www.nextias.

com

NEXT IAS (CORPORATE TOWER) :

27-B, Pusa Road, Metro Pillar no. 118, Near Karol Bagh Metro, New Delhi-110060
Ph: 8081300200 | E-mail : info@nextias.com

CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022

Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT) | Test-27
Subject: Full Syllabus Test

A
Booklet
Time Allowed: 2 hrs.
Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions:
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test
Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate
places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for
rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the OMR Answer Sheet in the box provided.
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English only. Each item
comprises four responses (Answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate answer sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission
Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
11. CHALLENGE THE QUESTION: If students feel that either the question(s)/answer(s) needs to be modified or
require clarification, they can email at feedback@nextias.com by 5 pm, 17.04.2022.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

For any queries kindy email at: feedback@nextias.com
2 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022
Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
Read the following four passages and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these
items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
Numerous foods are sold at premium prices
because of ‘added-value’ labelling claims related
to specific geographical origins, production
methods and unique characteristics. Origin-
linked products can be part of a virtuous circle
of sustainable quality based on the preservation
of local resources, including agricultural,
artisanal, ethical and nutraceutical labelling —
specifications that add value to food products.
In order to protect consumers from food fraud
and potential unintended food safety issues,
analytical methods are required to verify such
added-value claims.
1. What does the above passage imply?
(a) Improved capability of nations to ensure
product authenticity and identify
fraudulent practices can help protect
manufacturers.
(b) Added-value claims of food products
must be tested for safety issues and as a
safeguard against fraudulent
producers.
(c) Ensuring food manufacturers adhere to
food safety protocols and maintain
ethical compliance is a major challenge.
(d) Countries must build systems to protect
and promote food products with high-
value labelling claims.
Passage – 2
Poorer communities often experience higher-
than-average exposures to air pollution. The
relative contribution of institutional biases to
these disparities can be difficult to disentangle
from other factors. However, using public and
citizen-science ground-based monitor networks
for respirable particulate matter, along with
© Copyright:
satellite records of nitrogen dioxide, we can see
the disproportionate impact of air pollution
especially on low-income communities.
2. On the basis of the above passage, the
following assumptions have been made:
1. Conclusions drawn using citizen-
science based data are usually infallible.
2. Low-income communities often
experience exposure to high levels of
pollution.
Which of the following is/are valid
assumptions?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage – 3
The legal and regulatory frameworks for data
are inadequate, especially in developing nations,
which all too often have gaps in critical
safeguards as well as shortages of data-sharing
measures. There, the data systems and
infrastructure that enable interoperability and
allow data to flow to more users are incomplete;
less than 20 percent of low- and middle-income
countries have modern data infrastructure such
as colocation data centers and direct access to
cloud computing facilities. Even where nascent
data systems and governance frameworks exist,
a lack of institutions with the requisite
administrative capacity holds back their effective
implementation.
3. The keynote that seems to be emerging from
the passage is that
(a) India must establish data protection
institutions with decision-making
autonomy for the effective enforcement
of laws.
(b) Data governance frameworks to
facilitate greater use of data while
safeguarding against misuse remain in
their infancy.
www.nextias.com
 CSAT : Full Syllabus Test-27 | 3

(c) Lower income countries are often not (a) 2006 (b) 2007
disadvantaged because they lack the (c) 2008 (d) 2011
infrastructure to capture data and turn
7. If p, q and r are three integers, which
them into value.
of the following is not a possible value of
(d) Developing a robust data security (p + q)(q – r)(p + r)?
framework is a pressing domestic policy (a) 240 (b) –476
priority that will require strengthening
(c) 225 (d) 336
of the national data systems.
8. A sold a chair to B at 10% profit. B sold it to
Passage – 4 C at 20% profit. If C bought it for Rs. 660,
Undernutrition goes beyond calories and find the price at which A bought the chair.
signifies deficiencies in any or all of the (a) 1200 (b) 1000
following: energy, protein, or essential vitamins
(c) 500 (d) 700
and minerals. Undernutrition is the result of
9. A man rows a boat 18 kilometres in 4 hours
inadequate intake of food in terms of either
downstream and returns upstream in 12
quantity or quality, poor utilization of nutrients
hours. The speed of the stream (in km per
due to infections or other illnesses, or a
hour) is:
combination of these factors. These in turn are
caused by a range of factors including household (a) 1 (b) 1.5
food insecurity; inadequate maternal health or (c) 2 (d) 1.75
childcare practices; or inadequate access to 10. If the following figure is folded to form a
health services, safe water, and sanitation. cube, what would be the letter on the face
4. According to the passage, which of the opposite to the face maked ‘L’?
following is/are true with regards to S
undernutrition?
P L Q N
1. Lack of adequate care during childhood
can cause undernutrition. T

2. Illnesses such are diarrhoea can cause (a) Q (b) N

undernutrition.
(c) T (d) S
3. Low energy is a symptom of
undernutrition. Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
Select the correct answer using the code Read the following four passages and answer
given below. the items that follow. Your answers to these
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only items should be based on the passages only.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 Passage – 1

5. In a certain code ‘KINDLE’ is written as While we will not know the full implications of
‘ELDNIK’ how ‘EXOTIC’ can be written in the COVID-19 pandemic for some time, one
that code? thing is already clear – the value of social
(a) EXIOTC (b) COXITE protection has been unequivocally confirmed.
The pandemic response generated the largest
(c) CXOTIE (d) CITOXE
mobilization of social protection measures ever
6. Which year will have the same calendar as seen, to protect not just people’s health but the
that of 2005? jobs and incomes on which human well-being

© Copyright: www.nextias.com
4 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022
equally depends. As we seek now to create a
human-centred recovery, it is imperative that
countries deploy their social protection systems
as a core element of their rebuilding strategies.
11. Which of the following is/are valid
inference/ inferences that can be made from
the passage?
1. Prior to the pandemic, the value of
social protection was relatively
unknown.
2. Rebuilding strategies can be effective if
they rely upon social protection
systems.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage – 2
87% of employees say that career development
opportunities impact whether or not they will
stay with an organization. Providing a clear
career path with training opportunities
improves employee motivation and builds trust
with the organization. Rather than blindly
finishing vaguely-related tasks, the employee
experience is streamlined into meaningful career
progression. As a result, they may be less likely
to leave, even when offered a higher salary.
12. According to the passage, how can
organizations retain employees?
1. When assigned tasks form a part of
meaningful career progression.
2. Clarity about future intra
organizational career path and
opportunities.
3. Monetary rewards and motivation can
encourage workers to stay.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
© Copyright:
Passage – 3
Research shows that future demand for
transportation services, especially aviation,
might outpace improvements in infrastructure
capacity. More work also needs to be done to
make sure cultural and natural assets are
preserved in the face of growing tourism visits.
While more environmental treaty ratifications
and improvements to sustainability of Travel &
Tourism are encouraging signs, however the
continued rise in deforestation, air pollution and
species endangerments point to potential gaps
between policy and enforcement.
13. What is the most rational and crucial
message implied by the passage?
(a) In the face of increasing demand, Travel
& Tourism policies must seek to protect
cultural and environmental assets.
(b) The increase in pollution treaty
ratifications and technological
improvements to sustainability of
tourism are encouraging signs.
(c) Efforts must be undertaken to augment
infrastructure capacity, especially in the
transport sector.
(d) By developing the aviation sector, India
can meet the rising demand for
transportation services.
Passage – 4
The ‘Business Environment’ pillar captures the
extent to which a country has in place a policy
environment conducive for companies to do
business. Research has found significant links
between economic growth and aspects such as
how well property rights are protected and the
efficiency of the legal framework. Similarly,
distortions in taxation and competition policy—
including both domestic and international
competition— impact the efficiency and
productivity of a country.
www.nextias.com

14. On the basis of the above passage, the
following assumptions have been made:
1. Protection of property rights within a
set legal framework encourages
companies to engage in business.
2. Distortions in the international
competition policy, can lower a nation’s
productivity.
Which of the following is/are valid
assumptions?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. X and Y enter into a partnership for a year.
X invests Rs. 6000, and V invests Rs. 8000.
After 4 mnths, they admit Z, who invests
Rs. 9000. If Y withdraws his contribution
after 6 months, how would they share a
profit of Rs. 1000 at the end of the year?
(a) 350, 300, 350 (b) 375, 250, 375
(c) 400, 300, 300 (d) 100, 600, 300
16. Two trains running at 36 kmph and
45 kmph cross each other in 20 seconds
when they run in the opposite directions.
When the trains run in the same direction,
a person in the faster train observed that
he overtook the slower train in 48 seconds.
Find the lengths of the trains.
(a) 120, 330 (b) 300, 350
(c) 200, 350 (d) 100, 330
17. If the cost of x metres of wire is d rupees,
then what is the cost of y metres of wire at
the same rate?
 yd 
(a) Rs.   (b) Rs. xd
 x 
 xd 
(c) Rs. yd (d) Rs.  
 y 
18. 3 workers can do a piece of work in 20 days.
If one of them works only for half time in a
day. In how many days the work will be
done?
© Copyright:
CSAT : Full Syllabus Test-27 | 5
(a) 24 days (b) 20 days
(c) 22 days (d) 23 days
19. The difference between the length and the
perimeter of a rectangle is 100 cms. What
is the breadth of the rectangle?
(a) 80 cms (b) 60 cms
(c) 100 cms (d) Data Inadequate
20. Find the next number in the given series:
1, 2, 10, 37, 101, ?
(a) 402 (b) 206
(c) 226 (d) 320
Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
Read the following four passages and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these
items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
Even for some high-income countries,
undernutrition is a pressing concern among a
portion of the population. Unfortunately, for
most countries, nationally representative data
are not regularly collected on the prevalence of
undernourishment, child stunting, and child
wasting. While data on child mortality are
usually available for many countries, child
mortality does not necessarily reflect
undernutrition.
21. What does the above passage imply?
(a) People from high income countries do
not necessarily make wiser nutrition
related decisions.
(b) For high income countries and for the
other nations, undernourishment is a
major concern.
(c) The income of nation does not improve
its ability to fight off undernourishment.
(d) Despite the menace of undernutrition,
most countries do not gather data
relevant to it.
www.nextias.com
6 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022
Passage – 2
GDP growth is best understood as a top-line
measure of national economic performance, in
the sense that it is a means to the bottom-line
societal measure of success: broad-based
progress in living standards. However, as many
countries have experienced and the data
illustrate, growth is a necessary but not sufficient
condition for robustly rising median living
standards. Accordingly, policymakers and
citizens alike would benefit from having an
alternative, or at least complementary, bottom-
line metric that measures the level and rate of
improvement in shared socioeconomic progress.
22. On the basis of the above passage, the
following assumptions have been made:
1. A robust rise in median living standards
can be achieved without growth.
2. Steady increase in level and rate of
shared socioeconomic progress is the
real measure of progress.
Which of the following is/are valid
assumptions?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage – 3
The basic human right to determine freely and
responsibly the number and the spacing of one’s
children has been recognized in numerous
international human rights agreements over the
past five decades. Despite this, even today nearly
half of all pregnancies are unintended.
23. On the basis of the above passage, the
following assumptions have been made:
1. Better protection of the right to
determine number of children should
help reduce the number of unintended
pregnancies.
2. Unintended pregnancies usually
happen in countries where women’s
rights are ignored.
© Copyright:
Which of the following is/are valid
assumptions?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage – 4
The large informal economy in many developing
countries is impairing the efficacy of some policy
instruments, since informal enterprises have
been less able to access formal lines of credit or
COVID-19-related government support. Thus
relief measures have been less likely to reach
those in need, and inequities within countries
have worsened. Smaller businesses have
experienced greater declines in employment and
working hours than have larger ones.
24. The keynote that seems to be emerging from
the passage is that
(a) though smaller businesses have
experienced more loss of employees;
they have better survived the pandemic.
(b) due to the impact of the pandemic,
countries with larger informal
economies have fared worse than
others.
(c) pandemic disruptions, structural
deficiencies and new risks reduce the
potential for decent work to be created.
(d) underlying structural deficiencies and
inequalities are amplifying and
prolonging the impact of the pandemic.
25. How many pairs of letters are there in the
word “CASTRAPHONE” which have as
many letters betweeen them in the word as
in the alphabet?
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6
26. How much 4-digit number can be formed
from the digits 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 which are
divisible by 5 in such a way that digits
should not repeat.
www.nextias.com
 CSAT : Full Syllabus Test-27 | 7

(a) 25 (b) 30 create millions of decent jobs across a host of

(c) 35 (d) 60 new supply chains. To make this a reality,
government leaders in must play their part by
27. The average of runs of a cricket player of
making the 2020s a decade of massive clean
10 innings was 32. How many runs he
energy deployment.
make in his next innings so as to increase
his average of runs by 4? 31. Which one of the following is the most
(a) 76 (b) 79 logical and rational inference that can be
(c) 85 (d) 87 made from the above passage?
(a) Transition to clean energy can be major
28. Compound interests earned on a sum for
socioeconomic opportunity, provided
second and third years are Rs. 1,200 and
Rs. 1,440 respectively. Find the rate of countries deploy massive clean energy
interest. Also find the sum. projects.
(a) 18% p.a.; Rs. 6,000 (b) For those manufacturing products
related to clean energy technology,
(b) 20% p.a.; Rs. 5,000
transition to clean energy would be a
(c) 20% p.a.; Rs. 6,000
huge opportunity.
(d) 24% p.a.; Rs. 5,000
(c) The pledges made by governments to
1 1 reduce emissions should be met through
2
29. If x  2 = 34,
x  is equal to deployment of massive clean energy.
x x
(d) The potential prize is huge for those
(a) 3 (b) 4
who make the leap to the new energy
(c) 5 (d) None of these economy.
30. If 16 ÷ 4 = 74 Passage – 2
21 ÷ 7 = 33 The unpredictability of the future development
81 ÷ 9 = 99 of the pandemic itself, and of the responses that
then 55 ÷ 5 = ? will be chosen by governments and societies,
makes uncertain all projections of the future. The
(a) 110 (b) 1001
crisis may turn out to have permanently
(c) 11 (d) 1011
damaged the fabric of the economy and the
Directions for the following 4 (four) items: labour market to a greater extent than currently
Read the following four passages and answer expected, making any process of recovery more
the items that follow. Your answers to these difficult. Furthermore, macroeconomic risk
items should be based on the passages only. factors increase the risk of a prolonged jobs crisis.

Passage – 1 32. On the basis of the above passage, the

Reaching the critical but formidable goal of net
zero emissions by 2050 will require major efforts
from across society – but it also offers major
advantages in terms of human health and
economic development. A new global energy
economy is emerging, with the potential to
following assumptions have been made:
1. The economy and the labour market
have suffered equally.
2. Avoiding a prolonged job crisis requires
tackling the associated macroeconomic
risk factors.

© Copyright: www.nextias.com
8 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022
Which of the following is/are valid
assumptions?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage – 3
In international relations context, competition
can be understood as a state of antagonistic
relations short of direct armed conflict between
actors, which reflects three basic distinguishing
factors: perceived contention, an effort to gain
mutual advantage, and pursuit of some
outcome or good that is not generally available.
This implies a common pursuit of power,
influence, prosperity, and status at the same time
when others are also seeking those things and
when supply is limited.
33. The most rational implication made by the
passage is that
(a) competitive behaviour is based on
seeking relative advantage by injuring
other parties.
(b) competition in international affairs
stems from limited supply of power and
prosperity.
(c) in the sphere of international relations
there are no real allies.
(d) internationally, competition boils down
to whether there is any point of
perceived contention between actors.
Passage – 4
That India’s rooftop solar sector is ailing comes
as no surprise. While rooftop solar has
significant potential in India, the sector has
lagged behind due to many factors including a
focus on mega solar power projects. A shift in
policy from centralised projects to decentralised
rooftop solar projects, and by focusing on the
concept of industrial rooftop solar can boost
growth in the sector.
© Copyright:
34. According to the passage, which of the
following are the methods that can help
India’s ailing rooftop solar sector?
1. Applying uniform power policies
nationally, at least until rooftop solar
sector improves.
2. Large scale rooftop solar projects.
3. Making policy changes to aid
decentralised rooftop solar projects.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
35. If ‘x’ stands for ‘addition’, ‘<‘ for
‘subtraction’, ‘+’ for division’, ‘>’ for
‘multiplication’, ‘–’ for ‘equal to’, ‘  ’ for
‘greater than’ and ‘=’ for ‘less than’ then
which of the following statement is true?
(a) 3 × 4 > 2 – 9 + 3 < 3
(b) 5 × 3 < 7  8 + 4 × 1
(c) 5 > 2 + 2 = 10 < 4 × 8
(d) 3 × 2 < 4  16 > 2 + 4
36. How many triangles are there in the given
figure?
(a) 11 (b) 12 or more
(c) 9 (d) 10
37. There are two buildings P and Q. If 15
persons are sent from P to Q, then the
number of persons in each building is the
same. If 20 persons are sent from Q to P,
then the number of persons in P is double
the number of persons in Q. How many
persons are there in building P?
www.nextias.com
 CSAT : Full Syllabus Test-27 | 9

(a) 140 (b) 90 Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 80 (d) 120 given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
38. In the given figure, how many people like
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
all the three games?
Passage – 2
Cricket 9
National identities matter in strategic
17
12 15 competition. Identities—which are socially
8
Hockey 6 21 constructed, contested, and malleable and are
Tennis
not natural or fixed—are the fundamental filter
(a) 17 (b) 32 through which countries contextualize their
(c) 15 (d) 27 competitive positioning. National identity can
influence state behaviour directly and indirectly
39. What is the largest 4 digit number exactly
in any number of ways. Its importance stems in
divisible by 88?
part from its role in the collective memory—
(a) 9944 (b) 9900
emotion-laden understandings of history shared
(c) 9988 (d) 9999 by members of a group. For example, collective
40. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% memories of events—such as the Partition—
more than a third number. The ratio of the shape perspectives and decisions of Indians born
two number is: long after the events happened. Shared
(a) 2:5 (b) 3:5 memories provide the foundation for group
identity. In a more palpable way, national
(c) 4:5 (d) 5:4
identity can also constrain state actions: The role
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: of Germany and Japan in the emerging
Read the following four passages and answer competitive environment, for example, is limited
the items that follow. Your answers to these by the ingrained attitudes of the post-war
items should be based on the passages only. identities of these two countries.
Passage – 1 42. On the basis of the above passage, the
The U.N. health agency says nearly everybody following assumptions have been made:
in the world breathes air that doesn’t meet its 1. National identities, which are subject to
standards for air quality, calling for more action change, can directly affect actions of the
to reduce fossil-fuel use, which generates state.
pollutants that cause respiratory and blood-flow
2. Emotion based interpretation of
problems and lead to millions of preventable
historical events by citizens can shape
deaths each year.
national identity.
41. Which of the following is/are valid Which of the following is/are valid
inference/ inferences that can be made from assumptions?
the passage?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. 99% of the global population breathes
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
air that exceeds air-quality limits.
2. Due to exposure to poor air quality 43. Which of the following is/are valid
almost everyone may be vulnerable to inference/ inferences that can be made from
health concerns. the passage?

© Copyright: www.nextias.com
10 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022

1. Not only can national identities help (a) 1/2 (b) 3/5
nations compete internationally, they (c) 9/20 (d) 8/5
can also act as a limiting factor.
2. A strategically constructed national 46. What is the smallest natural number with
identity can help nations compete. which 1080 should be multiplied to make
it a perfrct cube?
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (a) 50 (b) 75
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 100 (d) 25
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 47. A piece of paper is folded and punched as
Passage – 3 shown below in the question figures. From
Just as the gap in basic living standards is the given answer figures, indicate how it
narrowing, with an unprecedented number of will appear when opened?
people in the world escaping poverty, hunger
and disease, the abilities people will need to
compete in the immediate future have evolved.
A new gap has opened, such as in tertiary
education and access to broadband—
opportunities once considered luxuries that are (a) (b)
now considered critical to compete and belong,
particularly in a knowledge economy, where an
increasing number of young people are
educated, connected and stuck with no ladder (c) (d)
of choices to move up.

44. Which one of the following is the most

48. A train runs at the speed of 72 kmph and
logical and rational inference that can be
made from the above passage? crosses a 250 metre long platform in 26
secnds. What is the length of the train?
(a) Access to broadband which earlier was
considered a luxury today is considered (a) 340 metre (b) 270 metre
critical for companies to compete. (c) 130 metre (d) 210 metre
(b) To reduce the gap in tertiary education
49. C is the brother of D, A is the husband of B,
and access to education, free schooling
B is the mother of C, E is the wife of D. How
initiatives can help.
is B related to E?
(c) Just as the gap in living standards is
reducing another gap has opened: (a) Mother (b) Father
between educated and employed. (c) Mother-in-law (d) Father-in-law
(d) As society progresses and people’s lives 50. Two cyclists simultaneously start from A
improve, the abilities people will need to B and B to A, respectively. They cross
to compete in the immediate future also
each other after a time t hours.
evolve.
t1  t 2 2t 1 t 2
45. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and (a) t  (b) t  t  t
2 1 2
then a ticket is drawn at random. What is
the probability that the ticket drawn has a t2  t1
(c) t  t 1 t 2 (d) t 
number which is a multiple of 3 or 5? 2

© Copyright: www.nextias.com

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:
Read the following four passages and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these
items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
Farmers’ cultivation choices affect the natural
cycles of crops and impact their production. By
assessing the farming activities, as influenced by
crop types, land suitability and cultivation
choices, the effectiveness of agricultural
practices in terms of environmental impact can
be evaluated. The study of the relationships
between agriculture, environment and
economic performance should be deepened, by
considering the connection between agricultural
activities and the use of natural resources beyond
the economic issues.
51. On the basis of the above passage, the
following assumptions have been made:
1. To accurately measure the
environmental outcome of agricultural
practices, assessing cultivation choices
is most beneficial.
2. Economically rewarding agricultural
activities can negatively impact the
ecosystem.
Which of the following is/are valid
assumptions?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage – 2
With rising human demand, the availability of
biological resources such cropland, pastures,
fishing grounds, and forests is limiting prospects
for sustainable peace and development more
than ever before. Humanity’s use of these
resources exceeds what our planet regenerates
– its bio-capacity – by at least 73 per cent. The
effects of this ecological overshoot are visible in
climate change, groundwater depletion, soil
© Copyright:
CSAT : Full Syllabus Test-27 | 11
erosion, fisheries collapse, deforestation, and
other planetary boundaries. This overshoot will
not continue indefinitely; it will end either by
design or disaster.
52. With reference to the above passage, which
of the following could be the most rational
and practical implications for India?
1. India must put in place measures which
restrict over exploitation of fishing
grounds.
2. Designing a solution for the problem of
overshoot is required.
3. Through activities like afforestation,
India can improve its bio-capacity.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
Passage – 3
Upskilling employees have many advantages,
all of which can positively affect the long-term
value of the company. Investing in your
workforce can pay dividends, not just through
cost savings but also by fostering a curious and
productive company culture.
53. Which of the following is most definitively
implied by the above passage?
(a) A curious and productive company
culture can help increase the long-term
value of the company.
(b) Upskilling employees is a major
investment for companies which helps
them become profitable.
(c) Rather than hire someone for a new
skill, upskilling an existing employee
can be more effective.
(d) Offering professional development
opportunities is one way to create a
win-win for the company and workers.
www.nextias.com
12 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022
Passage – 4
Today’s unprecedented growth of data and their
ubiquity in our lives are signs that the data
revolution is transforming the world. And yet
much of the value of data remains untapped.
Data collected for one purpose have the
potential to generate economic and social value
in applications far beyond those originally
anticipated. But many barriers stand in the way,
ranging from misaligned incentives and
incompatible data systems to a fundamental
lack of trust. Policymakers must explore the
tremendous potential of the changing data
landscape to improve the lives of poor people,
while also acknowledging its potential to open
back doors that can harm individuals,
businesses, and societies. To address this tension
between the helpful and harmful potential of
data, calls for a new social contract, that enables
the use and reuse of data to create economic
and social value, ensures equitable access to that
value, and fosters trust that data will not be
misused in harmful ways.
54. Which one of the following is the most
logical and rational inference that can be
made from the above passage?
(a) A new social contract will help
overcome the fundamental lack of trust
between individuals, businesses and
societies with regards to use of data.
(b) Misaligned incentives and incompatible
data systems stand in the way of
policymakers trying to address this dual
impact of data.
(c) The value of data that is yet untapped
can be accessed based on the data
protection systems that will be devised.
(d) The use and impact of data on society
that was originally anticipated was
much lower than what it actually is.
55. Which one of the following statements best
sums up the above passage?
© Copyright:
(a) Unless the incompatibility of data
systems across the world is not
addressed, realising the full value of
data would not be possible.
(b) The more data are reused, the greater is
the risk of data misuse especially in areas
like cybercrime and the potential for
surveillance.
(c) Renewed efforts are required to improve
data governance domestically, as well
as through closer international
cooperation.
(d) To optimize safety, equitability and
economic value of the use of data,
individuals, businesses and societies
must come to an agreement
56. On a certain sum of money the compound
interest Rs. 318 is earned in 2 years. If the
rate of interest is 12%, what is the principal
amount?
(a) Rs. 1250 (b) Rs. 1300
(c) Rs. 1200 (d) Rs. 1150
57. 20 buckets can fill a tank when the capacity
of each bucket is 12 liters. If the capacity of
each bucket is 10 liters, find the number of
buckets required to fill the tank.
(a) 30 buckets (b) 34 buckets
(c) 24 buckets (d) 27 buckets
58. Vinit, Karan, Santosh and Sid participated
in a race. No two people ran with the same
speed. Speed of Karan is more than that of
Santosh and Sid finished the race before
Vinit finished. It is known that Karan did
not finish the race before Vinit. The speed
of which person is the lowest?
(a) Vinit (b) Karan
(c) Santosh (d) Sid
59. 25 outlets working 6 hours a day, can empty
a reservoir in 10 days. If only 15 outlets are
operational and work for 4 hours a day, in
www.nextias.com

how many days the reservoir can be
emptied?
(a) 20 days (b) 18 days
(c) 22 days (d) 25 days
60. What is the greatest possible length which
can be used to measure exactly the lengths
8 m, 4 m 20 cm and 12 m 20 cm?
(a) 30 cm (b) 25 cm
(c) 20 cm (d) 10 cm
61. A person travels a distance of 7 km towards
east from his house, then travels 7 km
towards north and then a distance of 7 km
towards east and finally 7 km towards
north. What is the vertical distance travelled
by him?
(a) 14 km (b) 17 km
(c) 21 km (d) 7 km
62. A contract is to be completed in 56 days if
104 persons work, each working at 8 hours
2 are infertile and would never hatch under any
a day. After 30 days, of the work is
5
completed. How many additional persons
should be deployed so that the work will
be completed in the scheduled time, each
persons now working 9 hours a day.
(a) 160 (b) 24
(c) 150 (d) 56
Directions for the following 3 (three) items:
Read the following three passages and answer
the items that follow. Your answers to these
items should be based on the passages only.
Passage 1
Humans evolved from Homo Sapiens in Europe
and Homo Erectus in Asia. These species shared
an identical genetic code, yet the tools used by
them differed vastly. Therefore, historians
conclude that the difference in tools was due to
the respective requirements for the survival of
these two species.
63. Which of the following is the most logical
and rational inference that can be made
from the above passage?
© Copyright:
CSAT : Full Syllabus Test-27 | 13
(a) Homo Sapiens couldn’t have survived
had they used tools similar to the ones
used by Homo Erectus.
(b) Homo sapiens and homo Erectus
seldom had any contact with each
other.
(c) Homo sapiens who had more easy
access to food built tools that did not
have the range that the tools built by
homo Erectus possessed.
(d) There are more similarities than
differences between homo sapiens and
homo Erectus.
Passage 2
Since consuming an egg cuts off its growth into
a chicken, most people believe that chicken egg
is non-vegetarian food. However, only brown
free-range eggs, which constitute a small
proportion of chicken eggs, are fertile. The rest
of the chicken eggs – which are white in color –
conditions. Therefore, white chicken-eggs are
vegetarian in nature.
64. Which of the following is the most logical
and rational inference that can be made
from the above passage?
(a) Seeds, which cannot grow into plants
but can provide nourishment to
humans, are considered vegetarian.
(b) Any animal product that is fertile cannot
be considered vegetarian.
(c) When an animal product is deemed
infertile, it is considered to be vegetarian.
(d) Some brown free-range eggs can also
be infertile and some of the white eggs
can be fertile.
Passage 3
Triumba birds reside in the polar regions and
need to migrate to warmer areas in winters since
winters in the polar regions are not conducive
to the survival of the birds. In recent years,
because of some unanticipated genetic changes,
the flying capability of the birds has been
www.nextias.com
14 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022

declining and is expected to continue to do so 68. If the expenditure on education is Rs. 1600
in the future. more than that on housing, then the
65. On the basis of the above passage following expenditure on food is
inferences have been made: (a) Rs. 12000 (b) Rs. 6000
1. If Triumba birds don’t develop (c) Rs. 3333 (d) Rs. 7000
measures to counter adversarial genetic
69. If the monthly income is Rs. 36000, then
changes, they face a likelihood of
the yearly savings is
extinction.
(a) Rs. 70000 (b) Rs. 72000
2. Over the past few years, some of the
Triumba birds would not have flown (c) Rs. 60000 (d) Rs. 74000
back to the polar regions because of
70. What is the number of ways in which two
limited flying ability.
faces of a cuboid of dimensions 6 cm × 7
3. Unless Triumba birds develop an ability cm × 8 cm can be painted in green colour?
to live in the polar regions during
(a) 2 (b) 3
winter, they will be extinct in some
time. (c) 4 (d) 6

Which of the above inferences is/are valid? 71. In what ratio must tea worth Rs. 60 per kg
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only be mixed with tea worth Rs. 65 a kg such
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only that by selling the mixture at Rs. 68.20 a
kg, there can be a gain 10%?
66. Find the missing code in the given series:
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 4
UUWX : WWYZ : : OOQR : ?
(c) 3 : 2 (d) 4 : 3
(a) OOPG (b) MMPQ
72. In the following question, a word is
(c) XXYZ (d) QQST
represented by a set of numbers as given in
Direction for questions (67 to 69): The pie-chart any one of the alternatives. The sets of
given below shows the expenditure incurred by numbers given in the alternatives are
a family on various items and their savings. represented by alphabets as in the matrices
Study the chart and answer the questions based given below. The columns and rows of
on the pie-chart. matrix are numbered from 1 to 6. A letter
from these matrices can be represented first
by its row and next by its column number,
Education
Food
70° e.g., ‘A’ can be represented by 42, ‘S’ can
120°
Others
be represented by 21, etc. Similarly, you
36° have to identify the set for the word ‘PLAY’.
Savings
5 4 ° ing

h
ot 60° 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Cl 20°
us

1 H R E I P S
Ho

2 S G N D Z I
67. The ratio of expenditure on food to savings 3 B U F T K L
is 4 V A P C Y A
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 10 : 9 5 H W C O X N
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 6 B A E I L Q

© Copyright: www.nextias.com
 CSAT : Full Syllabus Test-27 | 15

(a) 43, 36, 42, 23 (b) 43, 32, 33, 33 77. In a given time, a boat can travel down the
(c) 15, 12, 42, 45 (d) 43, 65, 62, 45 1
stream a distance, which is 2 times that
2
73. Find the value of of the upstream travel. If the speed of the
(8 (8 (8 (8 (8 (8 (8.....n . boat in still water is 14 kmph, find the speed
of the stream.
(a) 4 (b) 2
(a) 12 km/h (b) 16 km/h
(c) 64 (d) 8 (c) 8 km/h (d) 6 km/h

74. Three forms of a dics are shown below. In 78. Shyam purchased some goods for Rs. 1800.
this side which digit will be on the surface He sold one-third of the goods purchased
opposite to the digit 3? at 20% loss. Find the profit percentage at
which the rest of the goods must be sold to
2 3 4
3 5 3 realize an overall profit of 20%.
1 1 2
(a) 23% (b) 50%
(i) (ii) (iii)
(c) 40% (d) 37%
(a) 1 (b) 6
Directons for questions 79 and 80: These
(c) 4 (d) 5 questions are based on the following
75. Two numbers when divided by a divisor information.
leave remainders of 248 and 372. The Among the seven people, namely Maggi,
remainder obtained when the sum of the Cherry, Prachi, Toto, Saxena, Gaddar and
numbers is divided by the same divisor is Basanti, Sitting around a circular table.
68. Find the divisor. (i) Toto is adjacent to neither Prachi nor
(a) 276 Basanti.
(b) 552 (ii) Maggi is two places away to the right of
Saxena.
(c) 414
(iii) Cherry is adjacent to both Basanti and
(d) Cannot be determined
Saxena.
76. (iv) Gaddar is not adjacent to Basanti.
79. Who is sitting four places away to the left
186 of Cherry?
60 564
(a) Gaddar (b) Maggi
(c) Toto (d) Prachi
18 1698
? 80. Who is sitting on the 3rd position to Saxena’s
right?
(a) 5052 (b) 5100 (a) Gaddar (b) Prachi
(c) 5094 (d) 4860 (c) Basanti (d) Data inadequate

© Copyright: www.nextias.com
16 | CSE (Prelims) Test Series-2022

CSATROUGH WORK
Test-6 Explanation

© Copyright: www.nextias.com