1.

the kinetic theory of gas may be used to derive the expression relating the pressure
p and the volume V of a gas to the root-mean – square speed of its molecules is
1 Nm 2
P= <c >¿
3 V
In this expression, what does the product Nm represent ?
(a) the mass of gas present in volume V
(b) the number of molecules in unit volume of the gas
(c) the total number of molecules in one mole of gas
(d) the total number of molecules present in volume V
2. what are the properties that affect the internal energy of a fixed mass of ideal gas ?
(a) pressure, but not volume or temperature
(b) volume , but not pressure or temperature
(c) temperature , but not pressure or volume
(d) pressure and temperature , but not volume
3. A monatomic ideal gas undergoes an isothermal change , then which of the
following correct describes the state of the gas
(a) there is no external work done on the gas
(b) there is no change in the density
(c) there is no change in internal energy
(d) there is no heat transferred to the gas
4. A fixed mass of an ideal gas has initial volume 1.5x10 -3 m3 and initial pressure of
1x105Pa with its pressure kept constant , it is supplied with 70J of energy and its
volume increase to 1.7x10-3 m3. What will happen to the internal energy of the gas
(a) increased by 90J
(b) increased by 70J
(c) increased by 50 J
(d) decreased by 50J
5. The charge sphere P repel the charge sphere Q, and charge Q attract charge z, and
charge sphere Z repel charge sphere Y then which of following is possible charge
on P, Q, Z and Y
 P Q Z Y
(a) + + + +
(b) + - + -
(c) - - + -
(d) + + - -

6. The electric field strength between two parallel conducting plates is to be

determined. If the potential difference between the plates is known, what is the
additional information needed
(a) separation of the plates.
(b) separation and area of the plates
(c) permittivity of the medium, separation of the plates.
(d) permittivity of medium, separation and area of the plates.
7. When a charge of 3C is moved from infinity to a point X in an electric field , the
work done is 15J. what is the electric potential at X ?
(a) 45V
(b) 22.5V
(c) 15V
(d) 5V
8. Three capacitors each of capacitance 3uf, 6uf, and 2uf are connected in series
across a p.d of 90V, then voltage across 3uf is
(a) 30V
(b) 45V
(c) 15V
(d) 20V
9. In a cathode-ray tube, the electrons are accelerated from cathode to anode by a
potential difference of 2000V. This p.d is then increased to 8000V. what are the new
kinetic energy and velocity of electro ns arriving at the anode ?
(a) twice the kinetic energy and four times the velocity
(b) four times the kinetic energy and twice the velocity
(c)four times the kinetic energy and sixteen times the velocity
(d) sixteen times the kinetic energy and four time the velocity
10. In a time of 50s, a charge of 100C flows through a light bulb rated 12W. during this
time, what is the potential difference across the bulb ?
(a) 0.12 V
(b) 2V
(c)6V
(d) 24V
11. In a certain calculation a potential difference is multiplied with an electric charge.
Which of the following physical quantities would be the result of calculation
(a) electric current
(b) electric energy
(c) electric field strength
(d) electric power
12. An electric lamp has a rating of 100W at 240V. As its filament heats up from room
temperature to its operating temperature, its resistance increases by a factor of 16.
Which of the following is the resistance of the lamp at room temperature ?
(a) 36 ohm
(b) 580 ohm
(c) 1.5 kilo ohm
(d) 9.2 kilo ohm
13. Cables of total resistance 5 ohm are used to transmit 100kW of power produce by
a generator at a p.d of 10kV . what is the power dissipated in the cables ?
(a) 50W
(b) 250W
(c) 500 W
(d) 50000 W
14. Tesla can be written as:
(a) N A m-1
(b) N A-1 m-2
(c) N A-1 m-1
(d) N A m
15. In a region of space, a charged particles experience a force only when it is in
motion . what does the region encloses?
(a) both an electric field and magnetic field
(b) both a magnetic field and gravitational field
(c) only magnetic field only
(d) both an electric and gravitational field
16. The presence of soft iron in the core of solenoid
(a) increase the self induction of coil
(b) decrease the self induction of coil
(c) increase the resistance of coil
(d) increase the capacitance of coil
17. In steps up transformer
(a) voltage on secondary winding is less than the voltage on primary winding
(b) current in primary winding is less than the current in secondary winding
(c) voltage on secondary winding is greater than the voltage on primary winding
(d) resistance of primary winding is greater than the resistance of secondary winding
18. What is the most important function of soft-iron core in an ideal transformer
(a) to reduce eddy currents.
(b) to improve the flux linkage between primary and secondary coils
(c) to dissipate heat generated by the two coils
(d) to eliminate the back emf produce in the secondary coil
19. The emf generated by electric generator depends up on
(a) number of turns of coil
(b) angular velocity of coil
(c) area of coil
(d) strength of magnetic field
(e) A.O.T
20. A current increases from zero to 1 ampere in 0.1 second in a coil of 5 mH. Then the
magnitude of the induced emf will be
 (a) 0.005 V
(b) 0.05 V
(c) 0.5 V
d) 5 V.
21. Lenz’s law is consequence of the law of conservation of
(a) Charge
(b) Momentum
(c) Mass
(d) Energy
22. which description best represents a hole in a semiconductor
(a) a missing valence electron in a group III atom
(b) a missing valence electron in group V atom
(c) a missing valence electron in group IV atom
(d)An ionized acceptor atom
23. A single diode can conduct
(a) a portion of positive half cycle
(b) portion of negative half cycle
(c) either positive or negative half cycle
(d) N.O.T
24. Which of the following best describes a photon
(a) an electron emitted from a metal surface by action of light
(b) a unit of energy
(c) a positively charged atomic particle
(d) a quantum of electromagnetic radiation
25. Which phenomenon cannot be explained by the wave theory of light
(a) diffraction
(b) interference
(c) photoelectric emission
(d) polarization
26. Photoelectron are emitted from a zinc plate when it is illuminated by an ultra-violet
radiation . if the intensity of source of light is increased then which choice is
correct
(a) K.E of photoelectron decreased , number of photoelectron increased
(b)K.E of photoelectron increased , number of photoelectron increased
(c) K.E of photoelectron increased , number of photoelectron decreased
(d) K.E of photoelectron remains same , number of photoelectron increased
27. The particles list below have the same de-Broglie wavelength . which one must have the
lowest velocity
(a) proton
(b) deuteron
(c) alpha particle
(d) electron
28. Which of the following explains why electron microscope are able to distinguish
smaller objects than optical microscopes
(a) electrons are smaller than visible quanta
(b) the electrons travel much faster than light
(c) there is no chromatic aberration with electrons
(d) the electron wavelength is much shorter than that of visible light
29. Five phenomenon given below are associated with photon/or charged particles ,
which phenomena directly demonstrated the existence of discrete electronic energy
level with atoms?
1. alpha – particle emission
2. beta – particle emission
3. line emission spectra
4. line absorption spectra
5. electron diffraction
(a) 1 & 5 only
(b) 2 & 3 only
(c) 3 & 4 only
 (d) 2,3,4, and 5 only
30. A hydrogen atom has electron energy level given by the expression
E = - 13.6 / n2 eV , where n 1,2,3 …….
What is the energy required to excite an electron from the ground state to first excited
state ?
(a) 3.4 eV
(b) 4.5eV
(c)10.2 eV
(d) 13.6 eV
31. The electron of hydrogen atom makes transmission from ni = 4 to nf = 2 , then
correspondence emission series is
(a) Lyman series
(b) Balmer series
(c) Pfund series
(d) bracket series
32. Which of the following correctly describes a nucleon
(a) a neutron or proton
(b) a neutron, proton or an electron
(c) any atomic nucleus
(d) a radioactive atomic nucleus
33. What is difference in isotopes of hydrogen i.e protium , deuterium and tritium
(a) difference in number of electrons
(b)difference in number of protons
(c) difference in number of neutrons
(d) A.O.T
34. One isotope of Uranium has a nucleus represented by 92U235. Which set of following
correctly defined its electron , proton and neutron
(a) P =92 , E =90 , N = 143
(b) P =90 , E =90 , N = 143
 (c) P =92 , E =92 , N = 141
(d) P =92 , E =92 , N = 143
35. The radioactive nucleus with excess of neutrons will emit
(a) alpha rays
(b) deuteron
(c) beta rays
(d) neutrons
36. A nuclide 92U238 undergoes a series of decays, successively emitting the following
particles :
Alpha , beta, beta , alpha , alpha
Which of the following nuclides is not produced in the series of decays ?
(a) 88Ra228
(b) 90Th230
(c) 91Pa234
(d) 92U234

37. There are initially N0 nuclei in a radio active source. After a time interval of three
half-lives what is the number of nuclei that have decayed?
(a) N0/16
(b) N0/ 8
(c) 7N0/8
(d) 15N0/16
38. Which of the following particles produce ionization by same mechanism
(a) beta rays & alpha rays
(b) proton and neutron
(c) beta rays and neutron
(d) alpha rays & proton
39. which of following isotope can be used to treat thyroid gland
(a) iodine
 (b) carbon
(c) calcium
(d) phosphorus
40. which of following particles has high penetration power
(a) beta rays
(b) gamma rays
(c) neutron
(d) alpha rays