BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE

GENERAL REVIEW

Name: _____________________________

I. VOCABULARY REVIEW
Sentence Completion
Directions: Fill in the blank with the appropriate term that would best complete the following ideas.

1. The basic structure that makes up the plasma membrane is the ________________________.
2. A cell environment that has more solute than the inside of the cell is a ________________________ environment.
3. A type of cell transport that requires the expenditure of energy is ________________________ transport.
4. The microscopy technique that uses water as a medium of specimen is ________________________ technique.
5. Macromolecules that contain carbon atoms and some hydrogen are ________________________ compounds.
6. The subunits that make up large molecules or polymers are ________________________.
7. The attraction between dissimilar molecules is ________________________.
8. A molecule that resulted from uneven sharing of electrons is a ________________________ molecule.
9. A molecule that does not interact with water molecules is a ________________________ molecule.
10. The channel proteins that provide passageways for water molecules are the ________________________.

II. UNDERSTANDING THE BIG IDEA

Multiple Choice
Directions: Choose the letter of the best answer to complete the following ideas. Write only the letter on the space
provided before every item.

___1. If a microscope has a series of three lenses that magnify individually 5x, 5x, and 7x, what is the total magnification of the
microscope?
a. 25x b. 35x c. 17x d. 175x
___2. Imagine that you are attempting to view an ok-ok nymph under a compound microscope. Your image seems sharp but
extremely dark and difficult to make out. Which adjustment would be least helpful in helping you to see your ok-ok
nymph image?
a. diaphragm b. condenser c. illuminator d. coarse adjustment knob
___3. If the field of view of the low power (10x) objective lens is 4 mm, what would the field of view be for the high power
(100x) lens?
a. 400 microns b. 4 millimeters c. 0.4 centimeters d. 4 micrometers
___4. If 100 cheek cells could fit in a certain field of view measuring 2 mm in diameter, what would be the approximate size of
each cell?
a. 0.02 mm b. 50 mm c. 0.50 mm d. 20 μm
___5. Who was the first person to see cells under the microscope and give them a name?
a. Theodore Schwann b. Robert Hooke c. Rudolf Virchow d. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
___6. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental idea of the cell theory?
a. Cells arise only from previously existing cells. b. Cells are the basic unit of structure for all living organisms.
d. All organisms must contain DNA in their nucleus. c. All living organisms are composed of one or more cells.
___7. What is the characteristic of a group of molecules that do not permit certain materials to pass through it?
a. amphipathic b. semi-fluidity c. malleability d. selectively permeable
___8. Which of the following statements about the cell membrane is CORRECT?
a. It prevents the exit of all materials from the cell.
b. It has a rigid structure composed of cellulose.
c. It is a two-layered structure composed of lipids and proteins.
d. It is a fluid-filled organelle that surrounds the nucleolus.
___9. According to the Fluid Mosaic Model, what structure does the cell membrane primarily made of?
a. protein pumps b. cholesterol c. a mosaic d. lipid bilayer
___10. Streptococcus pyogenes is the bacterium that causes strep throat. Based on its name, what is the shape of the
individual bacterial cell?
a. round b. rod c. spiral d. polyhedral
___11. Which cellular characteristic sets prokaryotes apart from eukaryotes?
a. no nuclei b. many organelles c. rigid cell walls d. absence of nucleic acids
___12. Under a microscope Archaea may look very similar to Bacteria, but when inspected carefully they differ in that:
a. all Bacteria have triple flagella while all Archaea have double flagella
b. Archaea lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls as compared to Bacteria
c. Bacteria have only two cell walls while Archaea have more than that
d. Archaea have a single nucleus as compared to indefinite nuclei of Bacteria
___13. Which habitation would anaerobic prokaryotes likely be found?
a. in decaying matter b. dry rocks and soils c. in the skin d. in an oxygen-free place
___14. Which organism can reproduce through binary fission?
a. molds b. starfish c. fern d. bacterium
___15. If a more concentrated salt solution is on one side of a membrane (side A) and a less concentrated salt solution is on
the other side (side B), water molecules tend to pass through the membrane from:
a. side A to side B b. side B to side A c. equally both sides d. neither sides
___16. What will happen if red blood cells are placed in a hypotonic medium?
a. plasmolysis b. turgidity c. cytolysis d. dehydration
___17. The membrane transport mechanism used when an amoeba engulfs a bacterial cell is called:
a. pinocytosis b. phagocytosis c. Na+ - K+ pump d. exocytosis
___18. What makes a water molecule (figure at right) polar?
a. Water has the ability to be frozen.
b. The pH of pure water varies with temperature.
c. A water molecule has a slight charge on each end.
d. A water molecule is made up of three atoms.
___19. Why can a water strider seemingly walk on water without sinking?
a. The legs of this insect have little hairs that resemble to a gigantic boat.
b. Water has high heat capacity causing the pond to accumulate enough heat.
c. Adhesion of the tip of the legs of the strider to the water surface makes it float.
d. Cohesion of water molecules produces surface tension that supports the strider.
___20. In comparison to most other substances, why does water need a great deal of heat to raise its temperature?
a. Water has a high pH, hence acidic. b. Water is a polar molecule.
c. Water has high heat capacity. d. Water is a universal solvent.
___21. Which illustrates adhesion resulting to capillary action?
a. Blood flows from arteries to small blood vessels called capillaries.
b. A needle does not sink when carefully placed on a glass of water.
c. Water is drawn out of the roots and up into stems and leaves of plants.
d. Sea breeze is produced in a beach during the day because land heats up first.
___22. Which does a polymer most closely resemble?
a. link in a chain b. circle c. chain d. intersection
___23. Different organisms store glucose in various forms. You discover a new species. Upon chemical analysis, you find that it
is comprised of significant amounts of glycogen. To which organism might this new species be related?
a. potato b. fern c. dog d. bacteria
___24. Which is NOT true of lipids?
a. They are commonly called fats and oils. b. They are hydrophobic.
c. They are good for energy storage. d. They are polar.
___25. The diagram at right shows a certain monomer of a macromolecule. What would biochemists
call the result of chaining many of these molecules joining together?
a. a carbohydrate b. a lipid c. a nucleic acid d. a protein
___26. Which cannot take place during a chemical reaction?
a. formation of new atoms b. bonds breaking between atoms
c. formation of new molecules d. bonds forming between atoms
___27. In the following equation, which is the product of the reaction?

a. C6H12O6 and 6O2 b. 6O2 and 6CO2 c. C6H12O6 and

6H2O d. 6CO2 and 6H2O
___28. Which is true about enzymes?
a. They act on nonspecific, randomly chosen substrates.
b. After a reaction, they cannot be reused.
c. They can speed up metabolic processes in the body.
d. They cannot change shape.
___29. A student drew and labeled the graph (at right) based on the results of
an experiment. Why did the student include the labels activation energy
and energy released?
a. to explain why CO2 and H2O react to form methane and oxygen
b. to show that the reaction needed heat to occur
c. to explain why the experiment gave off heat
d. to explain why methane and oxygen react to form CO2 and H2O
___30. The diagram below illustrates a biochemical process that occurs in
organisms. The substance labeled catalyst also is known by what
other name?
a. antibody c. ion
b. enzyme d. inorganic compound

___31. Which refers to the process in which organisms keep their internal conditions relatively stable?
a. regulation b. homeostasis c. chemical balance d. metabolism
___32. Which of the following characteristics is NOT shared by both a carabao and the grass it eats?
a. uses energy
 b. irritability
c. movement from place to place
d. stable internal environment
___33. Which properly describes negative feedback mechanism?
a. the input promotes the output
b. the output enhances the process
c. the output limits the process
d. the input is lost along the process
___34. Which organism would you expect is capable of asexual reproduction?
a. yeast b. sperm cell c. monkey d. whale
___35. How is the water-regulating activity of the kidney controlled by our body?
a. by reabsorption of water in the glomerulus when we are well-hydrated
b. by balancing the amount of ammonia in our blood through filtration
c. through sweating and drinking fluids when we are thirsty and dehydrated
d. through homeostatic regulation of ADH production of the pituitary gland
___36. Where does water reabsorption happen?
e. glomerulus b. distal tubule c. ureters d. Loop of Henle
___37. Which physiological response results from less ADH in the blood?
a. reduced blood volume
b. concentrated urine
c. thirst sensation
d. decreased kidney action
___38. Which is true about the immune system and homeostasis?
a. One may develop a fever in response to infection to alert the body system.
b. The pituitary gland produces the lymphocytes to fight off pathogens.
c. B-lymphocytes are responsible for blood clotting when wounds are open.
d. Cold-blooded animals do not need heat in order to survive in cold climates.
___39. What adaptations do freshwater fishes have in order to survive in a hypotonic environment?
a. They actively pump salt and ammonia from their scales.
b. They have long and slender bodies to propel themselves efficiently.
c. They excrete diluted urine through their kidneys.
d. They drink and actively pump salt out across their gills.
___40. How do desert plants cope with their environment despite high daytime temperatures?
a. They have reduced their roots into spines and fat reservoirs.
b. They open their stomata and take in CO2 during nighttime
c. They grow far from oases to conserve more water in their body.
d. They do not photosynthesize during the day.
___41. What factor(s) affect(s) homeostasis?
I. Age
II. Gender
III. Nutrition
IV. Physical Activities
a. I and II b. I, II, and III c. I only d. I, II, III, and IV

For items 12 and 13, refer to the figure at far right.

___42. In the figure, all of the following are parts of an ADP molecule EXCEPT:
a. structure A b. structure B
c. structure C d. structure D
___43. Which among the parts of the ATP (figure at right) stores energy for cellular
activities?
a. structure A only b. structure B only
c. structures C to D d. structures B to C
___44. Which best describes light-independent reactions?
a. They are the first stage of photosynthesis.
b. They utilize the energy stored in ATP and NADPH.
c. They use carbon dioxide to synthesize NADPH.
d. They create energy-rich ATP and NADPH.
___45. Which best describes light-dependent reactions?
a. They take place in the stroma.
b. Water is an important raw material in this phase.
c. The Electron Transport Chain produces 32 ATP.
d. Photosystems I and IV are involved in the reactions.
___46. When NADPH becomes NADP+, then NADPH is
a. reduced b. oxidized c. destroyed d. useless
___47. Which process is anabolic?
a. glycolysis
b. photolysis
 c. photosynthesis
d. glucose becomes pyruvic acid
___48. How many percent of energy is received by a secondary consumer that is passed originally from a producer and a
primary consumer?
a. 90% b. 10% c. 1% d. 0.1%
___49. What is the primary role of NADPH, NADH, and FADH2 in cellular processes of photosynthesis and cell respiration?
a. make ATP b. generate electrons c. store electrons d. carry electrons
___50. Which is the source of Oxygen gas in the process of photosynthesis?
a. carbon dioxide b. H2O c. C6H12O6 d. NADH
___51. Which of the following is the source of the carbon in sugar produced during photosynthesis?
a. ATP b. carbon dioxide c. water d. oxygen
___52. What evolutionary tactic is developed by CAM and C4 plants to cope with harsh cold or dry environment?
a. Plants close their stomata during the day or incorporate carbon atoms to intermediate acids.
b. Plants transform into insectivores that devour flies and even flesh of the hands of a gardener.
c. Plants broaden their leaves to capture all light energy and maximize transpiration.
d. Plants bloom their flowers as much as they can to attract light energy and active pollinators.
___53. Most leaves have a large surface area so they can receive large amounts of ___________.
a. carbon dioxide b. sunlight c. oxygen d. rain
___54. Which substance from the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis is the source of energy for the Calvin cycle?
a. ADP b. NADPH c. water d. pyruvic acid
___55. Which statement is correct about photosystems?
a. Photosystems are channel proteins located on the cristae of mitochondrion.
b. Photosystems use light energy to produce pyruvic acid for Krebs cycle.
c. Photosystems are complex protein group found in thylakoid membranes.
d. Photosystems I and IV are the major photosysnthetic groups in plants.
___56. How is energy conserved and transformed in the process of photosysnthesis?
a. Heat energy is transformed into mechanical energy.
b. Light energy is transformed into heat.
c. Light energy is transformed into chemical energy.
d. Chemical energy is transformed into heat.
___57. In the light dependent reactions, when light strikes the pigments (P700 or P680) what is the immediate result?
a. Electrons from water are fused by ATP synthase.
b. Excited electrons are passed to electron acceptors.
c. Glucose is produced from RuBisCO in the stroma.
d. Photosystem III produces either NADPH or ATP.
___58. What are factors that affect photosynthesis the most?
a. Precipitation, sunlight, and pollinators
b. Temperature, light intensity, and water availability
c. Erosion of soil, nutrient supply, and amount of CO2
d. Soil nutrients, trunk breadth, and leaf dimensions
___59. The photosynthetic tissue of the leaf is called
a. mesophyll b. cuticle c. epidermis d. cortex
___60. The photosynthetic organs of most plants are the
a. stems b. chloroplasts c. leaves d. roots
___61. The light reaction of photosynthesis does not include
a. chemiosmosis b. oxygen liberation c. charge separation d. electron transport
___62. The end product of glycolysis is
a. NADH b. acetyl-CoA c. lactate d. pyruvate
___63. You are outside admiring the flowers on a rose bush. Looking at the green leaves, the green light is __________ from
chlorophyll.
a. mutated b. filtered c. dissolved d. reflected
___64. All of the following statements about glycolysis are true EXCEPT:
a. Glycolysis can operate in the complete absence of O2.
b. Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell.
c. Glycolysis produces a net gain of 2 ATP and 2 NADPH.
d. One glucose molecule yields 2 pyruvate molecules.
___65. When muscle cells are deprived of oxygen, the cells resort to what process?
a. lactic acid fermentation
b. aerobic fermentation
c. pyruvic acid oxidation
d. alcoholic fermentation
___66. The two types of molecules that act as electron carrier in the Krebs cycle are:
a. NADH and ATP
b. NADH and FADH2
c. NADPH and NADH
d. CO2 and coenzyme A
___67. Which process is represented by the equation: C6H12O6 ethanol + carbon dioxide + ATP
a. aerobic respiration b. fermentation c. glycolysis d. Krebs cycle
___68. How many molecules of ATP can be generated from one round of the Krebs cycle per one glucose molecule?
a. 4 b. 2 c. 6 d. 1
___69. Which of the following metabolic processes generates the most number of ATP?
a. glycolysis b. pyruvic acid oxidation
c. Krebs cycle d. electron transport chain
___70. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Both plants and animals perform photosynthesis.
b. Only plants perform photosynthesis.
c. Both plants and animals perform cell respiration.
d. Only animals perform cell respiration.
___71. What happens during the first event in the Krebs cycle?
a. Hydrogen ions and oxygen form water molecules.
b. ATP is synthesized using chemiosmosis through ATP synthase.
c. Each glucose molecule is broken down into two pyruvate molecules.
d. Pyruvic acid, combined with a coenzyme, is transformed into 6-carbon compound.
___72. The human body can use all of the following as energy sources EXCEPT:
a. ATP in muscles b. lactic acid fermentation
c. glycolysis d. alcoholic fermentation
___73. Which of the following is an aerobic process?
a. Krebs cycle b. lactic acid fermentation c. glycolysis d. alcoholic fermentation
___74. What makes carbon monoxide a lethal gas when inhaled?
a. It binds with hemoglobin permanently depriving the ETC enough oxygen.
b. It interacts with NADPH thus disturbing photolysis and Krebs cycle.
c. It poisons our epidermis giving the appearance of blisters and scabs.
d. It stops the Calvin cycle by blocking the necessary electron acceptors.
___75. Which is the site of fermentation?
a. cytoplasm b. mitochondrial matrix c. cristae d. thylakoid membranes
___76. How do the two types of fermentation differ from one another?
a. Only alcoholic fermentation produces NAD+ ion, lactic acid fermentation does not.
b. Lactic acid fermentation does not produce CO2, alcoholic fermentation does.
c. Only lactic acid fermentation is anaerobic, alcoholic fermentation is aerobic.
d. Lactic acid fermentation is for eukaryotes while alcoholic fermentation is for prokaryotes.
___77. How many ATP is produced if a eukaryotic cell uses 100 glucose molecules?
a. 36 b. 360 c. 3600 d. 36000
___78. Yeast cells can carry out both fermentation and cellular respiration, depending on whether oxygen is present. In which
case would you expect yeast cells to grow more rapidly?
a. In anaerobic condition since yeasts are anaerobic organisms.
b. In aerobic condition since it yields more ATP than fermentation.
c. In anaerobic since it yields more ATP than cellular respiration.
d. In aerobic condition since it does not need oxygen to produce ATP.
___79. The color of light that is LEAST useful to a plant during photosynthesis is
a. Red b. Green c. Blue d. Violet
___80. In what way are cellular respiration and photosynthesis considered opposite processes?
a. Photosynthesis releases oxygen and cell respiration uses that oxygen to release energy.
b. Photosynthesis releases energy and cell respiration absorbs that released energy.
c. Cell respiration produces sugar and water while photosynthesis produces carbon dioxide.
d. Cell respiration produces water and photosynthesis gets that water from the air.
___81. Which best describes the cell cycle?
a. It is a series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide.
b. It results to uncontrolled cell division that often leads to cancerous tumors.
c. It is a mode of reproduction that usually produces four haploid cells.
d. It is a step-by-step process in which a cell grows in size as the body grows.
___82. What is the main idea why a cell does not virtually grow bigger in size?
a. The larger a cell becomes, the difficult it is for cell division (mitosis) to occur.
b. The larger a cell becomes, the more demands the cell places on its RNA.
c. The larger a cell becomes, the less efficient it is in moving nutrients & excretion.
d. The larger a cell becomes, the more surface area it forms for the membranes.
___83. In eukaryotic cell, what are the two main stages of cell division?
a. Interphase & Mitosis b. Mitosis & Meiosis
c. Mitosis & Cytokinesis d. Crossing-over & Recombination
___84. During which stage of mitosis is the nuclear membrane broken into fragments?
a. prophase b. S phase c. anaphase d. G1 phase
___85. Equatorial plate of the mitotic spindle is formed during the _______.
b. anaphase b. prophase I c. metaphase d. cytokinesis
___86. Which is true about mitosis?
 a. Mitosis produces genetically identical daughter cells.
b. Through mitosis, polar bodies are dissolved leaving the ovum.
c. Except for autosomes, the 23rd chromosomes separate through mitosis.
d. Oogenesis is fundamentally based upon mitosis.
___87. During which stage of mitosis do nucleoli reappear?
a. prophase b. telophase c. G2 phase d. S phase
___88. Which best describes anaphase II?
a. Sister chromatids separate as they move near the poles of the spindle.
b. Homologous pair line up in the equatorial plane held by microtubules.
c. The spindle fiber attaches to the kinetochore of the centromere.
d. Homologous pair separate towards opposite poles of the spindle.
___89. Which does not describe one of the events of meiosis?
a. In the human body, the meiotic division begins with a cell having 23 chromosomes.
b. The genetic material DNA is duplicated during interphase, prior to meiotic division.
c. In the human body, the meiotic process happens only in the reproductive organs.
d. In the second meiotic stage, the cell skips the interphase replication of the DNA.
___90. What important event happens during meiosis?
a. The crossing-over of chromosomes during prophase II
b. Synapsis results to variation and genetic recombination
c. Non-homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material
d. One chromatid will always be exchanged to the other chromatid

For items 11 and 12, refer to the figure at far right.

___91. Which stage of cell division is depicted in the diagram at right?
a. Anaphase I b. Prophase I
c. Telophase d. Interphase
___92. Which is true about the diagram at right?
a. It is an animal cell.
b. It is a prokaryotic cell.
c. It is a plant cell.
d. It is neither an animal cell nor a plant cell.

For items 13 to 15, choose from the diagrams below. Match the diagram with its proper description.
a. b.

c. d.

___93. The chromosomes are enveloped by a new nuclear envelope subsequent to anaphase I.
___94. In this stage, the centromeres divide longitudinally and the chromatids of each chromosome move to the opposite poles
of the spindle.
___95. After a short prophase and the formation of second-division spindles, the centromeres of the chromosomes in each cell
aligned on the equatorial plate of the spindle in this stage.
___96. The pairs of homologous chromosomes aligned at the equatorial plate, held by the spindle fibers.
___97. What do cyclins regulate?
a. The time of healing and promotion of growth
b. The timing of the cell cycle in eukaryotes
c. The programmed apoptosis in the body
d. The prokaryotic cell cycle timing
___98. If a cell has 12 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each of its daughter cells have at the end of Meiosis I?
a. twelve b. six c. 24 d. undetermined
___99. Which is true about asexual reproduction?
 a. It is possible produce haploid organisms from a diploid parent.
b. Budding is common and prevalent among lower apes.
c. When an ovum is fertilized by a sperm, a zygote forms.
d. Bacteria usually reproduce through parthenogenesis and budding.
___100. Which best describes alternation of generation?
a. It consists of a haploid sporophyte phase and a diploid gametophyte phase.
b. The gametophyte produces male and female reproductive cells, gametes.
c. The male and female gametes fuse during fertilization to produce a new gametophyte.
d. The moss is a vascular plant that displays both of the gametophyte and sporophyte.
___101. What happens during double fertilization?
a. One sperm cell enters the embryo sac and divides into two sperm cells to fertilize three egg cells in the embryo
sac.
b. Two sperm cells fertilize simultaneously one egg cell to produce the endosperm and the embryo.
c. Two sperm cells fertilize the two egg cells separately to form the endosperm and the embryo.
d. One sperm cell fertilizes an egg to form the embryo; the other sperm fertilizes two egg cells in the embryo sac.
___102. Which organism asexually reproduce through budding?
e. jellyfish b. bees c. worms d. all of the above
___103. Which describes a person with Klinefelter’s Syndrome?
a. A female who has 45 + X karyotype
b. A male who has 44 + XXY karyotype
c. A female who has 44 + XXY karyotype
d. A male who has 45 + X karyotype.
___104. Why must the DNA of a cell replicate before the cell divides?
a. so that each daughter cell will have all the genetic information that it needs
b. so that each daughter cell will have different DNA as compared to parent cell
c. so that each daughter cell will have half of DNA as compared to parent cell
d. so that each daughter cell will have numerous mistakes in copying the DNA
___105. What type of a vegetative structure is exemplified by a potato plant?
e. sucker b. stolon c. runner d. tuber
___106. What method of vegetative propagation used by plant growers is briefly describe here? “A bud scion is cut from the
parent plant, then it is attached to the plant with strong roots, called the stock.”
f. budding b. grafting c. marcotting d. hydrophonics
___107. Which is true about Charles Darwin?
a. Darwin was born in 1909.
b. Darwin was an Australian naturalist.
c. He navigated and sailed on H.M.S. Beagle.
d. The voyage took 125 years around the world.
___108. Which is not one of Darwin’s observations in the Galapagos Island?
a. The islands are close together but have different climates.
b. The traits of many organisms vary from island to island.
c. There are many different kinds of finches living in the island.
d. Galapagos is a volcanic archipelago near Australia.
For items 29 to 32, choose from the following key concepts theorized by Darwin:
a. struggle for existence b. variation and adaptation
c. survival of the fittest d. natural selection
___109. Organisms produce more offspring than can survive.
___110. There is variation in nature and certain heritable variations increase an individual’s chance of surviving and
reproducing.
___111. Individuals with adaptations that are well suited to their environment can survive and reproduce and are said to have
high fitness.
___112. The process by which variations most suited to their local environment survive and leave more offspring.
___113. What does Darwin’s theory suggest about living and extinct species?
a. All species descended from ancient common ancestors.
b. We all come from a bacterium once living in the beginning.
c. Humans descended from the great apes.
d. Fossils are not true; they are just accidental markings.
___114. In which evidence of evolution does vestigial structures belong?
a. Biogeography
b. Age of Earth and Fossils Records
c. Comparative Anatomy & Embryology
d. Genetics & Molecular Biology
___115. Which depicts analogous structures?
a. Wings of bat and butterfly
b. Hands of human and arms of gorilla
c. Tail of monkeys and the human coccyx
d. Notochords of lancelets and spinal cord of apes
___116. By molecular biology and in terms of nucleotide sequence, which do you think is the closest to humans?
 e. Orangutan b. Chimpanzee c. Mouse d. Rhesus monkey
___117. Which is true about mutations?
a. Mutations are heritable.
b. Mutations are always beneficial.
c. Mutations do not affect the appearance of organisms.
d. Mutations do not produce new variations.
___118. What are the two general types of mutation?
a. gene mutation and chromosomal mutation b. frameshift mutation and point mutation
c. insertion and deletion d. harmful mutation and deadly mutation
___119. Which produces frameshift mutation?
a. insertion b. substitution c. duplication d. inversion
___120. Which might be a causative agent of mutation?
a. mutagen b. mutant c. allergen d. bacterium
___121. Which is true about gene mutations?
a. Point mutations affect just one nucleotide.
b. It is very harmful to the organism.
c. Gene mutations are better than chromosomal mutations.
d. Point mutations exemplify inversion.
___122. What is polyploidy?
a. An organism with an extra set of chromosomes
b. A situation wherein an organism has a half set of chromosomes
c. An animal whose number of chromosomes exceeds the parent’s number
d. A condition where an organism has an extra set of chromosomes
___123. What is the main reason why animals usually do not exhibit polyploidy?
a. Polyploidy is fatal in animals.
b. Animals need to have 3 parents for this.
c. Polyploidy produces an extra arm or head.
d. Polyploidy results to fertility.
___124. It is a disease that results to serious digestive problems and produce thick, heavy mucus.
a. Huntington’s disease b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Aneuploidy d. Cystic fibrosis
___125. What is the genetic advantage of sickle cell disease?
a. Heterozygotes have a slight resistance against malaria.
b. African-American have a high risk of getting malaria.
c. Africans are totally immune to dengue.
d. They are slightly immune to typhoid fever.
___126. How are monozygotic twins formed?
a. Two sperm cells fertilize one egg cell simultaneously
b. Two sperm cells fertilize two egg cells simultaneously
c. A zygote by chance further divides into two new zygotes
d. Two zygotes are formed from double fertilization of eggs
___127. Which is a defining characteristic of a cnidarian?
a. Nematocyst b. Binucleated cells c. Swimming cells d. Radial symmetry
___128. Who discovered the antibiosis property of Penicillium?
b. Alfred Wallace b. Alexander Fleming c. John Watson d. Francis Crick
___129. Which is not true about penicillin?
a. It is not effective against Gram-negative bacteria.
b. It is a narrow spectrum antibiotic.
c. It can kill most viruses and Gram-positive bacteria.
d. It stops the production of peptidoglycan cell walls.
___130. Why is it dangerous to self-medicate and to timely skip oral intake of antibiotics?
a. The bacteria can be killed immediately after taking antibiotics.
b. Bacteria have high rate of mutations that they may transform into superbugs.
c. Bacteria have low immunity against most of the over-the-counter drugs.
d. Body cells may turn into superbugs because of incorrect intake of antibiotics.
___131. In which biological domain would “extremophiles” fit?
a. Domain Eukarya b. Domain Archaea
b. Domain Protista d. Domain Bacteria
___132. Which is the bacterial structure that acts as a selective barrier, allowing nutrients to enter
the cell and wastes to leave the cell?
a. capsule b. nucleoid region
c. cell wall d. plasma membrane
___133. Which of these statements about prokaryotes is correct?
a. Bacterial cells conjugate to mutually exchange genetic material.
b. Their genetic material is confined within a nuclear envelope.
c. They divide by binary fission, without mitosis or meiosis.
 d. Genetic variation in bacteria is not known to occur, nor should it occur, because of their asexual mode of
reproduction.
___134. What is the first thing that you must ask if you were to declare there are signs of life in a planet?
a. Can such planet produce oxygen? b. Does that planet have soil?
c. Are there available ATP molecules? d. Is there any water in that planet?
___135. Assuming that each of these possesses a cell wall, which prokaryotes should be expected to
be most strongly resistant to cell lysis in hypertonic environments?
a. halophiles b. thermophiles c. cryophiles d. xerophiles
___136. Which types of organisms might be present in Dead Sea in Jerusalem, where most of the things float due to
high salinity?
a. methanogens b. thermophiles c. alkalinophiles d. halophiles
___137. Which prokaryote can survive in environments lacking oxygen and will die in the presence of oxygen?
a. Obligate aerobe b. Obligate anaerobe
c. Facultative anaerobe d. Choices b and c
___138. The thermoacidophile, Sulfolobus acidocaldarius lacks peptidoglycan. What is likely to be true of this species?
1. It is a bacterium.
2. It is an archaean.
3. The optimal pH of its metabolic enzymes will lie above pH 7.
4. The optimal pH of its metabolic will lie below pH 7.
5. It could inhabit certain hydrothermal springs.
6. It could inhabit alkaline hot springs.
a. 1, 3, and 6 b. 2, 4, and 6 c. 2, 4, and 5 d. 1, 2, 4 and 5
___139. Which of the following levels of organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive?
a. community, ecosystem, individual, population
b. ecosystem, community, population, individual
c. population, ecosystem, individual, community
d. individual, population, community, ecosystem
___140. How are matter and energy used in ecosystems?
a. Matter is cycled through ecosystems; energy is not.
b. Energy is cycled through ecosystems; matter is not.
c. Energy can be converted into matter; matter cannot be converted into energy.
d. Matter can be converted into energy; energy cannot be converted into matter.
___141. Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem?
a. All of the snakeheads (haluan) in a 500 hectare2 river drainage system.
b. The plants, animals, and decomposers that inhabit an African grassland.
c. The intricate interactions of the various plant and animal species on a savanna during a drought.
d. Interactions between all of the organisms and their physical environment in a tropical rain forest.
___142. Which biome is able to support many large animals despite receiving moderate amounts of rainfall?
a. tropical rain forest b. temperate forest
c. tundra d. savanna
___143. For most terrestrial ecosystems, pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy are essentially the same-
they have a broad base and a narrow top. The primary reason for this pattern is that
a. secondary consumers and top carnivores require less energy than producers.
b. at each step, energy is lost from the system as a result of keeping the organisms alive.
c. as matter passes through ecosystems, some of it is lost to the environment.
d. top carnivores and secondary consumers have a more general diet than primary producers.
___144. In the Nitrogen cycle, the bacteria that replenish the atmosphere with N2 are
a. Rhizobium bacteria. b. nitrifying bacteria.
c. denitrifying bacteria. d. decomposing bacteria.
___145. The main cause of the increase in the amount of CO2 in Earth’s atmosphere over the past 150 years is
a. the increased worldwide primary production.
b. additional respiration by the rapidly growing human population
c. an increase in the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere.
d. the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels.
___146. Some global warming models predict that, if permafrost in the tundra regions in the
northern hemisphere melts, atmospheric CO2 levels will increase. Which of the following
statements best explains this prediction?
a. The heat released by the melting of the ice on such a vast scale will cause atmospheric CO2
saturation levels to increase.
b. All of the tundra producers will die if the permafrost melts, and because the tundra
regions are vast in the northern hemisphere the tundra plants will not take part in
photosynthetic removal of atmospheric CO2.
c. CO2 tied up in the permafrost ice will be released during a thaw.
d. All of the undecayed organic material would be subject to decomposition following a
thaw, which would lead to incredible increase in global cellular respiration, and add to atmospheric CO2.
___147. Which of the following describes carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapor re-reflecting
infrared radiation back toward Earth?
 a. depletion of atmospheric ozone b. global warming
c. aurora borealis d. greenhouse effect
___148. You have a BSeD-Bio Sci friend who is wary of environmentalistsʹ claims that global warming could lead
to major biological change on Earth. Which of the following statements will you NOT say
in support to your friend’s suspicions?
a. We know that atmospheric carbon dioxide has increased in the last 150 years.
b. Through measurements and observations, we know that carbon dioxide levels and
temperature fluctuations were directly correlated even in prehistoric times.
c. Global warming could not have significant effects on Philippine agriculture.
d. Sea levels will likely rise, displacing as much as 50% of the world’s human population.
___149. Extinction is a natural phenomenon. It is estimated that 99% of all species that ever lived
are now extinct. Why then do we say that we are now in a biodiversity crisis?
a. Most biodiversity hot spots have been destroyed by recent ecological disasters.
b. Scientists have finally identified most of the species on Earth and are thus able to
quantify the number of species becoming extinct.
c. The current rate of extinction is high and human activities threaten biodiversity at all levels.
d. Humans have greater medical needs than at any other time in history, and many
potential medicinal compounds are being lost as plant species become extinct.
___150. The Knife fish and the Janitor fish are good examples of 
a. predators that has negatively affected biodiversity in ecosystems where it has been introduced.
b. endangered endemic species that have become the favorite local dish of Manileños.
c. recently created cheap protein source for the highly populated areas near Laguna de Bay.
d. threatened introduced species in the Laguna de Bay watershed as declared by the DENR.
___151. What term did E. O. Wilson coin for our innate appreciation of wild environments and living organisms?
a. bioremediation b. bioethics
a. biophilia d. sustainable development
___152. Human use of prokaryotic organisms to help detoxify a polluted wetland would be an example of
a. ecosystem augmentation. b. keystone species introduction.
c. biological control. d. bioremediation.
___153. Which of the following is the most accepted hypothesis as to why invasive species take
over communities into which they have been introduced?
a. Invasive species are more aggressive than natives in competing for the limited resources of the environment.
b. Invasive species are not held in check by the predators and agents of disease that have
always been in place for the natives.
c. Humans always select which species will outcompete the nuisance native species.
d. Invasive species have a higher reproductive potential than native species.
___154. Which is an example of a sustainable development?
a. conversion of national parks into agricultural lands to cater our food production
b. encouraging land developers to build settlements in La Mesa Ecopark and Watershed
c. altering the shape of the land to limit soil erosion by contour plowing
d. harvesting only young Dipterocarps like Narra and Mahogany
___155. Suppose you attend a council meeting here in Davao City at which some experts tell the audience that they
have performed an analysis of a proposed railway system that would probably reduce overall air pollution and
fossil fuel consumption in the city. The analysis, however, reveals that ticket prices will not cover the cost of
operating the system when fuel, wages, and equipment are taken into account. As a biology student, you know
that if the maintenance of our ecosystem had been included in the analysis the experts might have arrived at a
different answer. Why are ecosystem services and maintenance rarely included in economic analyses?
a. Their cost is difficult to estimate due to its scope and people take them for granted.
b. They are not worth much and are usually not considered.
c. There are no laws that require investigation of ecosystem services in environmental planning.
d. The maintenance of ecosystem only includes abiotic factors that affect local environments.
___156. Which of these aquatic ecosystems has the richest biodiversity?
a. coral reef b. river c. estuary d. stream
___157. In an aquatic ecosystem, phytoplankton is most frequently found in which of the following zones?
a. intertidal b. photic c. aphotic d. abyssal
___158. Which of the following is NOT true about estuaries?
a. Estuaries contain waters of varying salinity.
b. Estuaries support a variety of animal life that humans consume.
c. Estuaries usually contain no or few producers.
d. Estuaries support many semiaquatic species.
___159. Which of the following statements best describes the interaction between wild fire and ecosystems?
a. The chance of fire in a given ecosystem is highly predictable over the short term.
b. Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires.
c. Steppes and prairie communities have evolved to the extent that they rarely burn.
d. Fire is unnatural in ecosystems and should be prevented.
___160. Most ecologists believe that the average global carrying capacity for the human population is between
a. 5 and 6 million. b. 6 and 8 billion.
 c. 10 and 15 billion. d. 150 and 200 trillion.
___161. What happens when toxic materials and pollutants seep underground?
a. The surrounding air will become toxic and unbreathable.
b. Our houses will crash down due weakening of ground integrity and sink hole.
c. Nitrogen will be depleted for our grazing cows and carnivorous animals.
d. It will negatively affect the potability of our water source.
___162. Which of the following things is a source of CFC?
a. aerosols b. detergent c. unused car tires d. isopropyl alcohol
___163. Which scenario manifests water pollution?
a. Georgina Wilson uses banned aerosols to remove the odor from her stockings.
b. Kim Bum smokes ten packs of cigarette every Monday, Wednesday and Friday.
c. Maria Agnes loves to toss used biodegradable toilet paper in a nearby creek.
d. My neighbor throws the used-oil from his Mercedes-Benz car in a vacant lot.
___164. Mr. George Y. Boot, a foreign businessman from Nepal, ordered his laborers to secretly throw the toxic and
hazardous chemicals from his factory in a nearby river. Which environmental law did he violate, by which he is
punishable for the said acts?
a. Republic Act no. 6969 b. Republic Act no. 8749
c. Republic Act no. 9003 d. Mining Act of the Philippines
___165. Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome distribution?
a. Knowledge of annual temperature and precipitation is sufficient to predict which
biome will be found in an area.
b. Fluctuation of environmental variables is not important if areas have the same annual
temperature and precipitation means.
c. It is not only the average climate that is important in determining biome distribution,
but also the pattern of climatic variation.
d. Temperate forests, coniferous forests, and grasslands all have the same mean annual
temperatures and precipitation.
___166. Proclaimed as National Scientist in 1980, what was the contribution of the renowned Dr. Fe Del Mundo in the
field of pediatrics that saved thousands of young lives?
a. jaundice medicine for the elderly b. improvised infant incubator
c. Iodized salt for goiter d. cheap cancer medicine
___167. All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell EXCEPT
a. ribosomes. b. a cell wall.
c. a plasma membrane. d. an endoplasmic reticulum.
___168. The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following
structures is primarily involved in this process and therefore abundant in liver cells?
a. rough ER b. smooth ER c. Golgi apparatus d. Nuclear envelope
___169. In animal cells, hydrolytic enzymes are packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular
components. Which of the following organelles functions in this compartmentalization?
a. chloroplast b. lysosome
c. central vacuole d. centrosome
___170. A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma
membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from
a. a bacterium. b. an animal, but not a plant.
c. a plant, but not an animal. d. a plant or an animal.
___171. If an individual has abnormal microtubules, due to a hereditary condition, in which cells, organs
or tissues would you expect dysfunction?
a. limbs, hearts, areas with a good deal of contraction
b. microvilli, alveoli, and glomeruli
c. all ducts, such as those from salivary or sebaceous glands
d. sperm, larynx, and trachea
___172. Which cell would be best for studying lysosomes?
a. muscle cell b. nerve cell
c. phagocytic white blood cell d. leaf cell of a plant
___173. Cyanide binds with at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell is exposed to
cyanide, most of the cyanide would be found within the
a. mitochondria. b. ribosomes.
b. lysosomes. d. endoplasmic reticulum.
___174. Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the cell membrane?
a. phospholipids and cellulose b. nucleic acids and proteins
c. phospholipids and proteins d. glycoproteins and cholesterol
___175. Which two organelles occur in plant cells but not animal cells?
a. nuclear envelopes and nuclei b. cell membranes and chromosomes
c. cell walls and chloroplasts d. ribosomes and chloroplasts
___176. The idea that all cells arise from the division of preexisting cells was first stated by
a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek b. Rudolf Virchow
c. Matthias Schleiden d. Theodor Schwann
___177. If you have no other information about an organism other than the fact that it was single celled, what could
you conclude?
a. it is prokaryotic b. it could be either prokaryotic or eukaryotic
c. it is eukaryotic d. it is neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic
___178. Which of the following would always be associated with eukaryotic cells?
a. a single celled organism
b. the presence of membrane-bound organelles
c. relatively small size as compared to prokaryotic cells
d. the lack of membrane-bound organelles
___179. Which of the following is NOT true about prokaryotic cells?
a. They lack membrane bound organelles b. They lack DNA
c. They lack chromosomes d. They have no nucleus
___180. Which of the following statements is mistakenly stated?
a. Prokaryotic cells do not separate their genetic material within a nucleus.
b. The cell membrane is also called as the plasma membrane.
c. Theodor Schwann concluded that all animals are made of cells.
d. At some point of its life, a cell can exist without the cell membrane.
___181. What is polyploidy?
a. An organism with an extra set of chromosomes
b. A situation wherein an organism has a half set of chromosomes
c. A condition where an organism has an extra set of chromosomes
d. An animal whose number of chromosomes exceeds the parent’s number
___182. All of the following statements about glycolysis are true EXCEPT:
a. Glycolysis can operate in the complete absence of O2. c. Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell.
b. Glycolysis produces a net gain of 2 ATP and 2 NADPH.d. One glucose molecule yields 2 pyruvate molecules.
___183. All animals, whether large or small, have
a. an external body surface that is dry.
b. a body surface covered with hair to keep them warm.
c. the ability to enter dormancy when resources become scarce.
d. all of their living cells surrounded by an aqueous medium.
___184. Which process is represented by the equation: C6H12O6 lactic acid + ATP + NAD+
a. aerobic respiration b. fermentation c. glycolysis d. Krebs cycle
___185. In terms of the hierarchical organization of life, a bacterium is at the ________ level of organization, whereas
a human is at the ________ level of organization.
a. single-celled organism; multicellular organism c. single organelle; organism
b. organelle; organ system d. single tissue; multicellular organism
___186. Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their genetic material but do not
have their DNA encased within a nuclear envelope?
a. animal b. archaea c. protist d. fungi
___187. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?
a. a membrane-bounded nucleus c. a cell wall made of cellulose
b. ribosomes d. linear chromosomes made of DNA and protein
___188. A filamentous organism has been isolated from decomposing organic matter. This organism has a cell wall
but no chloroplasts. How would you classify this organism?
a. domain Archaea, kingdom Bacteria c. domain Eukarya, kingdom Plantae
b. domain Eukarya, kingdom Protista d. domain Eukarya, kingdom Fungi
___189. All the organisms in UM-Matina campus make up
a. an ecosystem b. a community c. a population d. a taxonomic domain
___190. Mr. George Y. Boot, a foreign businessman from Kyrgyzstan, ordered his laborers to secretly jumble and mix
up plastics and left-over food in all of their trash bins. Which environmental law did he violate, by which he is
punishable for the said acts?
a. RA no. 6969 b. RA no. 8749 c. RA no. 9003 d. RA no. 9262
___191. A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and
mitochondria. It could be
a. a bacterium. b. an animal, but not a plant. c. a plant, but not an animal. d. a plant or an animal.
___192. Which is the site of fermentation?
b. cytoplasm b. mitochondrial matrix c. cristae d. thylakoid membranes
___193. How many ATP is produced in aerobic respiration if a eukaryotic cell uses 10 glucose molecules?
a. 36 b. 360 c. 3600 d. 36000
___194. The idea that all plant cells are made of cells was first stated by
a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek b. Rudolf Virchow c. Matthias Schleiden d. Theodor Schwann
___195. Which of the following is NOT true about prokaryotic cells?
a. They lack membrane bound organelles c. They lack DNA
b. They lack chromosomes d. They have no nucleus
___196. Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell?
b. rough ER b. Golgi bodies c. lysosomes d. nucleolus
___197. Which of the following is true of metabolism in its entirety?
 a. Metabolism utilizes all of an organism’s resource.
b. Metabolism depends on constant supply energy from food.
c. Metabolism is a characteristic of organismal life.
d. Metabolism depends on an organism’s adequate hydration.
___198. The molecule that functions as the reducing agent in a reduction-oxidation process
a. gains electrons b. loses electrons c. gains H+ d. neither gains or loses electrons
___199. The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event?
a. Synthesis of pyruvic acids c. oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A
b. Forming water in the Krebs Cycle d. accepting electrons at the end of the ETC
___200. How many molecules of carbon dioxide (CO2) would be produced by five turns of the Krebs cycle?
a. 5 b. 10 c. 12 d. 60
___201. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is released during which of the following stages of cellular respiration?
a. glycolysis and the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
b. oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the Krebs cycle
c. the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain d. the electron transport chain and fermentation
___202. Where is ATP synthase located in the mitochondrion?
a. grana b. inner membrane c. outer membrane d. mitochondrial matrix
___203. Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
b. stroma of the chloroplast b. thylakoid membrane c. chlorophyll molecule d. inner membrane
___204. A plant has a unique photosynthetic pigment. The leaves of this plant appear to be reddish yellow. What
wavelengths of visible light are being absorbed by this pigment?
a. red and yellow b. blue and violet c. green and yellow d. blue, green, and red
___205. Which statement describes the functioning of photosystem II?
a. Light energy excites electrons in the electron transport chain in a photosynthetic unit.
b. The electron vacancies in P680 are filled by electrons derived from water.
c. The splitting of water yields molecular carbon dioxide as a by-product.
d. The excited electron is passed along to a molecule of P700.
___206. What is a chromatid?
a. a chromosome in G 1  of the cell cycle c. a chromosome found outside the nucleus
b. a replicate chromosome d. a special region that holds two centromeres together
___207. Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early
embryo with how many cells?
a. 8 b. 16 c. 32 d. 64
___208. If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the
spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
a. prophase b. metaphase c. anaphase d. telophase
___209. Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis but not cytokinesis, the result
would be a cell
a. with single large nucleus c. with two abnormally small nuclei
b. two nuclei d. two nuclei with half the number of DNA
___210. “The process by which variations most suited to their local environment survive and leave more offspring.”
a. natural selection b. survival of the fittest c. struggle for existence d. variation and adaptation
___211. Asexual reproduction results in identical offspring unless which of the following occurs?
a. mutation b. cloning c. crossing over d. natural selection
___212. In animals, meiosis results in gametes, and fertilization results in
a. zygotes b. spores c. gametophytes d. clones
___213. Which of the following is an example of alternation of generations?
a. A diploid plant produces, by meiosis, a spore that gives rise to haploid pollen grain.
b. A diploid animal produces gametes by meiosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization.
c. A haploid mushroom produces gametes by mitosis, and the gametes undergo meiosis.
d. A haploid fern produces diploid spores through gametogenesis and fertilization.
___214. Which life cycle stage is found in plants but not animals?
a. multicellular haploid b. unicellular diploid c. gamete d. multicellular diploid
___215. Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during
b. metaphase II b. anaphase I c. telophase I d. anaphase II
___216. Charles Darwin was the first person to propose
a. that evolution occurs. c. a mechanism for how evolution occurs.
b. that the Earth is older than a few thousand years d. a mechanism for evolution  supported by evidence
___217. Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bird?
a. dorsal fin of a shark b. wing of a butterfly c. tail fin of a flying fish d. flipper of a dolphin
___218. Which of these is the most common compound in the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria?
a. cellulose b. phospholipids c. peptidoglycan d. protein
___219. Which prokaryotes should be most vulnerable to inhibition by penicillin?
a. gram-positive bacteria b. thermophilic archaean c. fungus d. gram-negative bacteria
___220. What is the primary ecological role of prokaryotes?
a. parasitizing eukaryotes, thus causing diseases c. breaking down organic matter
 b. metabolizing materials in extreme environments d.
serving as primary producers in terrestrial environments
___221. Which is NOT a bryophyte?
a. moss b. liverworts c. hornworts d. club moss
___222. Bryophytes have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
a. multicellularity c. specialized cells and tissues
b. a reduced, dependent sporophyte d. lignified vascular tissue
___223. Which is a seedless vascular plant?
a. horsetail b. moss c. corn d. liverwort
___224. Plant spores are produced directly by
a. sporophytes b. gametophytes c. seeds d. gametes
___225. The following characteristics all helped seedless plants become better adapted to land EXCEPT
a. a dominant gametophyte b. vascular tissue c. a waxy cuticle d. stomata on leaves
___226. The seed coat’s most important function is to provide
a. the means for dispersal b. dormancy c. a nutrients for the embryo d. desiccation resistance
___227. The main way that pine trees disperse their offspring is by using
a. spores b. squirrels to bury cones c. windblown seeds d. fruits that are eaten by animals
___228. Which of the following can be found in gymnosperms?
a. non-fertile flower parts b. fruits c. carpel d. pollen
___229. Which structure is common to both gymnosperms and angiosperms?
b. stigma b. carpel c. ovule d. anthers
___230. Which of the following is a characteristic of all angiosperms?
a. complete reliance on wind as the pollinating agent c. double internal fertilization
b. ovules that are not contained within ovaries d. pine cones and needle-like leaves
___231. Which of the following flower parts develops into a seed?
c. ovule b. ovary c. fruit d. style
___232. Which is true of monocots?
a. reticulated venations b. taproot system c. floral parts in 4s or 5s d. scattered vascular bundle
___233. Which is a flowering seed plant?
b. moss b. fern c. gymnosperm d. angiosperm
___234. Which mineral is important for plant in the synthesis of chlorophyll?
c. Magnesium b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Helium
___235. Which of the following is (are) unique to animals?
a. cells that have mitochondria c. the structural carbohydrate, chitin
b. nervous conduction and muscular movement d. both B and C
___236. The last common ancestor of all animals was probably a
a. unicellular plant b. multicellular fungus c. choanozoan d. flagellated bacterium
___237. Which is an invertebrate?
a. sponge b. moss c. zebra d. ray
___238. Cephalization is primarily associated with
a. adaptation to dark environments c. type of digestive system
b. bilateral symmetry d. method of reproduction
___239. Which of the following is a correct association of an animal germ layer with the tissues or organs to which it
gives rise?
a. ectoderm: outer covering of digestive system c. endoderm: skin and nervous tissues
b. mesoderm: reproductive organs d. endoderm: linings of  lung passageways
___240. A hollow ball of cells formed by a series of cell division of a zygote is called
a. blastopore b. gastrula c. blastula d. coelom
___241. Organisms showing radial symmetry would likely
a. be good swimmers c. have rapid escape behavior
b. move from place to place relatively slowly, if at all d. be able to fly
___242. Organisms that are neither coelomate nor pseudocoelomate should, apart from their
digestive systems, have bodies that
a. are solid with tissue c. lack the ability to metabolize food
b. are incapable of muscular contraction d. lack true tissues
___243. Which of the following functions is an advantage of a fluid-filled body cavity?
a. Internal organs are cushioned and protected from injury.
a. Organs can grow and move independently of the outer body wall.
b. The fluid within the cavity acts as a hydrostatic skeleton.
c. All of the above
___244. Which of the following is descriptive of protostomes?
a.  blastopore becomes mouth b. blastopore becomes anus c. blastopore is eliminated
d. they are echinoderms
___245. Acoelomates are characterized by
a. the absence of a brain c. the absence of mesoderm
b. a coelom that is not completely lined with mesoderm d. absence of coelom
___246. The distinction between sponges and other animal phyla is based mainly on the absence of
 a. a body cavity b. a complete digestive tract c. specialized cells d. true tissues
___247. The members of which class of the phylum Cnidaria occur only as polyps?
a. corals b. box jellyfish c. jellyfish d. Portuguese man-of-war
___248. A terrestrial mollusc without a shell belongs to which class?
a. bivalves b. cephalopods c. gastropods d. polyplacophores
___249. Which of the following is a characteristic of nematodes?
b. bilateral symmetry b. cnidocytes c. spicules d. vertebral column
___250. Among the invertebrate phyla, phylum Arthropoda is unique in possessing members that have
a. a cuticle b. open circulation c. wings d. segmented bodies
___251. Which of the following animal groups is entirely aquatic?
a. Mollusca b. Crustacea c. Echinodermata d. Arthropoda
___252. Which of the following is a shared characteristic of all chordates?
a. scales b. jaws c. four-chambered heart d. dorsal, hollow nerve cord
___253. What do hagfishes and lampreys have in common with all of the agnathans?
a. jawless condition b. amniotic eggs c. four limbs d. swim bladders
___254. What is a distinctive feature of the chondrichthyans?
a. an amniotic egg b. color sensing eyes c. cartilaginous skeleton d. gills
___255. From which of the following groups are snakes most likely descended?
a. birds b. crocodiles c. lizards d. turtles
___256. As body size increases in animals, there is
a. a decrease in the surface-to-volume ratio c. no further reproduction in aqueous environments
b. an increase in migration to tropical areas d. tendency to lose heat more to the environment
___257. An exchange surface is in direct contact with the external environment in the
a. lungs b. heart c. liver d. brain
___258. The lining of the smallest tubules in the kidneys is composed of
a. connective tissue b. smooth muscle c. nervous tissue d. epithelial tissue
___259. Which is an example of a connective tissue?
a. blood b. heart c. notochord d. brain
___260. Endothermy
a. is a characteristic of most animals c. involves production of heat through metabolism
b. is a term equivalent to ʺcold-blooded” d. is only seen in mammals
___261. Panting observed in overheated birds and mammals dissipates excess heat by
a. countercurrent exchange b. acclimation c. hibernation d. evaporation
___262. Most amphibians and land-dwelling invertebrates
a. are ectothermic organisms c. maintain body temperature at 37°C
b. are thermoconformers only when they are in water d. are active at temperatures near zero
___263. The temperature-regulating center of vertebrate animals is located in the
a. medulla oblongata b. hypothalamus c. pituitary gland d. skeletal muscles
___264. Hibernation and estivation are both examples of
a. Acclimatization b. torpor c. evaporative cooling d. shivering thermogenesis
___265. Which is a behavioral adaptation to changing temperatures?
a. huddling in cold weather b. acclimatization c. countercurrent exchange d. endothermy
___266. Blood flow in the skin increases, facilitating heat loss is
b. vasodilation b. vasoconstriction c. panting d. sweating
___267. It is the transfer heat between fluids flowing in opposite directions and reduces heat loss.
a. migration b. acclimatization c. countercurrent exchange d. conformers

Matching Type
Directions: Match the cell organelles and structures (SIDE A) with its descriptions in SIDE B. Write only the letter on the space
provided before the number.
SIDE B
SIDE A
a. cell membrane a) condensed coils of DNA where genes are sequenced
b. cell wall b) cell structures that perform specific functions
c. nucleus c) jelly-like material where organelles are suspended; found outside the nucleus
d. nucleolus d) synthesizes ribosomes; found inside the nucleus
e. cytoplasm e) control center of the cell; contains DNA
f. organelle f) shapes, supports, and protects cells; made of cellulose
g. chromosome g) regulates materials entering & leaving cell; protects & supports cell
h. ribosome h) synthesizes proteins
i. endoplasmic reticulum
i) assembles proteins and lipids
j. Golgi complex
j) modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids for storage or transport out
k. mitochondrion
of the cell
l. vacuole
m. chloroplast k) convert chemical energy in food to usable compounds
n. lysosome l) stores materials
o. centrioles m) converts solar energy to chemical energy stored in food
n) breaks down and recycle macromolecules
o) organize cell division
p) synthesizes water for the cell
q) maintains cell shape; moves cell parts; helps cells move
p. cytoskeleton
q. vesicle