ELEMENTS OF MATHEMATICS, ENGINEERING ECONOMICS

AND BASIC SCIENCES 20. When an imaginary number is raised to an even exponent it
becomes what?
ALGEBRA a. negative imaginary number b. real number
c. infinite d. relatively small
1. What is the absolute value of a non zero number? number
a. always negative c. sometimes zero and
sometimes positive 21. The prefix nano has the same equivalent to:
b. always positive d. always zero a. 10 to the -3 power c. 10 to the -9 power
b. 10 to the -6 power d. 10 to the -12 power
2. What do you call a product of several prime number occurring in
the denominators, each taken when its greatest multiplicity? 22. Tera is opposite to:
a. least square c. least product a. giga c. nano
b. least common multiple d. least common denominator b. pico d. deka

3. The numbers between two geometric terms is called: 23. What kind of property in real number is A + (B + C) = (A + B) +
a. arithmetic means c. median C?
b. geometric means d. means a. associative c. cumulative
b. distributive d. productive
4. What is the value of the determinant if the corresponding
elements of two rows of a determinant are proportional?
24. The prefix nano is opposite to:
a. indeterminate c. zero
a. Mega c. Tera
b. infinite d. one
b Giga d. Hexa
5. What do you call any combination of symbols and numbers
25. b to the m/n th power =
related by the fundamental operation of algebra?
a. n th root of b to the m power
a. term c. numeral
b. b to the m + n power
b. algebraic expression d. algebraic sum
c. 1/n square root of b to the m power
d. b to the m power over n
6. The ratio of successful outcomes over the total possible outcomes
is called:
26. The logarithm of a negative number is:
a. speculation c. probability
a. irrational number c. real number
b. combination d. permutation
b. imaginary number d. complex number
7. What do you call a number when it is written as a product of a
27. In a quadratic equation if the quantity under the radical is equal
number having the decimal point just after the leading digit, and a
to “0”, the roots are :
power of ten?
a. imaginary number c. complex and unequal
a. exponential c. scientific notation
b. real and unequal d. real and equal
b. irrational d. logarithm
28. 10 to the 12 th power is the value of the prefix:
8. What is a statement containing one or more variables and having
a. micro c. tera
the property that it becomes either true or false when the variables
b.femto d. atto
are given specific values from their domains?
a. worded problems c. solution
29. How many significant digits do 10.097 have?
b. problem d. open sentence
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5
9. What is the difference between an approximate value of a
quantity and its exact value?
30. Log M – log N is equal to:
a. mistake c. relative change
a. Log MN c. Log M / N
b. absolute error d. relative error
b. Log (M – N) d. Log (N – M)
10. If equality is true for all values of the variable, it is what?
31.It is the characteristic of a population which is measurable.
a. conditional equality c. non conditional inequality
a. sample c. frequency
b. equivalent equality d. absolute inequality
b. parameter d. distribution
11. A sequence 1,5,12,22,35,…………. Is known as what?
32. Convergent series is a sequence of decreasing numbers or when
a. pyramidal numbers c. cubic numbers
the succeeding term is __________ than the preceding term.
b. oblong numbers d. pentagonal numbers
a. greater c. equal
b. none of these d. lesser
12. What do you call the first and fourth terms in the proportion of
four quantities?
33. A sequence of numbers where the succeeding term is greater
a. numerators c. means
than the preceding term is called:
b. extremes d. denominators
a. dissonant series c. isometric series
b. convergent series d. divergent series
13. What is the theorem which states that if n > 2, the equation x n

+ y n = z n cannot be solve in positive integers x, y and z?

34. In complex algebra, we use diagram to represent complex plane
a. Mersenne Theorem c. Fermat’s Last Theorem
commonly called:
b. Goldbach Theorem d. Pythagorean Theorem
a. Argand diagram c. Funicular diagram
b. Venn diagram d. D’Moiver’s diagram
14. It is any of the digits from 1 to 9 inclusive, and 0 except when it
is used to place a decimal.
35. The graphical representation of the cumulative frequency
a. decimal number c. numeral
distribution in a set of statistical data is called:
b. leading digit d. significant figure
a. ogive c. frequency distribution
b. histogram d. mass diagram
15. What do you call a polynomial which is exactly divisible by two
or more polynomials?
36. Terms that differs only numeric coefficients are called:
a. factors c. binomial
a. unequal terms c. like terms
b. common multiple d. least common denominator
b. unlike terms d. equal terms
16. What do you call an equation in which because of same
37. In mathematics, an array of m x n quantities which represent a
mathematical process, has acquired an extra root?
single number system composed of elements in rows and columns is
a. linear equation c. literal equation
known as:
b. defective equation d. redundant equation
a. determinant c. adjoint of a matrix
b. inverse matrix d. multiple matrix
17. What is the expression of two terms?
a. binomial c. doumial
38. The characteristic is equal to the exponent 10, when the
b. monomial d. polynomial
number is written in:
a. exponential c. logarithmic
18. Which of the following cannot be a base for a logarithm?
b. scientific notation d. irrational
a. 0 c. e
b. 10 d. 1
39. The number 0.123123123123…… is:
a. irrational c. rational
19. For a cubic equation, we produce three distinct roots only if the
b. surd d. transcendental
discriminant is what?
a. equal to zero c. either less than or greater than zero
b. less than zero d. greater than zero
40. Two or more equations are equal if and only if they have the 58. A statement the truth of which is admitted without proof is
same: called:
a. solution set c. order a. postulate c. theorem
b. degree d. variable set b. axiom d. corollary

41. In any square matrix, when the elements of any two rows are 59. The probability of an event B occurring when it is known that the
exactly the same, the determinant is: same event A has occurred is called:
a. zero c. negative integer a. independent probability c. dependent probability
b. positive integer d. unity b. exclusive probability d. conditional
probability
42. The ratio or product of two expressions in direct or inverse
relation with each other is called: 60. Which of the following non-terminating decimals is rational?
a. ratio and proportion c. means a. 3.14149265…… c. 2.470470…..
b. constant variation d. extremes b. 1.141421356…… d. 2.71828182…

43. The logarithm of a number to the base e is called: 61. Any number multiplied by ___________ equals unity.
a. Naperian logarithm c. Mantissa a. infinity c. its reciprocal
b. Characteristic d. Briggsian proportion b. itself d. zero
62. If every element of a column (or row) of a square matrix is
44. ___________ is a sequence of terms whose reciprocals form an multiplied by m, the determinant of the matrix will be:
Arithmetic progression. a. unchanged c. it depends
a. Naperian progression c. algebraic progression b. multiplied by m d. none of these
b. harmonic progression d. ration and proportion
63. In probability theory, the set of possible outcomes of an
experiment is termed as:
45. The logarithm of 1 to any base is:
a. sample space c. set of random
a. indeterminate c. infinity
variables
b. one d. zero
b. fuzzy set d. set of random events
46. Naperian logarithms have a base closest to which number?
64. 27, 9, 3, 1/3……….. is what type of progression?
a. 153 c. 2.72
a. arithmetic c. harmonic
b. 162 d. 10
b. geometric d. power
47. As we arrange the a number which are of “n” objects in a given
65. Which of the following cannot be used as a base of a system of
order taken r at a time, the result will be a:
logarithm?
a. combination c. progression
a. e c. 2
b. sequence d. permutation
b. 10 d. 1
48. The number equivalent to the value of the constant “e” is known
as:
a. Fermat’s number c. Fibonacci’s number
PLANE AND SPHERICAL GEOMETRY
b. Euler’s number d. Naperian number
1. Part of the theorem which is assumed to be true.
49. According to this rule, the number of positive roots of an
equation, especially polynomials, is equal to the number of variation
a. hypothesis c. proportion
in the sign of f(x) or less by an even number, i.e., if there are 7
b. synthesis d. postulate
variations in sign, there could be either 7, 5, 3, 0r 1 positive roots:
a. Fermat’s rule of sign c. Euler’s rule of sign
2. An oblique equilateral parallelogram:
b. Bernoulli’s rule of sign d. Descartes rule of sign
a. square c. rhombus
b. rectangle d. recession
50. In statistical sampling of a heterogeneous population, the whole
population is classified and grouped into smaller homogeneous
3. A rectangle with equal sides is:
grouping and systematic or random sampling may then be applied:
a. rectangle c. square
a. cluster sampling c. multi-stage sampling
b. polygon d. trapezoid
b. quota sampling d. stratified sampling
4. A plane closed curve, all points of which are the same distance
51. Two matrices are considered to be conformable for addition if
from a point within,
they have:
called the center is:
a. the same order and variation
a. hyperbola c. ellipse
b. the same order, number of rows and columns
b. circle d. parabola
c. either a or b
d. equal co-factors
5. If equals are added to equals, the sum is equal.
a. theorem c. axiom
52. In an experiment conducted such as tossing a coin or a die
b. postulate d. corollary
several times or observing the outcomes of the repeated trails, we
have to consider the chances of occurrence or non-occurrence in a
6. A statement the truth of which follows with little or no proof from
single trial. The probability that an event w2ill occur exactly “r”
a theorem.
times out of “n” trials maybe computed using:
a. axiom c. conclusion
a. Diophantine Formula
b. hypothesis d. corollary
b. Bernoulli’s binomial formula
c. Stirling’s approximation formula
7. A rectangle whose sides are equal.
d. Fibonacci’s formula
a. square c. rhombus
b. trapezoid d. parallelogram
53. The quartile deviation is a measure of:
a. division c. central tendency
8. A plane with closed broken line.
b. multiplication d. dispersion
a. sector c. polygon
b. arc d. circle
54. Which of the following can not be an operation of matrices?
a. subtraction c. addition
9. A polygon having five sides.
b. multiplication d. division
a. square c. triangle
b. hexagon d. pentagon
55. In the quadratic equation Ax2 + B + C = 0, the product of the
roots is: 10. The volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the product of the
a. –C/A c. C/A base and altitude.
b. –B/A d. B/A a. axiom c. theorem
b. postulate d. corollary
56. If a = b and b = c, then a = c. This property of real numbers is
known as: 11. The study of the properties of figures of three dimensions.
a. reflexive property c. transitive property a. physics c. solid geometry
b. symmetric property d. addition property b. plane geometry d. trigonometry

57. If a = b and b = a. This property of real numbers is known as: 12. One fourth of a great circle.
a. reflexive property c. transitive property a. cone c. quadrant
b. symmetric property d. addition property b. circle d. sphere

13. The sum of the sides of a polygon.

 a. perimeter c. square 33. A polyhedron having bases two polygons in parallel planes and
b. hexagon d. circumference for lateral faces triangles or trapezoids with one side lying one base
and the opposite vertex or side lying in the other baseof a
14. Hexahedron has __________ faces. polyhedron:
a. 6 c. 4 a. rectangular parallelepiped c. pyramid
b. 20 d. 8 b. cone d. prismatoid

15. When two planes intersect with each other, the amount of 34. According to this theorem, the volume of a solid generated by
divergence between two revolving an area about a given line is equal to the area multiplied
planes is expressed by measuring the: by the circumference of the circle traced by the centroid of an area.
a. dihedral angle c. polyhedral angle a. first proposition of pappus
b. plane angle d. reflex angle b. fermat’s theorem
c. stroke’s theorem
16. In plane geometry, the apothem of a polygon is what of the d. second proposition of pappus
inscribed circle.
a. area c. arc 35. A line segment joining two points on a circle is called:
b. diameter d. radius a. arc c. sector
b. tangent d. chord
17. A five pointed star is known as:
a. pentagon c. pentagram 36. If a regular polygon has 27 diagonals, then it is a:
b. pentatron d. quintagram a. nonagon c. heptagon
b. hexagon d. pentagon
18. The median of a triangle is the line connecting the vertex and
the midpoint of the opposite side. For a given triangle, these 37. In a regular, polygon, the perpendicular line drawn from the
medians intersect at a point which is called the: center of the inscribed circle to any one of the sides is called:
a. orthocenter c. centroid a. apothem c. radius
b. circumcenter d. incenter b. median d. altitude

19. The altitude of the sides of the triangle intersect at the point 38. A polygon with 12 sides is called:
known as: a. bidecagon c. dodecagon
a. orthocenter c. centroid b. nonagon d. pentedecagon
b. circumcenter d. incenter
39. Two geometric shapes are said to be _________ when they have
20. The arc length equal to the radius of the circle is called: the same size and shapes.
a. 1 radian c. centroid a. identical c. similar
b. 1 quarter circle d. incenter b. symmetrical d. congruent

21. The area bounded by the two concentric circles is called: 40. In plane geometry, two circular arcs that together make up a full
a. ring c. annulus circle are called:
b. disk d. sector a. coterminal arcs c. half arcs
b. conjugate arcs d. congruent arcs
22. It is a polyhedron of which two faces are equal polygons in
parallel planes and the 41. A line drawn from one angle of a triangle dividing its opposite
other faces are parallelogram. side equally into two.
a. tetrahedron c. frustum a. bisector c. median
b. prism d. primatoid b. apothem d. neutral axis
42. A polygon is ________ if no side , when extended, will pass
23. In geometry, prisms are named according to their: through the interior of a polygon.
a. diagonals c. areas a. convex c. isoperimetric
b. sides d. bases b. equilateral d. congruent

24. When two planes intersect with each other, the amount of 43. The section of the sphere cut by a plane through its center is
divergence between two termed as:
planes is expressed by measuring the: a. small circle c. big circle
a. reflex angle c. polyhedral angle b. incircle d. great circle
b. dihedral angle d. plane angle
44. A part of a line included between two points:
25. Polygons are classified according to the number of: a. tangent c. sector
a. vertices c. diagonals b. secant d. segment
b. sides d. angles
45. Lines that pass through a common point are called:
26. In plain geometry, two circular arcs that together make up a full a. collinear c. concurrent
circle are called: b. coplanar d. congruent
a. coterminal arcs c. half arcs
b. conjugate arcs d. congruent 46. Points which lie on the same plane, are called:
arcs a. collinear c. concurrent
b. coplanar d. congruent
27. The studies of the properties of figures of three dimensions:
a. Physics c. Solid 47. A quadrilateral whose opposite sides are equal is generally
Geometry termed as:
b. Plane Geometry d. a. square c. rhombus
Trigonometry b. rectangle d.
parallelogram
28. A plane closed curve, all points which are the same distance
from a point within, called the center. 48. A line that meets a plane but no perpendicular to it, in relation
a. arc c. circle to the plane is:
b. radius d. chord a. parallel c. coplanar
b. collinear d. oblique
29. One fourth of a great circle is:
a. cone c. quadrant 49. A quadrilateral with two and only two sides of which are parallel
b. circle d. sphere is called:
a. parallelogram c. quadrilateral
30. a polygon with fifteen sides is termed as: b. trapezoid d. rhombus
a. dodecagon c. pentedecagon
b. decagon d. nonagon 50. A triangle having three equal sides is called:
a. equilateral triangle c. isosceles
31. All circles having the same center but with unequal radii are triangle
called: b. scalene triangle d. right
a. encircles c. concyclic triangle
b. tangent circles d. concentric circles

32. A regular polygon with 54 diagonals is called:

a. bidecagon c. icosahedron TRIGONOMETRY
b. pentedecagon d. dodecagon
1. To find the angle of a triangle, given only the lengths of the sides,
one would use:
 a. law of tangent c. orthogonal function 21. The tangent function is negative in quadrant:
b. law of sines d. law of cosines a. I and III c. I and IV
b. IV only d. III only
2. Which is true regarding the signs of the natural functions for
angles between 90 deg and 180 deg? 22. The cotangent function is negative in quadrant:
a. cosine is negative c. cotangent is a. III only c. II and IV
positive b. I and III d. IV only
b. sine is negative d. tangent is
positive 23. An angular unit equivalent to 1/400 of the circumference of a
circle is called:
3. What is the maximum value of latitude? a. Mil c. radian
a. 360 deg c. 45 deg b. degree d. gradian
b. 90 deg d. 180 deg
24. A triangle having the three sides of unequal length is known as:
4. What do you call a statement of truth which is admitted without a. equivalent triangle c. isosceles triangle
proof? b. scalene triangle d. equilateral triangle
a. postulate c. axiom
b. corollary d. theorem 25. An angle greater than a straight line and less than two straight
angles is called:
5. What do you call an angle whose terminal side coincides with an a. right angle c. acute angle
axis? b. obtuse angle d. reflex angle
a. reflex angle c. right angle
b. quadrantal angle d. co-terminal 26. Of what quadrant is A, if secant A is positive and csc A is
angle negative/
a. III c. II
6. What is the angle which the line of sight to the object makes the b. IV d. I
horizontal is below the eye of the observer?
a. angle of depression c. bearing 27. Find the supplement of an angle whose complement is 62 deg.
b. angle of elevation d. acute angle a. 30 deg c. 152 deg
b. 29 deg d. 118 deg
7. What is the maximum value of longitude?
a. 180 deg c. 270 deg 28. The median of a triangle is the line connecting a vertex and the
b. 45 deg d. 360 deg midpoint of the opposite side. For a given triangle, these median
intersect at a point which is called:
8. What do you call a quadrilateral with no sides parallel? a. orthocenter c. circumference
a. rhomboid c. trapezoid b. incenter d. centroid
b. rhombus d. trapezium
29. The angular bisector of the sides of a triangle intersects at the
9. An obtuse angle is ________ than the right angle. point which is known;
a. lesser c. greater a. orthocenter c. centroid
b. equal d. greater than 180 deg b. circumference d. incenter

10. An angle more than pi radian but not less than 2 pi radians is:
30. The arc length equal to the radius of the circle is called:
a. straight angle c. reflex angle
a. 1 rad c. pi rad
b. obtuse angle d. related angle
b. 1 quarter circle d. 1 grad
11. Given the general triangle ABC with a, b, c. Which of the
31. The altitudes of the sides of triangles intersect at the point
following statements is not applicable in solving general triangle?
known as;
a. Sin A/a = Sin B/b = Sin C/c b. Sin A/b = Sin B/c =
a. orthocenter c. centroid
Sin C/a
b. circumference d. incenter
c. a2 = b2 + c2 – 2bc (Cos A) d. Area = ½ ab Sin C
32. Which of the following statement is correct?
12. In general triangles the expressions (sin A)/a= (sin B)/b = (sin C/
a. all equilateral triangles are similar
(sin B)/b = (sin C/ ) is called:
b. all right angled triangles are similar
a. the laws of sines c. law of cosines
c. all isosceles triangles are similar
b. Euler’s formula d. Pythagorean theorem
d. all rectangles are similar
13. One radian is equivalent to;
33. The angle which the line of sight to the object, makes with the
a. 52 deg c. 90 deg
horizontal, which is above the eye of the observer is called;
b. 45 deg d. 57.3 deg
a. angle of depression c. acute angle
b. angle of elevation d. bearing
14. Angles are measured from the positive horizontal axis, and the
positive direction is counterclockwise. What are the values of sin B
34. Supplementary angles are angles whose sum is;
and cos B in the 4th quadrant?
a. 45 deg c. 180 deg
a. sin B > 0 and the cos B < 0 b. sin B > 0 and the cos
b. 90 deg d. 360 deg
B>0
c. sin B < 0 and the cos B < 0 d. sin B < 0 and the
35. An obtuse angle is ________ than the right angle.
cos B > 0
a. lesser c. greater
b. equal d. greater than 180 deg
15. Sin A cos B – cos A sin B is equivalent to:
a. cos (A – B) c. tan (A – B)
b. sin (A – B) d. cos 2(A –B)
ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
16. The cosecant function is negative in quadrants:
a. III and IV c. I and III
1. What is the line that intersects two or more lines at distinct
b. I and II d. II and IV
points?
a. median c.
17. The secant function is positive in quadrants:
transversal
a. I and IV c. I and III
b. tangent line d. bisector
b. II and IV d. II and III
2. What solid figure that has many faces?
18. Its magnitude is the product of the length by the cosine of its
a. octagon c. polygon
bearing:
b. decagon d.
a. latitude c. hypotenuse
polyhedron
b. departure d. legs
3. The sum of the distances from the two foci to any point in a/an
19. The horizontal distance between two points on the surface of the
________ is a constant.
earth:
a. parabola c. hyperbola
a. tangent c. diameter
b. any conic d. ellipse
b. x-axis d. straight
4. The standard equation of a straight line: y – y1 = m(x- x1)
20. The angle which the line of sight to the object makes with the
a. point-slope form c. two-point
horizontal which is above the eye of the observer is called:
form
a. angle of depression c. acute angle
b. slope form d. point-intercept form
b. angle of elevation d. bearing
5. If the general equation of the conic is Ax2 + Bx + Cy2 + Dx + Ey +
F = 0 and B2 – 4AC > 0, then the conic is: 23. The parabola y = -x2 + x + 1 opens:
a. circle c. ellipse a. to the left c. to the right
b. parabola d. hyperbola b. upward d. downward

6. All circles having the same center but with unequal radii are 24. A line is perpendicular to the axis has a slope equal to:
called: a. zero c. infinity
a. tangent circles c. eccentric circles b. one d. indeterminate
b. unequal circles d. concentric
circles
25. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e > 1, then the locus is a:
7. The general second degree equation has the form Ax2 + Bxy + a. hyperbola c. parabola
Cy2 + Dx + Ey + F = 0 and describes an ellipse if: b. circle d. ellipse
a. B2 – 4AC = 0 c. B2 – 4AC > 0
b. B2 – 4AC = 1 d. B2 – 4AC< 0 26. Which is an equation of a parabola which opens to the left?
a. y2 = -4ax c. y2 = 4ay
8. The equation x2 + By + y2 + Cy + D =0 is: b. y2 = 4ax d. x2 = -4ay
a. hyperbola c. parabola
b. ellipse d. circle 27. The family of curves which intersect a given family of curves at
an angle less than 90 deg is called:
9. The equation of the straight line is y = mx + b, where m is the a. orthogonal trajectories c. isogonal trajectories
slope and b is the intercept. If two straight lines are perpendicular b. intersecting curves d. acute angle
their slopes are:
a. negative c. positive 28. In polar coordinate system, the distance from a point to the pole
b. equal d. negative is known as:
reciprocals a. polar angle c. radius vector
b. x-coordinate d. y-coordinate
10. If eccentricity is less than one, then the curve is:
a. parabola c. hyperbola 29. In polar coordinate system, the polar angle is positive when:
b. ellipse d. circle a. measured clockwise c. measured at the
terminal side of Φ
11. What curve is represented by the equation r = aΦ: b. none of these d. measures
a. Spiral of Archimedes c. cardiod counterclockwise
b. four-leaf rose d. three-leaf rose
30. The rectangular coordinate system in space is divided into eight
12. ___________ is the locus of a point that moves in a plane of that compartments, which is known
the difference of the distances from two fixed points of the plane is a. quadrants c. axis
constant. b. octants d. coordinates
a. hyperbola c. circle
b. ellipse d. parabola 31. The plane rectangular coordinate is divided into four parts which
are known as:
13. If the product of the slopes of any two straight lines is negative a. coordinates c. quadrants
1, one of these lines are said to be: b. ellipse d. axis
a. parallel c.
perpendicular 32. The axis of the hyperbola through its foci is known as:
b. skew d. non-intersecting a. conjugate axis c. major axis
b. transverse axis d. minor axis
14. In an ellipse, a chord which contains a focus and is in a line
perpendicular to the major axis is a: 33. The axis of the hyperbola, which is parallel to its directrices, is
a. latus rectum c. conjugate axis known as:
b. minor axis d. focal width a. conjugate axis c. major axis
b. tranverse axis d. minor axis
15. If all the y- terms have even exponents, the curve is symmetric
with respect to the __________. 34. When two planes intersect with each other, the amount of
a. x-axis c. y-axis divergence between the planes is expressed in measuring the:
b. origin d. line 45 deg with the a. dihedral angle c. polyhedral angle
axis b. plane angle d. reflex angle

16. The graph of r = a + b cos Φ is a: 35. In two intersecting lines, the angles opposite to each other are
a. lemniscate c. limacon termed as:
b. cardoid d. littus a. opposite angle c. horizontal angle
b. vertical angle d. inscribed angle
17. It represents the distance of a point form y-axis:
a. ordinate c. abscissa 36. A normal to a given plane is:
b. coordinate d. secant line a. lying in the plane c. perpendicular to
the plane
18. If an equation is unchanged by the substitution of –x for x and –y b. parallel to the plane d. oblique to the plane
for y simultaneously, its curve is symmetrical with respect to the:
a. x-axis c. y-axis 37. A tangent to a conic is a line:
b. origin d. line 45 deg a. which is parallel to the normal
with x-axis b. which touches the conic at only one point
c. which passes inside a conic
19. When an ellipse is revolved about its major axis, we form a solid d. all of the above
known as:
a. elliptical paraboloid c. prolate 38. The chord passing through the focus of the parabola and
spheroid perpendicular to its axis is termed as:
b. oblate spheroid d. spherical a. directrix c. latus
hyperboloid rectum
b. translated axis d. axis
20. Av point where the concavity of a curve changes or when the 39. In the equation: y = mx + b, m is represents the:
slope of the curve is neither increasing nor decreasing is known as: a. slope c. inclination
a. maximum point c. point of b. tangent d. intercept on
tangency y-axis
b. minimal point d. inflection point
40. Fill in the blank in the following statement. The integral of the
21. The ratio of the distance between the foci to the distance function between certain limits divided by the difference in
between the vertices in either hyperbola or ellipse is called: abscissas between those limits gives the _________ of the function.
a. aperture number c. acceptance a. average c. maximum
number b. minimum d. median
b. eccentricity d. kurtosis

22. In quadratic equation where the discriminant is equal to zero

and the eccentricity is equal to one, the conic section formed when DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
graphically drawn will be a;
a. ellipse c. parabola 1. This is set of ordered pairs (x,y) where x belongs to one set and y
b. hyperbola d. circle belongs to another set.
a. function c. relation a. trigonometric function c. hyperbolic
b. functional relation d. solution function
b. logarithmic function d. exponential function
2. It is a relation in which any two distinct ordered pairs do not have
the same first coordinate.
a. function c. relation
b. functional relation d. solution INTEGRAL CALCULUS

3. What is the geometric representation of all the points that satisfy 1. The process of the finding the function when its derivative is
the given function or equation? given is called:
a. y-axis c. origin a. differentiation c. implicit function
b. x-axis d. graph of the function b. explicit function d.
integration
4. It is needed in finding the derivative of given function.
a. Fermati’s last theorem c. Pythagorean Theorem 2. The function F(x) is called ____________ of f(x) if F’(x) = f (x):
b. Three-step rule d. Euler’s rule of sign a. explicit function c. implicit
function
5. The limit of c/x or in general of c/xn where n is a positive integer, b. antiderivative d. derivative
as x approaches infinity is;
a. zero c. one 3. The integral of a function between certain limits divided by the
b. indeterminate d. infinity difference in abcissa’s
between those limits gives the ___________ of the function.
6. What is the process of finding the derivative of a function? a. average c. middle
a. differentiation c. constant variation b. intercept d. asymptote
b. integration d. ratio and proportion
4. Walli’s formula is applicable only when the limits are from zero
7. What is the process finding the derivative of a given implicit to:
function? a. pi c. pi/2
a. higher differentiation c. approximation formula b. 2pi d. pi/3
b. differentiation formula d. implicit differentiation
5. This method of solution is used when the given integral cannot be
8. These are critical values together with their corresponding y- solved directly.
components. a. integration by solution c. integration by partial
a. Point of inflection c. critical point fraction
b. Relative maximum d. relative minimum b, integration by parts d. none of these

9. Critical point (a,b) is a relative maximum point if: 6. What do you call the analysis of point and curves that is usually
a. f”(a) = 0 and f’(a) ≠ 0 c. f’(a) = 0 and f”(a) < 0 done using a system?
b. f’(a) = 0 and f”(a) = 0 d. f’(a) = 0 and “(a) > 0 a. polar coordinates c. hyperbolic function
b. trigonometric function d. exponential function
10. If for critical point (a,b):
a. f”(a) = 0 and f’(a) ≠ 0 c. f’(a) = 0 and f”(a) < 0 7. Equations of the form r = a sin kө, r = a cos kө where k is a
b. f’(a) = 0 and f”(a) = 0 d. f’(a) = 0 and “(a) > 0 positive integer, have
graphs which are called __________.
11. Critical point (a,b) is a relative minimum point if: a. lemnicates c. cardiods
a. f”(a) = 0 and f’(a) ≠ 0 c. f’(a) = 0 and f”(a) < 0 b. limacons d. rose or petal
b. f’(a) = 0 and f”(a) = 0 d. f’(a) = 0 and “(a) > 0 curves

12. ________ are problems on rate of change of dependent variable 8. The graph of equations of the form r = a ± b cos ө, r = a ± b sin
with respect to independent variable. ө are called ________.
a. related-rates problems c. maxima-minima a. lemniscates c. cardiods
b mixed problems d. time-rates b. limacons d. rose curve

13. It is an equation of the form y = ax where a is any positive 9. In relation to previous question, in special cases in which a= b,
number except 1. the graphs are called
a. differential equation c. exponential __________.
function a. lemniscates c. cardiods
b. logarithmic function d. integral function b. limacons d.rose curves

14. An equation of the form y = logax where a is any positive 10. The graph of the equation of the form r2 = cos 2ө is called
number except 1. ___________.
a. differential equation c. exponential function a. lemniscates c. cardiods
b. logarithmic function d. integral function b. limacons d.rose curves

15. What function of differentiation that has one dependent variable 11. What is the solid formed by revolving a given plane region R
and one independent variable? about an indicated axis
a. partial differentiation c. differential function of revolution L.
b. function of one variable d. implicit a. circular disk c. cylindrical shell
differentiation b. circular ring d. solids of
revolution
16. This is finding or solving for the partial derivatives.
a. partial differentiation c. differential function 12. In this method, a representative rectangle is perpendicular to
b. function of one variable d. implicit the axis of revolution that is the boundary of the region.
differentiation a. Washer method c. Shell
method
17. If for a function of two variables z = f(x,y), z = f(r,s) and y = b. Disk method d. none of these
f(r,s), z is a function of two independent variables r and s. What do
you call variables x and y? 13. In this method, a representative rectangle is perpendicular to
a. dependent variable c. function of one the axis of revolution that is not part of the boundary.
variable a. Washer method c. Shell
b. independent variable d. intermediate or method
middle variable b. Disk method d. none of these

18. What do you call to the chain linking of the dependent and 14. A representative rectangle is paralleled to the axis of revolution.
independent variable? a. Washer method c. Shell
a. implicit differentiation c. partial differentiation method
b. chain rule d. differential function b. Disk method d. none of these

19. This function has the same relationship to the hyperbola that the 15. What is the surface obtained by revolving an arc about a given
trigonometric function has to circle. axis of revolution?
a. trigonometric function c. hyperbolic a. solid of revolution c. sinusoid
function b. hypocycloid d. surface of
b. logarithmic function d. exponential function revolution

20. This is combination of the exponential function ex and e-x. 16. It is the product of the mass and its distance from a reference
point, line or plane.
 a. moment of inertia c. section d. none of the above
modulus 12. It is the third method of eliminating arbitrary constants that is
b. moment of mass d. center of based on the theorem in Algebra:
mass “In order for a system of “n+1’ linear equation in “n” unknowns to
be consistent, the determinant formed from the coefficients of the
17. This is the point where the total mass is concentrated. unknowns and the terms free of the unknowns must vanished.”
a. moment of inertia c. section a. by differentiation and combination
modulus b. by isolation of constants
b. moment of mass d. center of c. by determinants
mass d. eliminations of arbitrary constants

18. This is the product of mass and the square of its distance with 13. This is defined by an equation containing one or more
respect to the axis. parameters together with the coordinates of a point on the plane.
a. moment of inertia c. section a. family of curves c. straight lines
modulus b. family of circles d. conic
b. moment of mass d. center of
mass 14. What type of polynomials where all terms have the same
degree?
19. It is the product the density of liquid/fluid by its distance from a. monomial c. homogeneous polynomial
the surface of the b. binomial d. heterogeneous polynomial
liquid.
a. specific gravity c. pressure 15. This method is concerned with equations that are simple enough
b. specific weight d. density to find integrating factors by inspection.
a. Bernoulli’s equation c. by obvious substitution
20. When a flat plate is divided into several parts, the total force on b. by elimination d. by inspection
the entire plane is
the _________ of the forces in each of the parts. 16. States that the rate of changes of the temperature of a body
a. product c. difference immersed in a medium where temperature differs from it is
b. sum d. same proportional to the differences between it and the medium.
a. Newton’s law of cooling
b. Newton’s law of acceleration
c. Newton’s law of inertia
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION d. Newton’s law of motion

1. It is any equation containing diffential or derivatives of the 17. What is a curve that is perpendicular to every curve of the
unknown function of one or more variables. family at all points where they intersect?
a. algebraic expression c. quadratic equation a. hyperbola c. parabola
b. differential equation d. none of the above b. ellipse d. orthogonal trajectory

2. What are the classifications of differential equation? 18. What is the test that determines if a set of solutions is linearly
a. order c. type independent?
b. degree d. all of the above a, Wronskian c. Mersenne Theorem
b. Bernoulli d. Goldbach Theorem
3. It is a type of variable if the derivative of its variable occurs:
a. ordinary c. dependent 19. Which of the following is one of the methods of determining the
b. partial d. independent particular integral, Yp?
a. Bernoulli’s equation c. by obvious substitution
4. A variable is said to be _________ if one or more derivatives with b. by elimination d. by inspection
respect to this particular variable occurs in an equation.
a. ordinary c. dependent 20. As in this method of reduction of order, this method is applicable
b. partial d. independent as long as the complementary function is known.
a. method of undetermined coefficient
5. It is a type of solution that contains a number of arbitrary b. solution by inspection
constants equal to the order of the differential equation. c. method of variation of parameters
a. singular solution c. general solution d. reduction of order
b. particular solution d. none of the above

6. A ________ is a solution of differential which cannot be obtained

from the general solution by a particular choice of arbitrary
constants.
a. singular solution c. general solution ENGINEERING MECHANICS
b. particular solution d. none of the above
1. One joule of work is done by a force of Newton acting through a
7. What type of solution which does not have arbitrary constants? distance of:
a. singular solution c. general solution a. one meter c. a foot
b. particular solution d. none of the above b. one inch d. one cm

8. It is a problem which seeks to determine a solution to a 2. The first derivative of kinetic energy with respect to time is :
differential equation subject to conditions on the unknown function a. power c. momentum
and its derivatives specified at one value of the independent b. work d. force
variable.
a. initial value problem c. secondary value 3. What is the name of the vector that represents the sum of two
problem vectors?
b. tertiary value problem d. boundary value a. scalar c. resultant
problem b. tensor d. tangent

9. A __________ is a problem that seeks to determine a solution to a 4. Represents the loss due to mechanical friction of the moving
differential equation subject to conditions on the unknown function parts of the engine expressed in hp as:
and its derivatives specified at two or more value of the a. combined c. brake
independent variable. b. indicated d. friction
a. initial value problem c. secondary value
problem 5. The velocity of an object divided by the velocity of sound is
b. tertiary value problem d. boundary value called:
problem a. Micrelson’s number c. velocity factor
b. Planck’s number d. Mach number
10. Which of the following is/are method/s of elimination of arbitrary
constants? 6. Any influence capable in producing a change in the motion of an
a. by differentiation and combination object is called:
b. by isolation of constants a. force c. acceleration
c. by determinants b. vector d. velocity
d. all of the above
7. Basic unit of length of the SI system:
11. This is a method of isolating one of the arbitrary constants? a. meter c. millimeter
a. by differentiation and combination b. decimeter d. centimeter
b. by isolation of constants
c. by determinants
8. The study of motion without reference to the forces which causes
motion is known: 27. In physics, work is defined in terms of the force acting through a
a. kinetics c. kinematics distance. The rate at which work is done is called:
b. acceleration d. motion a. force c. power
b. energy d. momentum
9, What is the unit of force in SI?
a. Joule c. Watt 28. The point through which the resultant of the distributed gravity
b. Newton d. Hp force passes regardless of the orientation of the body in space is
known as:
10. In the SI system of measurement, the base unit for pressure is: a. center of inertia c. center of attraction
a. Joule c. Watt b. center of gravity d. moment of inertia
b. Newton d. Pascal
29. The momentum of moving object is the product of its mass and
11. Why should a person weigh less on the moon than on the earth? velocity. Newton’s second law of motion says that the rate of change
a. the force of earth’s gravity is greater than that of momentum with respect to time is:
of the moon a. power c. momentum
b. .the mass of the moon is smaller the mass of the earth b. energy d. force
c. the moon is only a satellite of the earth
d. none of the above 30. The dimension of acceleration x mass is the same unit as that
of:
12. What causes space capsules to become hot when they re-enter a. length c. work
the earth’s atmosphere? b. weight d. section modulus
a. the firing of its rocket engine
b. earth’s atmosphere is hot 31. The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces;
c. the friction of the air a. depends on the materials and the finish condition
d. all of these of the surface b. depends only on the finish condition of
the surfaces
13. At what angle does a projectile go farthest when fired? c. does not depend on the materials
a. 30 deg c. 60 deg d. depends on the composition of the materials only
b. 45 deg d. 75 deg
32. In the SI system the base unit for mass is:
14. Jun is standing on a weighing scale attached to the floor of an a. kg c. joule
elevator which reads zero. What does it indicate? b. Newton d. Pascal
a. Jun is still accelerating
b. Jun is moving at constant speed 33. Kinematics is the study of _________ without reference to the
c. Jun is at rest forces that causes the body to move.
d. Jun is freely falling a. motion c. force
b. forces and motion d. matter
15. Engineering mechanics is divided into subject classifications:
a. statics and kinetics 34. Momentum is a property related to the object’s _________.
b. statics and dynamics a. mass and acceleration c. motion and weight
c. magnitude of force and directions of actions b. weight and velocity d. motion and mass
d. internal and external effects of forces
35. Which of the following is a measure of the inertia of the body?
16.What is the branch of mechanics which deals bodies in motion? a. weight c. volume
a. kinematics c. statics b. density d. mass
b. dynamics d. kinetics
36. What are the three fundamental quantities?
17. Newton was inspired by an apple; Pappus propositions were a. volume, weight, time c. density, mass,
inspired by what fruits? volume
a. lemon and orange c. apple and banana b. length, mass, time d. speed, distance, time
b. apple and pear d. apple and lemon
37. What is the speed of the projectile if it is at the top of its path?
18. Work for energy can be a function of all of the following except: a. unchanged c. minimum
a. force and distance c. power and time b. doubled d. maximum
b. force and time d. torque and angular rotation
38. Which of the following is/are short range forces?
19. Impulse and momentum principle is mostly useful for solving a. Gravitational force c. weak nuclear force
problems involving: b. electromagnetic force d. strong nuclear
a. velocity, acceleration and time force
b. force, velocity and time
c. force, acceleration and time 39. What happens to the mechanical advantage of a lever if its
d. force, velocity and acceleration effort distance increases?
a. increases c. remains the same
20. Varignon’s theorem is used to determine ________________. b. decreases d. becomes zero
a. moment of inertia c. location of centroid
b. mass moment of inertia d. moment of area 40. What kind of energy is present whenever a body is at a distance
from the ground?
21. An impulse causes: a. elastic potential energy c. electromagnetic potential
a. the object’s momentum to decrease energy
b. the object’s momentum to increase b. electric potential energy d. gravitational
c. the object’s momentum to change potential energy
d. the object’s momentum to remain constant
41. An object’s acceleration a it starts to fall is:
a. equal to g c. less than g
22. Moment of inertia in SI is described as:
b. greater than g d. zero
a. N-m c. kg/m
b. N/m d. farad/m
42. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
a. acceleration c. distance
23. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
b. displacement d. velocity
a. mass c. displacement
b. torque d. velocity
43. What determines the pitch of sound?
a. amplitude c. wavelength
24. The product of force and time during which it acts is known as;
b. frequency d. speed
a. impulse c. work
b. momentum d. impact
44. What law states that, within the elastic limit, strain is directly
proportional to stress?
25. The property of the body which measures its resistance to
a. Ohm’s Law c. Hooke’s Law
changes in motion:
b. Lenz’s Law d. Coulomb’s Law
a. acceleration c. mass
b. weight d. rigidity
45. Any influence capable of producing of change in the motion of
an object is:
26. The branch of physical science which deals with state of rest or
a. force c. velocity
motion of bodies under the action of forces is known as:
b. vector d. acceleration
a. mechanics c. kinematics
FLUID MECHANICS
b. kinetics d. statics
1.The measure of the fluid’s resistance when acted upon by an
external force is called: 18. In fluid flows, if the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers
a. tackiness c. flash point and the paths of the individual particles do not cross, the flow is said
b. density d. viscosity to be:
a. uniform c. turbulent
2. A leak from the faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the b. laminar d. critical
following is the main cause of this phenomenon?
a. surface tension c. air resistance 19. The unit of kinematic viscosity in SI is described as:
b. viscosity of the fluid d. gravity a. N/m c. Pa-sec
b. W/m d. m2 /sec
3. Reynolds number may be calculated for:
a. diameter, density and absolute viscosity 20. Which of the following is not a unit of viscosity?
b. diameter, velocity and absolute viscosity a. Pa-sec c. stoke
c. characteristic length, mass flow rate per unit area b. Poise d. Dyne
and absolute viscosity
d. diameter, velocity and surface tension 21. Which of the following describes laminar flow?
a. NR=2180 c NR=. 4100
4. When a thin bore, hollow glass tube is inserted into a container of b. NR=1989 d. NR=2100
mercury, the surface of the mercury in the tube:
a. is below the container surface due to adhesion 22. Ivory soap floats in water because:
b. is below the container surface due to cohesion a. all matter has mass
c. is level with the surface of the mercury in the container b. the density of ivory is unity
d. is above the container surface due to cohesion c. the specific gravity of ivory soap is greater than that of
the water
5. Absolute viscosity is essentially independent of pressure and d. the specific gravity of ivory soap is less than that
primarily dependent on: of the water
a. temperature c. specific gravity
b. density d. velocity
23. How is pressure related to depth?
6. The sum of the pressure head, elevation head and velocity head a. directly proportional
remains constant. This is known as: b. inversely proportional
a. Boyle’s law c. Archimedes Principle c. no effect
b. Torricelli’s Theorem d. Bernoulli’s d. equal to one another
Theorem
24. Which of the following would float on water?
7. An instrument for measuring specific gravity of fluids: a. iron c. wood
a. hygrometer c. flow meter b. stone d. mercury
b.hydrometer d. psychrometer
25. Which of the following is the temperature at which the gas would
8. If one end of the manometer is open to the atmosphere, it is no longer exert pressure?
called: a. Kelvin temperature
a. open manometer c. closed manometer b. Celsius scale temperature
b. all of these d. differential manometer c. Absolute zero
d. Absolute temperature
9. The phenomenon by which air enters a submerged suction pipe
from the water surface is called: 26. Which of the following substances has the greatest specific heat/
a. thixotropic c. vortex a. aluminum c. alcohol
b. ditalant d. vacuum b. glass d. iron

10. The chemicals added to oil to increase the resistance to 27. A fluid flow at a constant velocity in a pipe. The fluid completely
oxidation: fills the pipe and the Reynolds number is such that the flow is
a. viscous c. additive laminar. If all other parameters remain unchanged and the viscosity
b. special oil d. none of these of the fluid is decreased a significant amount, one would generally
expect the flow to:
11. Turbulence is said to exist when: a. not change c. become more laminar
a. cross current exist b. become turbulent d. increase
b. streamline parallel in direction
c. pipe friction exist 28. “The velocity of a liquid which discharges under a head is equal
d. the velocity distribution in cross section is to the of a body which falls in the same head.”
uniform a. Torrecelli’s Theorem c. Archimedes Principle
b. Bernoulli’s Theorem d. Continuity Principle
12. The only liquid metal.
a. tin c. bronze 29.”A body partly or wholly submerged in a liquid is buoyed up by a
b. manganese d. mercury force equal to the weight of the liquid displaced.”
a. Torricelli’s Theorem c. Archimedes
13. Fluid, which exhibits linear stress-strain rate relationship. If the Principle
shear stress in fluid varies linearly with velocity gradient, which of b. Bernoulli’s Theorem d. Continuity Principle
the following describes the fluid?
a. it is a viscous fluid 30. What is the rate at which viscosity changes with temperature?
b. it is a less viscous fluid a. viscosity c. kinematic viscosity
c. it is a Newtonian fluid b. viscosity index d. dynamic viscosity
d. none of the above

14. The speed at which an exact model of the pump would have to
run if it were designed to deliver 1 gpm against 1 ft head per stage. STRENGTHS OF MATERIALS
a. specific speed c. rpm
b. linear speed d. pump capacity 1. What do you call the ratio of the unit deformation or strain in a
transverse direction which constant for stresses within the
15. Which of the following flowmeters measure the average fluid proportional limit?
velocity in a pipe rather than a point or local velocity a. Slenderness ratio c. Poisson’s
a. humeter c. speedometer ratio
b. venture meter d. flowmeter b. Mohr’s circle d. Hooke’s law

16. In fluid dynamics, there is what we called conservation laws. 2. What kind of hardening will extent in the material? A hardening
One of the laws states that the fluid mass is always conserved in procedure in which an austenitized ferrous workpiece is quenched
fluid systems, regardless of the pipeline’s complexity orientation of into an appropriate medium.
the flow or type of fluid flowing. The law is called: a. quenching c. tempering
a. conservation of massc. conservation of energy b. martempering d. none of
b. conservation of volume d. conservation of power these

17. Water columns are usually designed for measuring small

pressure above or below atmospheric pressure. They can be used in 3. It is the ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable stress.
air ducts, gas lines and the like. These pressure measuring devices a. proportional constant c. modulus
are called; b. strain d. factor of safety
a. compound gages c. pitot tubes
b. pressure gages d. magnometer
4. The property by virtue of which a body tends to return to its
original size or shape after a deformation and when the deforming 22. Is permissible variation of a size of a dimension:
forces have been removed. a. tolerance c. clearance
a. elasticity c. ductility b. allowance d. interference
b. malleability d. plasticity
23. Which is the lightest metal?
5. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously withstand. a. lead c. aluminum
a. yield point c. ultimate strength b. GI sheet d. cast iron
b. bearing strength d. point of
rupture 24. The property of material that permits it to be only slightly
deformed without rupture:
6. In a cantilever beam with a concentrated load at the free end, the a. ductility c. toughness
moment is; b. brittleness d. resilience
a. constant along the beam
b. maximum at the walls 25. Which micrometer has no anvil?
c. ¼ maximum halfway out on the beam a. outside micrometer c. depth
d. maximum at the free end micrometer
b. digit micrometer d. screw
7. Inelastic collision is a collision in which the total kinetic energy thread micrometer
after collision is ________ before collision.
a. equal to zero c. less than 26. The differential of the shear equation is which one of the
b. equal d. greater than following?
a. load on the beam
8. Which of the following is not a method by which a single lap rivet b. tensile strength of beam
joint usually fails? c. bending moment of the beam
a. the rivets shear c. the rivets d. slope of the elastic curve
fails in tension
b. the rivets fall in bearing d. the plate fails in 27. Steels can be strengthened by all of the following practices,
tension except:
a. annealing c. quenching and
9. The distance that the top surface is displaced in the direction of tempering
the force divided by the thickness of the body is known as: b. work hardening d. grain
a. longitudinal strain c. shear strain refinement
b. linear strain d. volume strain
28. Hardened steel parts have:
10. The constant of proportionality between stress and strain is a. fine grains c. medium grains
called: b. coarse grains d. none of the above
a. Hooke’s constant c. Young
modulus 29. Which is the lightest metal?
b. elastance d. spring a. TIG c. hardening
constant b. MIG d. soldering

11. The distance that the top surface in the direction of the force 30. The ratio of the stress on an elastic substance to the decrease in
divided by thickness of the body is known as: volume per unit volume
a. point of rupture c. volume a. bulk modulus c. volumetric ratio
strain b. Poisson’s ratio d. modulus of resilience
b. shear strain d. linear strain
31. Structural steel elements subjected to torsion develop
12. The property of material wherein its content is continuously a. tensile stress c. shearing stress
distributed through its entire volume: b. compressive stress d. moment
a. homogeneity c. isotropy
b. anisotropy d. scarcity 32. Fast process of analyzing all elements and chemical components
of steel casting:
13. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously withstand: a. pyrometer c. wet analyzer
a. point of rupture c. ultimate b. carbon analyzer d.
strength spectrometer
b. bearing strength d. yield point
33. Shear modulus is also:
14. Stresses those are independent of load: a. shear elasticity c. modulus of elasticity
a. endurance stress c. shear stress b. Poisson’s ratio d. modulus of
b. operating stress d. residual rigidity
stress
34. The frictional forces depend on coefficient of friction and:
15. A measure of the amount of light transmitted through a given a. torque c. normal
material: force
a. opacity c. luminous b. weight of object d. moment
transmittance
b. lubricity d. isotropy 35. The number of cycles required to cause failure for given stress
level.
16. Ability of the material to withstand high-unit stress together with a. endurance c. fatigue
great unit strain. b. fatigue life d. rupture
a. resilience c. malleability
b. toughness d. ductility 36. Two or more forces acting together could be replaced by a single
force with the same effect in a mass:
17. Ability to resist deformation under stress. a. couple forces c. resultant
a. rigidity c. elasticity b. resolution of forces d. concurrent
b. stiffness d. malleability forces

18. Hardened steel parts have: 37. At a given section of a beam the maximum bending stress
a. fine grains c. medium grains occurs at the ________.
b. coarse grains d. none of the above a. maximum shear stress area
b. neutral axis
19. Cold working of materials: c. web joint near the flange
a. increase the fatigue strength d. outermost fiber
b .decrease the fatigue strength
c. does not change fatigue strength 38. The property that characterizes a material’s ability to be drawn
d. none of the above into a wire.
a. plasticity c. ductility
20. Finding the resultant of two or more forces is called: b. elasticity d. utility
a. coplanar forces c. couple
b. non-planar forces d. 39. Stress relieving is also __________ for the purpose of reducing the
composition of forces internal stress of steel/material.
a. quenching c. tempering
21. The best instrument for measuring a thousand of an inch: b. normalizing d. drawing
a. micrometer c. caliper
c. tachometer d. pyrometer 40. Steel balls for ball bearings are manufactured by:
 a. turning c. casting 8. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product
b. rolling d. cold heading that action of one will lead almost the same action by the other.
a. oligopoly c. monopoly
41. Under which type of loading does fatigue occur? b. semi-monopoly d. perfect competition
a. static load c. high load
b. plane load d. repeated load 9. The length of time during which it is capable of performing the
function for which it was designed and manufactured.
42. The ability of a material to absorb energy when deformed a. business life c. physical life
elastically and to return it when unloaded. b. economic life d. insular life
a. creep c. toughness
b. hardness d. resilience 10. The series of equal payment at equal intervals of time.
a. interest c. annuity
43. If a material recovers its original dimensions, when the load is b. depreciation d. postulate
removed, it is called:
a. plastic c. brittle 11. A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of
b. elastic d. annealed each period, beginning from the first period.
a. annuity due c. deferred annuity
44. What is the metal characteristic to withstand forces that cause b. ordinary annuity d. perpetuity
twisting?
a. torsional strength c. modulus of 12. The first cost of any property includes
elasticity a. installation expenses
b. twisting moment d. elasticity b. the original purchase price and freight and
transportation charges
45. The capacity of metal to withstand load without breaking. c. initial taxes and permits fee
a. strength c. elasticity d. all of these
b. stress d. strain 13. Fall after the increase reaches a certain variable amount
a. inflation c. law of
46. The gradual chemical reaction by other substance such that supply and demand
metal is converted to an oxide or other compounds. b. process factors d. law of diminishing
a. corrosion c. rusting returns
b. cheaping d. weathering
14. Ratio of the annual revenues to the annual expenses.
47. The center of gravity of a solid pyramid or cone with a total a. benefit ratio c. benefit-cost ratio
height of H is: b. rate of return d. income ratio
a. ¼ H c. 1/3 H
b. 3/5 H d. ½ H 15. Cost which arise as a result of a change in operations or policy.
a. integral cost c. differential cost
48. The three moment equation maybe used to analyze: b. incremental cost d. variable
a. a continuous beam cost
b. a beam loaded at the third points
c. a step tapered column 16. The function of interest rate and time determines the cumulative
d. a three element composite beam amount of sinking fund resulting from specific periodic deposits.
a. capacity factor c. demand factor
49. Principal stresses occur on those planes b. sinking fund factor d. present
a. where the shearing stress is zero worth factor
b. which are 45 apart
c. where the shearing stress is maximum 17. Funds supplied and used by owners of an enterprise in the
d. which are subjected only to compression expectation that profit will be earned.
a. present c. working
50. A ductile fracture is characterized by capital
a. rapid rate of crank propagation b. investment d. equity capital
b. negligible deformation
c. fragmentation into more than two pieces 18. What is the form of fixed-interest governments, companies,
d. appreciable plastic deformation prior to banks or other institutions? They are usually a form of a long
propagation of crank security, but may be imdeemable, secured or unsecured.
a. certificate of deposit c. stock
ENGINEERING ECONOMICS b. bonds d. T-bills

1. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be 19. Bonds whose security behind them is mortgage on certain
paid and the debt be repaid at a specific place and time. specified assets of the corporation.
a. discount c. working a. debenture c. mortgage
capital b. collateral trust d. joint
b. cash flow d. borrowed
capital 20. What do you call an increase in the value of a capital asset?
a. capital expenditure c. capital stock
2. The difference between sales revenue and the cause of goods b. capital gain d. profit
sold.
a. rate of return c. gross profit 21. It is the depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of
b. net income d. gross national the unit does not change each year.
product a. sinking fund method c. SYD method
b. Matheson method d. straight
3. The amount of a company’s profit that the board of directors of line method
the corporation decides to distribute ordinary shareholders.
a. dividend c. share stock 22. What is the market situation wherein there is only one seller with
b. par value d. return many buyers?
a. monopoly c. oligopoly
4. A document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial b. oligopsony d. monopsony
security.
a. coupon c. bank note 23. What is the interest rate at which the present worth of the cash
b. bond d. check fl0ow on the project is zero of the interest earned by an investment?
a. effective rate c. yield
5. Total amount spent on a physical property until the property put b. nominal rate d. rate of return
into operation.
a. first cost c. sunk cost 24. The estimated value at the end of the useful life.
b. marginal cost d. incremental cost a. compounded annually c. face value
b. salvage value d. economic
6. Gross, profit, sales less cost of goods sold as percentage of sale. life
a. gross margin c. profit machine
b. rate of return d. price earnings 25. What do you call a currency traded in a foreign exchange market
for which the demand is consistently high in relation to its supply?
7. The exclusive right of the company to provide specific a. certificate of deposit c. hard
product/services in a given region of the country. currency
a. outlet c. branch b. money market d. treasury bill
b. franchise d. extension
26. What is the recorded current value of an asset?
a. salvage value c. present worth
 b. book value d. scrap value a. deflation cost c. interest
b. discount d. overhead
27. Type of organization where the assistant of the executive are cost
appointed to attend to function as a staff.
a. corporation c. line organization 46. An index of short term paying ability.
b. cartel d. lien and staff a. receivable turnover c. current ratio
b. acid-test ratio d. profit
28. __________ is simply a measure of how much a product costs to margin ratio
make.
a. net expense c. gross margin 47. Intangible assets of a corporation or company.
b. sales d. gross sales a. investment c. equity
b. dacion-en-pago d. patents
29. The decrease in value of a certain property due to the gradual
extraction of its contents. 48. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less
a. depreciation c. depletion than depreciation.
b. diminishing returns d. depression a. scrap value c. earning value
b. book value d. face value
30. Which of the following is not considered?
a. manufacturing cost c. profit and 49. Cash money credit necessary to establish and operate an
loss statement enterprise.
b. schedule expenses d. balance a. funds c. capital
sheet b. assets d. liabilities

31. It is a sharp sudden increase in money or credit or both without 50. Additional information to perspective bidders on contract
corresponding increase in business transactions. documents issued prior to bidding date.
a. deflation c. inflation a. delicts c.
b. subrogation d. resultant technological assessment
b. bid bulletin d. escalatory clause
32. The hire of any person to do whatever work he is skilled in
doing. 51. A civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to
a. promotion cost c. salary cost another person or his property or reputation.
b. material cost d. labor cost a. tort c. negligence
b. material breach d. fraud
33. A cash flow that represents each year for n years without
change in amount, its symbol is A and its factor is (F/A). 52. The highest space in the organizational chart of a corporation.
a. sinking fund c. annual amount a. board of directors c. chairman
b. annuity d. EAC b. president d. quasi-delict

34. The length of time, usually in years, for the cumulative net profit 53. Penal provision of a contract to compensate for the losses
to equal the initial investment. incurred by one party due to the failure to comply with contract
a. pay-back period c. return on provisions.
investment a. dacion-en-pago c. liquidated
b. break-even point d. receivable damages
turn-over b. force majeure d. quasi-delict

35. Series of equal payments at equal time interval. 54. If a cost is a function of the independent variable, the cost is
a. annuity c. amortization said to be a:
b. depreciation d. bond a. incremental cost c. direct cost
b. fixed cost d. variable
36. Share of participation of a corporation. cost
a. partnership c. franchise
b. stock d. corporation 55. Cost of things that are neither labor nor material.
a. investment c. expenses
37. A provision in the contract that indicates the possible b. construction cost d. labor cost
adjustment of material cost and labor cost.
a. secondary clause c. escalatory 56. A series of equal payments occurring at me3qual periods of
clause time.
b. specification d. general provision a. installment c. amortization
b. perpetuity d. annuity
38. A tax on imports.
a. export tax c. export tariff 57. Decrease in value of a physical property with passage of time.
b. import tax d. import tariff a. valuation c. depletion
b. depreciation d. interest
39. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a
corporation. 58. Association of two or more individuals for the purpose of
a. investment c. capital operating a business as co-owners of a profit.
b. assets d. total capital a. organization c. partnership
b. company d. corporation
40. Kind of obligation which has no conditions attached.
a. deal c. gratuitous 59. A legally binding agreement between two personalities having
b. agreement d. favor an agreement.
a. sign-up c. contract
41. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a b. agreement d. deal
certain price at a given place and time.
a. demand c. stocks 60. Profit margin ratio is the percentage of each peso of sales that is
b. supply d. goods net income and the profit margin is equal to:
a. Rate of return
42. The place where buyers and sellers come together. b. net income before taxes/net sales
a. market c. recreation c. price earnings
center d. net income owners equity
b. business d. buy and sell
section 61. Worth of property as shown on the accounting records of an
enterprise.
43. What is the work-in process classified as: a. use value c. market
a. a revenue c. an expense value
b. a liability d. an asset b. fair value d. book value

44. Damages that specified in the contract to insure that if the 62. A diagram drawn to help visualize and simplify problem having
contract becomes disputed, the amount of damages are agreed diverse receipts and disbursements.
upon in advance. a. budget c. year-end-
a. liquidated damages c. general convention
damages b. investment d. cash-flow
b. nominal damages d. special
damages 63. Form of business/company ownership.
a. corporation c. partnership
45. Money paid for the use of borrowed capital. b. a,b,c d. single proprietorship
 c. reversible- irreversible process
64. The peso amount as earned from investment or project. d. reversed rankine cycle
a. ROI c. interest
b. surplus d. ROR 9. On what plane is the Mollier diagram plotted?
a. h –s c. p – V
65. Modes of extinguishing obligations when creditor abandons his b. p – T d. s - u
right to collect.
a. condonation c. debt cancellation 10. In any non – quasistatic thermodynamic properties, the overall
b. forfeiture d. liquidated entropy of an isolated system will
damages a. increase only
b. increase and then decrease
66. Instead of the profits being paid out to the stockholders or owner c. stay the same
as dividends, they are retained in the business and used to finance d. decrease and then increase
expansion.
a. retained earnings c. bonds 11. Cryogenics ranges in temperature from:
b. flow back d. deposits a. -150 to -3000F c. 50 to 1500F
b. -250 to -4950F d. -50 to
67. A market where is only one buyer of an item for which there are -1000F
no goods substitution.
a. monopsony c. monopoly 12. Sound travels fastest in
b. oligopoly d. oligopsony a. steel at 700F c. air at 00F and 1 atm
b. air at 70 0F and 1 atm d. air at 70 0F
68. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product and 0 psi
and that any action of one will lead to almost the same action to
others. 13. The gas from sludge digestion tanks is mainly composed of.
a. oligopoly c. monopoly a. hydrogen sulfide c. nitrogen
b. semi-monopoly d. perfect competition b. carbon dioxide d. methane

69. These are products or services that are desired by human and 14. A feedwater treatment process which involves sedimentation,
will be purchased if money is available after the required necessities coagulation and filtration:
have been obtained. a. mechanical treatment c. thermal
A. utilities c. luxuries treatment
b. necessities d. producer goods and b. chemical treatment d. all of these
services
15. The type of vibration which is caused by fluctuating vertical
70. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human couples which tends to make the ends of the engine rise and fall:
want. a. pitching c. bleaching
a. discount c. utility b. blanking d. splitting
b. luxuries d. necessity
16. The total kinetic energy of all the molecules of an object.
a. temperature c. calorie
b. heat d. pressure
THERMODYNAMICS
17. Why does a cube of ice float in water?
1. If a process is carried out in such a manner that at every instant, a. ice has lower temperature than water
the system departs only infinitesimally from an equilibrium state. b. The density of ice is lesser than water
a. isentropic process c. throttling process c. there are more water than ice
b. non-flow process d. quasi-static d. none of the above
process
18. The number of calories needed to warm up 1 g of any substance
2. It is impossible to operate a cyclic device in such a manner that by 10 C is called _________.
the sole effect is the transfer of heat from heat reservoir to another a. boiling point c. specific heat
at a higher temperature. b. absolute temperature d. Btu
a. Third Law of Thermodynamics
b. Claussius statement 19. Measures the average kinetic energy of molecules.
c. Kelvin-Planck statement a. temperature c. calorie
d. First Law of Thermodynamics b. heat d. pressure

3. Amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one pound of 20. States that pressure applied to a confined fluid acts equally in all
that substance one degree Fahrenheit. directions.
a. BTU c. Calorie a. Pascal’s Principle c. Boyle’s Law
b. Sensible heat d. Centigrade heat unit b. Archimedes Principle d. Dalton’s
Law
4. An open system, first law should be utilized for all the following,
except; 21. The quality x, the liquid-vapor is
a. a turbine a. the ratio of the total volume that is saturated
b. a pump liquid
c. a piston-cylinder device with no inlet and b. the ratio of the total mass that is
exhaust valves saturated vapor
d. a nozzle c. the ratio of the total volume that is saturated
vapor
5. An increase in heat enthalpy of a substance where it undergoes a d. the ratio of the total mass that is saturated
change of phase at a constant pressure and temperature. liquid
a. heat of fusion
b. heat of transformation 22. What is the equipment in air conditioning plant is applied for the
c. heat of crystallization heating and ventilation, usually used the motion?
d. heat of vaporization a. blower c. separator
b. filter d. humidifier
6. An ideal gas is contained in a rigid container. There is no work of a
rotating shaft associated with a container. Any heat transfer is a 23. The ratio of heat removed to the work needed to remove heat.
function of: a. Carnot cycle ratio c. volumetric
a. pressure ratio
b. heat transfer to work b. compression ratio d. COP
c. volume only
d. temperature only 24. One horsepower is equivalent to:
a. 746 watts c. 74.6 watts
7. A very important consequence of the ideal gas model is that the b. 7460 watts d. 7.46 watts
internal energy of an ideal gas is a function of ___________ only.
a. pressure c. point 25. What is the equivalent of one horsepower?
function a. 746 W c. 33 000 ft-lb/min
b. temperature d. volume b. 3141 kw d. 2545 Btu/lb

8. A thermodynamic system which undergoes a cyclic process 26. What is the equivalent temperature in deg K of boiling point of
during a positive amount of work is done by the system. water?
a. heat engine a. 1000 K c. 3730 K
b. heat pump b. 2730 K d. 4000 K
 46. The ratio of the weight of the water vapor mixed with a kg of dry
27. One Btu equals 778.2 ft-lb of mechanical energy is air to the weight of saturated vapor at the same temperature mixed
a. mechanical equivalent of heat with a kg of dry air.
b. calorie a. relative humidity c. humidity ratio
c. refrigerating b. saturation ratio d. specific density
d. latent heat of fusion
47. If an initial volume of saturated steam is expanded isothermally
28. g = 32.2 ft/sec2. How is it expressed in SI? to twice the initial volume, the pressure:
a. 9.81 m/s2 c. 9.08 m/s2 a. halves c. increases
b. 9.86 m/s2 d. 9.91 m/s2 b. remains the same d. decreases

29.In steady flow system, the mass of the working substance is 48. The equilibrium temperature that a regular thermometer
a. always conserved c. constant measures if exposed to atmospheric air is:
b. not equal d. infinity a. wet bulb temp c. dew point
b. dry bulb temp d. 0C
30. What is the Centigrade equivalent of 212 deg F?
a. 2000 C c. 1000 C 49. The system is said to be in thermodynamically equilibrium:
b. 1800 C d. 1200 C a. when there is no tendency towards
spontaneous change
31. Which is true about water as a reference temperature when or if b. when all its parts are at the same temperature
enthalpy is zero/ c. if it has no tendency to undergo further
a. vapor pressure zero c. internal energy is chemical reaction
negative d. when the system is not accelerating
b. entropy is non-zero d. specific volume is
zero 50. In energy transformation process in which the resultant
condition lacks the driving potential needed to reverse the process,
32. The English unit of gravitational constant is: the measure of this loss is expressed as:
a. 32.2 ft/sec2 c. 9.81 ft/sec2 a. entropy decrease of the system
b. 28.97 ft/sec2 d. 3.28 ft/sec2 b. specific heat ratio of the system
c. entropy increase of the system
33. If PV is assumed to be constant, is what law? d. enthalpy increase of the system
a. Charles law c. Boyle’s law
b. Constant Temperature d. Thermodynamic law 51. Entropy is the measure of
a. the change in enthalpy of the system
34. The top most ring in a piston. b. the heat capacity of the substance
a. compression ring c. piston ring c. randomness or disorder
b. oil ring d. shaft ring d. the internal energy of gas

35. What is the gauge used to measure 0.001 to 1 atm? 52. In the flow process, neglecting KE and PE changes, ∫-V dP
a. barometer c. psychrometer represents what?
b.hydrometer d. mercury manometer a. enthalpy change c. shaft work
b. flow energy d. heat transfer
36. An adiabatic process:
a. allows heat transfer into the system but not out of the 53. The temperature of air that has gone through an adiabatic
system saturation process.
b. allows heat transfer out of the system but not into the a. Kelvin temperature c. dew point
system temperature
c. maybe reversible b. boiling temperature d. wet bulb
d. is one in which enthalpy remains unchanged temperature

37. Which of the statements is true? 54. ( u + pv ) is a quantity

a. entropy always decreases a. flow energy c. enthalpy
b. entropy increases up to the critical temperature then it b. shaft work d. internal energy
decreases
c. theoretically, entropy may be zero at a less 55. An adiabatic process with no work done.
enough temperature a. isometric c. isobaric
d. entropy does not change in a throttling process b. throttling d. polytrophic

38. What is the standard temperature in the US?

a. Fahrenheit c. Celsius
b. Rankine d. Kelvin

39. 1 torr is equivalent to a pressure of ________.

a. 1 atm c. 14.7 psi
b. 2 mm Hg d. 1/760 atm

40. 1 calorie is equivalent to:

a. 4.187 J c. 4. 187 kJ
b. 252 Btu d. 778 ft-lb

41. What is the temperature at which water freezes using the Kelvin
scale?
a. 373 c. 237
b. 273 d. 406

42. The SI unit of temperature is:

a. 0F c. 0Btu
b. 0K d. 0R

43. The energy that changes the phase of a substance.

a. specific c. latent
b. fusion d. sensible

44. The second law of thermodynamics states that:

a. entropy cannot be neither created nor destroyed
b. heat energy cannot be completely transformed into work
c. there is no tendency towards spontaneous
change
d. mass is indestructible

45. What is the value of work done for a closed, reversible isometric
system?
a. positive or negative c. positive
b. negative d. zero