

d.
Angle
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 Question text
All of the following statement is correct except for

a.
The angle is said to be negative angle is it is measured in a clockwise direction.

b.
Quadrantal angle can have a measure of 0°, 90°, and 180° only.

c.
Coterminal angles are two angles in standard position that have the same terminal side.

d.
An angle’s reference angle is the size of the smallest acute angle,t’, formed by the terminal side of the
angle t and the horizontal axis.
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Solve 3 tan^2 𝜃 = 0 in the interval(0, 2π).

a.
𝜃 = 𝜋/3, 2π/3

b.
𝜃 = 𝜋/6, 5π/6

c.
𝜃 = 𝜋/2, 3π/2

d.
𝜃 = 𝜋/4, 3π/4
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Question text
Convert 75° to radian m easures.

a.
5𝝅/3

b.
5𝝅/6

c.
𝟓𝝅/12

d.
5𝝅/8 
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The period of a function is the x interval needed for the function to complete one cycle.

a.
False
b.
None of the above

c.
True

d.
Neither
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Find the exact values of tan(-45)°. 

a.
1

b.
1/2

c.
-1

d.
−1/2
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Question text
Solve 2 sin(2x) = -√3 in the interval(0, 2π).

a.
x = 2𝜋/3, 5π/6

b.
x = 𝜋/3, 5π/6

c.
x = 𝜋/2, 3π/2

d.
x = 𝜋/3, 2π/3
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Simplify (𝑐𝑠𝑐𝜃)(𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)

a.
csc𝜃

b.
sec𝜃

c.
tan𝜃

d.
cot𝜃
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In sketching the graph of y = 5 sinx, you need to get first the amplitude which is _____.

a.
2

b.
-5

c.
5

d.
𝜋
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If the angle is measured in a clockwise direction, the angle is said to be a negative angle.
a.
Neither

b.
False

c.
Either

d.
True
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It is the ratio between the opposite side length to that of the hypotenuse. 

a.
Cotangent Function

b.
Tangent Function

c.
Sine Function

d.
Cosine Function
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Question text
Express sin 4𝑥 cos 𝑥 as the sum or difference of two functions

a.
1/2(sin 3𝑥 - sin 5𝑥) 

b.
1/2(sin 3𝑥 + sin 5𝑥) 

c.
1/2(sin 5𝑥 + sin 3𝑥)

d.
 1/2(sin 5𝑥 - sin 3𝑥) 
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Solve sin 2x - √3/2 = 0 in the interval[0, 360].

a.
 30, 120

b.
 60, 120
c.
30, 60

d.
0, 30
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Find the coterminal of the angle θ measures −135° with a reference angle θ' = 45°.

a.
45°

b.
225°

c.
75°

d.
135°
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◄ FIRST QUARTER EXAM
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BAED-ENGL2121 21st Century Literature from
the Philippines and the World
1. Home
2. My courses
3. BAED-ENGL2121-2212S
4. SECOND QUARTER EXAMINATION
5. SECOND QUARTER EXAM

Started on Friday, 20 January 2023, 2:50 AM

State Finished
Completed on Friday, 20 January 2023, 3:16 AM
Time taken 26 mins 1 sec
Marks 36.00/50.00
Grade 72.00 out of 100.00
Question 1
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Question text
A strictly private type of drama performed by friends and neighbors to divert a bereaved family from
their sorrow.

a.
Drama-Balitaw

b.
Kolilisi

c.
Balagtasan sa Balitaw

d.
Balitaw
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Question text
The following are the types of characters, except:

a.
Flat Characters

b.
Plot Characters

c.
Developing Characters

d.
 Round Characters
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Question text
He is acknowledged as the Father of Cebuano Literature.

a.
Juan Crisostomo Soto

b.
Perdo Bucaneg
c.
Mariano Perfecto

d.
Vicente Sotto
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Question text
A literature that refers to a long narrative poem which tells of heroic deeds or events. It also edifies
religious tales, animal stories, or philosophical and moral theories.

a.
Riddles

b.
Folk Tales

c.
Epigrams

d.
Epic
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 Flag question

Question text
A Child of Sorrow by Zoilo Galang is considered as:

a.
The first poem written in the English language by a Filipino poet

b.
The first epic story written in the English language by a Filipino writer

c.
The first short story in the English language by a Filipino writer

d.
The first novel written in the English language by a Filipino writer
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Question text
Classification of Literature that is simply defined as a product of one's imaginative mind.

a.
Prose

b.
Fictional literature

c.
Poetry

d.
Non-fictional literature
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Question text
A Filipino hero and one of the notable people during the Spanish colonization who established
Katipunan.

a.
Marcelo H. Del Pilar

b.
Andres Bonifacio

c.
Emilio Jacinto

d.
Apolinario Mabini
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 Question text
The first Filipino newspaper in Cebu.

a.
Tribune

b.
Liwayway

c.
La Justicia

d.
Yuhum
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Question text
The writing system of Filipinos in the Pre-Spanish period.

a.
Hieroglyphics

b.
Baybayin

c.
Alphabet

d.
Alibata
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Question text
Classification of Literature that comes out of one's personal experiences, a true and factual account of
varying information.

a.
Non-fictional literature

b.
Poetry

c.
Fictional literature

d.
Prose
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The first religious book published in the Philippines in 1593 by Fr. Domingo Nieva and Fr. Juan De
Palencia.

a.
Urbana and Feliza
b.
Barlaan at Josaphat

c.
Doctrina Cristiana

d.
Nuestra Senora Del Rosario
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Question text
Baybayin, the Filipino writing system in the Pre-Spanish period, is derived from the Tagalog word
“baybay” which means:

a.
To read

b.
To speak

c.
To draw

d.
 To spell
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 Flag question

Question text
The central idea or message of a story, often a perception about life or human nature

a.
Plot

b.
Point of view

c.
Tone

d.
Theme
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The following are the three distinct social classes during the pre-colonial period in the Philippines,
except:

a.
Timawa

b.
Maharlika
c.
Barangay

d.
Alipin
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Question text
A ritual pageant/procession held on the last day of Flores de Mayo throughout the country.

a.
Santacruzan

b.
Moro-Moro

c.
Senakulo

d.
Sarsuela
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 Question text
This is the second book published in the Philippines written by Father Blancas de San Jose in 1602
and contains the biographies of various saints, novenas, and some common questions and answers
regarding the religion.

a.
Urbana and Feliza

b.
Doctrina Cristiana

c.
Barlaan at Josaphat

d.
Nuestra Senora Del Rosario
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A comedy/melodrama, accompanied by music with 3 parts, and mostly conveys the intense and
passionate feelings of love, revenge, jealousy and loathing.

a.
Senakulo

b.
Santacruzan

c.
Moro-Moro
d.
Sarsuela
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A Filipino hero and one of the notable people during the Spanish colonization who used the pen
name Katabay in writing politics.

a.
Marcelo H. Del Pilar

b.
Apolinario Mabini

c.
 Emilio Jacinto

d.
Andres Bonifacio
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Question text
An epic poem which tells the story of Jesus Christ’s life, trials, and sufferings and usually sung
during Holy Week.
a.
Pasyon

b.
Senakulo

c.
Awit

d.
Duplo
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Question text
The first published short story in Sugbuanon.

a.
Ang Suga

b.
Hinilawod

c.
Maragtas

d.
Maming
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Question 21
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Question text
He is the Tagalog god of the sea and the god of the hunters.

a.
Bathala

b.
Amanikable

c.
Apolaki

d.
Mapulon
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It is a rhetorical device, a witty, ingenious, or pointed saying that is tersely expressed.

a.
Epigrams

b.
Folk Tales
c.
Riddles

d.
Epic
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Question text
A Filipino hero and one of the notable people during the Spanish colonization who is known as
Dimas-Ilaw and Pingkian.

a.
Marcelo H. Del Pilar

b.
Andres Bonifacio

c.
Emilio Jacinto

d.
Apolinario Mabini
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 Flag question

Question text
This is a mystifying, misleading or puzzling question posed as a problem to be solved or guessed.

a.
Folk Tales

b.
Epic

c.
Epigrams

d.
Riddles
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Question text
President that was elected during the Commonwealth Government in the Philippines.

a.
Jose P. Laurel

b.
Emilio Aguinaldo

c.
Manuel L. Quezon

d.
Sergio Osmena
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Question text
A love song in Hiligaynon Literature.

a.
Siday

b.
Awit

c.
Ambahan

d.
Ballad
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Question text
Language that the Americans made mandatory to use during their colonization in the Philippines.

a.
Japanese

b.
Spanish

c.
English

d.
Tagalog
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It is an incorporation of debate and balitaw where the courtship plot becomes a mere framework for
an argument on a non romantic subject.

a.
Drama-Balitaw

b.
Balitaw

c.
Kolilisi

d.
Balagtasan sa Balitaw
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A type of drama/play that tells a story full of adventures and wars. It is about the battle between the
Spaniards and the Moros, who invaded Spain once.

a.
Senakulo

b.
Duplo

c.
Santacruzan

d.
Moro-Moro
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Question text
Literary form in Hiligaynon Literature that is humorous and satirical.

a.
Ballad
b.
Bical

c.
Haya

d.
Siday
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Considered the first modern English language short story writer from the Philippines.

a.
Zoilo Galang

b.
Severino Reyes

c.
Paz Marquez Benitez

d.
Jose Garcia Villa
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 Flag question

Question text
It is a literary piece that is written without metrical structure.

a.
Literature

b.
Poetry

c.
Prose

d.
Short Story
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Question text
It is a literary composition that presents the author’s point of view about any particular topic in a
detailed way.

a.
Essay 

b.
Drama
c.
Poem

d.
Short Story
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Question text
A simple folk song, love song and work song in Hiligaynon Literature.

a.
Ballad

b.
Awit

c.
Ambahan

d.
Siday
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 Question text
Folk play where a vagabond stranger arrives at the gate of the kolilisi kingdom and ventures to argue
with the king and his court into admitting and introducing him to the ladies.

a.
Bagamundo

b.
Kolilisi

c.
Pamalaye

d.
Duplo
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Question text
The total length of the Indus River makes it one of the longest rivers in Asia.

a.
3,810 km

b.
3,081km

c.
 3,180 km

d.
3,018 km
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Question text
It is an old ritual of formalizing an engagement to marry in Sugbuanon Literature.

a.
Pamalaye

b.
Bagamundo

c.
Duplo

d.
Kolilisi
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Question text
It aims to entertain the bereaved family members after their loss and usually done around 9 in the
evening after the late member of the family was laid to rest.

a.
Awit
b.
Pasyon

c.
Senakulo

d.
Duplo
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Question text
It is the method by which writers and speakers reveal attitudes or feelings.

a.
Plot

b.
Tone

c.
Theme

d.
Point of view
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 Flag question

Question text
Element of the Short Story where plot is often created and a controlling impulse in a connected
pattern of causes and effects.

a.
Setting

b.
Conflict

c.
Structure Plot

d.
Plot
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Question text
President that was elected during the Commonwealth Government in the Philippines.

a.
Emilio Aguinaldo

b.
Jose P. Laurel
c.
Manuel L. Quezon

d.
Sergio Osmena
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Question text
Indians believe that being a Hindu is a sign of being ___________.

a.
famous

b.
happy

c.
religious

d.
glorious
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 Question text
A comic representation of the love chase in a verse dialogue of courtship that develops into a wit
combat performed in song and dance.

a.
Drama-Balitaw

b.
Kolilisi

c.
Balagtasan sa Balitaw

d.
Balitaw
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A Filipino hero and one of the notable people during the Spanish colonization who used the pen
names Tikbalang, Nanding and Kalipulako.

a.
Mariano Ponce

b.
Emilio Jacinto

c.
Apolinario Mabini

d.
Marcelo H. Del Pilar
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Question text
A Filipino hero and one of the notable people during the Spanish colonization who is known as
Plaridel.

a.
Apolinario Mabini

b.
Marcelo H. Del Pilar

c.
Emilio Jacinto

d.
 Andres Bonifacio
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This is the quality of the character which is disclosed through actions, descriptions, both personal and
environmental, dramatic statements and thoughts, statements by other characters and statements by
the author speaking as storyteller, or observer.
a.
Character

b.
Characterization

c.
Point of view

d.
Conflict
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Question text
The "Treaty of Paris" between Spain and the United States surrendered the Philippines to the US for
how much?

a.
P20,000,000

b.
$200,000,000

c.
P200,000,000

d.
$20,000,000
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Question text
This is the debate in verse in Sugbuanon Literature.

a.
Kolilisi

b.
Bagamundo

c.
Pamalaye

d.
Duplo
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Question text
Song of allusion to mythical heroes in Hiligaynon Literature.

a.
Awit

b.
Ballad
c.
Ambahan

d.
Siday
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A Filipino hero and one of the notable people during the Spanish colonization who used the pen
name Jomapa and is known for possessing photographic memory.

a.
Jose Maria Panganiban

b.
Emilio Jacinto

c.
Marcelo H. Del Pilar

d.
Mariano Ponce
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BAED-ESCI2111 Earth Science

1. Home
2. My courses
 3. BAED-ESCI2111-2212S
4. SECOND QUARTER EXAMINATION
5. Second Quarterly Examination

Started on Friday, 20 January 2023, 2:17 AM

State Finished
Completed on Friday, 20 January 2023, 2:33 AM
Time taken 16 mins 34 secs
Grade 37.00 out of 50.00 (74%)
Question 1
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It determines the period during which certain object was last subjected to heat. It is based on the
concept that heated objects absorb light, and emit electrons.

Select one:

a.
Dendrochronology

b.
Amino acid dating

c.
Thermoluminescence

d.
Radiometric dating
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The point where the denser plate goes under the less dense plate is called a rift valley.

Select one:
True 
False

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Weathering is the breakdown of rocks at the Earth's surface.

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True 
False

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A divergent boundary is formed when two plates move away from each other.

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True 
False

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Island arcs and oceanic trenches occur when both of the plates are made of oceanic crust

Select one:
True 
False

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A mass movement also called Mass Wasting.

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True 
False

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The theory of continental drift is most associated with the scientist ____________.

Select one:

a.
Alfred Wegener
b.
Albert Einstein

c.
James Maxwell

d.
Ernest Rutherford
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Relative time allows scientists to tell the story of Earth events but does not provide specific numeric
ages, and thus, the rate at which geologic processes operate.

Select one:
True 
False

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Eras are subdivided into periods.

Select one:
True 
False
Question 10
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It is based on the concept that the lowest layer is the oldest and the topmost layer is the youngest.

Select one:

a.
stratigraphy 

b.
Biostratigraphy

c.
Fluorine dating

d.
 Cross dating
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Seafloor spreading and other tectonic activity processes are the results of convection current in the
mantle. 

Select one:
True 
False
Question 12
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The point where the denser plate goes under the less dense plate is called _______________. 

Select one:

a.
subduction zone

b.
fault

c.
ridges

d.
rift valley 
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When did the first vascular plants arise?

Select one:

a.
Devonian 
b.
Jurassic

c.
Triassic 

d.
Silurian
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The most abundant element in magma is oxygen.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 15
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It works best for sedimentary rocks having layered arrangement of sediments.

Select one:

a.
relative dating

b.
absolute dating
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Hadean eon is the earliest in the geologic time scale. 

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True 
False

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Seafloor spreading occurs along mid-ocean ridges—large mountain ranges rising from the ocean
floor.

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True 
False

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The Mesozoic era is divided into three periods; Triassic, Jurrasic, and Cretaceous. 

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True 
False

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Epoch is the smallest division of the geologic time scale. 

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True 
False

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It determines the age of a rock/object using radiometric techniques.

Select one:

a.
relative dating

b.
absolute dating
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Erosion is consist of material saturated with water that moves as a fluid mass.

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True 
False

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Hydrolysis is the breakdown of rocks by acidic water to produce clay and soluble salts.

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True 
False

Question 23
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Current within the mantle have broken the crust into blocks called _______________. 

Select one:

a.
continents
b.
 crust

c.
boundaries

d.
plates
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In the theory of Continental Drift, Earth’s continents were once part of an enormous, single landmass
called ___________________. 

Select one:

a.
Gondwana

b.
Laurasia

c.
continental landmass

d.
Pangaea
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Precambrian contains large piece of the earth's geological history. 

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True 
False

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Erosion is the breakdown of rocks at the Earth's surface.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 27
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Physical structure of living beings depends on the protein content in their bodies.

Select one:

a.
amino acid dating
b.
Thermoluminescence

c.
radiometric dating

d.
Dendrochronology
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The period when the first primates arise is ______________. 

Select one:

a.
Cretaceous 

b.
Paleozoic 

c.
Permian

d.
Mesozoic
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It is the oldest in the three periods.

Select one:

a.
Cenozoic

b.
Mesozoic

c.
Paleozoic
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This technique solely depends on the traces of radioactive isotopes found in fossils.

Select one:

a.
 Thermoluminescence

b.
Dendrochronology

c.
amino acid dating
d.
radiometric dating
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Formal geologic time begins at the start of the Phanerozoic Eon (4.0 billion to 2.5 billion years ago)
and continues to the present day.

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True 
False

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Physical weathering is caused by the rainwater reacting with the mineral grains in rocks to form
minerals and soluble salts. 

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True 
False

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Continental drift, large-scale horizontal movements of continents relative to one another and to the
ocean basins during one or more episodes of geologic time.

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True 
False

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The eon where humans are living is _____________. 

Select one:

a.
Proterozoic

b.
Phanerozoic

c.
Archean

d.
Hadean
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The period when dinosaurs diversify is ____________. 

Select one:

a.
Jurassic

b.
Carboniferous

c.
Permian

d.
Cretaceous 
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The most active divergent plate boundaries are between oceanic plates and are often called mountain
ranges. 

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True 
False

Question 37
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 Flag question

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It determines if an object/event is younger or older than another object/event from history

Select one:

a.
absolute dating

b.
relative dating
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Question 38
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When did the first mammal live?

Select one:

a.
Carboniferous 

b.
Ordovician

c.
Tertiary

d.
Triassic
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A stress is any change in volume or shape.

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True 
False

Question 40
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The geologic time scale is divided into four segments.

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True 
False

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The breakdown of rocks by oxygen and water, often giving iron-rich rocks a rusty color is called
oxidation. 
Select one:
True 
False

Question 42
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Eras are the second to the largest intervals of geologic time and are hundreds of millions of years in
duration.

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True 
False

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It works best for igneous and metamorphic rocks.

Select one:

a.
relative dating

b.
absolute dating
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Question 44
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 Flag question

Question text
When two plates are colliding, the type of boundary is called ____________.

Select one:

a.
convection

b.
divergent

c.
transform

d.
convergent
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Question 45
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At what era, do humans live?

Select one:

a.
Precambrian

b.
Paleozoic
c.
Cenozoic

d.
Mesozoic
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The pressure is a measure of the stress, the physical force, being applied to the surface of a material.

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True 
False

Question 47
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A continent is composed of relatively light blocks that float high on the mantle, like gigantic, slow-
moving icebergs. 

Select one:
True 
False

Question 48
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 Flag question

Question text
When two plates move lateral to one another, this boundary is called ____________. 

Select one:

a.
convergent

b.
concurrent

c.
transform

d.
divergent 
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Virtually all of the metamorphic rocks that we see on Earth are derived from magmas that formed
from partial melting of existing rock, either in the upper mantle or the crust.

Select one:
True 
False

Question 50
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Temperature is a major factor in the formation of magma.

Select one:
True 
False

Finish review
◄ First Quarterly Examination
Jump to...

BAED-GMAT2111 General Mathematics

1. Home
2. My courses
3. BAED-GMAT2111-2212S
4. Second Quarter Examination
5. SECOND QUARTER EXAM

Started on Tuesday, 7 February 2023, 6:16 PM

State Finished
Completed on Tuesday, 7 February 2023, 6:18 PM
Time taken 1 min 51 secs
Marks 14.00/50.00
Grade 28.00 out of 100.00
Question 1
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How long will Ᵽ250,000 earn an interest of Ᵽ275 at 0.5% simple interest?
22 years

0.22 years

2.2 years

2 years
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Accumulate Ᵽ15,000 for 2 years at 15% compounded monthly.

Ᵽ20,210.27

Ᵽ18,105.74

Ᵽ16,113.99

Ᵽ25,000.90
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It is where the payment is not the same as the interest compounding period.

Simple annuity

Compound interest

General annuity

Simple interest
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At what simple interest rate per annum will Ᵽ25,000 accumulate to Ᵽ33,000 in 5 years?

64%

6.4%

0.64%

6%
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 Flag question

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If Jenny borrowed Ᵽ88,800 at an annual simple interest rate of 10.25% for one and a half year, how
much interest should he pay?

Ᵽ13,653.00

Ᵽ16,353.00

Ᵽ15,363.00

Ᵽ16,353.00
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It is the money that you earn after a certain period of your money being in a bank for safekeeping.

Present Value

Principal

Interest

Future Value
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How much must be deposited by a 15-year old student in a bank that pays 1% compounded annually
so that after 10 years he will save Ᵽ20,000?

Ᵽ16,113.99

Ᵽ15,000.90

Ᵽ18,105.74

Ᵽ19,327.00
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It is the interest computed on the principal and also on the accumulated past interests.

General annuity

Simple annuity

Compound interest
Simple interest
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It is the amount paid or earned for the use of money.

Rate

Principal

Maturity Value

Interest
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Maricris deposited Ᵽ880,000 in a bank that pays 9.25% simple interest. How much will be her money
after 2.5 years? 

Ᵽ1,830,500.00
Ᵽ1,083,500.00

Ᵽ1,083,600.00

Ᵽ1,803,500.00
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It is the value of the debt or investment at present day.

Principal

Interest

Maturity Value

Rate
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Angel deposited Ᵽ20,000 in a bank that pays 0.5% simple interest. How much will be her money
after 6 years? 
Ᵽ20,600.00

Ᵽ20,800.00

Ᵽ20,500.00

Ᵽ20,700.00
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In order to have Ᵽ200,000 in 3 years, how much should you invest if the simple interest is 5.5%?

Ᵽ171,673.83

Ᵽ117,673.83

Ᵽ171,673.82

Ᵽ117,673.82
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 Question text
A savings account in a bank yields 0.25% compound interest annually. Find the future value of
Ᵽ25,000 for 4 years in this savings account. How much interest will be gained?

Ᵽ26,555.60 ; Ᵽ1,555.60

Ᵽ25,250.94; Ᵽ250.94

Ᵽ27,540.72 ; Ᵽ2,540.72

Ᵽ28,028.12 ; Ᵽ3,028.12
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A businessman invested Ᵽ100,000 in a fund that pays 10.5% compounded annually for 5 years. How
much was in the fund at the end of the term?

Ᵽ193,547.05

Ᵽ180,115.94

Ᵽ164,744.68

Ᵽ155,960.00
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It is a fraction or a percentage being computed to a sum of money.

Interest

Principal

Future value

Present value
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It is the percentage of increase of investment.

Rate

Principal

Maturity Value

Interest
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Question 18
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When the total number of conversion periods is 24 and the term is 6 years, then money is
compounded ____________. 

Monthly

Annually

Quarterly

Semi-annually  
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How long will Ᵽ157,500 amount to Ᵽ457,000 if the simple interest rate is at 10.5% per annum?

5 years

7 years

6 years
8 years 
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If an entrepreneur applies for a loan amounting to Ᵽ500,000 in a bank, the simple interest of which is
Ᵽ157,500 for 3 years, what interest rate is being charged?

105%

0.105%

1.05%

10.5%
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When invested at an annual interest rate of 7%, an amount earned Ᵽ11,200 of simple interest in two
years. How much money was originally invested?

Ᵽ800,000.00
Ᵽ8,000.00

Ᵽ800.00

Ᵽ80,000.00
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It is the date on which the money borrowed is to be completely repaid.

None of the above

Loan date

Maturity date

Origin date
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When invested at an annual interest rate of 2.5%, an amount earned Ᵽ1,500 of simple interest in four
years. How much money was originally invested?
Ᵽ15,010.00

Ᵽ15,000.00

Ᵽ1,500.00

Ᵽ150,000.00
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It is the original amount of money borrowed or invested.

Rate

Principal

Future Value

Interest
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 Question text
What is the present value of Ᵽ50,000 due in 7 years if money is worth 10% compounded annually?

Ᵽ27,656.91

Ᵽ26,557.91

Ᵽ25,657.91

Ᵽ28,567.91
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It is where compounding and payment period happen at the same time.

Simple annuity

Compound interest

General annuity

Simple interest
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Question text
Find the amounts of interest and maturity value of a loan for Ᵽ20,000 at 6% compound interest for 3
years?

Ᵽ32,587.57 ; Ᵽ12,587.57

Ᵽ46,535.20 ; Ᵽ26,535.20

Ᵽ24,028.12 ; Ᵽ4,028.12

Ᵽ23,820.32 ; Ᵽ3,820.32
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How long will a principal earn an interest equal to half of it at 5% simple interest?

10 years

6 years

9 years

3 years
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The person or institution who has money to invest or make available to people who needs to borrow.

Borrower

Lender

Debtor

None of the choices

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It is the interest rate that determines the amount of money will earn

Future value

Rate

Term
Principal
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How long will Ᵽ40,000 amount to Ᵽ51,200 if the simple interest rate is at 12% per annum?

233 years

23.3 years

None of the choices

2.33 years
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How much money should Klara place in a time deposit in a bank that pays 1.1% compounded
annually so that she will have Ᵽ200,000 after 6 years?

Ᵽ113,567.71
Ᵽ164,342.82

Ᵽ187,293.65

Ᵽ157,657.53
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If an entrepreneur applies for a loan amounting to Ᵽ36,000 in a bank, the simple interest of which is
4,860 for 1.5 years, what interest rate is being charged?

90%

9%

0.09%

0.9%
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At what simple interest rate per annum will Ᵽ360,000 accumulate to Ᵽ363,600 in 2 years?
0.5%

5%

50%

0.05%
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How long will Ᵽ175,500 amount to Ᵽ500,000 if the simple interest rate is at 10.5% per annum?

3.32 years

3.34 years

3.33 years

3.35 years
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 Question text
In order to have Ᵽ110,000 in 5 years, how much should you invest if the simple interest is 2%?

Ᵽ70,000.00

Ᵽ90,000.00

Ᵽ80,000.00

Ᵽ100,000.00
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At what simple interest rate per annum will Ᵽ50,000 accumulate to Ᵽ59,500 in 2 years?

9.5%

9.05%

0.95%

0.095%
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Luisa invested a certain amount at 8% simple interest rate per year. After 6 years, the interest she
received amounted to Ᵽ48,000. How much did she invest?

Ᵽ110,000.00

Ᵽ100,000.00

Ᵽ120,000.00

Ᵽ130,000.00
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It is the interest that is computed on the principal then added to it.

Simple interest

General annuity

Simple annuity

Compound interest
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It is the amount to be paid to the lender at the end of the term. 

Principal

Interest

Maturity Value

Rate
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It refers to an investment agreement between a depositor and a financial institution that promises to
pay out a steady amount of money over a term.

Interest

Annuity

Stocks
Bonds
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It is the amount of time, in years, that the money is borrowed or invested. 

Future value

Principal

Term

Rate
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When money is compounded monthly, the frequency of conversion is _________.

2
365

12
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How long will an amount of money double at a simple interest rate of 2% per annum?

70 years 

50 years

40 years

60 years
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How much money should Joanne invest to obtain an amount of Ᵽ30,000 in 4 years if money earns at
8% compounded annually?
Ᵽ25,457.23

Ᵽ23,233.69

Ᵽ22,050.90

Ᵽ20,517.01
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Kenneth borrowed Ᵽ5,000 at 5% annual simple interest rate. If he decided to pay after 1 year and 3
months, how much should he pay by then?

Ᵽ5,132.50

Ᵽ5,231.50

Ᵽ5,312.50

Ᵽ5,213.50
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Question 47
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When the total number of conversion periods is 12 and the term is 6 years, then money is
compounded ____________. 

Semi-annually 

Monthly

Quarterly

Annually
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Question 48
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At what simple interest rate will an amount of money double itself in 10 years?

10%

30%

20%

40%
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How much should Anne set aside and invest in a fund earning 2% compounded quarterly if she needs
Ᵽ75,000 in 1 year and 3 months?

Ᵽ70,990.90

Ᵽ73,152.80

Ᵽ71,095.44

Ᵽ70,000.00
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Question 50
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When invested at an annual interest rate of 10.5%, an amount earned Ᵽ157,500 of simple interest in
five years. How much money was originally invested?

Ᵽ300.00

Ᵽ30,000.00

Ᵽ3,000.00

Ᵽ300,000.00
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