LIQUID PENETRANT TESTING

Level-II General

Shade the most appropriate answer in the answer sheet Time; 80 minutes

1. Steel ball bearing would be non-destructively tested using

a. liquid penetrant
b. magnetic particles
c. radiography
d. eddy current

2. Pipe and laminations in carbon steel rolled products are

a. acceptable
b. only found using magnetic particle inspection
c. cannot be located using LPI
d. none of the above

3. Penetration time with post-emulsifiable penetrant is minimum for

a. steel
b. aluminium
c. manganese
d. plastic

4. Recommended maximum water contamination for emulsifiers is

a. 5%
b. 20%
c. 50%
d. 75%

5. Anthracene and fluoranthene, present in some fluorescent dyes, are considered

a. carcinogenic coal tar products
b. the most favourable of dyes to use
c. contaminants
d. best used on aluminum

6. Cast grey iron would be inspected using________ penetrant inspection

a. solvent removable
b. post-emulsifiable fluorescent
c. water washable colour contrast
d. none of the above

7. Sorting as to acceptable or rejectable is done at the

a. inspection station
b. developer station
c. post cleaning station
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d. any of the above

8. Filtered particle testing would be used on

a. ceramics
b. plastics
c. manganese
d. both a and b

9. Rounded penetrant indications would result from a

a. crater crack
b. porosity
c. piping
d. all of the above

10. Prior to discarding used pickling solutions they should be

a. cooled
b. filtered
c. neutralized
d. none of the above is necessary

11. Which test would not be considered an evaluation test for liquid penetrant
a. meniscus test
b. viscosity test
c. fluorescent brightness test
d. water drop-through test

12. Developer cannot be applied by

a. electrostatic spray
b. paint brush
c. dipping
d. none of the above

13. A problem with using a liquid with a low viscosity for a penetrant is
a. dwell time is too long
b. thinner liquids are more likely to be removed by cleaning
c. it cannot be emulsified
d. there is no problem

14. It is recommended that black light intensity be checked

a. daily
b. weekly
c. monthly
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d. quarterly

15. Detectability of a defect by LPI is affected by

a. the surface condition of the test piece
b. the geometry of the defect
c. the “family” of penetrant being used
d. all of the above

16. The speed at which a penetrant indication forms indicates

a. type of penetrant used
b. type of material tested
c. relative size of defect
d. all of the above

17. The accidental introduction of acid into fluorescent penetrant will result in
a. turning the penetrant opaque
b. no change
c. a slight increase in drain time
d. destroying the fluorescent dye

18. The usual material used for plating in the “cracked plated strip tests” is
a. chrome
b. nickel
c. iron
d. lead

19. It is not recommended to use water-washable fluorescent penetrant below

a. 110 degrees F.
b. 70 degrees F.
c. 10 degrees C.
d. 0 degrees C.

20. The correct unit of measure for blacklight intensity is

a. foot candles
b. ergs
c. mW/cm2
d. dyne cm/s

21. Black light station is located after the rinse station. The purpose is
a. to carry out inspection for fluorescent dye penetrant
b. to check the background fluorescence
c. to check whether the part is over washed
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d. to improve the developer effectiveness

22. Cracked Aluminum panels are used for _________

a. side by side penetrant comparison
b. in-service penetrant with reference
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

23. Among the above penetrants, which will penetrate faster

a. Water wash Penetrant
b. Colour contrast penetrant A
c. Post emulsification penetrant A
d. Colour contrast penetrant B
e. Post emulsification penetrant B

24. Flammability or flash point is different from fire point. This property is important from
safety point of view. Up to 1975, a flash point of 66°C and above is the requirement.
Presently OSHA has made it more stringent and the temperature is 93°C and above. The
definition of flash point is:
a. the temperature at which the liquid catches fire in presence of flame
b. the temperature at which the liquid gives off enough vapour that catches fire in presence
of flame
c. the temperature at which liquid is fully converted into vapour
d. the temperature at which the liquid catches fire

25. In acid cleaning of steel for rust and scale, hydrogen entry is a problem that will lead to
hydrogen embrittlement. One way to remove hydrogen from steel is
a. vibrate after acid cleaning
b. give an alkaline treatment
c. bake the component
d. use inhibitors

26. Filtered particle testing method is used to test _____

a. Porous material
b. Glass specimens
c. Non-porous materials
d. All of the above

27. The cause of fluorescent extinction other than UV light removed could be caused by alkaline
and acidic contents of the penetrant materials. The proper terminology for this extinction is:
a. killing
b. quenching
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c. dying
d. fading

28. Re-cracking of panel will result in:

a. Increased sensitivity
b. Increased resolution
c. Decreased sensitivity
d. Both A & B
e. Reduce the speed of penetrant entry

29. The height of capillary rise of the liquid or the depth to which penetrant enters, is more in the
case of
a. wide and shallow discontinuities
b. narrow and deep discontinuities
c. more information is required
d. determined by contact angle and surface tension

30. The Beer’s law relates the thickness of the film with intensities of incident and emerging
light, effective concentration © of the dye in the penetrant system and the extinction
coefficient (k) of a type of dye through I = Io e^-kcx(refer Picture). What is the relation
between the film thickness ‘x’ with respect to ‘kc’, when I/Io = ½?
a. 1.5kc = x
b. 0.7kc = x
c. 0.7/kc = x
d. kc/0.7 = x

31. The penetrant and test article. temperature, at time of penetrant application, should be:
a. No more than 60°F (16°C).
b. 175 to 225°F (79 to 107°C)
c. At least 125°F (52°C)
d. 60 to 125°F (16 to 52°C).

32. If 200 nos. of steel bolts each 20 mm dia & 75 mm long are to be penetrant tested, which
method is best suited to bring out the cracks?
a. Post-emulsification
b. Water washable
c. Solvent removable
d. Any of the above

33. Round or nearly round indication on the surface of a test article are indications of:
a. Cracks.
b. Nonmetallic inclusions.
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c. Seams.
d. Porosity

34. A reliable penetrant inspection requires that:

a. all schedules are met
b. the procedures meet government requirements
c. the penetrant tests be reproducible
d. 100% of all discontinuities in the parts be detected

35. How does recracking the aluminum test block at 800°F (427°C) affect its sensitivity?
a. decreases sensitivity because cracks are enlarged
b. increases sensitivity because existing cracks contract and become tighter
c. does not affect sensitivity
d. none of the above, since recracking cannot be accomplished effectively

36. It is often recommended that sulphur content be limited to what percent of the penetrant?
a. 0.01%
b. 0.1%
c. 1.0%
d. 1.1 %

37. Which of the following is an advantage of background fluorescence?

a. background reduces the contrast of an indication
b. background indicates that the pan was not over-washed
c. background reveals an excessive emulsification time
d. background is hard to remove when a high sensitive penetrant is applied to rough or
porous surfaces

38. Which of the following discontinuities might be found in rolled plate?

a. Laminations
b. Shrinkage
c. Lack of fusion
d. Undercut

39. The various maximum and minimum values given in specifications for times, pressures,
temperatures etc are
a. only a set of guidelines to be followed with up to 50% variation accepted
b. fixed requirements and must not be varied beyond 5% either way
c. limits within which the process must be controlled
d. only to be applied when critical components are processed
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40. When aqueous developers are included in a penetrant specification the following points must
be covered:
a. the concentration of the developer
b. the temperature allowed for drying
c. the minimum contact time
d. all these points
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Level-II General

Test Key
1. A 12. D 23. A 34. C
2. D 13. B 24. B 35. A
3. D 14. A 25. C 36. C
4. B 15. D 26. A 37. B
5. A 16. C 27. B 38. A
6. D 17. D 28. C 39. C
7. A 18. A 29. D 40. D
8. A 19. C 30. C
9. D 20. C 31. D
10. C 21. C 32. A
11. B 22. C 33. D