Navneet QB Science Grade 10

NAVNEET QUESTION BANK
SCIENCE - GRADE 10
CASE - BASED QUESTIONS & ASSERTION & REASONING BASED QUESTIONS
Table of Contents
Chapter 1: Chemical Reactions and Equations ........................................................................ 2
Chapter 2: Acids, Bases and Salts ........................................................................................... 5
Chapter 3: Metals and Non-metals ........................................................................................ 7
Chapter 4: Carbon and its Compounds ................................................................................... 9
Chapter 5: Periodic Classification of Metals.......................................................................... 11
Chapter 6: Life Processes ..................................................................................................... 13
Chapter 7: Control and Coordination .................................................................................... 15
Chapter 8: How do Organisms Reproduce?........................................................................... 17
Chapter 9: Heredity and Evolution ....................................................................................... 19
Chapter 10: Light—Reflection and Refraction ....................................................................... 21
Chapter 11: The Human Eye and the Colourful World ........................................................... 23
Chapter 12: Electricity.......................................................................................................... 24
Chapter 13: Magnetic Effects of Electric Current ................................................................... 26
Chapter 14: Sources of Energy.............................................................................................. 28
Chapter 15: Our Environment .............................................................................................. 31
Chapter 16: Sustainable Management of Natural Resources ................................................ 35
ANSWERS ............................................................................................................................ 38
Science - Grade 10 1
Chapter 1: Chemical Reactions and Equations
A. Case-based question
i. Read the following and answer the given questions.
Copper is a metal that is often used for decorative metal work, cookware and
even jewellery. When copper is kept exposed to air for long periods of time
it oxidises and over many years, results in a green-coloured layer called
patina. The patina formed prevents further oxidation. Despite the tendency to corrode, alloys
of copper are often used on parts of boats exposed to seawater and pipes carrying water.
1. Identify the type of chemical reaction undergone by copper? (1)
2. Corrosion of copper is a three-step process, with the first step being the exposure of
copper to air. Write down the equation for this step. (1)
3. Both iron and copper undergo corrosion. Which of these metals would corrode faster?
Give reasons. (2)
OR
3. Name any two metals that do not corrode easily and give any one application of each
of these metals. (2)
ii. Read the following and answer the given questions.

Marble’s popularity began in ancient Rome and Greece, where white and off-white marbles were
used to construct a variety of structures, from hand-held sculptures to massive pillars and
buildings.
1. Which of these substances does not contain CaCO3: marble statues, calcined gypsum and sea
shells? (1)
2. Marble statues get corroded or stained when repeatedly get in contact with polluted rainwater.
What is the main reason behind this? (1)
3. What happens when calcium carbonate is heated? Write the chemical equation involved.
(2)
OR
3. Shiny finish that is obtained after three days of whitewashing the walls with slaked lime is
the same as that of marble. Do you agree with this statement? Justify giving reasons.
Support your answer with chemical equations if required. (2)
iii. Read the following and answer the given questions.
The reaction between MnO2 with HCl is depicted in the following diagram. It was observed that
a gas with bleaching abilities was released.
1. What is the nature of the oxide used in the reaction above? (1)
2. What will happen if we take dry HCl gas instead of aqueous solution of HCl? (1)
3. Which type of reaction is occurring between MnO2 and HCl? What are the products formed?
(2)
OR
3. Which gas is released in the above reaction? How is it used in the formation of bleaching
powder? Represent using the chemical reaction. (2)
B. Assertion and reason-based questions

Givenhere are two statements—Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting
the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
1. Assertion: Burning of methane in a limited supply of air is an example of anoxidation
reaction.
Reason: Heat is released during the reaction.
2. Assertion: Iron is prone to rusting.
Reason: In moist conditions, iron reacts with oxygen to form iron oxide.
3. Assertion: Packets of chips are often flushed with carbon dioxide.
Reason: Removal of oxygen prevents the chips from becoming rancid.
4. Assertion: Silver bromide when exposed to sunlight turns grey.
Reason: Elemental silver is grey in colour.
Chapter 2: Acids, Bases and Salts
A student set up two experiments as given below. The two metal electrodes are immersed in
different solutions. The bulb glows when current flows through the H2SO4 solution but not
the sugar solution.
Set up A Set up B
Which of the two given solutions produces ions? Name the ions produced.(1)
1. Name two other compounds that produce similar cations.(1)
2. Why the bulb does not glow in Set up B? (2)
OR
3. Would the bulb glow if the sugar solution is replaced by KOH?Explain. (2)
Frothing in Yamuna:
The primary reason behind the formation of the toxic foam is high phosphate content in the
wastewater because of detergents used in dyeing industries, dhobi ghats and households.
Yamuna's pollution level is so bad that parts of it have been labelled ‘dead’ as there is no oxygen
in it for aquatic life to survive.
1. Would the pH of the river Yamuna be acidic, basic or neutral? Out of hydroxide (OH-) and
hydronium (H3O+) ions, which ion would be present in a greater quantity? (1)
2. Suppose you are provided with a sample of water from river Yamuna and, you have baking
soda, vinegar, caustic soda and washing soda available with you. Which one of these
substances would you use to neutralise the given sample of water? (1)
3. What is the impact of high phosphate ion concentration in river Yamuna? (2)
OR
3. If you are given four unknown samples A, B, C and D with pH values 2, 9, 5 and 11. Which
of these is most likely the sample of river Yamuna? Arrange these solutions in the increasing
order of their hydronium ion concentrations. (2)

1. Assertion:1 molar acetic acid is stronger than 1 molar hydrochloric acid.
Reason:1 molar acetic acid produces lesser hydrogen ions than 1 molar hydrochloric
acid.
` 2.Assertion: NaOH is a strong alkali.
Reason: An aqueous solution of NaOH produces H3O+ ions.
3.Assertion: Brushing your teeth with toothpaste prevents tooth decay.
Reason: Toothpastes are basic in nature and thus neutralise the acids produced by
bacteria living in the mouth.
4.Assertion: Milkman often add a small amount of baking soda to milk.
Reason: Making the milk alkaline reduces the rate of curdling.
Chapter 3: Metals and Non-metals

In a laboratory, a technician was able to extract metal A by treating its sulphide ore. She first
heated the ore strongly in excess air and then extracted the element by reaction with carbon or
carbon monoxide. She repeated the same procedure with the ore of metal B but was unable to
extract the element by reaction with carbon or carbon monoxide.
1. The method of extraction depends on the reactivity of the metal. Keeping this in
mind, out of the given metals—A and B, which would be higher in the reactivity
series andwhy? (2)
2. Give the word equations to show the process by which metal A is extracted from its
ore. (2)
OR
2. In the procedure done by the technician, carbon replaces metal A. Is carbon less
reactive or more reactive than metal A? Can this be considered as a redox reaction?
Explain. (2)

1. Assertion: Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
Reason: Graphite is a non-metal.
2. Assertion: Gold and silver are used to make ornaments.
Reason: Gold and silver are lustrous, malleable and ductile.
3. Assertion: Sodium is stored in cold water.
Reason: Sodium is highly reactive and catches fire.
4. Assertion: Potassium chloride is an ionic compound.
Reason: Electrons are shared between the potassium and chlorine atoms.
Chapter 4: Carbon and its Compounds
Panchkula is a city in Haryana. Most of the water in this city comes from tube wells. The
residents of Panchkula face issues like hard white deposits on taps, non-lathering of soap and
reduction in the cleansing action. The scaling in pipes leads to their blockage gradually.
1. What is the term given to this type of water? What causes this? (2)
2. Why is the cleansing action of soap reduced in this water? (2)
OR
2. Anya who lives in Delhi, wants to know whether the water in her house is like the water the
residents of Panchkula receive. What could be a simple test to determine this?(2)
For an internal combustion engine to move a vehicle down the road, it must convert the energy
stored in the fuel into mechanical energy to drive the wheels. In your car, the distributor and
battery provide this starting energy by creating an electrical spark, which helps in the combustion
of fuels like gasoline. Below given reaction depicts the complete combustion of gasoline in a full
supply of air.
2C8H18 + 25O2 → 16X + 18Y
1. Name the products X and Y. (1)

2. Is C8H18 a saturated or unsaturated hydrocarbon? Give its IUPAC nomenclature. (1)
3. A student while walking on the road observed that a cloud of black smoke belched out from
the exhaust stack of moving trucks on the road. Explain the reason for the production of
black smoke. Also, name any two major pollutants being released from these trucks.
(2)
OR
3. Does the reaction given in the passage involve absorption or evolution of energy? What are
such types of reactions called? Name any two biochemical processes that are similar to the
reaction given above in terms of absorption or evolution of energy.
(2)

1. Assertion: Animal fats are better than vegetable oils for our health.
Reason: Animal fats contain saturated fatty acids.
2. Assertion: Hydrogenation of propane gives propene.
Reason: Propane is a saturated hydrocarbon.
3. Assertion: A yellow flame on a gas stove indicates incomplete combustion.
Reason: Blockage in the air holes of the burners of the gas stovewould limit the air
supply.
4. Assertion: Graphite is brittle whereas diamond is one of hardest substances known.
Reason: Both graphite and diamond are the allotropes of carbon.
Chapter 5: Periodic Classification of Metals
The modern periodic table categorises elements in rows and periods. The elements are arranged
in the order of increasing atomic number. So, hydrogen with an atomic number of 1 is the first
element of the periodic table. Elements with similar properties are placed in the same columns.
These columns are called groups.
1. Halogens belong to group 17. What is the trend seen in the electronic configuration of
all the elements of this group with respect to the number of electrons in their
outermost shell?
(1)
2. Identify the elements that belong to the third period. (1)
3. In a period, the elements have same number of occupied shells. Explain this by
writing down the electronic configuration of any two elements.
(2)
OR
3. Explain the variation in atomic size in a group and in a period. (2)

Givenhere are two statements—Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below:
1. Assertion: Silicon is a metal.
Reason: Silicon has 4 electrons in its valence shell.
2. Assertion: Law of Octaves was applicable only till calcium.
Reason: No elements were discovered after calcium.
3. Assertion: The atomic radius decreases from Li to F.
Reason: The number of shells increases as we go down a group.
4. Assertion: Hydrogen can be placed in group1 or in group 17.
Reason: Hydrogen can lose an electron like group1 elements and can gain electrons like
a group17 elements.
Chapter 6: Life Processes
Fat is not soluble in water and forms globules inside the digestive tract. This reduces the surface
area for the action of the fat-digesting enzymes or the lipases. However, the human body
overcomes this by releasing a fluid or a juice into the small intestine which aids in the digestion
of the fats.
1. Namethis fluid and the organ that produces it. (1)
2. How does this fluid act? (1)
3. Name one synthetic substance showing a similar action as this fluid. How are the two
similar to each other? (2)
OR
3. Write down two differences between this fluid and lipase. (2)
1. Assertion: Intensive exercise may cause cramps.
Reason: There is a loss of muscle flexibility.
2. Assertion:Cells in our body need energy to carry out different processes.
Reason:Mitochondria, also known as the powerhouse of the cell, produces and stores
energy in the form of ATP.
3. Assertion: The valves of the heart prevent the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated
blood.
Reason: The valves are unidirectional.
4.Assertion: The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood and yet is termed as an
artery.
Reason: An artery carries blood away from the heart.
Chapter 7: Control and Coordination
A student was studying about plant hormones and their role in plants. She set up two
experiments as shown in the figure given.
Set up A Set up B
1. Name and define the movement that is seen in both the set ups.(1)
2. Why is this movement important in plants? (1)
3. What causes the bending of the shoot? Explain the action of the hormone.
(2)
OR
3. If the leaves of a ‘touch me not plant’ is touched, the leaves close. How does this
movement differ from the movement described above? (2)

1. Assertion: Adrenaline is often secreted by the body during a sports competition.
Reason: Adrenaline calms the body and helps in relaxation.
2. Assertion: Diabetes can be treated by injections of insulin.
Reason: Diabetes is caused due to the abnormal functioning of the pancreas.
3. Assertion: A reflex action is an immediate response of the body to a stimulus.
Reason: The signals in a reflex action are always processed in the higher centres of the
brain.
4. Assertion: If a potted plant is placed in the shade, the stem and leaves will curve
downward.
Reason: Phototropism is growth of the shoot towards the sunlight.
Chapter 8: How do Organisms Reproduce?
Eva’s mother loves to garden. She wanted to grow roses.

She visited her friend and took the cuttings of the plant
that she desired to grow. Back home, she grew them as
shown.
1. Identify the technique. Do you think that the new plant would be genetically identical
to the parent plant? (1)
2. What could be a possible advantage and disadvantage of this technique? (1)
3. Eva spots a plant. She takes a photograph. How does the reproduction in this
plant differ from that discussed in the example? (2)
OR
3. Eva sees a greenish structure growing on a bread. Name the organism. What
is the mode of reproduction of this organism? (2)
1. Assertion: The sperms are motile.
Reason: Sperms have flagella.
2. Assertion: Menstruation is a disorder of the female reproductive system.
Reason: The uterine lining breaks down and is shed resulting in blood flow.
3. Assertion: Mustard has a bisexual flower.
Reason:In mustard, male and female flowers grow on the same plant.
4. Assertion: Copper-T helps in birth control.
Reason: Copper-T brings hormonal changes that prevent ovulation.
Chapter 9: Heredity and Evolution

Albinism is a genetic condition. People with this condition lack a pigment called melanin in
their skin, hairand eyes. The pattern of inheritance of this trait is similar to the one studied by
the Mendel in pea plants. R is the gene fornormal pigmentation. The genetic makeup of
normal and affected individuals are as given.
Genetic makeup of a person with normal Genetic makeup of a person with albinism
pigmentation
RR, Rr rr
1. Why do we use two letters torepresent one single trait? (1)
2. Looking at the table given, tell whether trait for albinism is dominant or recessive?
Explain. (1)
3. A person with albinism can have parents who are not affected. Explain this. (2)
OR
3. What would be the genetic makeup of the offspring in the following case—RR × Rr?
Explain by drawing the cross. What percentage of the offspring would be affected by
albinism? (2)
1. Assertion: The wing of a bee and the wing of a mosquito are analogous organs.
Reason: Analogous organs have the same function but different structures.
2. Assertion: Geographical barriers can cause speciation.
Reason: Gene flow can be interrupted by geographical barriers.
3. Assertion: When ear lobes are pierced generation after generation, it would eventually
give rise to a generation with holes in the ear lobes.
Reason: Change in genes results in characters being transmitted from one generation to
another.
4. Assertion: Genetic drift is an evolutionary mechanism.
Reason:One of the reasons of the genetic drift is the sudden change in the frequency of
genes due to chance events.
Chapter 10: Light—Reflection and Refraction

Rita observed her image in the spoon changes when
she changes the side of the spoon. She was
surprised with the change in the images and
discussed about this change with her physics
teacher.
1. Identify the reflecting surface in Figure A and
Figure B. Also tell their nature. (2)
2. When Rita brings her face close to the inner curvature of the spoon, an erect image is
observed. Draw a ray diagram to explain this.
(2)
OR
2. Suppose in the given ray diagram the curvature MN shows the outer surface of the spoon and
AB represents the Rita, where would the image be formed? Complete the given ray diagram to
show this. (2)
1. Assertion: In a plane mirror the size of the image is equal to that of the object.
Reason: The image formed is at the same distance behind the mirror as the object in front of
it.
2. Assertion: The convex mirrors are commonly used as rear view mirrors in vehicles.
Reason: A convex mirror has a wider field of view as they are curved outwards.
3. Assertion: The speed of light is greater in a rarer medium as compared to denser
medium.
Reason: A ray of light travelling from a rarer medium to a denser medium bends away from
the normal.
4. Assertion: The SI unit of power of a lens is Watt.
Reason: Power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length.
Chapter 11: The Human Eye and the Colourful World
Naresh a student of Class Xfaces difficulties in reading the text written on the board but he is
able to see his textbook clearly.His parents took him to an eye specialist. After eye examination,
the doctor diagnosed that he is suffering from an eye defect.
1. Identify the defect of vision Naresh is suffering from. (1)
2. Write the position of image formed in the given defect of vision. (1)
3. Write two reasons that are responsible for the given defect of vision. (2)
OR
3. With the help of a ray diagram show that how the above defect can be corrected. (2)
1. Assertion: A rainbow is always formed in the direction that is opposite to the Sun.
Reason: A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky before rain shower.
2. Assertion: The violet light bends the least while the red bends the most.
Reason: Different colours of light bend through different angles with respect to the incident ray
as they pass through the prism.
3. Assertion: The relaxation of the iris enables us to see in bright light.
Reason: The contraction of the ciliary muscles enables us to see nearby objects clearly.
4. Assertion: The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called the accommodation of
eye.
Reason: A normal eye can see objects clearly between 25 cm and infinity.
Chapter 12: Electricity
Richa a student of class X performed an activity in the physics laboratory to check the brightness
of a bulb installed in the circuit as shown. On the basis of given circuit diagram, answer the
following questions.
Bulb (10Ώ)
1. Calculate the total resistance and current flowing through the given electrical circuit. (2)
2. In the above circuit diagram, if we increase the value of 2 Ω resistors, then how is it going to
affect the brightness of the bulb? Explain. (2)
OR
2. Write the function of ammeter and voltmeter in an electrical circuit. (2)

Givenhere are two statements—Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questionsselecting the appropriate option given below:
1. Assertion: Resistance of a conductor decreases with increase in its thickness.
Reason: Resistance of a conductor increases with increase in its length.
2. Assertion: The SI unit of potential difference is Joule.
Reason: Potential difference between the two points in an electric circuit is the work done to
move a unit charge from one point to the other.
3. Assertion: The metals and alloys are good conductors of electricity.
Reason: Both metals and alloys have very low resistivity.
4. Assertion: The resistance of a conductor depends directly on its length.
Reason: The equivalent resistance of several resistors in series is equal to the sum of their
individual resistors.
Chapter 13: Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
Amita performed an experiment to demonstrate the
generation of current by changes in a magnetic field. She
used two different coils of a copper wire having different
number of turns. She coiled these wires on a thick paper
roll as given. She connected the coil I having large
number of turns with a battery and a plug, and coil II with the galvanometer.
Answer the following questions based on the experiment performed by Amita.

1. What is the cause of deflection produced in the galvanometer? (1)
2. Name the phenomenon involved in the above experiment. (1)
3. State the rule which gives the direction of induced current. (2)
OR
3. Suggest any two ways by which we can increase the deflection in the galvanometer in the
given set up. (2)

1. Assertion: Fleming’s right-hand rule is used to find the direction of force.
Reason:If the direction of the field and that of the current are mutually perpendicular to
each other, then the force acting on the conductor will be perpendicular to both.
2. Assertion: Inside a magnet, the direction of field lines is from its south pole to its north pole.
Reason: The magnetic field lines form closed curves.
3. Assertion: Concentric circles representing the magnetic field around a current-carrying-
straight conductor becomes larger as we move away from it.
Reason: The magnitude of the magnetic field produced around the conductor depends on the
magnitude of the current through the wire.
4. Assertion: An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
Reason: Commercial electric motors use a permanent magnet in place of an electromagnet.
Chapter 14: Sources of Energy
India is fortunate to have solar energy available for most of the

year. Bhadla Solar Park, Jodhpur, Rajasthan is the largest solar
park in the world as 2022. Solar energy is a renewable source of
energy which is generated from the Sun. It has thermal energy
that can be harnessed using a range of devices such as solar
cooker, solar cells, etc. However, due to high cost, domestic use
of solar devices is limited.
1. Which are the two expensive elements used in solar panel? (1)
2. How does the glass plate used in solar cookers create the greenhouse effect? (1)
3. Is it possible to build a solar park in the states having highest rainfall, such as Meghalaya and
Sikkim? Will it work as efficiently as the Bhadla solar park? (2)
OR
3 Identify ‘X’ in the given picture of a satellite. How is it helpful for a
X
satellite? (2)
A biogas plant is where biogas is produced by fermenting biomass.
1. In which of the labelled parts of the given diagram would you find anaerobic bacteria?
(1)
2. Is biogas a renewable or a non-renewable source of energy? Give reasons for your answer.
(1)
3. Why biogas is considered a better fuel than animal dung cake? Give any two reasons.
(2)
OR
3. Write down the steps involved in the production of biogas in a biogas plant.
(2)
ii. Read the following and answer the questions based on the information provided and
studied concepts.
In Kunjpura village, located in Karnal district, Haryana, Aditya Aggarwal and his elder brother
Amit Aggarwal run Tee Cee Industries, a steel plant set up by their ancestors in 1984. Along
with this, they also run a gaushala that houses 1,200 cows that can no longer produce milk. The
cow shelter was manageable but running the steel plant was turning out to be expensive because
they spent a whopping Rs 5 lakh every month on electricity. The brothers struck upon an idea.
Why not run the factory with the biogas produced from cow dung from the shelter and other
gaushalas, along with a bio and agri-waste like sewage, farm waste, etc. This led Aditya and
Amit to start Amrit Fertilisers, a biogas project, in 2014, without any government support.
1. Name the gases present in the biogas. (1)

2. What are the essential conditions for the production of biogas in a biogas plant? (1)
3. Draw a schematic diagram of the biogas plant that helped Aditya and Amit run the steel
industry. Label the slurry tank, digester, manure tank and gas tank in the diagram. (2)
OR
3. What makes biogas an excellent fuel? (Give any two points) (2)

1. Assertion: We need to conserve fossil fuels.
Reason: The fossil fuels are non-renewable sources of energy.
2.Assertion: Many thermal power plants are setup near coal or oil fields.
Reason: The transmission of energy is more efficient than transporting coal or petroleum over
the same distance.
3. Assertion: Hydropower plants converts the heat energy of falling water into electricity.
Reason: In India, a quarter of our energy requirements is met by hydropower plants.
4. Assertion: Biogas is an excellent fuel as it contains up to 75% methane.
Reason: Biogas is not a renewable source of energy.
Chapter 15: Our Environment
Minamata is a fishing town in Japan. The main food of the people living there is fish and other
seafood. In 1950s, the people of the town started getting strange symptoms—like numbness of
their lips and limbs, tremors, difficulty in walking and even brain damage. Scientists later
discovered that the source of the illness was high levels of mercury in their diet. A neighbouring
petrochemical plant was discharging mercury into the bay, which then entered into the food
chain.
1. What is the term usedforthe above phenomenon? (1)
2. What is meant by a food chain? (1)
3. How did the mercury discharged in the bay affect humans? (2)
OR
3. Some of the farming practices often lead to a similar effect (the phenomenon discussed in the
passage). Explain. (2)
Food chains are important for the survival of most species.
1. If 10,000 J solar energy falls on green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem, what percentage of
solar energy will get converted into food energy and how much of food energy would be
formed? (1)
2. If Ravi is consuming curd/yoghurt for lunch, which trophic level in a food chain he should
be considered as occupying? (1)
3. What are the two fundamental inputs of an ecosystem? Also, tell what type of movement is
exhibited by them in the ecosystem—unidirectional, bidirectional or repeatedly circulating.
(2)
OR
3. Why there are a maximum of five trophic levels in a food chain? (2)
iii.Observe the food web and answer the questions given below.
1. In the given food web, to which trophic level does the mussel belong? (1)
2. From the given food web name any two animals that are competing for food. (1)
3. Explain why all food chains start with plants. (2)

OR
3. Are moulds, yeast and mushrooms omnivores? Give reasons for your answer. (2)
iv. Read the following and answer the given questions.
Food chains are very important for the survival of most species. When only one element is
removed from the food chain it can result in the extinction of a species in some cases. The
foundation of the food chain consists of primary producers.
Primary producers, or autotrophs, can use either solar
energy or chemical energy to create complex organic
compounds whereas species at higher trophic levels cannot
and so must consume producers or other life that itself
consumes producers. Because sun light is necessary for
photosynthesis, most life could not exist if the sun
disappeared. Even so, it has recently been discovered that
there are some forms of life, chemotrophs that appear to
gain all their metabolic energy from chemosynthesis driven by hydrothermal vents, thus showing
that some life may not require solar energy to thrive.
1. Why are decomposers not included in a food chain? (1)

2. In the given food web, if 100 J of energy is available at the level of the grasshopper then
considering that the grasshopper is directly eaten by the owl, how much energy would reach
the owl? (1)
3. Is the flow of energy unidirectional or multidirectional in the given diagram? Give reasons for
your answer. (2)
OR
3. Is the flow of matter unidirectional or repeatedly circulating? Explain your answer using any
one of the food chains from the food web given above. (2)
v. Read the following and answer the given questions.
Biosphere is a global ecosystem composed of living

organisms and abiotic factors from which they derive
energy and nutrients. And, the ecosystem is defined as a
structural and functional unit of the biosphere comprising a
living and non-living environment that interacts by means of
food chains and chemical cycles resulting in energy flow,
biotic diversity and material cycling to form a stable, self-
supporting system.
1. Are saprophytes included in any food chain? Give reasons for your answer. (1)
2. Give one example of the interaction between the biotic and abiotic factors of the ecosystem.
(1)
3. It is said that the ecosystem forms a stable and self-supporting system. Briefly explain how an
ecosystem regulates itself to form a stable system. (2)
OR
3. If 80% of tigers are removed from an area, how would this affect the population of producers
and primary consumers of that area? (2)

1. Assertion: The larger the number of trophic levels in a food chain, the more efficient
the food chain.
Reason: Only 10% of the energy is transferred from one trophic level to another.
2. Assertion: A typical food chain begins with autotrophs.
Reason: Autotrophs convert solar energy to chemical energy.
3. Assertion: CFC is no longer used in refrigerators.
Reason: CFCs damage the ozone layer.
4. Assertion:Decomposers are cleansing agents.
Reason:The decomposers help in converting the non-biodegradable waste into humus.
Chapter 16: Sustainable Management of Natural Resources
All of us are aware of the 5 R’s—Refuse, Reduce, Reuse, Repurpose and Recycle as a measure
of waste management, conservation, and sustainability. Reducing is choosing to use things with
care to prevent wastage. Reusing as the term implies is the repeated use of items while recycling
is the process by which things instead of being thrown away are converted to other things.
1. Anil denies single-use plastic carry bags when he goes shopping. Which of the 5 R’s given
above best describes this habit? Why? (1)
2. Does the use of disposable plates and glasses embrace the 5 R’s? Why or why not? (1)
3. How do you think the 5 R’s help in waste management? (2)
OR
Jaya collected four old tyres. She tiedfour of them together and placed a cushion on top, making
a seat. Anil says that she is ‘recycling’ the tyres. Is he correct? Why or why not? (2)
ii.Observe the following diagram and answer the given questions.
1. Recycling paper is a good practice but can the

recycled paper be used for packaging food? Give reasons for your answer.
(1)
2. According to the ‘Solid Waste Management Rule 2016’, waste should be segregated into three
categories — wet waste, dry waste and hazardous waste. Give one example of each of any two
of these categories of waste. (1)
3. Read the cases given below and tell which waste management strategy is being used in each
case. (2)
a. Choosing products that use less packaging —
b. Giving unwanted toys and books to hospitals or schools —
c. Not using single-use plastic —
d. Making a flower pot from a used plastic bottle —
OR
3. Effective segregation of wastes at the point of generation is very important. Do you agree with
this statement? Give any two reasons for your answer. (2)
iii. Read the following and answer the given questions.

Waste management is essential in today’s society. Due to an increase in population, the
generation of waste is getting doubled day by day. Moreover, the increase in waste is affecting
the lives of many people.
Waste management is the management of waste by disposal and recycling it. Moreover, waste
management needs proper techniques keeping in mind the environmental situations. For
instance, there are various methods and techniques by which the waste is disposed of. You must
have come across the 5 R’s to save the environment: refuse, reduce, reuse, repurpose and
recycle.
1. The given graph shows the amount of waste generated, dumped and treated in percentage.
Based on the data given identify any one reason for the low success rate of the waste
management process. (1)
2. According to the ‘Solid Waste Management Rule 2016’, the waste should be segregated into
three categories. Given below is the list of some waste materials. Which of these should be
considered hazardous waste? (1)
Coffee and tea powder, plastic carry bags, expired medicines, garden waste, bottles,
razors, newspaper, cardboard, paint cans
3.
Give one example each for the following given waste management strategies.
a. Refuse —
b. Reduce —
c. Reuse —
d. Repurpose — (2)
OR
3. Do you think effective segregation of waste at the point of generation is very important?
(2)

1. Assertion: Coal is a non-renewable resource.

Reason: Current coal deposits have taken millions of years to form.
2. Assertion: Water harvesting increase the groundwater levels.
Reason: Rainwater is collected and stored in rainwater harvesters.
3. Assertion: A forest is a biodiversity hotspot.
Reason: A small number of plant and animal species are found in them.
4. Assertion:Dams are constructed across the river.
Reason:Dams are used for generating thermal energy by storing and regulating the
flow of water.
ANSWERS
Chapter 1: Chemical Reactions and Equations
i.
1. The reaction undergone by the copper is oxidation.
2. The equation is:
2Cu+O2 2CuO
3. Iron will corrode at a faster rate. Iron is higher in the reactivity series as compared to
copper hence it will corrode faster.
OR
3. Gold and platinum are the two metals that do not corrode easily. (Answers may vary)
(i) Gold is primarily used in the jewellery industry.
(ii) Platinum is widely used as a catalyst for chemical reactions.
ii.
1. Dolomite and sea shells are made up of calcium carbonate. Calcined gypsum is made up of
calcium sulphate hemihydrate.
2. Polluted rainwater is generally acidic in nature. Hence, it reacts with the calcium carbonate of
the marble statues causing them to get corroded or stained.
3. As calcium carbonate is heated in the container, it will decompose to give calcium oxide and
carbon dioxide. It is a type of decomposition reaction.
OR
3. Yes, slaked lime is calcium hydroxide. Calcium hydroxide slowly reacts with the carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. This calcium
carbonate gives a shiny finish to walls. The chemical formula of marble is also CaCO3.
iii.
1. MnO2 (Manganese oxide) is a metallic oxide. It is a basic oxide.
2. If we take dry HCl instead of the aqueous solution of HCl, the reaction will not occur.
3. The reaction between MnO2 and HCl is a type of redox reaction in which HCl is oxidized to
Cl2 and MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2.
OR
3. Chlorine gas is released in the above reaction. Bleaching powder is produced by the action of
chlorine on dry calcium hydroxide (slaked lime). Its chemical formula is CaOCl2.

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. a
Chapter 2: Acids, Bases and Salts
i.
1. Among two solutions, sulphuric acid produces ions. Sulphuric acid release hydrogen ions
(H+) and sulphate (SO4-2)ions in the solution.
2. Hydrochloric acid and nitric acid produces similar cations.
3. Sugar molecules do not break down into ions in water, hence in Setup B bulb does not
glow.
OR
4. Yes,the bulb will glow if the sugar solution is replaced by KOH, as K+ and OH- ions are
formed. The potassium and hydroxide ions carry charges through the solution, completing
the circuit and allowing the bulb to glow.
ii.
1. The pH of the river Yamuna is basic. The hydroxide ions must be present in a greater
quantity.
2. Since the pH of the river Yamuna is basic and vinegar is acidic, therefore, vinegar can be used
to neutralize the sample of water.
3. High phosphate ion concentration in river Yamuna may lead to an increase in the growth of
algae. The rapidly growing algae will take up all the oxygen from the water and therefore the
oxygen levels in the water would decrease.
OR
3. Sample D is more likely to be the sample of river Yamuna. Due to the high levels of
detergents in the river, the pH of the river is likely to be 11 or more than that.
Samples as arranged in the increasing order of their hydronium ion concentrations.
D (pH – 11) < B (pH – 9) < C (pH – 5) < A (pH – 2)

1. d
2. c
3. a
4. a
Chapter 3: Metals and Non-metals
i.
1. Metal Bwould be higher in the reactivity series. Highly reactive metals have a higher
affinity for oxygen than carbon and the oxides of these metals cannot be reduced by
carbon.
2.
Metal oxide + carbon → Metal + carbon monoxide
OR
2. Carbon is more reactive than metal A and hence can displace the metal.
Yes, carbon is oxidised and the metal is reduced.

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c
Chapter 4: Carbon and its Compounds

i.
1. The term used for this type of water is hard water. High levels of calcium and magnesium in
water are some of the reasons for the hardness of water.
2. The calcium and magnesium salts react with the soap molecules. The sodium ions in the soap
moleculesare replaced by calcium and magnesium ions leading to the formation of a curdy white
precipitate called scum. This reduces the cleansing action of soap.
OR
2. The test that can be performed to determine the hardness of water is as follows:
(i) Take water in a beaker.
(ii) Add some soap, and shake well.
(iii) If the water is soft, bubbles would be formed. If the water is hard, no or very less bubbles
would be formed and a white precipitate will be seen at the bottom.
ii.
1.
2. C8H18 is a saturated hydrocarbon. It is n-octane.

3. Black smoke is produced due to the incomplete combustion of the fuel. Fuels like petrol and
diesel have some amount of nitrogen and sulphur in them. Their combustion results in the
formation of oxides of sulphur and nitrogen which are the major pollutants.
OR
3. It involves the evolution/release of energy. Such types of reactions are called exothermic
reactions. Cellular respiration and the decomposition of vegetable matter to form compost are
some examples of exothermic reactions.

1. d
2. d
3. a
4. b
Chapter 5: Periodic Classification of Metals

i.
1. All the halogens have 7 electrons in their outermost shell.
2. Elements Na to Ar belong to third period.
3. Na–2,8,1 and Cl– 2, 8,7. In both the elements, the K, L and M shells are occupied.
OR
3. Atomic size decreases across a period from left to right and increases down a group.
1. d
2. c
3. b
4. a
Chapter 6: Life Processes

i.
1. The fluid is bile and the organ that produces it is liver.
2. Bile saltsbreakdown the large fat globules into smaller globules, thereby, increasing the
surface area for the action of enzymes.
3. The synthetic substance that acts in a similar way to bile salts is soap/detergent. Soap
emulsifies the oil in dirt by producing micelles.
OR
3. Lipases break down the fats into fatty acids and glycerol while bile is an emulsifier.
Lipase is secreted by the pancreas while bile is secreted by the liver.

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. a
Chapter 7: Control and Coordination
i.
1. Phototropism. Growth towards the light is known as phototropism.
2. Plants are unable to shift location, but they show movements in response to stimuli.
For example, stems respond to stimulus of light and bend towards it. Plants show
phototropic movements to enhance photosynthetic activity.
3. Auxins cause the bending of the shoots. Auxins diffuse to that side of the shoot that is
away from the sunlight and stimulates the cells on this side of the shoot to grow
longer. This in turn, causes the shoot to bend towards the sunlight.
OR
3. The closing of the leaves is an immediate response to stimulus of touch. In response to
touch, the cells release water and thus the leaves droop. Whereas, in phototropism, in
response to the sunlight, the bending of the stem is caused by the auxins.
1. c
2. a
3. c
4. d
Chapter 8: How do Organisms Reproduce?

i.
1. The technique shown is vegetative propagation.
Yes, because the vegetative propagation is a form of asexual reproduction that involves a
single parent and hence the offspring will be genetically identical to the parent plant.
2. Advantage: Plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flowers and fruits earlier
than those produced from seeds.
Disadvantage: Plantsgrown by vegetative propagation lack variations.
3. Buds are produced at the notches of leaves that give rise to a new plants. This is
vegetative propagation by leaves whereas, in case of the rose plant, it was vegetative
propagation by stem.
OR
3. The greenish structure on the bread is a type of fungus (Rhizopus). Rhizopus reproduce
by spore formation. This is another method employed by organisms to reproduce asexually.

1. a
2. d
3. c
4. c
Chapter 9: Heredity and Evolution
i.
1. Two letters are used torepresent one single traitbecause one gene of the trait comes from
the mother and the other gene comes from the father. The letter which is small denotes
the recessive character and the letter that is capital denotes the dominant character.
2. The given trait is recessive. Albinism is expressed only when both the recessive copies of
the gene come together.
3. If two people with the genetic makeup Rr have children, the genetic makeup of the
children would be RR, Rror rr. The child with rronly would exhibit albinism.
OR
3.
R r
R RR Rr
R RR Rr
Zero per cent of the offspring would be affected by albinism.
1. d
2. a
3. d
4. a
Chapter 10: Light—Reflection and Refraction
i.
1. Figure A: Concave surface and its nature is converging
Figure B: Convex surface and its nature is diverging
2.
OR
2.
1. b
2. a
3. c
4. d
Chapter 11: The Human Eye and the Colourful World
i.
1. Naresh is suffering from myopia (short-sightedness).
2. In myopia, the image is formed in the front of the retina.
3. Two reasons are:
(i) Excessive curvature of the eye lens
(ii) Elongation of the eye ball
OR

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. d
Chapter 12: Electricity
i.
1. Total resistance = 10 Ω + 2 Ω = 12 Ω
I = V/R
I = 6 volt/12 ohm
= 0.5 A
2. Brightness of the bulb will decrease as the total resistance in the circuit increases, the current
flowing through the circuit decreases.
OR
2. An ammeter is used to measure the electric current in an electric circuit and a voltmeter is
used to measure the potential difference in an electrical circuit.
1. b
2. d
3. a
4. b
Chapter 13: Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
i.
1. Change in the magnetic field of coil 1 induces a current in coil 2 which causes a deflection in
the galvanometer.
2. Electromagnetic induction is the phenomenon involved in given experiment.
3. Fleming’s Right-hand rule. This rule states that, if we stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle
finger of the right hand in such a way that they are perpendicular to each other. The forefinger
indicates the direction of the magnetic field, the thumb shows the direction of motion of the
conductor and the middle finger shows the direction of the induced current.
OR
Two ways by which we can increase the deflection in the galvanometer:
a. By increasing the number of turns in the coil.
b. By increasing the strength of the current.
c. By placing a strong magnet near the coil. (Any two)
1. d
2. a
3. a
4. d
Chapter 14: Sources of Energy

i.
1. Special grade silicon and silver.
2. Glass plate allows the light to enter into the cooker. It traps the heat, thereby creating a
greenhouse effect.
3. Yes, it is possible to build a solar park in high rainfall states such as Meghalaya and Sikkim.
However, it will not work as efficiently as the Bhadla Solar Park, because of lack of clear and
bright sunlight.
OR
3. X is the solar panel.
Solar energy is transformed into electric energy by solar panels, which power the satellite.
ii.
1. In the diagram, the part labelled B is a digester. It has anaerobic bacteria.
2. Biogas is a renewable source of energy. Biogas is obtained from biomass. Biomass is a
renewable organic material that is obtained from plants and animals.
3. a. Biogas has a higher calorific value than animal dung cake, which has a lower calorific
value.
b. Biogas does not leave any residue after burning, whereas animal dung cake leaves a
residue.
c. The burning of the animal dung cake leads to the production of smoke, whereas biogas is a
cleaner fuel as it burns without smoke.
(Any two)
OR
3. The steps involved in the production of biogas in a biogas plant are as follows:
a. Formation of a slurry by mixing cow dung with water in a mixing tank.
b. Decomposition of the slurry in the digester.
c. Formation of the biogas.
d. Storage and transfer of the biogas.
iii.
1. Biogas contains about 75% methane and 25 % of other gases that include carbon dioxide and
nitrogen.
2. Two essential requirements for the production of biogas in a biogas plant are:
a. anaerobic conditions and anaerobic microorganisms that decompose the organic matter in
the absence of oxygen
b. presence of water and the organic matter
3.
A– Slurry
B– Digester
C– Manure
D– Gas tank
OR
3. a. Biogas has a higher calorific value.
b. Biogas does not leave any residue after burning.
c. Burning of biogas does not produce smoke, therefore, it is a cleaner fuel.
(Any two)

1. a
2. a
3. d
4. c
Chapter 15: Our Environment
i.
1. The phenomenon is bio-magnification. Bio-magnification is the accumulation of a
chemical substance in an organism at a higher concentration.
2. A food chain is a sequence of organisms in which each is dependent on the next as a
source of food.
3. The mercury in the water body is taken up by aquatic plants and fish. It thus enters the
food chain. As mercury is non-biodegradable, it accumulates at each trophic level.
Humans are at the top of the food chain and hence tend to have the maximum
concentration of mercury.
OR
Pesticides sprayed on crops are washed into water bodies and are taken up by aquatic
organisms. Thus, the pesticides enter the food chain. As pesticides are non-
biodegradable, they accumulate at each trophic level and causes a similar effect as was
seen in the case of Minamata disease which was caused due to the accumulation of
mercury.
ii.
1. Green plants capture about 1% of the energy trapped in sunlight that falls on their leaves and
converts it into food energy. Therefore, if 10,000 J of energy trapped in the sunlight falls on the
leaves then the amount of food energy formed would be
2. Ravi consumes curd. Curd is formed from milk. Milk is obtained from herbivores (second
trophic level). Herbivores depend on producers (first trophic level). Therefore, Ravi who is
consuming curd belongs to the third trophic level of the food chain.
3. Matter and energy are the two fundamental inputs of an ecosystem. The flow of energy in the
ecosystem is unidirectional. The energy captured by the autotrophs is passed on to the
herbivores and is not reverted to the Sun. In a similar way, as the energy moves to the next
trophic level i.e. secondary consumers, it cannot come back to the herbivores.
The matter is repeatedly circulating. When an organism eats something, matter is transferred
to the next level and when it dies, it decomposes, returning the nutrients back to the soil.
OR
3. At each level, only 10% of energy is transferred. After the fifth tropic level, the amount
of energy transferred would be too less. Hence, a maximum of five trophic levels are
possible in a food chain.
iii.
1. Mussel belongs to the third trophic level in the given food web. Microscopic plants like green
algae form the first, microscopic animals who consume algae form the second and mussel
forms the third trophic level. They are secondary consumers.
2. Mussels and barnacles are competing for microscopic animals.
3. Plants are autotrophs. They can trap solar energy and thus can synthesise their own food.
Therefore, all food chains start with plants.
OR
3. No, moulds, yeast and mushrooms are not omnivores. They are saprophytes. They feed on
dead and decaying matter to obtain their nutrition.
iv.
1. Decomposers cannot be placed at any specific trophic level in a food chain. They are
associated with all the trophic levels. When the organisms die they are decomposed by the
decomposers.
2. 10% of energy is transferred at each trophic level. If 100 J of energy is available at the level
of grasshopper, then amount of energy transferred to the owl =
3. The flow of energy is always unidirectional. The energy captured by the autotrophs is
passed on to the herbivores and is not reverted back to the Sun. Similarly, when these
herbivores are consumed by the primary carnivores, the energy is transferred to the primary
carnivores. The energy transferred to the primary carnivores cannot be reverted back to the
herbivores.
OR
3. The flow of matter is repeatedly circulating. When an organism eats something matter is
transferred to the next level and when it dies, it decomposes, thus the nutrients are returned back
to the soil. For example, grasshopper eats plants, rats eat grasshoppers and owls eat rats. At each
level along with the energy, the matter is transferred. When the owl dies the matter decomposes
and the nutrients are returned to the soil which are again taken up by the plants. This way the
matter keeps circulating.
v.
1. No, saprophytes are not included in any food chain. Saprophytes feed on dead and decaying
matter. Therefore, they can be associated with any trophic level of the food chain.
2. There is a continuous interaction between the abiotic factors and biotic factors. Abiotic
factors are important for organisms to survive. For example, plants require abiotic factors
like sunlight, carbon dioxide and water to carry out photosynthesis.
3. Ecosystem forms a stable and self-supporting system through various processes. Some of
them are as follows:
a. Existence of food chains and food webs. This helps in keeping the population of different
organisms under check or control.
b. Decomposition and nutrient cycling convert the nutrients present in the dead organisms
back to the atmosphere in the form that plants and other microbes can readily use it.
OR
3. Tigers are carnivores. Removal of 80% of the tigers would result in an increase in the
population of herbivores. Herbivores are the primary consumers. Herbivores depend on plants
for their food. Plants are producers. An increase in the population of primary consumers would
lead to a decrease in the population of producers.

1. d
2. a
3. a
4. c
Chapter 16: Sustainable Management of Natural Resources

i.
1. Refuse and reduce are the environmental principles being followed by Anil. Plastic takes
hundreds or even thousands of years to degrade, and do not biodegrade completely and
adversely affecting the environment.
2. No, the use of disposable plates and glasses does not embrace the 5R’s. These objects fall
into the category of one-time use and their usage result in depletion of natural resources
and increase in waste production.
3. The sincere application of 5 R’s—‘Refuse, Reduce, Reuse, Repurpose and Recycle’ can
effectively combat the effects of consumption and waste. We should incorporate
maximum use of the 5Rs in our lifestyles in a move towards sustainable use of our
resources.
OR
3. Yes, Anil is correct as Jaya is recycling the old tyres that are no longer beused on vehicles
due to wear or irreparable damage and making seats is one of the ways through which we
can reduce waste production and not throwing them away.
ii.
.
1. Recycling of paper is a good practice but recycled paper should not be used as food
packaging material because recycled paper may release harmful substances into the food that
may not be good for our health.
2. Wet waste— Coffee and tea powder, garden waste (Any one)
Dry waste— Plastic carry bags, bottles, newspaper, cardboard (Any one)
Hazardous waste— Expired medicines, razors, paint cans (Any one)
(Any two) (Answers may vary)
3. a. Choosing products that use less packaging — Reduce
b. Giving unwanted toys and books to hospitals or schools — Reuse
c. Not using single-use plastic — Refuse
d. Making a flower pot from a used plastic bottle — Repurpose
OR
3. Yes, effective segregation at the point of generation is very important because:
a. by doing this less waste goes to landfills.
b. it helps in avoiding the health issues that may arise from wastes and toxins that have been
improperly disposed of.
c. it makes recycling easier and more economical.
(Any two)
iii.
1. Only a small amount of the generated waste is collected. Out of the collected waste, a very
small proportion is subjected to proper treatment before disposal.
2. Hazardous waste— expired medicines, razors, paint cans
3. Refuse— Not using single-use plastic
Reduce— Choosing products that use less plastic
Reuse— Giving unwanted toys and books to hospitals or schools
Repurpose— Making a flower pot from a used plastic bottle
OR
3. Effective segregation at the point of generation of waste is very important because by doing
this less waste goes to landfills. Also, it helps in avoiding the health issues that may arise from
wastes and toxins that have been improperly disposed of.

1. a
2. a
3. c
4. c

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NAVNEET QUESTION BANK

ii. Read the following and answer the given questions.

iii. Read the following and answer the given questions.

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

ii. Read the following and answer the given questions.

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

i. Read the following and answer the given questions.

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

i. Read the following and answer the given questions.

ii. Read the following and answer the given questions.

2C8H18 + 25O2 → 16X + 18Y

1. Name the products X and Y. (1)

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

i. Read the following and answer the given questions.

These columns are called groups.

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

Eva’s mother loves to garden. She wanted to grow roses.

i. Read the following and answer the given questions.

i. Read the following and answer the given questions.

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

Answer the following questions based on the experiment performed by Amita.

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

India is fortunate to have solar energy available for most of the

i. Read the following and answer the given questions.

A biogas plant is where biogas is produced by fermenting biomass.

1. Name the gases present in the biogas. (1)

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

i. Read the following and answer the given questions.

Food chains are important for the survival of most species.

3. Explain why all food chains start with plants. (2)

iv. Read the following and answer the given questions.

1. Why are decomposers not included in a food chain? (1)

v. Read the following and answer the given questions.

Biosphere is a global ecosystem composed of living

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

ii.Observe the following diagram and answer the given questions.

1. Recycling paper is a good practice but can the

iii. Read the following and answer the given questions.

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

1. Assertion: Coal is a non-renewable resource.

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

Chapter 4: Carbon and its Compounds

2. C8H18 is a saturated hydrocarbon. It is n-octane.

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

Chapter 5: Periodic Classification of Metals

Chapter 6: Life Processes

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

Chapter 8: How do Organisms Reproduce?

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

Chapter 14: Sources of Energy

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

Chapter 16: Sustainable Management of Natural Resources

2. Hazardous waste— expired medicines, razors, paint cans

3. Refuse— Not using single-use plastic

B. Assertion and reason-based questions

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