AIR REGULATIONS

FINAL TEST

Time: 02:00 hrs Max Marks 80

Answer all questions.
I Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the most correct answer.

1. The letter Q as a prefix to ATS route numbering has recently been introduced and means that
(a) A queue is necessary for entry into the route
(b) This route is a domestic non – RNav route.
(c) This route is a International non – RNav route.
(d) This route is a domestic RNav route.

2. In Radio Telephony the three principles are

(a) Crisp, Clear and Concise
(b) Clarity, Brevity, Concise
(c) Comprehensive, Crisp and Clear
(d) Meaningful, contextual and clear

3. The Minimum Height Rule stipulates that an IFR flight in mountainous terrain shall fly at
least above (as per ICAO)
(a) 1500 ft within 5km of the estimated position of the aircraft
(b) 1000 ft within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
(c) 2000 ft within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
(d) 3000 ft within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft

4. The secretariat of the ICAO has ___ main divisions

(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9

5. The OCA will be different if the threshold elevation is

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 (a) Higher than the aerodrome elevation by 2m/7ft.
(b) Lower than the aerodrome elevation by 2m/7ft.
(c) Higher than the aerodrome elevation by 5m/15ft.
(d) Lower than the aerodrome elevation by 5m/15ft.

6. For the Asia Pacific region the Regional Office of the ICAO is in
(a) Singapore
(b) Hong Kong
(c) Manila
(d) Bangkok

7. Annex 6 of the ICAO deals with

(a) Aircraft Nationality and registration Marks
(b) Operation of Aircraft
(c) Aeronautical Charts
(d) Airworthiness of aircraft

8. PCN 80/R/B/W/T means that the pavement has been

(a) Technically evaluated
(b) Evaluated using aircraft experience
(c) Mathematically evaluated
(d) Evaluated for Training purposes.

9. An ARP shall contain the following

(a) Name of place, QFE, coordinates
(b) Name of place, QFE, 6 digit coordinates of ARP
(c) Name of place, 6 digit coordinates of ARP, Elevation of ARP
(d) Name of place, 6 digit coordinates of ARP, Elevation of ARP and Rwy designation.

10. Where the extremity of a rwy is not square with the rwy centerline, the beginning of the
usable part of the rwy shall be known from
(a) The threshold stripes
(b) A transverse line
(c) The rwy designation marking
(d) The touchdown zone.
11. A total of Six stripes on the threshold of a rwy indicate that the width of the rwy is
(a) 10 m

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 (b) 15 m
(c) 18 m
(d) 23 m

12. Touchdown zone markings can run over a maximum distance of

(a) 2000 ft
(b) 3000 ft
(c) 4000 ft
(d) 5000 ft

13. The main purpose of Rapid Exit Taxiway is to

(a) Make maneuverability easier for the pilot
(b) Make a quick exit in case of an emergency
(c) Reduce rwy occupancy time
(d) None of these

14. The principal objective of a rescue and fire-fighting service in case of an passenger
aircraft fire is to
(a) Bring a fire under control
(b) Safeguard all valuable property
(c) Save lives
(d) Take the CVR and FDR to safety.

15. When a crew is rostered for a flight of 9 hours or more, rest period prior to operating
such flight shall
(a) Ensure double the flight time on a pro-rata basis.
(b) Include a local night
(c) Ensure that the window of circadian low is not infringed again
(d) Be for at least 10 hours.

16. The prime intention of nominating airspaces as Controlled areas or Control Zones is to
a) Classify them as airspace class A, B, C, D & E.
b) Designate them for the provision of ATC Service to IFR flights.
c) Identify airspaces wherein SVFR can be permitted.
d) Know which agency must be contacted for provision of ATC service.

17. Entry into a prohibited area means that the aircraft must transmit _________ to the ATC

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 (a) MAYDAY
(b) PAN PAN
(c) Every 10 minutes.
(d) Position

18. Class E airspace has been specified as one of the only controlled airspaces that cannot be
designated as a control zone because:
(a) IFR and VFR both are not permitted.
(b) IFR is separated from VFR but not from IFR.
(c) IFR is separated from IFR but not from VFR.
(d) VFR to VFR separation is not given.

19. RNP precision required is

(a) 80%
(b) 90%
(c) 95%
(d) 97%

20. Longitudinal separation based on distance for aircraft flying on the same track the separation
minima can be reduced from 37 km to 19 km provided the leading aircraft maintains a speed of
________ or more faster.
(a) 40 kts
(b) 30 kts
(c) 20 kts
(d) 10 kts

II Fill in the Blanks.

21. An aerodrome with elevation of 1732ft has a QFE of 954 hPa. What should be the QNH
at the aerodrome? ______________ .

22. For conducting a visual approach it is necessary that the reported ceiling is above the
______.

23. An instrument runway served by visual aids and a non-visual aid providing at
least lateral guidance adequate for a straight-in approach may be known as a
______________________.

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 24. The specifications of the Aerodrome Reference Code is based on ______ Code
elements.

25. Width of Runways can be classified into _____ widths.

26. The PCN or bearing strength of a pavement is classified for aircraft with a apron
(ramp) mass greater than _________.

27. For Precision Approach Rwy Cat II the visibility criteria as per CAR is _______.

28. If the rwy designation marking is in-between the threshold stripes then it means
that the rwy width is necessarily ________ ft, at least.

29. If the touchdown zone markings are 4 it means that the rwy length is at least
______ mtrs.

30. Aerodrome beacon on land aerodromes shall show white and _______.

31. Runway Guard Lights are _______ in colour.

32. If a threshold is temporarily displaced then _____ lights shall depict threshold.

33. The validity of an Air Defence Clearance shall expire within 30 mins after ___________.

34. NOTAM R means ____________________.

35. In the Flight Plan cruising levels in metres shall be denoted as _____________.

36. In uncharted airspace position reports shall be made after the __________________
and ________________ for IFR flights. (As per Doc 4444)
37. SIGMET Information is regarding ________________.

38. Composite separation combines ___________ and __________ separation

methods.

39. The purpose for designing an ATS route is ___________________

___________________________________________.

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 40. MFA for IFR Flights in India over mountainous terrain at least 600 mtrs above the
highest obstacle within _________ of the estimated position of the aircraft in the route.

III State True or False. If false give the correct statement.

41. TEET is calculated for the purpose of optimizing fuel consumption.

42. A VFR flight could be asked to make an ILS approach, in order to sequence
landing.

43. At rwy intersections the markings of the most preferred rwy shall be interrupted.

44. A section of the lights 600 m or one-third of the runway length, whichever is the
less, at the remote end of the runway from the end at which the take-off run is started,
may show alternate red and white.

45. Straight departure may mean one in which the initial departure is within 35 0 of
the alignment of the rwy centerline.

46. ABGR are prefixes for regional network of Non-RNAV ATS routes.

47. In SSR Mode A transponder would initiate a reply giving its position.
48. Radar separation is normally applied only in the lateral dimension.

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 49. Check list of AIP supplements is issued at intervals not exceeding four weeks.

50. Lowest Transition Altitude in India is 4000 ft.

Short Answers
51. Runway 09/27 is 2950 m long. For 09 a clearway of 580 m, stopway 300m, displaced
threshold 150 m. What are the declared distances for 09 for this airport?
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52. Destination ATC reports the metar clouds as 2/8 St 400’, 5/8 SC 1200’, 4/8 SC 3000’, 8/8 AC
8000 5/8 Ci 18000’ to an arriving VFR flight. Trend is No Sig. What does it indicate to the pilot?
2

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53. IC 411 from VILK ATD 1055 to VIDP has had communication failure at FL 320 at 1120
(TEET= 00:45) and two altimeter failures at 1124. Last contact with Delhi Control was at 1115.
Detail out actions and RT Phraseology. 6

54. “Delhi Tower IC 811 Visibility appears low would like to take off under Radar Control.”
What reaction would you expect from the ATC Controller? Give reasons for your answer.
2

55. Write 6 names of the various surfaces that make up the obstacle clearance. 6

56. IC – 411 60 DME from VIDP on course to VECC, passing FL 230 for FL 330, O/F LLK, BBN
has an obese man of about 60 years of age apparently having breathlessness and extreme
anxiety, sweating profusely and unable to speak. Senior cabin crew reports the matter to you as
PIC. Take action. 5

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57. 6E-474 from VIDP to VABB, O/F JJP, and has been asked to maintain FL 220 due
reciprocal at FL 230. You are in visual contact with the reciprocal aircraft. Inform Jaipur ATC of
your intentions and seek permission to continue climb. 5