Republic of the Philippines

UNIVERSITY OF EASTERN PHILIPPINES

University Town, Northern Samar, Philippines
Web: uep.edu.ph; Email: uepnsofficial@gmail.com

A REQUIREMENT IN MAJOR 19
(LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
ASSESSMENT)

Prepared by:
Brian Jalayahay Nebrida
Kimberly Nungay
Kimberly Jean Salavaria

2020-2021
TEST 1:

Literature Test
Grade Answers as You Go  1 Question at a Time 
1. Questions 1 - 2 are based on the following passage:

Heard melodies are sweet, but those unheard

Are sweeter; therefore, ye soft pipes, play on;
Not to the sensual ear, but, more endear'd,
Pipe to the spirit ditties of no tone:
Fair youth, beneath the trees, thou canst not leave
Thy song, nor ever can those trees be bare;
Bold Lover, never, never canst thou kiss,
Though winning near the goal - yet, do not grieve;
She cannot fade, though thou hast not thy bliss,
For ever wilt thou love, and she be fair!

This poem was written in which of the following eras?

a. Modern
b. Victorian
c. Romantic
d. Postmodern
e. Elizabethan
2. The theme of this stanza can best be described as _______________.
a. Art has its limits.
b. Young love is sometimes not returned.
c. Music energizes the heart.
d. Life is enhanced by the imagination.
3. Questions 3 - 5 are based on the following passage:

A man can hold land if he can just eat and pay taxes; he can do that.
Yes, he can do that until his crops fail one day and he has to borrow money from the bank.

But--you see, a bank or a company can't do that, because those creatures don't breathe air, don't eat side-meat. T
profits; they eat the interest on the money. If they don't get it, they die the way you die without air, without side-
thing, but it is so.  It is just so.
This passage comes from which of the following?
  
a. Grapes of Wrath, John Steinbeck

b. Leaves of Grass, Walt Whitman

 c. A Good Man is Hard to Find,
Flannery O'Connor
d. U.S.A. Trilogy, John Dos Passos

4. What historical period does this passage arise out of?

a. World War II
b. The Great Depression
c. The Civil War
d. Reconstruction
5. The passage is based on the ideas of which of the following?
a. Freud
b. Marx
c. Smith
d. Emerson
6. Questions 6 - 8 are based on the following poem:

why from this her and him

did you and i climb
(crazily kissing) till

into themselves we fell-

how have all time and space

bowed to immortal us
if in one little bed

she and he lie (undead)

The author of this poem is _______________.

a. Theodore Roethke
b. William Carlos Williams
c. e.e. cummings
d. Alan Dugan
7. The versification of the poem would best be classified as:
a. sprung rhythm
b. blank verse
c. iambic pentameter
 d. free verse

8. The tone is best described as:

a. devotional
b. ironic
c. whimsical
d. laudatory
9. Indicate which of the following best characterizes the esthetic philosophy of "Art for
art's sake":
a. John Keats
b. Alexander Pope
c. T.S. Elliot
d. Oscar Wilde
10. Questions 10-11 are based on the following passage:

My father's name being Pirrip and my Christian name, Philip, my infant tongue could
make of both names nothing more explicit than Pip. So I called myself Pip and came to
be called Pip.

These lines open which of the following?

a. Bleak House
b. Great Expectations
c. Hard Times
d. Dombey and Son
11. The opening of the work indicates what about the speaker?
a. That he is of limited intelligence.
b. That he is not sure of his lineage.
c. That he is self-centered.
d. That he has a senstive and frightened nature.
12. Questions 12-14 are based on the following poem by Bret Harte:

Above the pines the moon was slowly drifting,

The river sang below;
The dim Sierras, far beyond, uplifting
Their minarets of snow.

Lines two and four have what type of meter?

a. iambic trimeter
 b. trochaic trimeter
c. dactylic dimeter
d. iambic pentameter
13. The lines contain _____ caesuras.
a. no
b. one
c. two
d. three
14. Which lines end with feminine rhyme?
a. one and two
b. three
c. one, two and three
d. one and three

Source: Literature Test. (2021) Tests.com. Retrieved on 13, April 2021 from https://www.tests.com/practice/Literature-Test

CRITIQUE:

The goal of this literature test is to challenge the students’ literary knowledge.
Students can take this test for free and will get their scores as soon as they click on
submit button. It is not a scientific assessment tool but it will give them an idea of what
type of questions can be found on a literature exam and how well they know some
works, themes and authors.
Based on “practicality”, this test is not expensive as it is free of charge. It will take
less than an hour to finish taking this test. Since this test is online, there are buttons
before the choices that students can click and at the end of the test, students can click
the submit button to get their scores and the correct answer. Overall, the procedure is
specific as it is a multiple choice test and time-efficient.
 In terms of reliability, since this test is an objective type i.e. multiple choice test,
subjectivity or bias is out of question. The copy of the test is also clear and has only 14
items so the test takers can avoid becoming fatigue in answering the test.
In terms of validity, the objective of this test is to challenge the students’ literary
knowledge on some poems in English-American literature. However, since it claims to
measure the literary knowledge of the students (which is very general), content validity
is questionable since the test only includes American poems, theme, tone, rhyme and
meter. It fails to measure students’ ideas on stories, figures of speech and other literary
knowledge. In face validity, there is no direction/instruction given before the test items.
The arrangement of the items is not from simple to complex. The stems and options, on
the other hand, follows a well-constructed format as all four options on each items are
enumerated and indented. The item 3 shows parallelism as all four options presented
title of the poem and author. In item 11, option d, the word sensitive was misspelled as
senstive.
In terms of authenticity, the test includes excerpts from poems in American
literature. Items 1 and 2 are based on one passage. Items 3-5 are based on another
passage; items 6-8 are based on a poem; items 10-11 are based on a passage; and
items 12-14 are based on a poem. Students will have time reading those passages and
poems before they answer the questions that follow. Moreover, the items are
contextualized and not isolated since some of the items are based on different literary
texts.

TEST 2:
Source: http://www.englishteststore.net
CRITIQUE:
This test is composed of 10 grammar recognition items. The goal of this test is to
determine the grammatical errors in each sentence. This test is also free and can be
downloaded as pdf file.
Based on “practicality”, this test is not expensive as it is free of charge. It is easy to
administer since it can be downloaded and printed. The procedure of this test is time-
efficient for all items are multiple choice.
In terms of reliability, this test is an objective type i.e. multiple choice test.
Therefore, subjectivity or bias is out of question. The copy of the test is also clear and
has only 10 items so the test takers can avoid becoming fatigue in answering the test.
Test administration reliability is also an issue here since the test takers are from
different places and some may suffer from internet connection problems.
In terms of validity, the objective of this test is to determine the grammatical errors
in each sentence. The focus in this test is only verb, preposition and article since those
parts of the speech are underlined in each item. The task that the students perform is
direct. They’re instructed to choose the underlined word/phrase that is incorrect.
Although the instruction is implied since there is no direction given before the test. The
test is well-constructed and with familiar task like that of the National Achievement Test,
an standardized test in the Philippines. There is no time limit mentioned but the test is
clearly doable. All items have four choices to choose from. The arrangement of each
item does not follow an easy to difficult level procedure. Moreover, items 4 and 10 are
the same; item 2 is exactly the same with item 6; items 1 and 7 are the same; and items
5 and 9 are the same with each other.
In terms of authenticity, the test includes statements that students can relate. The
topics of the statements are about disabled people and taking examinations. These
topics are relatable and meaningful for the students in the Philippines.
TEST 3:

Grade 9 English–Language Arts

Released Questions

The following released test questions are taken from the Grade 9 English–
Language Arts Standards Test. This test is one of the Standards Tests administered as
part of the Standardized Testing and Reporting (STAR) Program under policies set by
the State Board of Education.
All questions on the Standards Tests are evaluated by committees of content
experts, including teachers and administrators, to ensure their appropriateness for
measuring the academic content standards in Grade 9 English–Language Arts. In
addition to content, all items are reviewed and approved to ensure their adherence to
the principles of fairness and to ensure no bias exists with respect to characteristics
such as gender, ethnicity, and language.
 The following is the rough draft of Cara Johnson’s business letter to Mayor
Lewis. It contains errors.

November 5, 2000

Dear Mayor Lewis:

1 At the last City Council meeting, it was announced that the city budget for next
year does not include enough money to maintain the playing fields and skating rink in
Center Park. We are aware that the storms that hit Lyndon last summer caused a great
amount of damage, and the city’s budget priority should be to repair the high school, city
hall, and airport. Don’t you realize, however, what a loss the park will be?
2 Center Park is very important to the residents of Lyndon. It is easily the best
place in the city for: sports, picnics, concerts, walking, and enjoying nature. It plays a
vital role in the education of our children. Each year science teachers bring their classes
to the park on field trips to study plants and animals. Kids use the playground
equipment every day. There are no other parks nearby for these kids to enjoy. I see the
park going to school every day. It is absolutely essential to support Center Park. The
recreation it provides is priceless.
3 The Lyndon High School Ice Skating Club would like to offer the city some help.
We are suggesting a Skatathon to raise money for the park. Members would ask family,
friends, and businesses for pledges, then skate all day. For every mile skated, we would
raise money to be used to maintain the fields and rink. Also, some of our members are
willing to donate time to help the park staff do simple repairs at the rink.
4 The club challenges other groups to do their part by organizing other fund-
raising events that use the park. While it appears from the numbers that the city can no
longer afford Center Park, other facts tell us we have to maintain this park as a place for
the entire Lyndon community. The park is important to Lyndon. It is a green, refreshing
place to go in the middle of the city. We hope our idea is the first of many good ideas to
keep Center Park green and clean.

Sincerely yours,

Cara Johnson
President Lyndon High School Ice Skating
Club
1. Cara writes,
Dear Mayor Lewis:

How should this be written?

A. Dear mayor Lewis

B. Dear Mayor Lewis—
C. My Dear Mayor Lewis,
D. Leave as is.

2. Read this sentence from paragraph 2.

It is easily the best place in the city for: sports,

picnics, concerts, walking, and enjoying nature.

How should the underlined part of the sentence be written?

A. for-sports,
B. for; sports,
C. for sports,
D. for: sports

3. In paragraph 2, sentence 5 begins with the word Kids. How should this be written?
A. Small children, because it is more formal
B. Tikes, because it’s friendlier
C. Kids, because that’s how people talk
D. Little kids, because it’s more descriptive

4. Read this sentence from paragraph 2.

I see the park going to school every day.

Which is the best way to write this sentence?

A. Every day I see the park going to school.
B. I see the park on the way to school every day.
 C. Every day I see the park on my way to school.
D. I see the park every day going to school.

5. How should the first sentence of paragraph 4 be written?

A. The club challenges other groups that use the park to do its part of organizing
other fundraising events.
B. The club challenges other groups are using the park to do their part by
organizing other fund-raising events.
C. The club challenges other groups using the park in doing their share of
organizing other fund-raising events.
D. The club challenges other groups that use the park to do their part by
organizing other fundraising events.

The following is a rough draft of a student’s report. It contains errors.

Ernest Shackleton: A True Inspiration

(1) In 1914, a group of men found themselves stranded on the Antarctic ice shelf.
(2) The hopefulness of the group, who hoped to be the first to cross Antarctica, was
slowly replaced by somber feelings. (3) Fortunately for them, Sir Ernest Shackleton, a
man of great courage, navigational skill, and working knowledge, was their leader.

(4) After watching the shifting ice destroy their vessel, The Endurance,
Shackleton’s men left on foot searching for: food, shelter, and water. (5) Even though
they realized they had to find more food, the food was rationed by carefully dispensing
the supplies. (6) Shackleton’s men were led by him to Elephant Island, which would be
their frozen home for just under two years. (7) In despair, they hunted penguins and
seals for food and waged a daily battle against cold winter winds from the north
(Shackleton 1929).

(8) Shackleton set sail for South Georgia Island, which is 800 miles away, and
was their destination and the crew’s only hope of rescue (Murray 2000). (9) It was one
of the most incredible feats of maritime history. (10) Shackleton succeeded, and from
the island of South Georgia rescue plans for the crew began to take place.

Works Cited
Murray, Edward. “True Spirit of Adventure.” Outdoor Expedition. 19 May 2000: 41-47.
Shackleton, Ernest. South: The Endurance Expedition. London: Signet, 1929.

6. How should the underlined words in sentence 4 be written to reflect correct

punctuation?
A. Shackleton’s men left on foot searching: for food, shelter, and water.
B. Shackleton’s men left on foot searching—for food shelter, and water.
C. Shackleton’s men left on foot searching, for food, shelter, and water.
D. Shackleton’s men left on foot searching for food, shelter, and water.

7. How is sentence 5 best written?

A. Although supplies were saved and rationed, the men knew more food would
have to be found.
B. Even though they realized they had to find more food, they rationed all of the
supplies carefully.
C. Scared by thoughts of starvation, the small amount of supplies they had left
was rationed by the crew.
D. Supplies were carefully rationed by the men as the need for additional food
became more surely apparent.

8. How is sentence 6 best written?

A. Elephant Island would be their frozen home for just under two years, after
Shackleton led his men there.
B. Shackleton led his men to Elephant Island, which would be their frozen home
for just under two years.
C. Shackleton’s men were led by him to Elephant Island, which would be their
frozen home for just under two years.
D. Leading his men to Elephant Island, Shackleton reached their frozen home for
just under two years.

9. How is sentence 10 best written?

A. Shackleton successfully reached South Georgia and immediately began the
effort to rescue his stranded crew.
B. Upon his arrival at South Georgia, which is an unrivaled maritime feat,
Shackleton commenced the rescue effort.
C. The journey to South Georgia ended in success, and plans to rescue the
remaining crew members were initiated.
D. The perilous journey having ended with their arrival at South Georgia, rescue
plans for the crew began to take place.
10. The author needed additional sources for the essay. He found two more biographies
of Ernest Shackleton. Which of the following is the difference most likely to be found
between these sources?
A. Shackleton’s age at the time of the expedition
B. the amount of time the men were stranded on Elephant Island
C. the manner in which food and supplies were rationed
D. Shackleton’s primary source of motivation during the ordeal

11. The author is thinking about adding a final sentence to the end of paragraph 3.
Which sentence below best demonstrates proper English usage and control of
grammar?
A. Shackleton’s crew members owed their ultimate survival entirely to him.
B. Shackleton’s crew members owed they’re ultimate survival entirely to him.
C. Shackleton’s crew members entirely owed him for their ultimate survival.
D. Shackleton’s crew members owed to him entirely they’re ultimate survival.

12. Which sentence below best states the intended thesis of the author’s essay?
A. Antarctic travel is full of pitfalls and dangers.
B. Shackleton’s leadership saved the lives of his stranded crew.
C. Lack of food and constant despair were two problems the men faced.
D. Shackleton sailed 800 miles in a small sailboat.

13. How should the following phrase from sentence 9 be written to reflect correct
conventions of capitalization?
A. incredible feats of maritime History
B. incredible feats of maritime history
C. incredible feats of Maritime history
D. incredible feats of Maritime History

The following questions are not about a passage. Read and answer each
question.
14. Read this sentence.

On weekends, I enjoy reading a good book, going to

a movie, or to visit with friends.
 How is the underlined part of this sentence best written?
A. reading a good book, going to a movie, or visiting with friends
B. to read a good book, to go to a movie, or visiting with friends
C. reading a good book, to go to a movie, or to visit with friends
D. Leave as is.

15. Read this sentence.

Outcault called his cartoon At the Circus in Hogan’s

Alley, but it was better known as The Yellow Kid.

What is the correct way to write the underlined words?

A. At the circus in Hogan’s Alley,
B. At the Circus in Hogan’s Alley,
C. At the Circus in Hogan’s Alley,
D. Leave as is.

16. Read this sentence.

When you think of a knight, do you think of him

facing an opponent in a death-defying joust!

What is the correct way to write the underlined words?

A. in a death-defying joust.
B. in a death-defying joust?
C. in a death-defying joust.
D. Leave as is.

17. Read this sentence.

Comics are usually not considered an art form,

they serve a valuable function.
 What is the correct way to write this sentence?
A. Comics are usually not considered an art form, so they serve a valuable
function.
B. Although comics are usually not considered an art form, they serve a valuable
function.
C. Comics are usually not considered an art form or they serve a valuable
function.
D. Leave as is

18. Read this sentence.

During the Middle Ages, knights joust and

fought with other knights over their lord’s property
and their women’s honor.

What is the correct way to write the underlined words?

A. knights joust and fight
B. knights jousted and fight
C. knights jousted and fought
D. Leave as is.

19. Read this sentence.

Knights pledged to be fair and honest at all times

and knew they would lose favor with the king if they
violated the code of Chivalry.

What is the correct way to write the underlined words?

A. fair and honest at all times. They knew they would lose favor
B. fair and honest at all times, so they knew they would lose favor
C. fair and honest at all times, but they knew favor would be lost
D. fair and honest at all times-and knew they would lose favor
20. In which sentence does the underlined word have the most positive connotation?
A. The grandmother was kind, although occasionally she was disgruntled.
B. The grandmother was kind, although occasionally she was grouchy.
C. The grandmother was kind, although occasionally she was cranky.
D. The grandmother was kind, although occasionally she was temperamental.

ANSWER’S KEY

1. D
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. D
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. A
10. D

11. A
12. B
13. C
14. A
15. D
16. B
17. B
18. C
19. A
20. D
CRITIQUE:

Test or assessment require students to engage in some sort of behavior which

stimulates, with as much fidelity as possible, goal- oriented target language use outside
the language test situation. Task-based tests, success or failure to complete the task is
not necessarily at issue in performance tests, task-based testing fits within the definition
of performance testing because that definition is broader, but the definition of
performance testing does not fit within the definition of task-based testing. Moreover,
any discussion of performance testing will necessarily include some discussion of task-
based testing, but the reverse will not necessarily be true. Each of these questions will
be discussed in terms of how it has been addressed in the literature to date. The
environment, or circumstances in which the task will be performed (including physical
environment, timing, tools, equipment, physical resources, and information to be made
available). Student control (the degree of judgment a student must exercise in defining
and performing the task successfully). The test is based on needs analysis (including
student input) in terms of rating criteria, content, and contexts. It is also authentic as
possible with the goal of measuring real-world activities. It has an appropriate breadth of
information regarding learner performance abilities. The test help better assessing
students’ understanding of procedural knowledge, which is not so easily judged through
traditional assessment methods.” It is encouraging critical thought, creativity, and self-
reflection, should bear in mind receptive as well as productive reflections of such
operations. Cognitive operations should be understood to involve the manipulation of
task elements towards the accomplishment of the task, and includes: accessing
appropriate information, organizing or re-organizing information, handling multiple
stages within tasks, completion of necessary aspects of tasks, etc. To what extent is the
student capable of executing the cognitive operations necessary for accomplishing
tasks, suggested the importance of considering not only the characteristics of the task,
but also those of the test-taker and the interlocutor (and their relationship: acquainted or
not acquainted) in examining the test results. Students engaging in tasks to check the
effectiveness of the taker’s performance. By understanding the function or illocutionary
force of an utterance or longer text, and interpreting the intended meaning in terms of
that the student can answer the question effectively because the under is there if they
read and understand the text carefully. It aims for balanced test, the test can include
knowledge and skills items; guided, controlled and free response items; and productive
and receptive response type items. This write the test items to meet the students’ level,
not the teachers’ expectations. Devise questions that would encourage the test-takers
to identify with and personalize the texts they meet. Multiple Choice are difficult to
design but easy to mark, exclusively examines knowledge, knowledge is limited to
options provided, encourages guessing. Understanding the text in the test or
assessment can help students/ test-taker to enhance their thinking and creative skills, it
also encourages students to answer the test items.
*Tests 4 and 5 are written on another files