SET EIGHT

_____ 1. The Philippines established the EIS system in 1978 under PD

a. 1585 b. 1856 c. 1586 d. 1587
_____ 2. DENR upgraded the EIS system and revised the implementing rules and regulations
under Administrative Order
a. DAO 96-37 b. DAO 2000-05 c. DAO 18-57 d. DAO 1585
_____ 3. It is a safeguard against the negative impacts of industrialization and urbanization on
the Philippine environment.
a. IEE system b. ECA system c. EIS system d. ECC system
_____ 4. These are areas that are ecologically, socially, or geologically sensitive
a. IEE’s b. ECA’s c. EIS’s d. ECC’s
_____ 5. This system provides the legal and procedural framework for conducting
Environmental Impact Assessments
a. IEE system b. ECA system c. EIS system d. ECC system
_____ 6. Requirements of DENR for ECA Projects
a. IEE system b. DENR after Review Issues (EIA, ECC) c. EIS system d. All of the Above
_____ 7. Environmentally Critical Projects such as Heavy Industries include the following except
a. Cultured Fisheries c. Petroleum/Petrochemical including oil and gas
b. b. iron and steel mills and Smelting Plants d. Non-ferrous metal
_____ 8. Environmentally Critical Projects such as Resource Extractive Industries include the
following
a. Mining & Quarrying b. Forestry projects c. Fishery Projects d. All of the Above
_____ 9. Environmentally Critical Projects such as Infrastructure Projects include the
following except
a. Schools b. power plants c. Reclamation d. Major roads, dams, bridges
_____10. Projects exempted from EIS
a. Projects or structures operating since 1982 c. Even if they are ECCs
b. Even if they are ECA d. Even if they are ECPs
_____11. DENR’s Function on EIS system, except one
a. Prepares Reports b. Provides Direction c. Review of EIS
_____12. Function of DENR Regional Office
a. Review EIS b. Issues ECC c. Reviews Reports
_____13. Ensures that all development projects are subjected to EIA
a. Role of LGU b. Role of DENR c. Role of ECA d. Role of EIS
_____14. The following are those who can prepare an EIS or IEE
a. Accredited individuals c. DENR’s EMB and Regional Offices
b. DENR Personnel d. Commissioned Technical Staff/Professional group
_____15. Composed of technically trained professionals in the natural, physical, and social
Sciences
a. EMB b. DENR c. LGU d. EIARC
_____ 16. Heavy industries include the following except
a. Non-ferrous metal industries
b. Iron and steel mills
c. Smelting plants
d. Treasures
_____ 17. All are examples of forestry projects except one
a. Logging processing projects
 b. Extraction of mangrove products
c. Forest occupancy
d. Zoo
_____ 18. Except one, the rest are infrastructure projects
a. Golf course
b. Major dams
c. Major roads and bridges
d. Land reclamation
_____ 19. The following are timelines in the history of geography of human settlements except
a. Ancient Greeks and Romans
b. Shakespearean Drama
c. Arabs (Middle Ages)
d. Marco Polo (Renaissance)
_____ 2O. One is not part of the 4 Phases of the 2Oth Century evolution of the discipline.
a. Environmental Determinism
b. Regional Geography
c. National Geography
d. Critical Geography
_____ 21. One of the four in the six is not part Branches of Geography
a. Physical Geography
b. Scientific research
c. Risk-hazard Research
d. Historical Geography
_____ 22. Of the four, one is not a Geographic Technique
a. Calligraphy
b. Cartography
c. Geographic Information Systems
d. Geographic Quantitative Methods
_____ 23. One in the multiple choices is not associated with Physical Geography
a. Earth Science
b. Earth and Nature
c. Ionosphere
d. Maps
_____ 24. All are important Physical Geography for Human Settlements except
a. Waterways
b. Aircrafts
c. Societies
d. Trade Routes
_____ 25. Except one, all are study area of Human geography
a. Religion c. Agricultural Systems
b. Political Systems d. Rocks and Minerals
_____ 26. Forms of human settlement as seen from a person’s geographical perspective in terms of:
a. Size and Composition b. location and arrangement
c. organization and function d. population and history
_____ 27.The organized groupings of human habitation the intense focus of most aspects of human life.
a. economic activities & transportation systems b. communications media & Political system
c. agriculture and industry d. education, culture, & entertainment
_____ 28. Human Geography
a. is the study of human use and understanding of the world
b. deals with human organization
c. deals with spatial differentiation of human activity
d. is composed of water, land, and space
_____ 29. Human Geography
a. is influenced by politics, culture, language, demographics, etc.
b. encompasses population, society, and history
c. is a social science discipline
d. is the presence and absence of organizations and communities of a given location
_____ 30. Areas of Physical Geography except
a. Steel and Iron b. Landforms and Soils c. Water, Plants, & Animals d. Climate & Weather
_____ 31. Areas of Human Geography
a. Population b. Social Orientation c. Economic Activities d. Political Systems
_____ 32. Other areas of Human Geography
a. Transportation b. Political Systems c. Natural Systems d. Urban systems
_____ 33. Physical Geography affects real estate via the characteristics of land forms:
a. elevation b. water source c. rocks d. flood plains
_____34. Human Geography affects real estate via the proximity and characteristics of organizational
entities or communities :
a. city/town b. rural/urban area. c. business district d. world order
_____ 35. Human Geography affects real estate via infrastructure built /supported by said communities:
a. power plants b. water supply c. drainage systems d. bridges
_____36. A. Areas considered environmentally critical.
a. Declared as national parks, watershed reserves, and wildlife preserves and sanctuaries.
b. Aesthetic tourist spots
c. Mining Industries such as zinc, copper, silver, and gold
d. Habitat for threatened species of Phil. wildlife [flora and fauna]
_____ 37. B. Areas considered environmentally critical
a. Areas of historic archeological or scientific interest
b. Prescribed land areas purposely for astronomical technology
c. Areas occupied by cultural communities or tribes
d. Areas frequently visited by hard hit natural calamities
_____ 38. C. Areas considered environmentally critical
a. Areas with Critical Slopes
b. Areas classified as prime agricultural lands
c. Recharged areas of aquifers
d. All of the above
_____ 39. Water bodies characterized by one or any combination of the following conditions:
a. Tapped for domestic purposes
b. Within controlled/protected areas declared by appropriate authorities
c. Which Support wildlife and fishery activities
d. All of the above
_____ 40. A. Mangrove areas characterized by one or any combination of the following conditions:
a. With water lilies and river cultured animals
b. With pristine and dense young growth
c. Adjoining mouth of river system
d. Near or adjacent to traditional product fry of fishing grounds
_____ 41. B. Mangrove areas characterized by one or any combination of the following conditions:
a. Which act as natural buffer against shore erosion, strong winds and storm floods
b. Which acts as a leverage for any man made destructive activities
c. On which people are dependent for their livelihood
d. Letter A only
_____ 42. Coral reefs characterized by one or any combination of the following conditions:
a. With 50 percent and above coralline cover
b. Spawning and nursery grounds for fish
c. Which considered as nurturing water for flora and fauna
d. Which act as natural breakwater of coastline
_____ 43. In consonance with this basic policy or the EIS system, Administrative Order (DAO 96-37) was
promulgated to address the following objectives:
a. Ensure that government policies regarding land conversion are fully implemented
b. Ensure that environmental considerations are incorporated at the earliest stage of project
development
c. Further streamline the current procedures in the conduct of the EIA in order to improve
planning, regulatory and management tool.
d. Enhance maximum public participation in the EIA process to validate social acceptability of
the project.
_____ 44. Environmentally Critical Projects (ECP):
a. Heavy industry
b. Resource extractive projects
c. Major infrastructure projects
d. None of the above
_____ 45. Major infrastructure project includes the following:
a. dam b. power plant c. skyscraper d. reclamation
_____ 46. Section 4 (e) Article 4 states that the practitioner shall not seek ___ advantage over his
fellow practitioners by organizing or sowing discord, spreading and bad mouthing
against other practitioners particularly officers and members of their or other
associations.
a. unethical conduct b. dishonor and controversies c. unjust and unfair
_____47. Article IV Section 1(a), Real Estate Brokers shall make sure all agreements, terms &
conditions, financial obligations & commitments in real estate transactions are ___...
a. in writing b. in a contract c. in a record d. in oral agreement
_____48. Article IV Section 1(e), Real Estate Brokers shall, in accepting listings from listing
broker, respect the listing agreement of the latter until the ___ thereof.
a. validity b. expiration c. sale of property d. consummation
_____49. Under Article V, Section 1, a corporation, partnership, cooperatives, and associations
can be a practitioner known as
a. natural person b. individual person c. natural firms d. juridical persons
_____50. Under RA 9646, The practitioner endeavors to be updated on developments of the
profession, laws, industry, laws, and rules in the real estate industry [Art V Sect 1(e)]
by attending ___
a. CPEs/CPDs b. Seminars C. Conferences d. Lectures
_____51. A separate levy and an option of the LGU. Proceeds go to the general fund of the province or
city.
a. Idle land tax b. Idle Tax c. Transfer Tax d. Basic Realty Tax
_____ 51B. Additional 1% added to the basic realty tax and is allocated for use by school boards.
a. Idle land tax b. Annual Professional Tax c. Transfer Tax d. Special Education Fund Tax
_____ 52. Declaration of Real Property by the Owner or Administrator filed with the assessor once every
during the period from January 1st to June 30th.
a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 2 years d. 3 years
53-58 Assessment levels on land fixed by ordinances of the Sanggunian at the following rates:
_____ 53. Residential
a. 0% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% e. 50%
_____54. Agricultural
a. 0% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% e. 50%
_____55. Commercial
a. 0% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% e. 50%
_____56. Timberland
a. 0% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% e. 50%
_____57. Mineral
a. 0% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% e. 50%
_____58. Industrial
a. 0% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% e. 50%
_____59. Depreciation Allowance for Machinery not exceeding ____ per annum
a. 20% b. 15% c. 10% d. 5%
_____60. Depreciation Allowance for Machinery for so long as the machinery is useful and in operation
a. 20% b. 15% c. 10% d. 5%
_____61. The provincial, city or municipal assessor shall undertake general revision of real property
assessments within two years after the effectivity of local code (local taxation) and every ___
years thereafter.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
_____62. For Real Property Tax, rates of levy for provinces based on the assessed value of the property
a. 1/2% b. 1% c. 2% d. 5%
_____63. For Real Property Tax, rates of levy w/n Metro Manila not exceeding__ the assessed value of
the property.
a. 1/2% b. 1% c. 2% d. 5%
_____64. Additional Ad Valorem Tax on Idle Lands not exceeding __ of the assessed value.
a. 1/2% b. 1% c. 2% d. 5%
_____65. The following is not exempted from Real Property Tax.
a. Property owned by government c. charitable institutions
b. Foundations d. Machineries used for water supply and electric power
_____66. The following is exempted from Real Property Tax
a.Property owned by registered cooperatives
b. Ancestral property used for government infrastructure
c.Forest declared as national park
d. Land used as National Monumnets
_____67. The following is exempted from Real Property Tax
a. Private Lands used for National Roads
b. Machineries/Equipment used for pollution/environment
c.Lands used for Government hospitals
d. Land used for Agriculture
_____68. Collection of tax is the responsibility of the ___ treasurer, but may deputize barangay treasurer,
provided that the barangay treasurer is properly bonded.
a. City/municipality b. LGU c. Court of first instance d. national government
_____69. Allowed Payment of Property Taxes in Installments.
a. 2 equal installments b. 3 equal installments c. 4 equal installments d. 5 equal installments
_____70. Tax discount for advanced prompt payment of Real Property Tax.
a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% e. 50%
_____71. Payment under protest must be filed in writing within
a. 10 days b. 20days c. 30days d. 40%
_____72. Interest on Unpaid Real Property Tax
a. 1% b. 2% c. 30% d. 4% e. 5%
_____73. Prescription Periods to Collect Real Property Taxes is
a. 1year b. 2 years c. 30years d. 4 years e. 5years
_____74. EXCEPT ONE, the following periods of prescription is suspended if
a. Local treasurer is legally prevented from collecting tax
b. When tax is under penalty from real property tax fraud
c. Owner of property requests reinvestigation and executes waiver
d. Owner of the property is out of the country or cannot be located
Distribution of proceeds of basic real property tax and sale of property at public auction:
_____75. Provinces;
a. 25% to the province; 40% to municipality’ 35% to barangay
b. 35% to the province; 40% to municipality’ 25% to barangay
c. 35% to the province; 30% to municipality’ 35% to barangay
_____76. Cities;
a. 35% to city; 40% to barangay where property located; 25%distributed to barangays
b. 70% to the province; 15% to barangay where property is located; 15%distributed to
barangays
c. 70% to the province; 20% to barangay where property is located; 10%distributed to
barangays
_____77. Municipality in Metro Manila.
a. MMDA – 30%; 20 to barangay where property is located; 50% to other barangays
b. MMDA – 25%; 30 to barangay where property is located; 45% to other barangays
c. MMDA – 35%; 15 to barangay where property is located; 15% to other barangays
_____78. A levy on real property as fixed proportion of the value of the property.
a. Assessment b. Appraisal c. Ad Valorem d. Assessed Value e. Depreciated
Value
_____79. Percentage applied to FMV to determine taxable value of the property
a. Assessment b. Appraisal c. Assessment Level d. Assessed Value e.
Depreciated Value
_____80. Determining the value of property as of a specific date for s specific purpose
a. Assessment b. Appraisal c. Ad Valorem d. Assessed Value e. Depreciated Value
_____81. The FMV multiplied by assessment level; taxable values.
a. Assessment b. Appraisal c. Ad Valorem d. Assessed Value e. Depreciated Value
_____82. Determining the value of a property, or proportion thereof subject to tax, including the
discovery, listing, classification and appraisal.
a. Assessment b. Appraisal c. Ad Valorem d. Assessed Value e. Depreciated Value
_____83. The price a property may be sold by a seller who is not compelled to sell and bought by a
buyer who is not compelled to buy.
a. Life b. Fair Market Value c. Reassessment d. Assessed Value e. Depreciated Value
_____ 84. A valuable addition made to a property or an amelioration in its condition
a. Assessment b. Appraisal c. Machinery d. Assessed Value e. Improvement
_____ 85. Eminent Domain, reclassification of land, local taxation . . .
a. Levy b. Remaining Value c. LGU powers d. Assessed Value e.
Depreciated Value
_____86. Assigning of new assessed values to property.
a. Assessment b. Reassessment c. Remaining Value d. Assessed Value e. Depreciated Value
_____87. Process of foreclosure on real property after due notice and sale at public auction
a. levy b. Reassessment c. Remaining Value d. Levy on Real Property e. Depreciated
Value
_____ 88. Large-scale surveys initiated by government in order to locate and define boundaries of large
tracts of lands for the purpose of classifying them as to alienable and disposable or for reservation as
public domain.
a. Topographic Surveys b. Hydrographic surveys c. Cadastral Surveys d. Subdivision surveys
_____89. Similar to Topo surveys but these defines the level of land beneath waters.
a. Topographic Surveys b. Hydrographic surveys c, Cadastral Surveys d.
Subdivision surveys
_____90. Those made to measure the variation of levels of a property, thus defining its terrain.
a. Topographic Surveys b. Hydrographic surveys c. Cadastral Surveys d. Subdivision
surveys
_____ 91. Like cadastral surveys but it’s purpose is to show a large track of land into smaller parcels or
lots.
a. Topographic Surveys b. Hydrographic surveys c. Cadastral Surveys d. Subdivision surveys
_____ 92. The range of possible liabilities imposed on property owners for environmental factors like
typhoons, earthquakes, floods, tsunami, proximity to fault lines....
a. Economic b. Governmental & Legal c. Physical and environment d. Social
_____93. The party that purchases
a. Buyer b. Seller c. Monopoly d. Seller’s market
_____94. Payment under protest must be filed in writing within
a. 10 days b. 20days c. 30days d. 40%
_____95. Interest on Unpaid Real Property Tax
a. 1% b. 2% c. 30% d. 4% e. 5%
_____96. Prescription Periods to Collect Real Property Taxes is
a. 1year b. 2 years c. 30years d. 4 years e. 5years
_____97. EXCEPT ONE, the following periods of prescription is suspended if
a. Local treasurer is legally prevented from collecting tax
b. When tax is under penalty from real property tax fraud
c. Owner of property requests reinvestigation and executes waiver
d. Owner of the property is out of the country or cannot be located
_____98. A market with a single buyer and multiple sellers
a. Oligopsony b. Seller c. Monopoly d. Monopsony
_____99. Where there are more sellers and few buyers, or more buyers few sellers, and price goes up
and down accordingly.
a. Imperfect market b. Seller’s market c. Buyer’s market d. Perfect market
_____100. Police power like zoning, height limitation, and taxation, affect the value and demand on
properties.
a. Economic b. Governmental & Legal c. Physical and environment d. Social
_____101. A separate levy and an option of the LGU. Proceeds go to the general fund of the
province/city.
a. Idle land tax b. Idle Tax c. Transfer Tax d. Basic Realty Tax
_____102. The value or poorer property will increase if it is near better property.
a. Regression b. Competition c. Anticipation d. Progression
Distribution of proceeds of basic real property tax and sale of property at public auction:
_____103. Provinces;
a. 25% to the province; 40% to municipality’ 35% to barangay
b. 35% to the province; 40% to municipality’ 25% to barangay
c. 35% to the province; 30% to municipality’ 35% to barangay
_____104. Cities;
a. 35% to city; 40% to barangay where property located; 25%distributed to barangays
b. 70% to the province; 15% to barangay where property is located; 15%distributed to
barangays
c. 70% to the province; 20% to barangay where property is located; 10%distributed to
barangays
_____105. Municipality in Metro Manila.
a. MMDA – 30%; 20 to barangay where property is located; 50% to other barangays
b. MMDA – 25%; 30 to barangay where property is located; 45% to other barangays
c. MMDA – 35%; 15 to barangay where property is located; 15% to other
_____106. States that the influences outside a property may have a positive or negative effect on its
value.
a. Externalities b. Competition c. Anticipation d. Progression
_____ 107. A system where traditions, customs, beliefs determine the operation of the country’s
economy
a.Traditional b. Economy c. Command/Socialism d. Study of Economy
_____ 108. The government makes all the major decisions related to the production, consumption and
distribution of goods and services, including price regulations.
a.Economics b. Command/Socialism c. Economic system d. Traditional
_____ 109. It Is mode of providing and effectively utilizing funds for property acquisitions
a. Real Estate Financing b. Real Estate Loans c. Real Estate Security
_____ 110. A concept of providing and utilizing funds for the following EXCEPT
a. Land Development b. Construction c. Fe-financing and existing d. Property ownership
_____ 111. A concept of providing and utilizing funds for the following EXCEPT
a. Repair and Maintenance b. Revolving fund or standby credit line c. Surety
_____ 112. The following is not a source of Financing
a. Banks b. In-house c. mortgage market d. Lending Institution
_____ 113. Penalty for the violation of REIT is a fine of
a. P2-5M b. P2-4M c.P3-6M d. P3-5M
_____114. At the discretion of the court, a separate Penalty for the violation of REIT may be an
imprisonment of __ .
a. 6-21 years b. 6-21 years and 1 day c. 6years, one day to 21 years d. 21 years
_____115. Cash or dividends paid by REIT shall be subject to a final tax of
a. 25% b. 20% c.15% d. 10%
_____116. Provided that in the case of overseas Filipino investors, they are exempt from the dividends
tax for ___ years for the effectivity of the tax regulations implementing this act.
a. 5 b. 6 c.7 d. 8
_____117. The transfer of real property to REITs, which include the sale or transfer of any and all
security interest thereto, shall be subject to ___ of applicable documentary stamp tax.
a. 15% b. 20% c.25% d. 50%
_____118. All applicable registration and annotation fees, incidental to transfer of assets, security of
interest hereto, shall be ___ of the applicable registration and annotation fees.
a. 15% b. 20% c.25% d. 50%
_____119. Fund Manager and Property Manager fees shall not exceed
a. 1% net asset b. 2% net asset c. 4% net asset d. 5% net asset
_____120. A minimum paid-up capital stock or assigned capital of ___ unless the commission provides
Otherwise.
a. P5M b. P10M c.P20M d. P30M
_____121. An aggregate leverage limit of a REIT should not exceed __ of its deposited property
a. 15% b. 25% c.35% d. 50%
_____122. Single entity limit may be invested by REIT in one issuer’s securities
a. 15% b. 25% c.35% d. 50%
_____123. At least _ of deposited property of REIT must be invested in income-generating real estate.
a. 25% b. 35% c.55% d. 75%
_____124. Means pertinent items of gross income less allowable deductions under section 32&34 of
NIRC of 1997.
a. Taxable Net Income b. Taxable Gross Income c. Tax Revenue d. Tax charges
_____125. Means a corporation more than 50% of the voting stock owned through intermediaries.
a. Subsidiary b. Affiliate c. Sponsor/Promoter d. Corporate Investors
_____126. Means any person who, acting alone or in conjunction with one or more other persons,
directly or indirectly, contributes cash or property in incorporating a REIT.
a. Subsidiary b. Property manager c. Sponsor/Promoter d. Corporate Investors
_____127. Means the parent, subsidiary of affiliate of the REIT.
a. Real estate-related assets b. Affiliate c. Related corporation d. Corporate Investors
_____128. Debt securities and listed shares issued by listed property companies, fund assets, personal
property, incidental to the ownership of real estate.
a. Real estate-related assets b. Affiliate c. Related corporation d. Corporate Investors
_____129. A share holder of a REIT other than the persons enumerated as otherwise
a. Principal share holder b. Public share holder c. Principal officer d. Corporate Investors
_____130. Refers to a professional administrator of real properties who is engaged by the REIT
a. Subsidiary b. Property manager c. Sponsor/Promoter d. Principal officer
_____131. A stockholder who owns more than 10% of any class of security of the REIT.
a. Principal share holder b. Public share holder c. Principal officer d. Corporate Investors
_____132. Means the income as determined under the Philippines Financial reporting standards.
a. Net Income b. Gross Income c. Tax Revenue d. Tax charges
_____133. The total assets less total liabilities as determined by the IRR of the Commission.
a. Net Income b. Investible Funds c. Managed Funds d. Net Asset Value
_____134. Means articles of incorporation and bylaws of REIT
a. Commission b. Control Documents c. Constitute Documents d. Constitution
_____135. This act is known as “Real Estate Investment Trust.”
a. RA 6552 b. RA 9679 c. RA 9856 d. RA 9646
_____136. Investments or instruments that are highly liquid and marketable and considered good as
cash.
a. Commission b. Cash equivalent items c. money d. cheques
_____137. Owner of investor securities or investor shares
a. Net Asset Value b. Investment c. Investor d. Shareholder
_____138. Total assets less total liabilities as determined by IRR of the commission
a. Net Asset Value b. Investment c. Investor d. Shareholder
_____ 139. The purposes of Appraisal DOES NOT include
a. Corporate mergers, acquisitions, liquidations or bankruptcies
b. Partition of estate
c. Estate taxes
d. Eminent domain
_____ 140. The following is a purpose of an appraisal
a. For VAT purposes
b. Value and Credit determination
c. Corporation asset
d. Valuation of land and development
_____ 141. One general step in approaches to value is to research on market data from the
following EXCEPT
a. registered sales, fellow brokers and appraisers
b. advertisements (buy and sell, newspapers, properties with for sale sign
c. government acquired assets
d. internet, bank acquired assets
_____ 142. This is the mathematical compression of the quantity survey method and is based
on the use of installed prices for the various building parts, using units convenient to
employ.
a. Quantity Survey Method b. Per square Meter c. Unit-in-Place Method
_____ 143. Involves an estimate of effective age of the improvement by deducting remaining
economic life from total economic life.
a. Modified Aged-Life Method
b. Overall or Simple Age-life Method
c. Observed Condition-Breakdown Method
d. Definite Capitalization Period
_____144. Those made to measure the variation of levels of a property, thus defining its terrain.
a. Topographic Surveys b. Hydrographic surveys c. Cadastral Surveys d. Subdivision
surveys
_____ 145. Like cadastral surveys but it’s purpose is to show a large track of land into smaller parcels or
lots.
a. Topographic Surveys b. Hydrographic surveys c. Cadastral Surveys d. Subdivision surveys
_____ 146. An act providing the legal framework for real estate investment trust and for other purposes
a. RA 9856 b. RA 9656 c. RA 9646 d. RA 958
_____ 147. Persons rendering professional advisory services to the real estate investment trust
a.Accountant b. Lawyer c. affiliate d. adviser
______148. Comprise of physical components of shelter and infrastructure; services to which the
physical elements provide support, such as community services which include education,
health, culture, welfare, recreation and nutrition
a. Informal Settler Families
 b. Human Settlements
c. People
_____149. The adjudicatory function of the DSHUD is now transferred to the
a. Department of Human Settlement and Urban Development (DSHUD)
b. Human Settlements Adjudication Commission (HSAC)
c. The National Settlements Board (NSB)
150 . Refers to the document, formulated by the local government in consultation with its
stakeholders, that defines or provides guidelines on the allocation, utilization, development and
management of all lands within a given territory or jurisdiction according to the inherent
qualities of the land itself and supportive economic, demographic, socio-cultural and
environmental objectives
a. Housing
b. Comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP)
c. Human Settlements