Radiography 300 level first semester questions

Pharmacology
*In the local RODA, the administered drugs are basically not been absorbed into the systemic
circulation. They act at site of administration. Examples include the following except*

A.) Eye/ear drops

B.) Intravaginal pessaries

C.) Intravenous

D.) Dermal patches

*Absorption through skin generally slow but it is enhanced by the following except.*

A.) by increased lipophilicity

B.) by damage to stratum corneum

C.) by mucus

D.) by increased blood flow

*Sources of drugs include*

A.) Micro organisms

B.) Synthetic source

C.) Animals

D.) Minerals

E.) All of the above.

E
*Disadvantages of ORAL RODA include*

A.) It is not invasive

B.) Drugs can be recalled in case of wrong drug administration

C.)It has less serious complication in cases of overdose

D.) Onset of action is slow

*An advantage of ORAL RODA include*

A ) Patients are usually poorly compliant

B.) It doesn’t require expertise administration

C.) It undergoes first pass effect thereby reducing the administered dosage

D.) Onset of action is slow

E.) It cannot be use for an emergency or for an unconscious patient

*Inhalation of a drug implies:*

A.) None of these answer are correct

B.) Dissolving the drug under the tongue

C.) Drug delivery through the intestinal tract

D.) Drug delivery directly into a vein

E.) A way to deliver drugs to the lungs

*Delivery of a drug through the skin is known as:*

A.) Sublingual

B.) IV

C ) Oral

D ) Inhalation

E.) Transdermal

*Intravenous drug use:*

A.) Allows a person to deliver a lot of the drug at one time

B ) Is a fast way to delivery a drug

C.) Predisposes to HIV infection

D.) May cause an overdose

E.) All of these answers are correct

*The main routes of enteral administration of drugs are:*

a) oral

b) by injection

c) rectal

d) per mucosa.

*Advantages of the oral route of drug administration are*

a) easily self-administered

b) toxicity and overdose may be overcome with antidotes

c) drugs avoid first-pass metabolism

d) drugs go directly into the systemic circulation.

*The main routes of parenteral administration of drugs are:*

a) oral

b) by injection

c) rectal

d) percutaneous

*A main advantage of the rectal route of drug administration are*

a) suitable for vomiting patients

b) suitable for children

c) suitable for unconscious patients

d) a way to avoid first-pass metabolism

*Which of the following enteral routes of drug administration avoid the first-pass metabolism in the
liver*

a) rectal

b) sublingual

c) oral

d) transdermal

B
*Parenteral routes of drug administration are*

a) rectal, intramuscular, subcutaneous

b) intravenous, intramuscular, inhalation

c) intravenous, sublingual, transdermal

d) transdermal, subcutaneous, by inhalation.

*Disadvantages of intravenous drug administration are*

a) a trained staff is required

b) risk of bacterial contamination at the site of injection

c) it is painful and stressful for the patient

d) drugs undergo first-pass metabolism in the liver.

*Suspensions can be administered*

a) orally

b) intravenously

c) intramuscularly

d) subcutaneously

*You have been instructed to administer oral medication (Ranitidine 150mg) to a patient. What is the
minimum of times the nurse should check the medication label before administering this drug?*

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3
D. 4

*Which of the following is NOT a common route for administering medication?*

A. Oral

B. Intramuscular

C. Intravenous

D. Intraosmolar

*The route describes how the medication is actually given to or taken by the patient. Which of the
following is true regarding the medication routes*

A. Most medications administered by the nurse are by injection.

B. Drugs administered by the sublingual route have a relatively slow absorption rate.

C. All tablets are administered by the oral route.

D. The route can be determined by the nurse.

*The six rights for medication administration*

A. Right medication, right route, right date, right documentation, right dose, right time.

B. Right patient, right medication, right time, right prescription, right date, and documentation.

C. Right dose, right route, right date, right symptoms, right document, right medication.

D. Right dose, right patient, right formulation, right documentation, and right medication.

*Name the injection that is given into the subcutaneous tissues for a sustained release. (insulin)*
A. Drug-drug interaction

B. Vaccines

C. Barrel

D. Subcutaneous

*Pharmacokinetics is:*

a) The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs

b) The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs

c) The study of mechanisms of drug action

d) The study of methods of new drug development

*What does “pharmacokinetics” include?*

a) Pharmacological effects of drugs

b) Unwanted effects of drugs

c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent

d) Distribution of drugs in the organism

*The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:*

a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)

b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion)

c) Endocytosis and exocytosis

d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)

D

*What does the term “bioavailability” mean?*

a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance

b) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier

c) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration

d) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze

*Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is
minimized:*

a) Oral

b) Transdermal

c) Rectal

d) Intraduodenal

*Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect?*

a) Sublingual

b) Oral

c) Intravenous

d) Intramuscular

*What is characteristic of the oral route?*

a) Fast onset of effect

b) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function

c) A drug reaches the blood passing the liver

d) The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory

*Tick the feature of the sublingual route:*

a) Pretty fast absorption

b) A drug is exposed to gastric secretion

c) A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism

d) A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses

*Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent administration:*

a) Rectal

b) Oral

c) Sublingual

d) Inhalation

C&D

*Parenteral administration:*

a) Cannot be used with unconsciousness patients

b) Generally results in a less accurate dosage than oral administration

c) Usually produces a more rapid response than oral administration

d) Is too slow for emergency use

C
*What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration?*

a. Only water solutions can be injected

b. Oily solutions can be injected

c. Opportunity of hypertonic solution injections

d. The action develops slower, than at oral administration

Intravenous injections are more suitable for oily solutions:

a) True

b) False

*Biotransformation of the drugs is to render them:*

a. Less ionized

b. More pharmacologically active

c. More lipid soluble

d. Less lipid soluble

*Metabolic transformation (phase 1) is:*

a) Acetylation and methylation of substances

b) Transformation of substances due to oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis

c) Glucuronide formation
d) Binding to plasma proteins

*Half life (t ½) is the time required to:*

a) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination

b) Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite

c) Absorb a half of an introduced drug

d) Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins

*Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:*

a) Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs

b) Absorption and distribution of drugs

c) Mechanisms of drug action

d) Drug interactions

*Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?*

a) Mechanisms of drug action

b) Biotransformation of drugs in the organism

c) Distribution of drugs in the organism

d) Excretion of drug from the organism

*What does “affinity” mean?*

a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins

b) A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor

C) A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug

D) A measure of bioavailability of a drug

*Target proteins which a drug molecule binds are:*

a) Only receptors

b) Only ion channels

c) Only carriers

d) All of the above

*An agonist is a substance that:*

a) Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect

b) Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects

c) Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect

d) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect

*An antagonist is a substance that:*

a) Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing maximal effect

b) Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing submaximal effect

c) Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect

d) Binds to the receptors without directly altering their functions

D

*Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is:*

a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction

b) A type of drug antagonism

c) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a drug

d) Quantitatively exaggerated response

*What phenomenon can occur in case of using a combination of drugs?*

a) Tolerance

b) Tachyphylaxis

c) Accumulation

d) Synergism

*Tachyphylaxis is:*

a) A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs

b) Very rapidly developing tolerance

c) A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop

d) None of the above

*Which effect may lead to toxic reactions when a drug is taken continuously or repeatedly?*

a) Refractoriness
b) Cumulative effect

c) Tolerance

d) Tachyphylaxis

*Which of the following is NOT a pharmacokinetics process?*

a) Absorption

b) Distribution

c) Metabolism

d) Side effects

*Pharmacodynamics considers*

a) The way drugs bring about their therapeutic effects

b) The way drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted.

c) The way drugs are derived from herbal and other natural sources

d) The way drugs can be used to diagnose, prevent and treat illness

*Most drugs and metabolites are excreted by:*

a) The kidneys

b) The Bile

c) The lungs

d) Perspiration, saliva and tear

A
*Which of the following routes of drug administration is most convenient and would not

require skilled Health care supervision?*

a) PO (oral)

b) IV (intravenous)

c) IM (intramuscular)

d) SQ (subcutaneous)

*Importance determination of bioavailability are*

A.Absorption and First pass metabolism

B. Absorption and Distribution

C. First pass metabolism and Distribution

D. Absorption, first-pass metabolism and distribution

*True statement about bioavailability is/are*

A. it is the fraction of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation in the unchanged form

B. By I.V route it is 100%

C. it can be calculated by comparing the AUC for I.V route and for that particular route

D. all of the above

*Systemic routes include the following except*

A. Oral
B.intra- articular

C. parenteral

D. transdermal

*If pH of the medium is equal to pka then a drug is*

A.50% ionized and 50% unionized

B.drug is 100% ionized

C. drug is 100% unionized

D. drug is less than 50% and greater than 50% on ionized

*Intramuscular route might be applied to the*

A. Buttock

B. Thigh

C. Deltoid

D. All of these

*Pharmacology is divided into which of the following branches?*

A. Pharmacokinetics and Pharmodynamics

B. Pharmacotherapeutics

C. Chemotherapy and toxicology

D. All of the above

D
*Local routes include*

A. Topical application on the skin and mucous membranes

B. Intra-articular

C. Intrathecal

D. All of the above

*Pharmacokinetics deals with the study of*

A. Rate of metabolism of drug

B. Rate of absorption,Distribution,metabolism and excretion of drug

C. Rate of Distribution of drug

D. Rate of drug action

*Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent administration:*

(A) Rectal

(B) Oral

(C) Sublingual

(D) Intrathecal

Ans: (C)

*What is characteristic of the oral route?*

(A) Fast onset of effect

(B) Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function

(C) A drug reaches the blood after passing the liver

(D) The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory

Ans: (C)

*The reasons for determining bioavailability are:*

(A) Rheological parameters of blood

(B) Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of intakes

(C) Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect

(D) Glomerular filtration rate

Ans: (C)

*What does the term "bioavailability" mean?*

(A) Plasma protein binding degree of substance

(B) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier

(C) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration

(D) Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze

Ans: (C)

*The term "biotransformation" includes the following:*

(A) Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue

(B) Binding of substances with plasma proteins

(C) Accumulation of substances in a tissue

(D) Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body

Ans: (D)
*What is the reason of complicated penetration of some drugs through brain-blood barrier?*

(A) High lipid solubility of a drug

(B) Meningitis

(C) Absence of pores in the brain capillary endothelium

(D) High endocytosis degree in a brain capillary

Ans: (C)

*Biological barriers include all except:*

(A) Renal tubules

(B) Cell membranes

(C) Capillary walls

(D) Placenta

Ans: (A)

*Correct statements listing characteristics of a particular route of drug administration include all of
the following EXCEPT:*

(A) Intravenous administration provides a rapid response

(B) Intramuscular administration requires a sterile technique

(C) Inhalation provides slow access to the general circulation

(D) Subcutaneous administration may cause local irritation

Ans: (C)

*What is characteristic of the intramuscular route of drug administration?*

(A) Only water solutions can be injected

(B) Oily solutions can be injected

(C) Opportunity of hypertonic solution injections

(D) The action develops slower, than at oral administration

Ans: (B)

*Parenteral administration:*

(A) Cannot be used with unconsciousness patients

(B) Generally results in a less accurate dosage than oral administration

(C) Usually produces a more rapid response than oral administration

(D) Is too slow for emergency use

Ans: (C)

*A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:*

(A) Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids

(B) Penetrate through membranes by means of endocytosis

(C) Easy permeation through the blood-brain barrier

(D) High reabsorption in renal tubules

Ans: (A)

*What is implied by active transport?*

(A) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by means of diffusion

(B) Transport without energy consumption

(C) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane with a new vesicle formation

(D) Transport against concentration gradient

Ans: (D)

*Elimination rate constant (K) is defined by the following parameter:*

(A) Rate of absorption

(B) Maximal concentration of a substance in plasma

(C) Highest single dose

(D) Half life (1%)

Ans: (D)

Elimination is expressed as follows:

(A) Rate of renal tubular reabsorption

(B) Clearance speed of some volume of blood from substance

(C) Time required to decrease the amount of drug in plasma by one-half

(D) Clearance of an organism from a xenobiotic

Ans: (D)

*Half life (t) is the time required to:*

(A) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination

(B) Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite

(C) Absorb a half of an introduced drug

(D) Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins

Ans: (A)

*Biotransformation of a medicinal substance results in:*

(A) Faster urinary excretion

(B) Slower urinary excretion

(C) Easier distribution in organism

(D) Higher binding to membranes

Ans: (A)

*The following are parenteral products EXCEPT*

a) Ampules

b) Vials

c) Prefilled syringes

d) Topical Patches

*_______A name assigned to a drug when it first arrives on the market*

a) Trade name

b) Chemical name

c) Generic name

d) Proprietary Name

*The route of drug administration where Small amount of medication is injected just

beneath epidermis*

a) Intradermal

b) Intramuscular

c) Subcutaneous

d) Intravenous

*The component of a cell that accepts and interacts with a drug molecue is called*
a) Ion channel

b) Enzyme

c) Protein

d) Receptor

*An antagonist is a drug that has;*

a) No affinity and intrinsic activity

b) No affinity but has an intrinsic activity

c) Both affinity and intrinsic activity

d) Affinity but not intrinsic activity

*The term potency refers to the following EXCEPT;*

a) Drug’s highest strength at a very low concentration or dose

b) A smaller dose may be needed to produce the safe effect as another drug

c) The higher the potency, the lower the dose needed to produce intense effect

d) The drug that will generate the maximum response at the highest dose

*The length of time required for a drug to decrease concentration in the plasma by one-half.*

a) Half life

b) Time maximum(Tmax)

c) Threshold time

d) Peak time
A

*Each drug has a pregnancy classification attached to it. A drug labeled A means;*

a) Only given after risks to the fetus have been considered—animal studies show adverse reactions

b) Definite fetal risks have been observed can Only given in life threatening situations

c) No adverse effects have been observed in animals—no human studies

d) No risk demonstrated to the fetus in any trimester

*Which of the following occurs on the extracellular domain(outside the cell) of the lipid

bilayer and not the cytoplasmic domain, with regard to drug action?*

a) Ligand binding/drug receptor binding

b) Coupling with membrane associated molecules

c) Trafficking

d) Signaling

*Intrinsic activity is a drug’s ability to elicit:*

a) Strong receptor binding

b) Weak receptor binding

c) Response

d) Excretion

*competitive antagonist affects the agonist ____ and a non-competitive antagonist affect the agonist
____.*

a) Potency; Efficacy
b) Efficacy; Potency

c) Duration; Speed

d) Speed; Duration

*Which direction would a partial agonist shift the dose-response curve when

compared to a full agonist?*

a) To the left

b) To the right

c) Down

d) Up

e) To the right and possibly down

*Which direction would a competitive antagonist (plus agonist) shift the dose response

curve when compared to a full agonist?*

a) To the left

b) To the right

c) Down

d) Up

e) To the right and possibly

*Clinical effectiveness of a drug depends on its potency.*

a) True
b) False

*For most drugs, a frequency distribution of the response plotted against the log of the dose
(quantal) produces what kind of curve?*

a) Linear

b) Exponential

c) Logarithmic

d) Gaussian (normal) distribution

e) Poisson distribution

*Generally, which of the following is the correct order as dosage is increased?*

a) ED50 < LD50 < TD50

b) ED50 < TD50 < LD50

c) LD50 < TD50 < ED50

d) LD50 < ED50 < TD50

e) TD50 < LD50 < ED50

*Which of the following is the median effective dose, or the dose at which 50% of the

Individuals exhibit the specified quantal response?*

a) LD50

b) ED50

c) EC50

d) TD50
e) T.I.

```LD50 - lethal dose

ED50- effective dose

EC50 - effective concentration. (Potency)

TD50 - Toxic dose```

*Which of the following is the most relevant use of therapeutic index?*

a) Guide for toxicity in therapeutic the setting

b) Multiple measures of effectiveness are possible (e.g. aspirin

c) Measure of impunity with which an overdose may be tolerated

d) Toxicities may be idiosyncratic (e.g. propranolol in asthmatics)

*Which of the following is considered the therapeutic index (or ratio)?*

a) T.I. = TD50 / ED50

b) T.I. = LD50 / ED50

c) T.I. = ED50 / TD50

d) T.I. = ED50 / LD50

e) A & B

B Or E

The higher the therapeutic index, the safer the drug 😌🫴

*Concerning drug receptor interactions, the constant Kd refers to:*

a) Maximum physiological effect

b) Maximum binding

c) the drug concentration required to occupy 50% of receptors

d) B & C

*Which of the following refers to an increased intensity of response to a drug?*

a) Idiosyncratic

b) Hyporeactive

c) Hyperreactive

d) Hypersensitive

e) Tolerance

*EC50 mainly reflects a drug's:*

A) Maximal effect

B) potency

C) lethality

D) ease of elimination

E) safety

*Drug effects are thought to be proportional to the number of occupied receptors*

A)true

B) false
A

*Example(s) of second messenger effect(s):*

A) Increases in cAMP intracellular concentration

B) Changes in intracellular calcium concentration

C) Phosphoinositide effects

D) all the above

*Longer-lasting physiological response to drug:*

A)Increase in heart rate following epinephrine infusion

B) changes in gene product production following corticosteroid injection.

*Receptors are usually:*

a) lipids

b) proteins

c) DNA

d) RNA

*True statement(s) concerning competitive inhibition:*

A) Competitive in addition is based on reversible drug/antagonist binding at receptor sites

B) with competitive inhibition, the dose-effects curve the shifted to the left

C) with competitive inhibition, maximal drug effect cannot be obtained, even at high agonist
concentrations
D) all the above

*An example of a receptor which is a structural protein.*

A) Na/K ATPase

B) acetyl cholinesterase.

C) Tubulin

D) DNA

E) Phospholipase C

*Factors that may cause variation in drug responsiveness:*

A) Changes in the number or function of receptors

B) Tachyphylaxis

C) Idiosyncratic drug responses

D) Hypersensitivity reactions

E) all of the above

*Minerals or their salts are useful therapeutic agents.Examples include except*

A.) Sodium bicarbonate

B.) Kaolin

C.) Magnesium sulfate

D.) Ferrous sulphate

E.) Ferrite
E

*Advantages of synthetic drugs include the following except*

A.) It is usually prepared in a well-equipped lab

B.) Since the pharmacological activity of a drug depends on its chemical structure and physical
properties, more effective and safer drugs can be prepared by modifying the chemical structure of the
prototype drug.

C.) Control on the quality of the drug is excellent.

D.) They are chemically pure.

*Examples of synthetic drugs include the following except*

A.) oral antidiabetics

B.) Antitoxin sera

C.) antihistamines

D.) aspirin

E.) amphetamine

*Animal sources are important sources of drugs and include one of the following*

A.) HCG

B.) Anesthetics

C.) antihistamines

D.) aspirin

E.) amphetamine

A
*Which of the following options is wrong regarding GI mobility*

A.) Achlorhydria affects absorption for acidic drugs

B.) Diarrhea decreases absorption because of increased contact time.

C.) Malabsorptive syndrome decreases absorption

D.) Cirrhosis affects portal circulation thus affecting metabolism of drugs.

*A disadvantage of Rectal administration is*

A.) Suppository may migrate to different position.

B.) Used for local and systemic effects.

C.) Useful in patients with nausea and vomiting

D.)Useful when patient cannot swallow medication

*An Advantage of Rectal administration*

A.) absorption from rectum is irregular and incomplete and may cause irritation of rectal mucosa

B.) Inflammation of rectum may occur due to repeated administration

C.) Used for local and systemic effects.

D.)50% of the drug absorbed from rectum passes through liver before entering the systemic circulation
thus first-pass effect cannot be fully avoided

_E.g benzocain can be used to relieve pain and itching caused by haemorrhoids(local effect)_

*An advantage of intravenous administration*

A.) Chances of abscess at the site of injection

B.) Onset is faster

C.) Chances of nerve damage leading to paresis of muscle supplied by it

D.) Perfect aseptic conditions are needed

E.) Large volumes can't be given (maximum 5 – 10 ml)

*An advantage of ORAL RODA is*

A.) Ease of administration

B.) Reduced bioavailability due to First pass effect

C.) Some drugs are destroyed by intestinal enzymes e.g. Penicillin-G, Insulin, Oxytocin.

D.) Onset of action is slower hence, cannot be used in case of emergency

*Factors that influence choice of route include the following except*

A.) Duration of Action

B.) Body weight and size

C.) Metabolism by the Liver or Excretion by the Kidney

D.) Ease of Administration

E.) Site of Action

*Paresis is a paralysis which is incomplete or which occurs in isolated areas(maybe due to damage to
nerve tissue during parenteral injections.) T/F* T
 *To reduce effects of first pass effect on drugs adminstered via the oral route, such drugs have to be
given in large oral doses or by another route of administration to bypass or overcome metabolism by
the liver. T/F* T

*Onset of action rate varies with route of administration T/F* T

*Generally, enteral routes have shorter onset of action T/F* F

*The factors affecting absorption of drugs can be divided into two categories. They are;The
physiochemical properties of the drug and The physiological factors of the body. T/F* T

*Molecular size of the drug is a physiochemical factors of the drug.T/F* T

*Lipid-water solubility coefficient is the ratio of dissolution of drugs in lipid as compared to water.
The greater the lipid-water solubility coefficient, the more the lipid solubility of the drug and the
greater the absorption. T/F* T

*The larger the molecular size of the drug, the rapid the rate of absorption. T/F* F

The smaller the molecular size of the drug, the rapid the rate of absorption

*The rate of absorption is directly proportional to the charge of the ion. T/F* F

The rate of absorption is inversely proportional to the charge of the ion. Nonionized drug molecules are
readily lipid-soluble, while ionized molecules are lipophobic and are insoluble. The greater the charge of
the ions, the lesser the rate of absorption.

*The rate of absorption is directly proportional to the concentration of the drug. T/F* T

Drug given as concentrated solution is absorbed faster than from dilute solution.

*Dosage forms affect the rate and extent of absorption. T/F* T

*In the body, the ratio of the ionized and unionized forms does not depend on the pH of the medium.
T/F* F

*Acidic drugs are unionized in the acidic medium and basic drugs are unionized in the basic medium.
T/F* T

*Acidic drugs are better absorbed from the acidic compartment (stomach).T/F* T

*Chemical nature is responsible for the selection of the route of administration of drugs.T/F* T

Drugs that cannot be absorbed through the intestines are given by the parenteral route. Examples
include heparin which is large molecular weight, and cannot be given orally. Similarly, benzyl penicillin is
degraded in the GIT, so is given parenterally.

*Diarrhea decreases absorption because of increased gastric emptying time.T/F* F

Diarrhea decreases absorption because of decreased gastric emptying time

*GI mobility must be optimal for absorption of oral drugs i.e It should be neither increased nor
decreased T/F* T

*Drugs may be given rectally for systemic effect when the patient is either unconscious or vomiting.
T/F* T

*The drugs administered rectally are in the form of suppositories T/F* T

*Ergotamine is administered rectally for the treatment of migraine. T/F.* T

*Zinc oxide paste is used in wounds and in eczema. T/F* T

*6-aminopenicillanic acid is a semi synthetic drug? T/F* T

*At present, majority of drugs used in clinical practice are ________ drugs* synthetic

*Some drugs are unpalatable and cause irritation of the intestinal tract resulting in nausea, vomiting
and diarrhea, in particular if these are given before meal.

T/F* T

*Absorption may be slow, unpredictable and irregular because of the presence of variable amounts
of food at various stages of digestion. T/F* T

*Drugs can't be given to unconscious & uncooperative patients T/F* F

*Drugs can't be given during emesis T/F* F

*First pass effect leads to increased bioavailability T/F* T

*Oral route of administration is inadvisable for a patient experiencing nausea and vomiting. T/F* T

*The brand name is selected by _________ of the drug.* manufacturer or distributor

*The generic name is often chosen to be memorable for advertising, or to be easier to say or spell.
T/F* F

*Paracetamol (Acetaminophen) is a generic name. T/F.* T

*Many drugs have more than one name and therefore, the same drug may be listed more than once
in drug directories T/F* T
*2-acetoxybenzoic acid is a chemical name? T/F* T

*Human insulin is from a biosynthetic source T/F* T

*National Agency of Food and Drugs Administration and Control [NAFDAC] gives nonproprietary name
to a particular drug. T/F* T

*The generic or nonproprietary names of a particular drug is the name given to the active ingredient
in the medicine T/F* T

*Generic names for drugs were often coined by contracting the chemical names into fewer syllables.
T/F* T

*A drug delivered into the spinal canal e.g. a spinal anesthesia is known as _________ RODA.*
intrathecal

*A drug delivered into the joint can be known as _________ RODA.* intraarticular

*Administered by some means that avoids the gastrointestinal tract, particularly intravenously or by
injection means ________* parenteral

*The outer layer of the epidermis, composed of dead cells that continually flake away is known as
the__________. The removal of this layer influences the rate of absorption of topical drugs* stratum
corneum

*Phlebitis(Inflammation of a vein, usually in the legs) related to a blood clot or thrombus is also
known as _____* Thrombophlebitis

*____ can be defined as the study of the effects of drugs on the function of living systems*
Pharmacology

*_____ is the branch of pharmacology dealing with the "undesirable" effects of drugs on biological
processes.* Toxicology

*Antibiotics are _prescription_ drugs T/F* T

*Analgesics are _over the counter_ drugs T/F* T

*Laxatives are _over the counter_ drugs T/F* T

*The ________ is the process of drug metabolism by which the concentration of the drug is reduced
significantly by the liver particularly after the oral administration of the drug.* first pass effect or first
pass metabolism

*______ are the solid dosage forms which are small, roughly cone or cylinder in shape inserted into
rectum or vagina. It melts in the body temperature and delivers its action.* Suppositories or
pessaries(vagina)
*Absorption of a drug from topical route depends upon thickness of skin. T/F* T

*Absorption of a drug from topical route is directly proportional to thickness.T/F* F

*A measure of the extent to which something has the quality to dissolve in lipids is known as _____*
lipophilicity

*Drug administration through the unbroken skin is ______* transdermal

*Administered through placement under the tongue is _______.* sublingual

*A drug generally has three categories of names. They are?*

Chemical name

Non-proprietary name or generic name

Proprietary (Brand) name

*A _______ can also be said to be a substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation,
treatment or prevention of disease* drug

*_____ is the science of preparation and dispensing of drugs.* Pharmacy

*_____ is the study of drug absorption, distribution within body, biotransformation and drug
elimination over time.* Pharmacokinetics

*any compound that is synthesized by chemically modifying a natural material is known as _____*
semisynthetic

Pharmacokinetics means the study of the biological and therapeutic effects of drugs. F

An importance of pharmacology is that it integrates numerous other disciplines. T

Chemotherapy is the effect of drugs on cells T

Clindamycin affects the 30s ribosome of microorganisms F

Neomycin affects the 50s ribosome of microorganisms T

The stomach has the most blood supply in the body F

The pinna has the least blood supply T

Rectal RODA is invasive F

Compared to oral RODA, a disadvantage of rectal RODA is its unreliable absorption T

Diazepam is given rectally in children with febrile seizures T

Diazepam is given orally in children with febrile seizures F

A complication of IV RODA is thrombophlebitis T

IV RODA has the fastest onset of action T

IV RODA can be used for children with febrile seizures F

When an antagonist reduces the efficacy of an agonist, an increase in the dose of the agonist increases
the efficacy of the agonist T

In synergism, the therapeutic effects of two drugs are greater than the effect of individual drugs T

An advantage of IV RODA is that patients are usually compliant T

Intramuscular drugs bypass absorption F

The absorption of a drug is necessary for therapeutic effects T

Intramuscular drugs rate of absorption do not depend on formulation F

Most drugs undergo GIT absorption T

IV RODA has the fastest absorption F

Inhalation has the fastest absorption T

The absorption of drugs via subcutaneous RODA is dependent on drug formulation T

Intramuscular RODA may be self-administered by trained patients T

Gut permeability is considered in sublingual RODA F

A partial agonist acts as an agonist when added to an agonist F

In potentiation, a dose is induced to enhance the effect of another substance without adverse action.
T

Intestinal transit time is a patient related factor of drug absorption T

Age do not affect drug absorption F

Capillary permeability do not affect drug distribution F

Increased plasma protein binding leads to reduced drug distribution T

Increased blood flow to GIT increases drug absorption T

Biotransformation could either lead to activation of prodrugs into active pharmacological agents T

Modification of water soluble drugs to lipid soluble drugs aids excretion F

Failure to remove the products of metabolism reactions can lead to toxicity of conjugates to various
cell components T

Syrup is a dosage form of drug T

Warfarin is an example of a drug with low therapeutic index T

Digoxin has a large therapeutic index F

Lithium has a very narrow therapeutic index T

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Urogenital system

Urogenital system
*Definitive nephrons (but not collecting ducts) develop from which embryonic structure?*
(a) pronephros

(b) urachus

(c) ureteric bud

(d) urogenital sinus

(e) metanephric cap

*Where do the definitive adult kidneys start to form?*

(a) abdomen

(b) limb

(c) neck

(d) pelvis

(e) thorax

*Which component of mesoderm gives rise to the kidney?*

A ) Paraxial

B) Intermediate

C) Midline

D) Lateral plate

*In the embryo, what is the first kidney system to develop?*

A.) Mesonephros

B.) Metanephros
C.) Pronephros

D.) Urogenital tubules

*The pronephros appears in the ________ week of development.*

A.) 9th

B.) 3rd

C.) 5th

D.) 4th

*This pronephric system is non-functional and regresses completely by the end of week _____.*

A.) 3

B.) 4

C.) 5

D.) 6

*The pronephric system is represented by _____.*

A.) Cell clusters and tubular structures

B.) Cell clusters

C.) Tubular structures

D.) Glomeruli

A
*The ________of the pronephric duct used to form mesonephric tubules.*

A.) caudal end

B.) bulk

C.) remnant

D.) cranial end

*Mesonephric tubules receive a tuft of capillaries from the ____________ aorta*

A.) pelvic

B.) ventral

C.) descending

D.) dorsal

*The mesonephros develops _________ to the pronephros.*

A.) superiorly

B.) inferiorly

C.) Caudally

D.) cranially

*__________ act as a primitive excretory system in the embryo, with most tubules regressing by the
end of the 2nd month.*

A.) Mesonephros

B.) Blastema

C.) Metanephros
D.) pronephros

*The metanephric system becomes functional at _____ week and appears at week _____.*

A.) 9th,5th

B.) 4th,3rd

C.) 5th, 3rd

D.) 8th,5th

*Where are the pronephroi found?*

(a) abdomen

(b) limb

(c) neck

(d) pelvis

(e) thorax

*The Ureteric bud dilates to form one if the following except*

A.) major and minor calyces

B.) collecting tubules

C.) renal pelvis

D.) ureter

E.) None of the above

E
*The definitive kidney initially develops in the _____ region before ascending into the ____*

A.) abdomen, pelvic

B.) pelvic, abdomen

C.) thoracic, abdominopelvic

D.) Thoracic, pelvis

*The mesonephric duct induces the development of the definitive kidney by sprouting the ______
caudally*

A.) ureteric bud

B.) metanephric duct

C.) cloaca

D.) blastema

*The ureteric bud from the mesonephric duct makes contact with the _________ to form the
metanephric system.* metanephric blastema

*If the uretic bud splits too early, two ureters, or two renal pelvices connecting to one ureter may
result. T/F* T

*The Metanephric blastema forms the kidney’s functional units – the nephron. T/F* T

*The development of the urinary system is closely linked with that of the _____ system.* reproductive

*The development of the kidney begins in the cervical region of the embryo. Segmented divisions of
intermediate mesoderm form tubules, known as ___________* nephrotomes.
*Nephrotomes join into the _________ duct* pronephric

*The Collecting system is derived from the _________* ureteric bud.

*The Excretory system and kidney is derived from the_________* metanephric blastema.

*The pronephric duct is a duct that extends from the cervical region to the _________ (distal end) of
the embryo.* cloaca

*In the embryo, the kidneys develop from three overlapping sequential systems, these are?* The
pronephros, the mesonephros, and the metanephros.

*The urinary system develop from the ____ mesoderm* intermediate

The urogenital ridge has two parts: the _________ and the gonadal ridge* nephrogenic cord

*The proximal end of the excretory tubule forms the ______ around a glomerulus, while the distal end
elongates to form the proximal convoluted tubule, _________ and distal convoluted tubule.*
Bowman’s capsule, loop of Henle

*The mesonephric duct is also known as ______* Wolffian duct

*Mesonephric tubules persist in males to become efferent ductules of the ______, they disappear in
females* testes

*The bud grows into surrounding intermediate mesoderm and induces the cells in that region (the
metanephric blastema) to form a ______ upon the ureteric bud.* metanephric cap
 *As the ureteric bud forms collecting tubules, cells of the metanephric cap form _____ that link to the
collecting tubules.* nephrons

*The formation of nephrons continues until birth when there are approximately _____ nephrons in
each kidney* 1 million

*The location of the metanephros changes during development from the level of the pelvis, through
growth of the embryo and migration of the kidneys, to the _____.* lumbar region

*The kidneys rotate _______ in ascent.* medially

*As they ascend, a series of blood vessels from either the common iliac arteries or aorta generate and
degenerate to continually supply the kidneys. Usually, the most _________ remain and become the
renal arteries.* cranial

*In week 4 the cloaca is split into the ventral urogenital sinus and the dorsal ___________ by the
________.* Anorectal canal, urorectal septum

*The urogenital sinus can be split into ____ parts.* three

*The top part of the urogenital sinus is the biggest and becomes the _________, the middle part
forms the urethra in the female pelvis and the __________ in the male, and the lowest part forms the
penile urethra in the male and the ________ in the female.* bladder, prostatic and membranous
urethra, vestibule

*The ureters form from the metanephric ducts. The ureters move anteriorly whereas the
mesonephric ducts move posteriorly and become the ________ in the male pelvis.* ejaculatory ducts

*Incomplete division of the ureteric bud can lead to________* supernumerary kidneys/ ureters
*_______ form when the developing nephrons fail to connect to a collecting tubule in development,
or the collecting ducts fail to develop.* Kidney cysts

*Balance of fluid in the amnion is vital in the development of the embryo. If urine is not being
produced there is a reduction in the amniotic fluid and oligohydramnios develops. This can be a
symptom of _______, in which both kidneys fail to form.* bilateral renal agenesis

*_________ may enter the kidney at the superior and inferior poles.* Accessory renal arteries

*Abnormal rotation or location of the kidneys may be found in a patient, and they may fail to ascend
into the abdomen. This is known as ______* ectopic kidney

*The inferior poles of the left and right kidneys can fuse, forming a _______. In this case the kidney
cannot ascend as it gets snagged on the_______* horseshoe kidney, inferior mesenteric artery

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*Name the sex organs in males.*

• The primary sex organs – testes

• The accessory sex organs – seminal vesicles, prostate gland, urethra and external genitalia such as
penis and scrotum

*Which chromosome determines the type of sex?*

Y sex chromosome determines the type of sex.

*What is H-Y antigen?*

The testis determining gene product is known as H-Y antigen

*What do you mean by SRY chromosome?*

The gene present in the tip of the short arm of the human Y chromosome causes differentiation of
indifferent or bipotential gonad to embryonic testis in the 7th–8 th weeks after gestation. The region of
the Y chromosome that contains the testis determining gene is called as SRY chromosome.

*The genital swellings, known in the male as the _________, arise in the inguinal region.* scrotal
swellings

*______ stimulate development of the external genitalia of the female.* Estrogens

*The genital tubercle elongates only slightly and forms the _____ in females* clitoris

*In females urethral folds do not fuse, as in the male, but develop into the_______* labia minora.

*Genital swellings enlarge and form the _____ in females and _______ in males.* labia majora,
scrotum

*The urogenital groove is open in __________ and forms the________* females, vestibule

*In ______, fusion of the urethral folds is incomplete, and abnormal openings of the urethra occur
along the ventral aspect of the penis, usually near the glans, along the shaft, or near the base of the
penis* hypospadias

*_____ is a rare abnormality [1/30,000 births] in which the urethral meatus is found on the dorsum of
the penis* Epispadias

*Although epispadias may occur as an isolated defect, it is most often associated with ________*
exstrophy of the bladder
*_______ occurs when there is insufficient androgen stimulation for growth of the external
genitalia.*. Micropenis

Micropenis is usually caused by primary hypogonadism or hypothalamic or pituitary dysfunction. By

definition, the penis is 2.5 standard deviations below the mean in length as measured along the dorsal
surface from the pubis to the tip with the penis stretched to resistance.

*Bifid penis or double penis may occur if the _______ splits.* genital tubercle

*The key to sexual dimorphism is the _____, which contains the testis-determining gene called the
________* Y chromosome, SRY (sex-determining region on Y)

*Although the sex of the embryo is determined genetically at the time of fertilization, the gonads do
not acquire male or female morphological characteristics until the _____ week of development*
seventh

*Gonads appear initially as a pair of longitudinal ridges, known as the _________.* genital or gonadal
ridges

*Primordial germ cells originate in the epiblast, migrate through the primitive streak, and by the third
week, reside among endoderm cells in the wall of the yolk sac close to the allantois. During the
______ week, they migrate by amoeboid movement along the dorsal mesentery of the hindgut,
arriving at the primitive gonads.* fourth

*The initial stage of genital development is the same for both sexes up to week 7, and is called
the_______* indifferent stage.

*The indifferent stage involves the Mesonephric ducts also known as____ , from the developing
urinary system and the ______, named because of their location lateral to the mesonephric ducts.*
Wolffian ducts, paramesonephric ducts (or Müllerian ducts)
*Müllerian inhibiting substance [MIS] is produced by______* Sertoli cells

*Genital Ducts in the Female develop In the presence of_________* estrogen

*The ______ paramesonephric ducts give rise to the corpus and cervix of the uterus and the upper
portion of the vagina.* fused

*In the absence of _____, mesonephric ducts in the female degenerate.* testosterone

*The paramesonephric ducts descend, meet in the midline and fuse in the pelvic region to form
the_______* uterovaginal primordium

*The bulge formed by the uterovaginal primordium pushing into the dorsal wall of the urogenital
sinus to form the _________* the paramesonephric tubercle or sinus tubercle

*The free unfused cranial ends of the paramesonephric ducts become the ________ in females*
uterine tubes

*The vagina is separated from the urogenital sinus by the_______* hymen.

*Mesonephric ducts in males become the____*

Efferent ductules

Epididymis of the testes

The ductus deferens (or vas deferens)

The ejaculatory duct

*In males the ________ degenerate (although remnants can remain).* Paramesonephric ducts

*____ arises as a longitudinal invagination of the epithelium on the anterolateral surface of the
urogenital ridge* paramesonephric duct
*Genital ducts in the male are stimulated to develop by ____________* testosterone

*During development of the urinary system, three systems form. What are they, and what parts of
each, if any, remain in the newborn?*

*At birth, an apparently male baby has no testicles in the scrotum. Later, it is determined that both
are in the abdominal cavity. What is the term given to this condition?*

*It is said that male and female external genitalia have homologies. What are they, and what are their
embryological origins?*

*After several years of trying to become pregnant, a young woman seeks consultation. Examination
reveals a bicornate uterus. How could such an abnormality occur?*
Radiation biology
*Because most of the amino acids are coded for by more than one codon, the code is said to be
________.* Degenerate
*The event that can lead to radiation injury can be divided into four main events. List them*

Initial interaction

Chemical damage

Biomolecular damage

Biological damage

*_____ is damage to proteins, nucleic acid, enzymes and so on. This lasts seconds to hours.*
Biomolecular damage

*______ can take hours to decades.* Biological damage

*Initial interaction involves ___ and ____and it lasts a very short period. 10^-17 to 10^-15 seconds.*
ionization and excitation

*____ is a type of programmed cell death such as cell shrinkage, loss of memory, loss of nuclear
materials and also fragmentation in the DNA.* Cell Death/Apoptosis

*__________ is the science studying the effects of radiation (ionizing and non-ionizing) on biological
materials.* Radiobiology

*___ is a form of energy that can travel in a vacuum either as waves or particles.* Radiation

*_____ causes harm without intermediate medium.* Direct radiation

*Indirect radiation react with the body water to create ______ that are harmful to the body.* free
radicals
*Radiation can be in form of _____ (electromagnetic radiation) or ____ (particulate radiation).*
waves, particles

*List five particulate forms of radiation* alpha and beta particles, protons, neutrons

*The _____ radiation are those that are not capable of removing electrons from an atom.* non-
ionizing

*The idea about the cell came into being with the discovery of the_______* microscope.

*In ______, Robert Hooke, an English physicist, described the cork and other plant cells and came
about the term cell because it reminded him of the block of cells occupied by monks. In ___ he
published his discovery.* 1667,1672

*_____ discovered blood cells and spermatozoa.* Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

*In 1833, _____, a Scottish botanist described the plant cell nucleus and also animal cell nucleus*
Robert Brown

*The nucleus can be likened in to the '____' and the cytoplasm.* heart

*List five constituents of the cytoplasm*

water, electrolytes, protein, enzymes, carbohydrates, lipids, soluble RNA

*List the four main macromolecules in humans:*

1. ) Polysaccharides composed of starch and glycogen from sugar

2. 2.) Proteins from amino acids
 3. 3.) DNA and RNA chromosomes from nucleotides
4. 4.) Lipids of cell membrane from fatty acids

*The ______ is the sequence of the nucleotides in the DNA or RNA which determines the amino acid
sequence of the protein.* genetic code

*Protein formation is directed by _____.* mRNA

*The RNA nucleotides are made up of?*

Adenine(A), Guanine(G), Cytosine(C) and Uracil(U).

*_____ nucleotides constitute a codon which codes for Amino acids.* Three adjacent

*There are about ______ codons, ______ of which do not code for amino acids but indicates the end
of the protein.* 64, three

*How many codons specify for the 20 amino acids that make up protein?* 61

*What are the categories of exposure ?*

We have three categories of exposure

1.) Medical exposure

2.) Occupational exposure

3.) Public exposure

*_____ is the exposure one receives in the course of his or her medical diagnosis or treatment.*
Medical exposure
*_____ is a planned exposure.* Medical exposure

*The principle of justification and optimisation applies in_______* medical exposure

*______ is the exposure that one receives in the course of carrying out his/her duties as a radiation
worker. It applies to radiation workers.* Occupational exposure

*Dose limitation applies in ________* occupational exposure

*______ is the exposure to people who are neither radiation workers or patients and are in no way
taking part in the radiological examination.* Public exposure

*For work places, where there is the possibility that exposure to ionizing radiation will exceed limits
for the public, the work place is called classified as ________ area.* controlled/supervised

*The controlled area must be suitably demarcated and delineated with ___ access.*
controlled/limited

*Exposed workers are categorised into two groups, namely*

1.) Category A

2.) Category B

*________ are those that are not liable to receive an effective dose greater than 6 millisieverts per
year(6 mSv per year).* Category B

*What's the full meaning of (RPA)* radiation protection advisor

*For category A workers, the record of their exposure should be made available to them until ______
years of age.* 70-75

*List the three Methods Of Radiation Protection*

We have three methods of radiation protection

- Time

- Distance

- Shielding

*The longer a person stays in a radiation field at the constant exposure rate, the more absorbed
dose. T/F* T

*Distance as a method of radiation protection follows the_________* inverse square law.

*The intensity of radiation at any point is directly proportional to the square of the distance between
the source of the radiation and the point. T/F* T

*_____ is the use of protective materials that act as a barrier capable of absorbing radiation*
shielding

*There are two types of radiation. They are?* Primary & Secondary radiation.

*_____ is radiation that is coming directly from the x-ray tube that has not interacted* primary
radiation

*_____ are produced as a result of interaction with matter* secondary radiation

*What is LD 50/60?*

The amount of dose of radiation that will kill 50% of the irradiated population within 60 days

*LET is best defined as*

1. a method of expressing radiation quality

2. a measure of the rate at which radiation energy is transferred to sost tissue

3. absorption of polyenergetic radiation

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

When biologic material is irradiated, there are a number of modifying actors that determine what kind
and how much response will occur in the material. One of these actors is LET , which expresses the rate
at which particulate or photon energy is transferred to the absorber. Because different kinds of radiation
have different degrees of penetration in different materials, it is also a useful way of expressing the
quality of the radiation.

*For exposure to 1 rad of each of the following ionizing radiations, which would result in the greatest
dose to the individual?*

(A) External source of 1-MeV x-rays

(B) External source of diagnostic x-rays

(C) Internal source of alpha particles

(D) External source of beta particles

C

Alpha particles are large and heavy (two protons and two neutrons), and although they possess a great
deal of kinetic energy (approximately 5 MeV), their energy is lost rapidly through multiple ionizations
(approximately 40,000 atoms/cm of air). As an external source, alpha particles are almost harmless
because they ionize the air very quickly and never reach the individual. As internal sources, however, they
ionize tissues and are potentially the most harmful. It may be stated that the alpha particle has one of
the highest LETs' of all ionizing radiations.

*The skin response to radiation exposure that appears as hair loss is known as*

(A) dry desquamation

(B) moist desquamation

(C) erythema

(D) epilation

The various skin responses to irradiation include all the choices. The first noticeable response would be
erythema, a reddening of the skin very much like sunburn. Dry desquamation could follow; it is a dry
peeling of the skin. Moist desquamation is peeling with associated pus-like fluid. Epilation is hair loss; it
can be temporary or permanent depending on sensitivity and dose.

*Examples of late effects of ionizing radiation on humans include*

1. leukemia

2. local tissue damage

3. malignant disease

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

*The reduction in the intensity of an x-ray beam as it passes through material is termed*

(A) absorption

(B) scattering

(C) attenuation

(D) divergence

*_Which blood vessels are best suited or determination of pulse rate?_*

(A) Superficial arteries

(B) Deep arteries

(C) Superficial veins

(D) Deep veins

A
Radiography equipment
*Electrical energy is supplied in what two types of current?*

Direct Current (DC)

Alternating Current(AC)

*A typical source of Direct current is a ______* battery

*Direct current is also known as?*

continuous correct

*A feature of direct current is that the voltage and flow of the current is directly proportional to
_____* time

*_____ is generated by rotation of a coil of wire in a magnetic field.* Alternating current

*Alternating current flows in opposite direction, reaches a positive maximum and falls to reach a
negative maximum and rises again. This pattern is known as a __________ pattern* sinusoidal

*The relationship E=Aβωsinωt follows lenz law of EMF* *what do the above characters mean?*

E = Electromagnetic force

A = Area of the coil (loop)

β = magnetic force/field

ω = constant angular velocity

ωt = angle of inclination (θ)

*State Lenz's law*

states that the induced current flows in such a way that as to oppose the charge producing it(causing
the flow)

*List the forms of alternating current produced by the rotation of coils between two poles of a
magnet*

1.) Single phase alternating current

2.) Poly phase alternating current

*The coils used in the generation of polyphase AC are placed ____to each other.* 120⁰

*During the process of electricity transmission, there's always a ______* loss of energy in form of
heat.

*The relationship _Heat α I²V_ means we always transmit at low ____ and high ____.* current,
voltage

*The hotter the appliance, the more ____ is being lost* energy

*______ wire has high specific heat capacity of 400J/KgK or 0.4 J/gK* copper

*Because it is more reliable and more stable, the _______ connection is preferred to the _____
connection* star, delta
*The star connection has a phase voltage of______* 230-240 volts

*Conductors having zero resistance at very low temperature (near the absolute zero) are called
_______* superconductors.

*If the value of phase voltage is 240 volts, what's the value of line voltage?* 415.20 volts

*The star connection has frequency of______* 50/60 hertz

*Describe a line voltage*

A Line Voltage is obtained when we connect two or more of the lines of the star connection and the
neutral line (IV)

*Describe a phase voltage*

A Phase Voltage is obtained when we connect one of the lines of the star connection and the neutral
line (IV)

*_X= √3 × Y_ What do X and Y stand for?*

X - line voltage

Y - phase voltage

*What's the main advantage of line voltage over phase voltage?* It can be used to supply various
appliances [domestic and industrial uses]

*In an x-ray unit, the voltage drop should not be more than how many percent of the effective
voltage?* 4%
Radiographic imaging
*What phenomenon is called afterglow?* Phosphorescence

*This emission of light by the related substance is called ___.* luminescence

*How many layers has the intensifying screen?*

Four

*List the layers of the intensifying screen*

Base

Phosphor layer
Reflective layer

Supercoat

*The light tight box used for transporting and exposing x-ray films is called the?*

Film cassette

*What has the capacity to switch the circuit when the required radiation exposure reaches the film?*
Phototimers

*Photographic emulsions are very sensitive and are affected by several factors. Give two examples*

-moisture

-temperature

-presence of impurities

-exposure to some gases

-airborne fluid or dust

-static electricity

-mechanical stress

*List the four layers of x-ray film*

Base

Substratum

Emulsion

Supercoat

*Manufacture of film emulsion involves how many stages ?*

Four
*List the stages of manufacture of film emulsion*

-Precipitation

-Ripening

-Digestion or After Ripening

-Finishing

*_____ involves the combination of silver nitrate solution (AgNO3), an alkaline halide and the
gelatin.* Precipitation

*To make precipitation absolute, we use two methods. List them*

-Single jet process

-Double jet process

*Which of the x-ray film layers are double coated?*

film emulsion, supercoat and substratum.

*What can be used as base?* Cellulose acetate

*The ____ is most sensitive to the Green-Yellow region of the spectrum while the _____ is sensitive to
the Blue-Violet region and even to the short wavelengths section of the UV and even to x-rays and
gamma-rays.*

eye, film

*A _____ is produced when light reflected or emitted from an object is focused onto and is absorbed
by the film emulsion.* photograph
*Blue sensitive films are also called?* monochromatic or ordinary or non coloured sensitive films

*Films sensitive to all colours used in photography are called?* Panchromatic

*Films sensitive to the green portion of the spectrum are called?* Orthochromatic

*Which layer of the intensifying screen is made up of magnesium oxide?* Reflecting layer

*What functions to ensure good firm contact between the base and the sensitive emulsion layer?*
Substratum

*What functions to protect the emulsion layer from mechanic stress?* Supercoat

*List the constituents of the substratum layer*

Cellulose ester and gelatin in water and acetone.

*What are the two types of luminescence?*

Phosphorescence

Fluoroscence

*List the three applications of Fluoroscence.*

Intensifying Screens

Fluoroscopy

Fluorography

*The deviation of an emulsion from the principle that the degree of darkening is constant for a given
product of light intensity and exposure time, typically at very low or very high light intensities.*
Reciprocity failure

*The _____ is defined as the ratio of two exposures required to produce the same density, one
exposure being made with the aid of screens and the other without.* intensification factor
*List two phospors used in Intensifying Screens*

Calcium Tungstate

Rare earth phospors

Zinc cadium sulfide(ZnCdS)

Caesium Iodide (CsI)

*What's the full meaning of LCE?* liberated light energy

*Which plate of the cassette is sprayed with lead?* Back

*List three desirable features of a good cassette*

Strong.

Light

Safe

Light-tight

Ease of operation

*List the four types of cassettes*

Conventional x-ray film cassettes

Cassette and phototimers

Multisectional cassette

Cassette in serial film changer

*List the three types of conventional x-ray film cassettes*

Flexible cassette

Grided cassette

Curves film cassette

*List the three processes of the photographic principle*

I) Formation of latent image

II) The recording of the latent image

III) The development and fixing of the image

*What kind of chemical process is the development process?* REDOX process

*The development of photographic image involves conversion of _________ to __________* silver

bromide (AgBr) to metallic silver(Ag)

*The x-ray image is a record of the _____ of x-ray beam as it passes through an object or a body*
attenuation

*What are the contents used in precipitation?*

Alkaline halide

Gelatin

Silver nitrate (AgNO3)

*Which manufacture process involves shredding of the emulsion?* Ripening

*What base can be used for negative images?*

Film

Paper

Glass

*From front to back, the x-ray film has how many layers?* 7

*List two disadvantages of using glass as a base*

It is bulky.

It is breakable

It is not easy to package

It is not flexible

*List two disadvantages of using cellulose acetate as a base*

It is highly flammable

It disintegrates on long storage

*Which manufacture process involves remelting of the shredded emulsion?* After ripening
(digestion)

*What base can be used for positive images?*

Film

Glass

*What base is currently in use for x-ray films?*

Polyester
*Photographic emulsions are very sensitive and are affected by several factors. Give two examples*

-moisture

-temperature

-presence of impurities

-exposure to some gases

-airborne fluid or dust

-static electricity

-mechanical stress

*List the four layers of x-ray film*

Base

Substratum

Emulsion

Supercoat

*Manufacture of film emulsion involves how many stages ?*

Four

*List the stages of manufacture of film emulsion*

-Precipitation

-Ripening

-Digestion or After Ripening

-Finishing

*_____ involves the combination of silver nitrate solution (AgNO3), an alkaline halide and the
gelatin.* Precipitation
*To make precipitation absolute, we use two methods. List them*

-Single jet process

-Double jet process

*Which of the x-ray film layers are double coated?*

film emulsion, supercoat and substratum.

*What can be used as base?* Cellulose acetate

*The ____ is most sensitive to the Green-Yellow region of the spectrum while the _____ is sensitive to
the Blue-Violet region and even to the short wavelengths section of the UV and even to x-rays and
gamma-rays.*

eye, film

*A _____ is produced when light reflected or emitted from an object is focused onto and is absorbed
by the film emulsion.* photograph

*Blue sensitive films are also called?* monochromatic or ordinary or non coloured sensitive films
Lower limbs
Femur
*The femur is the only bone in the ______ and the _____ bone in the body.* thigh, longest

*The femur can be divided into three parts; proximal, _____ and distal.* shaft

*The proximal aspect of the femur articulates with the ________ of the pelvis to form the hip joint.*
acetabulum

*The femur proximal part has two bony processes. They are?* the greater and lesser trochanters.

*The ______ is a bony ridge connecting the two trochanters anteriorly* intertrochanteric line

*The ______ is a bony ridge connecting the two trochanters posteriorly* trochanteric crest

*The neck of the femur is set at an angle of approximately _____ degrees to the shaft.* 135

*On the posterior surface of the femoral shaft, there are roughened ridges of bone, called the____*
linea aspera

Tibia
*The tibia is commonly known as the _____* shin.

*The _______ is the second largest bone in the body* tibia

*The _______ is the second longest bone in the body* tibia

*The _______ is the longest bone in the body* femur

*The _______ is the third longest bone in the body* fibula

*List the key weight-bearing structures of the lower limbs*

Femur

Tibia

Talus

Calcaneus

*The condyles of the tibia form a flat surface, known as the _____* tibial plateau.

*What structures articulates with the femoral condyles to form the key articulation of the knee
joint.* Medial and lateral condyles of the tibia

*Located between the condyles is a region called the _______* intercondylar eminence

*The intercondylar tubercles of the tibia articulate with the _____ of the femur.* intercondylar fossa

*The shaft of the tibia is ______* prism-shaped

*The three surfaces of the tibia include*

anterior, posterior and lateral

*The three borders of the tibia include the;*

Medial, anterior and lateral

*What's the distinguishing feature of the Anterior border of the tibia?* The tibial tuberosity

*The soleal line is found on the ______ surface of the tibia* posterior

*How does the tibia manage weightbearing?*

The distal and proximal end of the tibia widens to assist with weight-bearing.

*On the opposite side of the medial malleolus, located on the lateral side of the tibia is the______*
fibular notch

*List the articulations of the tibia*

Proximal tibiofibular joint

Distal tibiofibular joint

Ankle joint

Knee joint
_Middle tibiofibular joint_

Fibula
*The _____ is the lateral bone of the leg.* fibula

*The ______ acts as an attachment for muscles, and not as a weight-bearer.* Fibula

*The fibula has _______ main articulations*

*List the articulations of the fibula*

Proximal tibiofibular joint – articulates with the lateral condyle of the tibia.

Distal tibiofibular joint – articulates with the fibular notch of the tibia.

Ankle joint – articulates with the talus bone of the foot.

*The Proximal tibiofibular joint is an articulation of the fibula with the__________* lateral condyle of
the tibia.

*The common fibular nerve can be found on the _________* posterior and lateral surface of the
fibular neck,

*The fibular shaft has three surfaces. List them*

anterior, lateral and posterior

*Distally, the lateral surface of the ________ continues inferiorly, and is called the lateral malleolus.*
Fibula
*Which of the malleoli of the leg is more prominent?*

The lateral malleolus is more prominent than the medial malleolus, and can be palpated at the ankle on
the lateral side of the leg
ANKLE JOINT
*What type of joint is ankle joint?*

Hinge variety of synovial joint.

*What are the articular surface of ankle joint?*

• From above:

– Lower end of tibia with medial malleolus

– Lateral malleolus and

– Inferior transverse tibiofibular ligament.

• From below: Body of talus.

*Name the ligaments of ankle joint.*

• Fibrous capsule

• Lateral ligament: Consists of

– Anterior talofibular ligament,

– Posterior talofibular ligament and

– Calcaneofibular ligament.

• Medial (Deltoid) ligament: It has

1. Superficial part: Consists of

– Anterior fibers (Tibionavicular)

– Middle fibers (Tibiocalcanean) and

– Posterior fibers (Posterior tibiotalar).

2. Deep part (Anterior tibiotalar)

*Name the structures related to ankle joint.*

Anteriorly: From medial to lateral side:

• Tibialis anterior.

• Extensor hallucis longus,

• Anterior tibial vessels

• Deep peroneal nerve,

• Extensor digitorum longus and

• Peroneus tertius.

Posteriorly: From medial to lateral side

• Tibialis posterior,

• Flexor digitorum longus,

• Posterior tibial vessels,

• Tibial nerve,

• Flexor hallucis longus

• Peroneus brevis and

• Peroneus longus.

*What are the movements produced at ankle joint?*

• Dorsiflexon

• Plantar flexion
• Accessory movements: With plantar flexion, slight amount of side to side gliding, abduction and
adduction are permitted.

*What is the axis of movements of the ankle joint?*

It is represented by a transverse line drawn across the front of the ankle about 1.25 cm above the tip of
the medial malleolus.

*What is the close-pack position of the ankle joint?*

Dorsiflexion is the close-pack position of the joint in which the wider front part of the talus articulates
with the mortise formed by the malleoli and lower end of the tibia. In this position, there is maximal
congruence of the joint surface and tension of the ligaments.

*Name the muscles producing movements at ankle joint.*

Dorsiflexon:

• Main muscle: Tibialis anterior.

• Accessory muscles:

– Externsor digitorum longus,

– Extensor hallucis longus and

– Peroneus tertius.

Plantar flexion:

• Main muscles:

– Gastrocnemius and

– Soleus

• Accessory muscles:

– Flexor digitorum longus,

– Flexor hallucis longus,

– Tibialis posterior and

– Plantaris.

*What is most frequent fracture at the ankle joint?*

Pott’s fracture, usually produced by an abduction external rotation injury

*There are ____ main sets of ligaments, which originate from each malleolus.* two

*The medial ligament of the ankle joint is also known as the________* deltoid ligament

*The ________ is a bony prominence projecting from the medial aspect of the distal tibia.* medial
malleolus

*The medial ligament consists of ______ ligaments.* four

*The primary action of the ________ is to resist over-eversion of the foot.* medial ligament

*The ankle joint is also known as the _____________* talocrural joint

*The ankle joint is a ______ joint located in the lower limb.* synovial

*It is formed by the ____________* bones of the leg (tibia and fibula) and the foot (talus).

*Functionally, it is a ________ type joint.* hinge

*The ankle joint permitting two anatomical movements of the foot. These are_________* dorsiflexion
and plantarflexion

*Is the calcaneous considered part of the ankle joint? T/F* F

*The Articulating Surfaces of the ankle joint are the?*

The ankle joint is formed by three bones; the tibia and fibula of the leg, and the talus of the foot

*The tibia and fibula are bound together by strong _______ ligaments.* tibiofibular

*The bracket shaped socket formed by the tibia and fibula is known as a __________.* mortise
Lower limb objectives
*Muscles in the posterior thigh compartment are paralyzed because the sciatic nerve has been
severed. Nevertheless the patient can still produce some flexion of the leg at the knee due to action of
the:*

A. sartorius m.

B. semitendinosus m.

C. both A and B

D. short head of biceps temoris

E.gastrocnemius

*The muscle that is not a medial rotator of the leg is the:*

A. semimembranosus

B. semitendinosus

C. biceps femoris

D. gracilis

E. popliteus

*After an obturator nerve injury, some adduction of the thigh is still possible because of double
innervation to the:*

A. gracilis m.

B. adductor magnus m.
C. sartorius m.

D. adductor longus m.

E. adductor brevis m.

*After passing through the obturator canal, divisions of the obturator nerve (an anterior branch and a
posterior branch) pass on either side of the:*

A. pectineus m.

B adductor brevis m.

C. gracilis m.

D. adductor magnus m.

E. adductor longus m.

* Injury to the tibial nerve in the popliteal fossa might result in:*

A. loss of eversion

B. (diminished sensation) on dorsal surface of foot

C. inability to stand on ones toes

D. drop foot

E. loss of sensation between the great and second toe

*A tight plaster cast that exerted pressure on the head and neck of the fibula might result in loss of:*

A. eversion of the foot

B. foot drop

C. both
D. neither

*When the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg swell from some kind of overuse:*

A. the deep fibular nerve may be injured

B. there is loss of sensation in the web space between the great and second toes

C. both

D. neither

*The medial and lateral plantar neurovascular structures enter the foot deep to the:*

A. inferior peroncal retinaculum

B. abductor digiti minimi m.

C. abductor hallucis m.

D. quadratus plantae m.

*The medial plantar nerve innervates:*

A. abductor hallucis m.

B. abductor digiti minimi m.

C. adductor hallucis m.

D. 2-4 lumbrical muscles

A
*The deep plantar arch:*

A. is formed primarily from the lateral plantar artery

B. pases between the first and second muscular layers of the foot

C. both

D. neither

*The lateral plantar nerve:*

A. courses between quadratus plantae and flexor digitorum brevis muscles

B. supplies quadratus plantae m.

C. both

D. neither

*The two bellies of flexor hallucis brevis muscle:*

A. have insertions that contain sesmoid bones

B. attach to the base of the distal phalanx of the great toe

C. pass on either side of the tendon of extensor hallucis longus

D. are innervated by the lateral plantar nerve

E. all of the above

*The tendon of peroneus longus:*

A. attaches to the navicular bone

B. courses between quadratus plantae and flexor digitorum brevis muscles

C. both

D. neither

*Which statement is false concerning the hip joint?*

A. it is a ball and socket joint

B. the entire acetabulum articulates with the femoral head

C. the acetabulum is deepened by the acetabular labrum

D. the ligamentum teres is attached to the fovea on the femoral head

E. the iliotemoral ligament attaches to the intertrochanteric line

*Which statement concerning the hip joint is false?*

A. The transverse acetabular ligament bridges the acetabular notch

B. The proximal attachment of the iliofemoral ligament is to the ASIS

C. The acetabulum is formed by the ilium, ischium, and pubis

D. The iliofemoral ligament prevents hyperextension of the hip joint

E. Fractures of the femoral neck, rather than the femoral shaft, usually sever arteries supplying the
femoral head

*The fibular collateral ligament is:*

A. tested by the application of valgus stress, rather than varus stress, to the leg.

B. located superficial to the tendon of popliteus

C. attached to the lateral meniscus

D. located superficial to the biceps femoris tendon

E. located deep to the iliotibial tract

*Loss of patellar reflex and loss of cutaneous sensation on the anteromedial side of the leg indicate
damage to this spinal nerve:*

A.L2

B.L4

C.LS

D.S2

E.S4

*Which statement concerning the great saphenous vein is false?*

A. When it is removed and inserted as a coronary bypass, it is reversed, so that the cusps do not obstruct
blood flow.

B. It is located about ten cm. (a handbreadth) posterior to the medial border of the patella.

C. It passes anterior to the medial malleolus.

D. It perforates the femoral sheath

E. It is accompanied by the sural nerve in the leg.

*The deep fascia of the thigh:*

A. is thickened on its medial side to form the iliotibial tract

B. has an oval opening which transmits the small saphenous vein

C. is attached to the whole length of the inguinal ligament

D. is designated the cribriform fascia

E. lies superticial to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes

*Structures passing through the adductor hiatus include:*

A. Saphenous nerve

B. profunda femoral artery

C. both

D. neither

*Skin on the most dorsal part of the foot is supplied by the:*

A. sural nerve

B. first sacral nerve

C. both

D. neither

*The muscle which can both flex the hip and extend the knee is:*

A. Sartorius

B. rectus temoris

C. semimembranosus

D. biceps femoris

E. vastus lateralis

B
*The actions of the gracilis muscle include,______of the thigh at the hip and_________ of the leg at
the knee.*

A. lateral rotation. lateral rotation

B. medial rotation, extension

C. abduction, flexion

D. flexion, extension

E. adduction, flexion

*Which muscle is able to produce flexion at the knee joint more efficiently if the hip joint is in flexion
at the same time?*

A. semimembranosus

B. rectus femoris

C. hamstring part of adductor magnus

D. sartorius

E. short head of biceps femoris

*Difficulty extending the knee can result from damage to the_*

A. femoral nerve

B. inferior gluteal nerve

C. common peroneal nerve

D. superior gluteal nerve

E. tibial nerve

A
*A patient with hereditary blood clotting problems presents with pain in the back of her knee. An
arteriogram reveals a blood clot in the popliteal artery at its proximal end. Which of the following
arteries will allow blood to reach the foot?*

A) Anterior tibial

B) Posterior tibial

(C) Peroneal

(D) Lateral circumflex femoral

(E) Superior medial genicular

_The Answer is D. If the proximal end of the popliteal artery is blocked, blood may reach the toot by way
of the descending branch of the lateral circumiflex femoral artery, which participates in the anastomosis
around the knee joint. Other blood vessels are direct or indirect branches of the popliteal artery._

*A 24-year-old woman complains of weakness when she extends her thigh and rotates it laterally.
Which of the following muscles is paralyzed'?*

(A) Obturator externus

(8) Sartorius

(C) Tensor fasciae latae

(D) Gluteus maximus

(E) Semitendinosus

_The Answer is D. The gluteus maximus can extend and rotate the thigh laterally. Tthe obturator
externus rotates the thigh laterally. The sartorius can flex both the hip and knee joints. The tensor fasciae
latae can flex and medially rotate the thigh. The semitendinosus can extend the thigh and medially
rotate the leg._

*A basketball player was hit in the thigh by an opponent's knee. Which of the following arteries is
likely to compress and cause ischemia because of the bruise and damage to the extensor muscles of
the leg?*

(A) Popliteal
B) Deep femoral

(C) Anterior tibial

(D) Posterior tibial

(E) Peroneal

_The Answer is C. A muscular spasm or hypertrophy of the extensor muscles of the leg may compress the
anterior tibial artery, causing ischemia._

*A 72-year-old woman complains of a cramp-like pain in her thigh and leg. She was diagnosed as
having a severe intermittent claudication. Following Surgery, an infection was found in the adductor
canal, damaging the enclosed structures.Which of the following structures remains intact?*

(A) Femoral artery

(B) Femoral vein

(C) Saphenous nerve

(D) Great saphenous vein

(E) Nerve to the vastus medialis

_The Answer is D. The great sapnenous femoral vessels is not in the adductor canal. The adductor canal
contains the femoral vessels, the Sapnenous nerve, and the nerve to the vastus medialis._

*All the hamstring muscles*

(A) are medial rotators of the leg.

(B) are extensors of both the thigh and the leg.

(C) are innervated by the tibial component of the sciatic nerve.

(D) are innervated by the peroneal component of the sciatic nerve.

(E) actively contract in maintenance of the resting erect posture.

*The semimembranosus muscle*

(A) produces lateral rotation of the leg at the knee joint.

(Β) helps to limit flexion at the hip when the knee is extended.

(C) has two heads of origin.

(D) is supplied by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve.

(E) crosses superficial to the sciatic nerve in the upper part of the thigh.

*The opening in the adductor magnus muscle transmits the*

(A) femoral vessels.

(B) femoral nerve.

(C) saphenous nerve.

(D) tibial nerve.

(E) sciatic nerve.

*The adductor muscles of the thigh are arranged antero-posterioriy in the order*

(A) longus, magnus, brevis.

(B) brevis, longus, magnus.

(C) longus, brevis, magnus.

(D) brevis, magnus, longus.

(E) in none of the above listed orders.

*The femoral triangle is bounded by*

(A) the inguinal ligament, pectineus and sartorius muscles.

(B) the inguinal ligament, adductor longus and gracilis muscles.

(C) the inguinal ligament, rectus femoris and sartorius muscles.

(D) the inguinal ligament, adductor longus and sartorius muscles.

(E) none of the above combinations of structure.

*Difficulty in abduction at the hip joint results from paralysis of the*

(A) gluteus maximus muscle.

(B) Obturator externus muscle.

(C) vastus lateralis muscle.

(D) Gluteus medius muscle.

(E) obturator internus muscle.

*Abduction at the hip joint*

(A) depends upon the integrity of the obturator nerve.

(B) may be produced by movements of the pelvis.

(C) results in apparent shortening of the ipsilateral lower limb.

(D) depends upon the integrity of the inferior gluteal nerve.

(E) is limited by the iliofemoral ligament.

Medial rotators of the thigh include the

(A) tensor fasciae latae muscle.

(B) obturator intemus muscle.

(C) obturator extemus muscle.

(D) piriformis muscle.

(E) sartorius muscle.

*The patella*

(A) is in contact with femur and tibia.

(B) has an apex pointing superioriy.

(C) is enveloped on both surfaces by the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle.

(D) has a layer of synovial membrane between it and the femur.

(E) articulates with the femur but not the tibia.

*The tibia*

(A) articulates by its medial condyle with the fibula.

(B) has a medial malleolus projecting further distally than the lateral malleolus of the fibula.

(C) is in direct contact with the common peroneal nerve.

(D) articulates with the superior and medial surfaces of the body of the talus.

(E) articulates with the articular facets of the patella.

*The posterior cruciate ligament*

(A) limits backward slipping of the femur on the tibia.

(B) runs forward upwards and laterally from tibia to femur.

(C) is completely slack when the leg is fully extended.

(D) limits forward slipping of the femur on the tibia.

(E) limits lateral rotation of the tibia.

*The tibial collateral ligament of the knee*

(A) is cylindrical in shape.

(B) is separated from the medial meniscus by a bursa.

(C) is crossed by the popliteus tendon.

(D) is attached to the medial meniscus.

(E) does not assist in limitation of medial rotation of the tibia.

*The medial meniscus of the knee joint is*

(A) more mobile than the lateral meniscus.

(B) not attached to the medial collateral ligament.

(C) less frequently torn than the lateral meniscus.

(D) attached to the tibia but not the femur.

(E) smaller than the lateral meniscus.

*The medial meniscus of the knee joint is more commonly damaged than the lateral because*

(A) it is smaller.

(B) the popliteus pulls it out of position.

(C) the femur rotates medially during flexion

(D) it is firmly attached to the tibial collateral ligament.

(E) it is pushed posteriorly by the anterior cruciate ligament.

D

*The anterior cruciate ligament of the knee*

(A) limits posterior movement of the tibia on the femur.

(B) limits lateral rotation of the tibia.

(C) resists hyperextension of the knee.

(D) limits overstretching of the posterior cruciate ligament.

(E) passes upwards, backwards and medially.

*The anterior cruciate ligament*

(A) passes upwards, backwards and laterally.

(B) lies anteromedial to the posterior cruciate Ligament.

(C) limits lateral rotation.

(D) is relaxed in flexion at the knee joint.

(E) is relaxed in extension at the knee joint.

*The inferior tibio-fibular joint is a*

(A) primary cartilaginous joint.

(B) secondary cartilaginous joint.

(C) plane synovial joint.

(D) modified condyloid synovial joint.

(E) fibrous joint.

E
*Medial rotation of the thigh at the hip joint is produced by*

(A) the gluteus minimus muscle.

(B) the adductor longus muscle.

(C) the gracilis muscle.

(D) the pectineus muscle.

(E) none of the above muscles.

*The suprapatellar bursa*

(A) does not communicate with the knee joint.

(B) lies in front of the vastus intermedius muscle.

(C) extends 5 cm or more above the patella.

(D) may extend down into the infrapatellar fat pad.

(E) has none of the above properties.

*The short head of the biceps femoris muscle*

(A) acts during extension of the hip joint.

(B) is supplied by the tibial component of the sciatic nerve.

(C) is closely related to the vastus medialis.

(D) acts during flexion of the knee joint.

(E) has none of the above properties.

*The semimembranosus muscle*

(A) is an abductor at the hip joint.

(B) has two heads.

(C) is inserted into the ñbula.

(D) is not used in normal walking along level ground.

(E) is a medial rotator of the tibia.

*On the head of the femur is a small depression known as the ____*

A.) Fovea

B.) Acetabulum

C.) Trochanter

D.) Epicondyle

*The vastus lateralis originates from the______.*

A.) Pelvis

B.) Lesser trochanter

C.) Fovea

D.) Greater trochanter

*An avulsion fracture of the greater trochanter can occur as a result of forceful contraction of the
___.*

A.) Rectus femoris

B.) Iliopsoas

C.) Gluteus maximus

D.) Gluteus medius

*The shaft of the femur descends in a ______ direction.*

A.) slight medial

B.) slight lateral

C.) Medial

D.) Lateral

*The patella*

(A) is in contact with femur and tibia.

(B) has an apex pointing superioriy.

(C) is enveloped on both surfaces by the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle.

(D) has a layer of synovial membrane between it and the femur.

(E) articulates with the femur but not the tibia.

*The tibia*

(A) articulates by its medial condyle with the fibula.

(B) has a medial malleolus projecting further distally than the lateral malleolus of the fibula.

(C) is in direct contact with the common peroneal nerve.

(D) articulates with the superior and medial surfaces of the body of the talus.
(E) articulates with the articular facets of the patella.

*An avulsion fracture of the lesser trochanter can occur as a result of forceful contraction of the ___.*

A.) Rectus femoris

B.) Iliopsoas

C.) Gluteus maximus

D.) Gluteus medius

*The pelvic girdle is composed of the following except the*

A.) Sacral promontory

B.) Os coxae

C.) Coccyx

D.) sacrum (Os coxae)

*The os coxae are formed by fusion of _____primary bones*

A.) 2

B.) 3

C.) 1

D.) 4

3
*These are functions of the pelvic girdle except:*

A.) Supports the visceral organs of the pelvis

B.) Locomotion of the human body

C.) Transmits the weight of the upper body tof the free lower lower limbs

D.) Attaches the free lower limbs tof the axial skeleton

*Which metatarsal is the longest?*

A.) 1

B.) 2

C.) 3

D.) 5

*Which metatarsal is the stoutest?*

A.) 1

B.) 2

C.) 3

D.) 5

*We have____ phalanges bones.*

A.) 11

B.) 14

C.) 13

D.) 12
B

*The 1st digit (Great toe) has ____*

A.) 1 phalanx

B.) 2 phalanx

C.) 3 phalanges

D.) 2 phalanges

*One of the following is a distinguishing feature of the ilium*

A.) Sacrotuberous spine

B.) Ischial tuberosity

C.) PSIS

D.) Lesser sciatic notch

*One of the following is not a landmark on the Ilium*

A.) Obturator foramen

B.) Iliac crest

C.) Auricular surface

D.) ASIS

*When we sit, which part of the pelvic girdle dofwe sit on?*

A.) Obturator foramen

B.) Iliac crest

C.) Ischial tuberosity

D.) ASIS

*This is the thick curved upper margin of the ilium*

A.) Obturator foramen

B.) Iliac crest

C.) Auricular surface

D.) ASIS

*This is the oval shaped opening, bounded by the body and rami of the pubis and the body and ramus
of the ischium. It is the only opening for nerves/blood vessels.*

A.) Obturator foramen

B.) Iliac crest

C.) Auricular surface

D.) ASIS

*This is the origin of the iliacus muscle*

A.) Iliac fossa

B.) Iliac crest

C.) Auricular surface

D.) ASIS

A
*The prominent round anterior termination of the iliac crest is the?*

A.) PIIS

B.) PSIS

C.) AIIS

D.) ASIS

*After the Intertrochanteric line passes the lesser trochanter on the posterior surface, it is known as
the ____*

A.) Supracondylar line

B.) Intertrochanteric line

C.) iliofemoral line

D.) pectineal line.

Lower limbs viva

*The shin bone is also called?* Tibia

*List the lateral rotators of the thigh*

Quadratus femoris superior Gemelli Inferior Gemelli Piriformis

*What nerve innervates the skin of the femoral triangle* Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve

*What forms the medial border of femoral triangle* Medial border of the Adductor longus

*The blood supply to the head of femur is?* Medial circumflex femoral artery (the retinacular Branch)

*The artery that passes between the anterior and posterior division of femoral nerve is?* Lateral
circumflex femoral artery

*What's Jones fracture* Fracture of the fifth metatarsal

*What's joggers foot* Compression of medial plantar nerve

*What muscle locks the knee joint* Quadriceps muscle

*What forms the unhappy triad*

ACL

Medial meniscus

TCL

*The anterior meniscofemoral ligament is also called?* Ligament of Humphrey

*The blood supply to the head of femur is?* Retinacular arteries?

*Trendelemburgs sign is seen in which nerve damage* Superior gluteal nerve

*List the structure found in the 1st compartment of the femoral sheath* Femoral artery

*List the lateral rotators of the thigh*

Obturator internus

Obturator externus

Quadratus femoris

Inferior gemelli

Superior gemelli

*What muscle unlock the knee joint* popliteus

*What muscle locks the knee joint* quadriceps

*The blood supply to the head of femur is?*

Medial circumflex artery

Obturator artery via the retinacular arteries

```Quadrupeds flex the hip joint and extend the knee joint

Hamstring extend the hip joint and flex the knee joint```

*The ligament that prevents the Anterior dislocation of the tibia on femur and the Posterior
dislocation of the femur on the tibia is?* Anterior cruciate ligament

*what are the different parts of a hipbone?*

The hip bone is made up of three parts, the ilium superiorily, ischium postero-inferiorly and pubis
antero-inferiorly. the three parts join to form a cup-shaped hollow articular surface, the acetabulum.

Osteology viva
*The descent of the shaft of the femur in a slight medial direction acts to bring about?* increasing
stability by bringing the knees closer to the body’s centre of gravity

*The strongest ligament of the hip joint is the?* iliofemoral ligament

*linea aspera translates to?* Rough line

*Fractures of the femoral shaft affect which neurovascular structures* the femoral nerve and artery

*What are the function of fibula?*

• It provides origin to muscles.

• It acts as a pulley for the tendons of peroneus longus and brevis.
• It forms a part of the ankle joint.
• It helps to increase the stability of ankle joint by lateral malleolus and ligaments attached to it.

*What is the function of patella?*

The patella improves the leverage of the quadriceps femoris by increasing the angulation of the line of
pull on the leg

*Why is the intracapsular fracture of the neck of the femur more dangerous than extracapsular
fracture?*

The intracapsular fracture interrupts the blood supply, to the femoral head resulting in necrosis whereas
in the extracapsular fracture, the blood supply to the head remains unaffected and so there is no danger
of avascular necrosis.

*Which muscle is inserted in gluteal tuberosity?*

Deep fibers of gluteus Maximus.

*Name the tarsal bones of foot.*

• Proximal row: Talus, calcaneum,

• Distal row: Cuboid and medial, intermediate and lateral cuneiform.

Navicular is interposed between the two rows

*Classify the arches of foot.*

• Longitudinal arches: Two

– Medial and

– Lateral
• Transverse arch
*how will you determine to which side the hip bone belongs?*

in a hip bone, the acetabulum is directed laterally and the flat ilium forms upper part of bone, lying
above the acetabulum. The obturator foramen lies below the acetabulum.

*what is the normal anatomical position of the hip bone in the body?*

• pubic tubercle and anterior superior iliac spine lie in the same vertical plane.

• the pelvic surface of the body of pubis is directed backwards and upwards.

• the ischial spine and upper border of symphysis pubis lie in same horizontal plane and

• symphysis pubis lies in the median plane.

*what is the level through which the highest point of the iliac crest passes (intercrestal plane)?*

The intercrestal plane passes at the level of interval between the spines of l3 and l4 vertebrae.

*What are the structures attached to the anterior superior iliac spine?*

it provides:

• Attachment to the lateral end of inguinal ligament and

• Origin of Sartorius.

*What are the structures attached to gluteal surface of ilium?*

• gluteus medius arises between anterior and posterior gluteal lines.

• gluteus minimus arises between anterior and inferior gluteal line.

• gluteus maximus (upper fibers) arise behind the posterior gluteal line.

• below inferior gluteal line reflected head of rectus femoris arises.

*name the structures attached to ischial spine.*

the structures attached to ischial spine are:

• sacrospinous ligament

• origin of superior gemellus

*What are the structures attached to ischial tuberosity?*

from upper area of ischial tuberosity arise semimembranous superolaterally and semitendinosus and
long head of biceps femoris superomedially.

from lower lateral area abductor magnus arise.

*name the structures attached to intertrochanteric line of femur.*

the following structures are attached to intertrochanteric line:

• capsular ligament of hip joint

• iliofemoral ligament

• upper fibers of vastus lateralis and vastus medialis

*which muscle is inserted into trochanteric fossa?*

obturator externus.

*which muscle is inserted in gluteal tuberosity?*

deep fibers of gluteus maximus.

*why the fractures of neck of femur, leads to the necrosis of the head?*

because it will interrupt the blood supply to the head.

*Why is the intracapsular fracture of the neck of the femur are more dangerous than extracapsular
fracture?*
the intracapsular fracture interrupts the blood supply, to the femoral head resulting in necrosis whereas
in the extracapsular fracture, the blood supply to the head remains unaffected and so there is no danger
of avascular necrosis.

*What is coxa vara?*

In this condition the angle between the femoral neck and shaft is decreased i.e., less than 120°. this
results from adduction fractures.

*What is coxa valga?*

Increase in the angle between femoral neck and shaft due to abduction fractures.

*The nerve that supply the gluteal region is ?*

Superior and inferior gluteal nerves

*The lumbar plexus is connected with the sacral plexus by?*

Lumbosacral trunk

*List four contents of lumbosacral triangle of mercille*

Lumbosacral trunk,illiolumbar artery , sympathetic trunk, obturator nerve

*_The most medial muscle of the thigh is?_*

Gracilis

*List three muscles that acts as custodian of virginity*

it's the adductor muscles.

Every female needs to keep the thigh adducted if they want to prevent penetration
That's why they are called that name

Adductor Magnus

Adductor brevis

Adductor Longus

*The most lateral muscle of the thigh is?*

Vastus lateralis

*The freshman's nerve is?*

Plantaris

*At which level fracture of shaft of femur is dangerous?*

Fracture of the lower end of femur are dangerous because proximal edge of the distal fragment is tilted
backwards by the gastrocnemius, which tears the popliteal artery which lies directly behind it.

*name the structures attached to the intercondylar area of tibia.*

It provides attachment to:

• anterior horn of medial meniscus,

• anterior cruciate ligament,

• anterior horn of lateral meniscus,

• posterior horn of lateral meniscus

• posterior horn of medial meniscus

• posterior cruciate ligament.

*what is the arterial supply of tibia?*

Nutrient artery to tibia is a branch of the posterior tibial artery. it is the largest nutrient artery in the
body.

*Which structure lies between two heads of origin of peroneus longus?*

Common peroneal nerve.

*What are the function of fibula?*

• it provides origin to muscles.

• it acts as a pulley for the tendons of peroneus longus and brevis.

• it forms a part of the ankle joint.

• it helps to increase the stability of ankle joint by lateral malleolus and ligaments attached to it.

*what is the function of patella?*

the patella improves the leverage of the quadriceps femoris by increasing the angulation of the line of
pull on the leg.

*how is the stability of the patella is increased?*

due to outward angulation between long axes of thigh and leg the patella has a tendency to dislocate
outwards. this is prevented by:

• muscular factor: insertion of vastus medialis on medial border of patella extends of a lower level than
that of the vastus lateralis laterally.

• bony factor: lateral edge of patellar articular surface of femur is deeper than medial edge.

*name the tarsal bone of foot.*

• proximal row: talus, calcaneum,

• distal row: cuboid and medial, intermediate and lateral cuneiform.

navicular is interposed between the two rows

*what is the structure attached to tuberosity of navicular bone?*

insertion for tibialis posterior.

*name the structures related to plantar groove of cuboid.*

• through groove pass tendon of peroneus longus.

• to posterior ridge, deep fibers of long plantar ligament

*what are the “accessory bones”?*

these are separate small pieces of bone which have not fused with the main bone e.g.,

• os trigonum (posterior tubercle of talus)

• os vesalianum (tuberosity of fifth metatarsal).

*what is ‘bunion’?*

it is inflamed adventitial bursa over the head of first metatarsal bone.

*what is the type of hip joint?*

hip joint is a ball and socket type of synovial joint.

*what are the factors which increase the stability of the hip joint?*

the stability of hip joint is increased by the following factors:

• depth of acetabulum with a narrow mouth, made by acetabular labrum.

• tension and strength of ligaments.

• strength of the surrounding muscles.

• length and obliquity of neck of femur.

the wide range of mobility depends upon the neck of femur which is narrower than the equatorial
diameter of the head.
Develops when an out-pouching of abdominal viscera protrudes through the femoral canal.

Femoral hernia

Makes muscle contraction more efficient in compressing deep veins, which ensures adequate venous
return to the heart from the lower limbs.

Fascia lata

Fascia which envelopes muscles, bones, and neurovascular structures.

Deep fascia

A deep fascial investment of the musculature of the thigh which is analogous to a strong, extensible,
and elasticated stocking.

Fascia lata

Fascia blends with the reticular layer beneath the dermis.

Superficial fascia

Continuation of fascia lata below the knee

Crural fascia

*The contents of popliteal fossa are*

Tibial nerve

Popliteal vein

Popliteal artery

Polpiteal lymph vessels & nodes

Small saphenous vein

*The shape of popliteal fossa is?*

Diamond shaped

*The adductor canal is how long?*

Approximately 15cm long

*The femoral canal is how long?*

Approximately 1.3cm long

*List the branches for the subsartorial plexus*

Anterior division of obturator nerve

Intermediate cutaneous nerve of thigh

Saphenous nerve

*What forms the pes anserinus?*

The tendons of sartorius, semitendinosus and gracilis

*Which metatarsal is the longest?*

Second metatarsal
*List the arteries and veins of the gluteal region*

Superior gluteal artery

Inferior gluteal artery

Superior gluteal vein

Inferior gluteal vein

*The borders of the gluteal region are?*

Superiorly - iliac crest

Medially - intergluteal cleft

Inferiorly - gluteal fold

*The skeleton of the lower limb may be divided into two functional components. They are?*
The pelvic girdle

Bones of the free lower limb

*List the parts of the inominate bone?*

Ilium, Ischium & Pubis

*The metatarsals are numbered from the ______ side of the foot.* medial

*Each phalanx has a base, ______ & ____* head, shaft

*The _____ is the large fan shaped upper portion of the hip bone* ilium
*The ____ is the posteroinferior portion of the hip bone* ischium

*Phalanges also known as ______* toe bones

Pelvis and perineum

*What forms the linea terminalis?*

Arcuate and pectineal lines and sacral promontory

*What forms the iliopectineal line?*

Arcuate and pectineal lines

*The anterior border of the pelvic inlet is?*

Pubic symphysis
*What are the borders of the pelvic inlet?*

Posteriorly: Sacral promontory

Anteriorly: Pubic symphysis

Laterally: iliopectineal line

*What are the borders of the pelvic outlet?*

Posteriorly: tip of the coccyx

Anteriorly: Pubic arch

Laterally: ischial tuberosities

*What are the three layers of the arterial wall?*

Tunica adventitia

Tunica media

Tunica intima

*What are the layers of the walls of the uterus?*

Endometrium

Myometrium

Perimetrium

*The helicrine arteries are alsofknown as?*

Spiral arteries (found in penis and endometrium)

*List three adaptation for childbirth in the pelvis of women*

Wider sub-pubic arch

Lighter and broader pelvis

Less pronounced ischial spines

Oval shaped pelvic inlet.

*Which sex has a wider sub-pubic arch?*

Female

*What's the major artery of the pelvis?*

Internal iliac

*List the three branches of the posterior trunk of the internal iliac arteries*

Iliolumbar artery

Superior gluteal artery

Lateral sacral artery

Reproductive physiology
*What is menarche? At what age does it occur?*

The commencement of menstrual cycle is known as menarche. It occurs at the age of 12 to 15 years that
marks the onset of puberty.

*Enumerate the changes taking place during menstrual cycle.*

• Ovarian changes

• Uterine changes

• Vaginal changes

• Changes in cervix uteri.

*Name the phases of ovarian changes during menstrual cycle.*

• Follicular phase – there is development of graafian follicle and secretion of large amount of estrogen

• Luteal phase – there is development of corpus luteum and secretion of large amount of progesterone.

*Name the different ovarian follicles.*

The different ovarian follicles are
• Primordial follicle
• Primary follicle

• Vesicular follicle

• Graafian follicle.

*What is ovulation? When does it occur?*

The process by which ovum is released by rupture of graafian follicle is known as ovulation. It occurs on
14th day of menstrual cycle in a normal 28 days cycle.

*How does ovulation occur?*

Ovulation occurs because of rupture of stigma which is a protrusion developed on the surface of the
graafian follicle. Rupture of graafian follicle releases ovum into the abdominal cavity.

*What are the different phases of menstrual cycle and what is its cause?*

There are 4 phases:

• Menstrual phase: It is due to withdrawal of progesterone secretion.

• Proliferative phase: It is due to estrogen secretion.

•Ovulatory phase: It is due to LH surge.

• Secretory or luteal phase: It is due to increase in secretion of progesteron

*Name the sex organs in males.*

• The primary sex organs – testes
• The accessory sex organs – seminal vesicles, prostate gland, urethra and external genitalia such as
penis and scrotum

*Which chromosome determines the type of sex?*

Y sex chromosome determines the type of sex.

*What is H-Y antigen?*

The testis determining gene product is known as H-Y antigen.

*What do you mean by SRY chromosome?*

The gene present in the tip of the short arm of the human Y chromosome causes differentiation of
indifferent or bipotential gonad to embryonic testis in the 7th–8 th weeks after gestation. The region of
the Y chromosome that contains the testis determining gene is called as SRY chromosome.

*What's anovular menstruation?*

Menstruation without ovulation

*List the parts of the uterine tube*

Infundibulum (with fimbriae)

Isthmus

Ampulla

*The ovulatory surge of LH and FSH is triggered by a positive feedback effect of?* estradiol

*How many oocytes are left by puberty?*

400,000

*Meiosis is suspended at prophase I during oogenesis by ?*

Inhibitory hormonal milieu

*How many phases does the uterine cycle have?*

*How many phases does the ovarian cycle have?*

2&3

*List the phases of the ovarian cycle*

Follicular phase

Ovulation

Luteal phase

*List the phases of the uterine cycle*

Menstrual phase

Proliferative phase

Secretory phase

*What hormone is responsible for the initiation of spermatogenesis?* FSH

*How many phases does the uterine cycle have?*

*How many phases does the ovarian cycle have?*

2&3

*Why do women function normally even though they possess excess X chromosomes?*

Though, it may seem counterintuitive that human females and males can function normally, despite
carrying different numbers of the X chromosome. In part, this occurs because of a process called X
inactivation. Early in development, when female mammalian embryos consist of just a few thousand
cells, one X chromosome in each cell inactivates by condensing intofa structure called a Barr body. The
genes on the inactive X chromosome are not expressed. The particular X chromosome (maternally or
paternally derived) that is inactivated in each cell is random, but once the inactivation occurs, all cells
descended from that cell will have the same inactive X chromosome. By this process, females
compensate for their double genetic dose of X chromosome.

Endocrinology
The α-GTP unit activates the enzyme__________, which is also present in the cell membrane. Adenylcyclase

Hormone-receptor complex activates the enzymes of the cell and causes the formation of another substance
called the _____________________ second messenger or intracellular hormonal mediator.

What is the full meaning of Cyclic AMP? cyclic adenosine 3’5’-monophosphate

Both α -GDP unit and ß-γ dimmer are united in the ___________G protein. inactivated

____________are peptides secreted by cells into the extracellular fluid and can function as autocrines, paracrines,
or endocrine hormones. Cytokines

Cyclic AMP executes the actions of hormone inside the cell by stimulating the enzymes like ______ protein
kinase A

*Atrial natriuretic peptide is produced in the?*

Right atrium

*Aldosterone is produced in the?*

Adrenal cortex, specifically zona glomerulosa

*Which adrenal cortex hormone is transported by transcortin?*

Glucocorticoids
*In the conversion of cholesterol to aldosterone, what's the initiating enzyme?*

Cholesterol desmolase

*Adrenal glands are called the ‘life-saving glands’ or ‘essential endocrine glands’. It is because the
absence of adrenocortical hormones causes death within______* 3 tof15 days

*There are _____ adrenal glands.* two

*Because of their situation on the upper pole of each kidney, adrenal glands are otherwise
called____* suprarenal glands.

*Each adrenal gland weighs about ______* 4 g.

*Adrenal gland is made of two distinct parts. They are?*

Adrenal cortex

Adrenal medulla

*The outer portion of the adrenal gland that constitutes 80% is the _______* Adrenal cortex

*The two parts of the adrenal are different from each other in development, structure and functions.
Which part of the adrenal gland develops from the neural crest?*

Adrenal medulla

*The two parts of the adrenal are different from each other in development, structure and functions.
Which part of the adrenal gland develops from the Mesonephros?*

Adrenal cortex
*Corticosteroids are secreted by the?* Adrenal cortex

*The Adrenal cortex is formed by three layers of structure. They are?*

1. Outer zona glomerulosa

2. Middle zona fasciculata

3. Inner zona reticularis.

*Adrenocortical hormones are _______ in nature* steroids

*Based on their functions, corticosteroids are classified into three groups. They are:*
1. Mineralocorticoids

2. Glucocorticoids

3. Sex hormones.

*Which of the adrenal cortex hormone is transported by transcortin?* Glucocorticoids

*Which of the adrenal cortex hormone is transported by sex hormone-binding globulin.?* Sex
hormones

*All adrenocortical hormones are steroid in nature and are synthesized mainly from _____*
cholesterol

*Corticosteroids are degraded mainly in the _____* liver

*The endocrine function of pancreas is performed by the _______* islets of Langerhans.

*The Human pancreas contains about _____ islets.* 1 tof2 million

*Islets of Langerhans consist of ______ types of cells* four

*List the four cells of the islets of Langerhans and their main secretion*
A cells or α-cells, which secrete glucagon
B cells or β-cells, which secrete insulin

D cells or δ-cells, which secrete somatostatin

F cells or PP cells, which secrete pancreatic polypeptide.

*Insulin is a polypeptide with _____ amino acids* 51

*The synthesis of insulin starts from __________ tof__________ and finally insulin.*

preproinsulin, proinsulin

*_______ is the only antidiabetic hormone secreted in the body* Insulin

*Glucagon is secreted from three cells,list them*

A cells or α-cells in the islets of Langerhans of pancreas.

A cells of stomach

L cells of intestine.
 *The synthesis of glucagon starts from the preprohormone precursor__________ tof__________ and
finally glucagon.*

preproglucagon, proglucagon

*Insulin secretion is mainly regulated by blood glucose. What else can regulate insulin level?*

Blood Glucose Level

Proteins

Lipid Derivatives

Gastrointestinal Hormones

Endocrine Hormones

Autonomic Nerves

*______ is the presence of glucose in urine or the loss of

glucose via urine* Glucosuria

*______ is the renal threshold level for glucose.* 180 mg/dL

*Excess urine formation with increase in the frequency of

voiding urine is called _______* polyuria.

*Increase in water intake is called _____* polydipsia.

*________ means the intake of excess food.* Polyphagia

*The Loss of strength is called ______* asthenia.

*____ is the increase in rate and depth of respiration caused by severe acidosis.* Kussmaul breathing