NEET TEST SERIES 2022

TEST CODE : NT - 17
Candidate’s Name

A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A
B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B
C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C Important Instructions
D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D Darken one circle deeply for each questions in the OMR Answer Sheet,
E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E as faintly darkened, half darkened circle might be rejected by the
F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F Optical Scanner.
G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G Wrong Marking Correction Marking
H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H P
I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I
J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J
Use blue/black ball point pen to record the answer.
Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K Please do not make any stray marks on the answer sheet.
L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L
M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M Contact No. (with STD Code)/Mobile Number
N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N
O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O
P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P
Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY BIOLOGY ZOOLOGY

Section A Section A Section A Section A
1 1 2 3 4 51 1 2 3 4 101 1 2 3 4 151 1 2 3 4
2 1 2 3 4 52 1 2 3 4 102 1 2 3 4 152 1 2 3 4
3 1 2 3 4 53 1 2 3 4 103 1 2 3 4 153 1 2 3 4
4 1 2 3 4 54 1 2 3 4 104 1 2 3 4 154 1 2 3 4
5 1 2 3 4 55 1 2 3 4 105 1 2 3 4 155 1 2 3 4
6 1 2 3 4 56 1 2 3 4 106 1 2 3 4 156 1 2 3 4
7 1 2 3 4 57 1 2 3 4 107 1 2 3 4 157 1 2 3 4
8 1 2 3 4 58 1 2 3 4 108 1 2 3 4 158 1 2 3 4
9 1 2 3 4 59 1 2 3 4 109 1 2 3 4 159 1 2 3 4
10 1 2 3 4 60 1 2 3 4 110 1 2 3 4 160 1 2 3 4
11 1 2 3 4 61 1 2 3 4 111 1 2 3 4 161 1 2 3 4
12 1 2 3 4 62 1 2 3 4 112 1 2 3 4 162 1 2 3 4
13 1 2 3 4 63 1 2 3 4 113 1 2 3 4 163 1 2 3 4
14 1 2 3 4 64 1 2 3 4 114 1 2 3 4 164 1 2 3 4
15 1 2 3 4 65 1 2 3 4 115 1 2 3 4 165 1 2 3 4
16 1 2 3 4 66 1 2 3 4 116 1 2 3 4 166 1 2 3 4
17 1 2 3 4 67 1 2 3 4 117 1 2 3 4 167 1 2 3 4
18 1 2 3 4 68 1 2 3 4 118 1 2 3 4 168 1 2 3 4
19 1 2 3 4 69 1 2 3 4 119 1 2 3 4 169 1 2 3 4
20 1 2 3 4 70 1 2 3 4 120 1 2 3 4 170 1 2 3 4
21 1 2 3 4 71 1 2 3 4 121 1 2 3 4 171 1 2 3 4
22 1 2 3 4 72 1 2 3 4 122 1 2 3 4 172 1 2 3 4
23 1 2 3 4 73 1 2 3 4 123 1 2 3 4 173 1 2 3 4
24 1 2 3 4 74 1 2 3 4 124 1 2 3 4 174 1 2 3 4
25 1 2 3 4 75 1 2 3 4 125 1 2 3 4 175 1 2 3 4
26 1 2 3 4 76 1 2 3 4 126 1 2 3 4 176 1 2 3 4
27 1 2 3 4 77 1 2 3 4 127 1 2 3 4 177 1 2 3 4
28 1 2 3 4 78 1 2 3 4 128 1 2 3 4 178 1 2 3 4
29 1 2 3 4 79 1 2 3 4 129 1 2 3 4 179 1 2 3 4
30 1 2 3 4 80 1 2 3 4 130 1 2 3 4 180 1 2 3 4
31 1 2 3 4 81 1 2 3 4 131 1 2 3 4 181 1 2 3 4
32 1 2 3 4 82 1 2 3 4 132 1 2 3 4 182 1 2 3 4
33 1 2 3 4 83 1 2 3 4 133 1 2 3 4 183 1 2 3 4
34 1 2 3 4 84 1 2 3 4 134 1 2 3 4 184 1 2 3 4
35 1 2 3 4 85 1 2 3 4 135 1 2 3 4 185 1 2 3 4
Section B (Attempt Any 10) Section B (Attempt Any 10) Section B (Attempt Any 10) Section B (Attempt Any 10)

36 1 2 3 4 86 1 2 3 4 136 1 2 3 4 186 1 2 3 4
37 1 2 3 4 87 1 2 3 4 137 1 2 3 4 187 1 2 3 4
38 1 2 3 4 88 1 2 3 4 138 1 2 3 4 188 1 2 3 4
39 1 2 3 4 89 1 2 3 4 139 1 2 3 4 189 1 2 3 4
40 1 2 3 4 90 1 2 3 4 140 1 2 3 4 190 1 2 3 4
41 1 2 3 4 91 1 2 3 4 141 1 2 3 4 191 1 2 3 4
42 1 2 3 4 92 1 2 3 4 142 1 2 3 4 192 1 2 3 4
43 1 2 3 4 93 1 2 3 4 143 1 2 3 4 193 1 2 3 4
44 1 2 3 4 94 1 2 3 4 144 1 2 3 4 194 1 2 3 4
45 1 2 3 4 95 1 2 3 4 145 1 2 3 4 195 1 2 3 4
46 1 2 3 4 96 1 2 3 4 146 1 2 3 4 196 1 2 3 4
47 1 2 3 4 97 1 2 3 4 147 1 2 3 4 197 1 2 3 4
48 1 2 3 4 98 1 2 3 4 148 1 2 3 4 198 1 2 3 4
49 1 2 3 4 99 1 2 3 4 149 1 2 3 4 199 1 2 3 4
50 1 2 3 4 100 1 2 3 4 150 1 2 3 4 200 1 2 3 4
 AIM NEET Full Test-07

TOPIC COVERED
Physics: Full Syllabus (Class 11 &12)
Chemistry: Full Syllabus (Class 11 &12)
Botany: Full Syllabus (Class 11 &12)
Zoology: Full Syllabus (Class 11 &12)

Duration: 3 hr 20 min Max Marks: 720

Date: 29/06/2022
General Instructions:
• The test will contain 200 Questions of Physics, Chemistry, Botany, and Zoology & The test will be objective type.
(Attempt only 180).
• Every subject contains two Section A-35 Questions and Section B-15 Questions (Attempt only 10).
• All 35 Questions of Section-A are Compulsory to attempt.
• Time given for test is 200 minutes.
• Marking is +4 for every correct answer, –1 for every wrong answer.
• You can reattempt the test in case of any technical issue.
• Test will start at 2:00 pm and students can attempt test at any time of their own preferences

PHYSICS
SECTION-A 4. A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of
5 m/min. A man on the south bank of the river
1. The value of 10 joule on a system having 100 g, 10
capable of swimming at 10 m/min in still water
cm and 30 s as fundamental units is
wants to swim across the river:
(1) 9 × 105 new unit (1) due north to reach in shortest time
(2) 9 × 109 new unit (2) at an angle 30° west of north to reach in
(3) 9 × 106 new unit minimum time
(4) 9 × 103 new unit (3) at an angle 60° west of north to reach along
shortest path
(4) at angle 45° west of north to reach along
2. Two forces 3N and 2N are at an angle  such that shortest path.
the resultant is R. The first force is now increased
to 6N and the resultant become 2R. The value of 5. In a rocket of mass 1000 kg fuel is consumed at a
 is rate of 40 kg/s. The velocity of the gases ejected
from the rocket is 5 × 104 m/s. The thrust on the
(1) 30° rocket is
(2) 60° (1) 2 × 103 N (2) 5 × 104 N
6
(3) 90° (3) 2 × 10 N (4) 2 × 109 N
(4) 120°
6. A block of mass M is hanging over a smooth and
light pulley through a light string. The other end of
3. A bullet fired into a fixed block of wood loses half the string is pulled by a constant force F. The kinetic
its velocity after penetrating 60 cm before coming energy of the block increases by 20 J in 1s. Then
to rest it penetrates a further distance of- which of the following statements is/are correct
(1) 60 cm (1) Tension in the string is Mg
(2) 30 cm (2) Tension in the string is F
(3) 20 cm (3) Work done by the tension on the block is 20 J
(4) 10 cm in the above 1s.
(4) Work done by the force of gravity is −20 J in
the above 1 s.

[1]
7. A spring of force constant 10 N/m has initial stretch 12. If the change in the value of 'g' at a height ℎ above
0.2 m. In changing the stretch to 0.25 m, the the surface of the earth is the same as at a depth 𝑥
increase in PE is about. below it, when both 𝑥 and ℎ are much smaller than
(1) 0.1 J the radius of the earth, then
(2) 0.2 J (1) 𝑥 = ℎ (2) 𝑥 = 2ℎ
(3) 0.3 J (3) 𝑥 = ℎ/2 (4) 𝑥 = ℎ2
(4) 0.5 J
13. Water flows through a frictionless duct with a
8. Two blocks of mass 10 kg and 30 kg are placed cross-section varying as shown in fig. Pressure p at
along a vertical line. The first block is raised points along the axis is represented by
through a height of 7 cm. By what distance should
the second mass be moved to raised the centre of
mass by 1 cm.
(1) 2 cm upward
(2) 1 cm upward
(3) 2 cm downward
(1)
(4) 1 cm downward

9. A rod of length L is hinged from one end. It is

brought to a horizontal position and released. The
angular velocity of the rod when it is in vertical
(2)
position is
2g
(1)
L
3g
(2) (3)
L
g
(3)
2L
g
(4) (4)
L

10. A circular disc of radius R and thickness R/6 has

moment of inertia I about an axis passing through
14. Radius of a soap bubble is increased from R to 2R
its centre and perpendicular to its plane. It is melted
work done in this process in terms of surface
and recasted into a solid sphere. The moment of
tension is
inertia of the sphere about its diameter as axis of
rotation is (1) 24 R2S (2) 48 R2S
(1) I (3) 12 R2S (4) 36 R2S
2I
(2) 15. A beaker contains 200 gm of water. The heat
8
capacity of the beaker is equal to that of 20 gm of
I
(3) water. The initial temperature of water in the
5 beaker is 20°C. If 440 gm of hot water at 92°C is
I poured in it, the final temperature (neglecting
(4)
10 radiation loss) will be nearest to
(1) 58°C (2) 68°C
11. A cylinder of mass 10 kg and radius 15 cm is (3) 73°C (4) 78°C
rolling perfectly on a plane of inclination 30°. The
coefficient of static friction is µs = 0.25. How much 16. A Carnot engine absorbs an amount Q of heat from
is the force of friction acting on the cylinder? a reservoir at an absolute temperature T and rejects
(1) 2 N heat to a sink at a temperature of T/3. The amount
(2) 5 N of heat rejected is
(3) 16.4 N (1) Q/4 (2) Q/3
(4) 6 N (3) Q/2 (4) 2Q/3

[2]
17. The two interfering waves have intensities in the 22. Two infinite length wires carries currents 10 A and
ratio 81 : 16. The ratio of intensities of maxima and 24 A respectively and placed along X and Y-axis.
minima in the interference pattern will be Magnetic field at a point P (0, 0, 𝑑) 𝑚 will be
(1) 25 : 169 10 0
(1)
(2) 169 : 25 d
(3) 9 : 4 12 0
(4) 4 : 9 (2)
d
130
18. With what velocity an observer should move (3)
d
relative to a stationary source so that he hears a
sound of double the frequency of source 14 0
(4)
(1) Velocity of sound towards the source d
(2) Velocity of sound away from the source
(3) Half the velocity of sound towards the source 23. What is the net force on the coil
(4) Double the velocity of sound towards the
source

19. Some equipotential surface are shown in the figure.

The magnitude and direction of the electric field is

(1) 25 × 10–7 N moving towards wire

(2) 25 × 10–7 N moving away from wire
(3) 35 × 10–7 N moving towards wire
(4) 35 × 10–7 N moving towards wire
(1) 100 V/m making angle 120 with the x-axis 24. The coercivity of a bar magnet is 100 A/m. It is to
(2) 100 V/m making angle 60 with the x-axis be demagnetised by placing it inside a solenoid of
(3) 200 V/m making angle 120 with the x-axis length 100 cm and number of turns 50. The current
(4) None of the above flowing the solenoid will be-
(1) 4 A (2) 2 A
20. Work done to rotate a dipole through an angle of (3) 1 A (4) zero
90° in an electric field, is-
25. The equivalent inductance of two inductances is
(1) –pE
2.4 henry when connected in parallel and 10 henry
(2) –2pE when connected in series. The difference between
(3) pE the two inductances is
(4) Depends on the initial angle between P (1) 2 henry (2) 3 henry
and E" (3) 4 henry (4) 5 henry

21. Five equal resistances each of resistance R are 26. The rms current in an a.c. circuit is 2A. If the
connected as shown in the figure. A battery of V wattles current be √3 A, what is the power factor?
volts is connected between A and B. The current 1 1
flowing in AFCEB will be (1) (2)
3 2
1 1
(3) (4)
2 3

27. An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is

described by E = E0 sin(kx – t). Which of the
following equation is true
3V V (1) E0k = B0
(1) (2)
R R (2) E0 = B0k
V 2V (3) E0B0 = k
(3) (4)
2R R (4) None of these

[3]
28. White light is incident on the interface of glass and 32. A current of two amperes is flowing through a cell
air as shown in the figure. If green light is just of e.m.f. 5 volts and internal resistance 0.5 ohm
totally internally reflected then the emerging ray in from negative to positive electrode. If the potential
air contains: of negative electrode is 10 V, the potential of
positive electrode will be
(1) 5 V (2) 14 V
(3) 15 V (4) 16 V

33. If 𝑛𝑒 and 𝑣𝑑 be the number of electrons and drift

velocity in a semiconductor. When the temperature
is increased
(1) Yellow, orange, red (1) ne increases and vd decreases
(2) Violet, indigo, blue (2) ne decreases and vd increases
(3) All colours (3) Both ne and vd increases
(4) “All colours except green” (4) Both ne and vd decreases

29. What does A, B, C, D and E represent in the 34. The diagram of a logic circuit is given below. The
following nuclear reaction- output F of the circuit is represented by
  E
92 U
238
⎯⎯
→ B Th
A
⎯⎯
→ D Pa
C
⎯⎯
→ 92U 234
(1) A = 234, B = 90, C = 234, D = 91, E = 
(2) A = 234, B = 90, C = 238, D = 94, E = 
(3) A = 238, B = 93, C = 234, D = 93, E = 
(4) A = 234, B = 90, C = 234, D = 93, E = 
(1) W  ( X + Y ) (2) W  ( X  Y )
30. The stopping potential as a function of the
frequency of the incident radiation is plotted for (3) W + ( X  Y ) (4) W + (X + Y)
two different photoelectric surfaces A and B. The
graphs show that work function of A is 35. 19 main scale divisions (MSD) coincide with 20
Vernier scale divisions. If 1 MSD = 1 mm, then
least count of caliper is
(1) 0.05 mm (2) 1 mm
(3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.2 mm

(1) Greater than that of 𝐵 SECTION - B

(2) Smaller than that of 𝐵 (ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS)
(3) Equal to that of 𝐵 36. A driver applies brakes to the vehicle on seeing
(4) No inference can be drawn about their work traffic signal 400 𝑚 ahead. At the time of applying
functions from the given graphs. the brakes vehicle was moving with
15 ms–1 and then starts retarding with 0.3 ms–2. The
distance of vehicle after 1 min from the traffic light:
31. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom
corresponds to increasing values of energy, i.e., EA (1) 25 m
< EB < EC. If 1, 2 and 3 are the wavelength of (2) 375 m
radiations corresponding to the transitions, C to B, (3) 360 m
B, to A and C to A respectively, which of the (4) 40 m
following statement is correct:
(1) 3 = 1 + 2 37. A stone is projected from the ground with velocity
 2 1 25 m/s. Two seconds later, it just clears a wall 5m
(2) 3 = high. The angle of projection of the stone is (𝑔 = 10
1 +  2 m/sec2)
(3) 1 + 2 + 3 = 0 (1) 30°
(4) 32 = 12 +  22 (2) 45°
(3) 50.2°
(4) 60°

[4]
38. In the arrangement shown, neglect the mass of the 42. A gas is filled in the cylinder shown in the figure.
ropes and pulley. What must be the value of m to The two pistons are joined by a string. If the gas is
keep the system in equilibrium? There is no friction heated, the pistons will
anywhere:

(1) Move towards left

(2) Move towards right
(3) Remain stationary
(1) M (2) 2M (4) None of these
(3) M/2 (4) M/4
43. Following figure shows cross-sections through
three long conductors of the same length and
39. An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very material, with square cross-section of edge lengths
slowly (see the figure). The coefficient of friction as shown. Conductor B will fit snugly within
between the insect and the surface is 1/3. If the line conductor A, and conductor C will fit snugly within
joining the centre of the hemispherical surface to conductor B. Relationship between their end to end
the insect makes an angle  with the vertical, the resistance is
maximum possible value of  is given by

(1) RA = RB = RC
(2) RA > RB > RC
(1) cot  = 3 (2) tan  = 3 (3) RA < RB < RC
(3) sec  = 3 (4) cosec  = 3 (4) Information is not sufficient

40. A particle describes a horizontal circle in a conical 44. Two plane mirrors are at right angles to each other.
funnel whose inner surface is smooth with speed of A man stands between them and combs his hair
0.5 m/s. What is the height of the plane of circle with his right hand. In how many of the images will
from vertex of the funnel ? he be seen using his right hand.
(1) 0.25 cm (2) 2 cm (1) None (2) 1
(3) 4 cm (4) 2.5 cm (3) 2 (4) 3

45. If the focal length of objectives and eye lens are 1.2
41. A particle of mass 𝑚 moving with a speed v hits cm and 3 cm respectively and the object is put 1.25
elastically another particle of mass 2m, on a cm away from the objective lens and the final
horizontal circular tube of radius R. The time in image is formed at infinity.
which the next collision will take place is equal to The magnifying power of the microscope is –
(1) 150 (2) 200
(3) 250 (4) 400

46. In a Young's double slit

experimental
arrangement shown
here, if a mica sheet of
thickness t and
refractive index µ is
placed in front of the
6R 2R slit S1 then the path
(1) (2)
v 3v difference (S1P – S2P)
(1) Decreases by (µ − 1)t
2R 3R
(3) (4) (2) Increases by (µ − 1)t
v v (3) Does not change
(4) Increases by µt
[5]
47. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle 49. Three uncharged capacitors of capacitance C1 =
accelerated with 150 volt potential is 10–10 m. If it 1 µF, C2 = 2 µF, C3 = 3µF, connected as shown in
is accelerated by 600 volts 𝑝.d., its wavelength will figure to one another and to points A, B and D
be potentials VA = 10 V, VB = 25 V and VD = 20 V.
(1) 0.25 Å Determine the potential (V0) at point O.
(2) 0.5 Å
(3) 1.5 Å
(4) 2 Å
48. The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure
has a constant voltage drop of 0.5 V at all currents
and a maximum power rating of 100 milliwatts.
What should be the value of the resistor R,
connected in series with the diode for obtaining (1) + 10 V (2) – 20 V
maximum current. (3) + 16 V (4) – 10 V

50. What is the minimum thickness of a thin film

(µ = 1.2) that results in constructive interference in
the reflected light? If the film is illuminated with
light whose wavelength in free space is
 = 500 nm?
(1) 104 nm (2) 200 nm
(1) 1.5  (3) 300 nm (4) 400 nm
(2) 5
(3) 6.67 
(4) 200 

[6]
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
51. The expression for the wave number of second 57. A first order reaction is 20% complete in 10
line of Balmer series in the hydrogen atom is minutes. What is the rate constant of the reaction?
16 3R H 8
(1) (2) log e  
3R H 16
(1)  10  min−1
5R H 36 10
(3) (4)
36 5R H 5
log e  
(2)
 2  min−1
52. An electron in H−atom in its ground state absorbs 10
1.50 times as much as energy as the minimum 5
required for its escape (13.6 eV) from the atom. log e  
Thus KE given to emitted electron is (3)
 4  min−1
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 0.4 eV 10
(3) 34.0 eV (4) 6.8 eV 4
log e  
(4)
 5  min−1
53. Identify the correct statement 10
(1) Cubic packing has a coordination number of
8 whereas body centered cubic packing has a 58. For a Ist order reaction A ⎯→ Product, the rate of
coordination number of 12 reaction at [A] = 0.2 mol L−1 is 1.0  10−2 mol L−1
(2) Body centered cubic is not a close−packed min−1. The half-life period for the reaction is
arrangement (1) 832 sec. (2) 440 sec.
(3) In the hexagonal close−packed type of (3) 416 sec. (4) 14 sec.
packing there is ABCABC…. sequence of
layers 59. The hybridization of S in HSO 3− and shape is
(4) In the fcc type structure, there is (1) sp3 and pyramidal
ABAB….sequence of layers (2) sp2 and trigonal planar
(3) sp3 and tetrahedral
54. For the decomposition of N2O5(g), it is given that (4) sp3d and trigonal bipyramidal.
2N2O5(g) ⎯→ 4NO2(g) + O2(g);
activation energy Ea 60. Which of the following molecules has zero dipole
1 moment?
N2O5(g) ⎯→ 2NO2(g) + O 2 (g ); (1) NH3 (2) SO2
2
(3) CO2 (4) H2O
activation energy E a
then which of the following can be deducted from 61. Which of the following element has the highest
the above two equations second ionisation potential?
(1) Ea = E a (2) Ea > E a (1) Nitrogen (2) Carbon
(3) Oxygen (4) Fluorine
(3) Ea < E a (4) Ea = 2Ea
62. How many unpaired electrons are present in N +2 ?
55. The difference between the heats of reaction at (1) 1 (2) 2
constant pressure and at constant volume for (3) 3 (4) 4
the reaction, 2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g) ⎯→ 12CO2(g) +
6H2O(l) at 25°C in kJ is 63. For the reactions,
(1) − 7.43 (2) + 3.72 A B ; Kc = 2
B C ; Kc = 4
(3) − 3.72 (4) + 7.43
56. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded C D ; Kc = 6
isothermally from an initial volume of one litre to Kc for the reaction, A D is
10 litres. The E for this process is (1) (2 + 4 + 6) (2) (2  4)/6
(1) 16.7 cal (2) 1381.1 cal (3) (4  6)/2 (4) 2  4  6
(3) 9 lit atm (4) None of these
[7]
64. At 25°C, the standard emf of a cell having 72. Which of the following compound will show
reaction involving two-electron change is found to optical isomerism?
be 0.295 V. The equilibrium constant of the (1) Butanal (2) 2−Chlorobutanol
reaction is
(3) 2−Propanol (4) 1−Butene
(1) 29.5  10−2 (2) 10
(3) 1  10 10
(4) 29.5  1010 CH CH
73. The name of is
   CHO NH2
65. If E Fe2 + / Fe is X1, E Fe3+ / Fe is X2 then E Fe3+ / Fe2+ (1) 1−Aminoprop−2−enal
will be (2) 3−Aminoprop−2−propenal
(1) 3X2 − 2X1 (2) X2 − X1 (3) 1−Amino−2−formylethene
(3) X2 + X1 (4) 2X1 + 3X2 (4) 3−Amino−1−oxoprop−2−ene

66. The standard reduction electrode potential values 74. Rank the following compounds in terms of
of the elements (A), (B) and (C) are +0.68, increasing reactivity towards nitration with conc.
−2.50 and −0.50 V respectively. The order of their HNO3/ conc. H2SO4.
reducing power is: Cl NH–CH 3
(1) (A) > (B) > (C) (2) (A) > (C) > (B)
(3) (C) > (B) > (A) (4) (B) > (C) > (A)

67. V1 ml x1 (M) HCl was mixed with V2 ml. x2 (M) (I) (II) (III)
HCl. The resulting molarity of the solution will be (1) (I) < (II) < (III)
V1 x1 + V2 x2 (2) (II) < (I) < (III)
(1) V1x1 + V2x2 (2)
V1 + V2 (3) (III) < (I) < (II)
V1 x2 + V2 x2 V1 V2 (4) (III) < (II) < (I)
(3) (4) +
V1 + V2 x1 x2
75. For the reaction,
Br
68. The relative rate of diffusion of a gas (molar mass
?
= 128) as compared to oxygen is
NO2
(1) 2 times (2) 1/4
the best reactants are
(3) 1/8 (4) 1/2
(1) C6H5Br + HNO3, H2SO4
(2) C6H5Br + H2SO4, 
69. The lowest vapour pressure for 0.1 M solution
exists for (3) C6H5NO2 + Br2, FeBr3
(1) Glucose (2) NaCl (4) C6H5NO2 + HBr
(3) BaCl2 (4) Al2(SO4)3
76. In the following sequence of reactions
KOH (alc) HBr
 CH3CH2CH2Br ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ (A) ⎯⎯⎯
→
KOH (aq.)
70. The cyclopentadienyl cation, is (B) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → (C).
The product (C) is
(1) aromatic (2) anti−aromatic (1) propan−2−ol
(3) non−aromatic (4) none of these (2) propan−1−ol
(3) propyne
71. Consider the following carbocations: (4) propene
 
(I) CH3−CH2 (II) CH2=CH 77. When phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with
 
tert−butyl alcohol, the product would be
(III) CH2=CH−CH2 (IV) C6H5−CH2
(1) benzene
Stability of these carbocations in decreasing order
(2) phenol
is
(3) t−butyl benzene
(1) (IV) > (III) > (I) > (II)
(2) (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I) (4) t−butyl phenyl ether
(3) (III) > (IV) > (II) > (I)
(4) (III) > (IV) > (I) > (II)
[8]
 NBS
in −
⎯→ (A) ⎯⎯⎯→ (B)
CN
O 84. PhCH3 ⎯⎯ ⎯
16 17 ||
H+ CCl 4
78. R1 − CH 2 − O − H + H − O − C − R 2 ⎯⎯⎯

→
The product (B) in the sequence is
A + B, A and B are
(1) Br CH2CN
O
16 17

(1) R1−CH2−O−C−R2, H−OH (2) CH2Br

O
17 16

(2) R1−CH2−O−C−R2, H−OH (3) CH2CN

O
16 16
(4)
(3) R1−CH2−O−C−R2 + H−OH CN
(4) All are correct.
85. Glucose gives the silver mirror test with
79. When phenol is treated with CHCl3 and NaOH ammoniacal solution of AgNO3 because it
followed by acidification, salicyldehyde is contains the …… group:
formed. The electrophile involved in the process (1) aldehyde (2) ketone
is
(3) ester (4) acids
(1) Carbocation (2) Carbanion
(3) Carbene (4) None of these SECTION - B
(ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS)
80. In the Cannizzaro reaction given below, 86. A substance gives ninhydrin test. It is most likely
OH − a
2Ph−CHO ⎯⎯
⎯→ Ph−CH2OH + PhCO −
2 (1) lipid (2) vitamin
the slowest step is (3) shock absorber (4) protein
(1) the attack of OH− at the carbonyl group.
87. Which of the following monomer can undergo
(2) the transfer of hydride ion to the carbonyl radical, cationic as well as anionic polymerisation
group. with almost equal ease?
(3) the abstraction of proton from the carboxylic (1) CH3–C=CH2 (2) C6H5–CH=CH2
acid.
CH3
(4) the deprotonation of Ph−CH2OH.
(3) CH2=CH–CN (4) CH2=CH2

81. Which of the following carboxylic acids

88. Which method of purification is represented by
undergoes decarboxylation easily?
the following equations?
(1) C6H5−CO−CH2COOH 70° C 180° C
(2) C6H5−CO−COOH Ni(s) + 4CO(g) Ni(CO)4(g)
Ni(s) + 4CO(g)
(3) C6H5−CH−COOH
(1) Van Arkel
OH (2) Zone refining
(4) C6H5−CH−COOH (3) Mond process
NH2 (4) Cupellation

82. The most acidic will be 89. Calamine is an ore of

(1) CH3−COOH (2) CCl3−COOH (1) Hg (2) Zn
(3) CH2(Cl)COOH (4) CI3COOH (3) Cd (4) Ca

O 90. The order of increasing lattice energy of the

83. Br2 / KOH metallic compound is
R−C−NH2 (A). Compound (A) is
(1) NaCl < CaO < NaI < BaO
(1) R−CN (2) NaI < NaCl < BaO < CaO
(2) R−NC (3) NaCl < NaI < BaO < CaO
(3) R−CH2−NH2 (4) NaI < NaCl < CaO < BaO
(4) R−NH2

[9]
91. X and Y are two metals. When burnt in air, X 96. Which of the following orders regarding thermal
forms only oxide while Y forms oxide and nitride. stability of hydrides MH3 of group 15 is correct?
The metals X and Y may be (1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3
(1) Ca and Mg (2) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3
(2) Na and Mg (3) NH3 > PH3 < AsH3
(3) Li and Na (4) NH3 < PH3 > AsH3
(4) Na and K
97. Which of the following xenon fluorides is not
92. There is no S−S bond in formed?
(1) S2 O 24− (2) S2 O52− (1) XeF2 (2) XeF4
(3) XeF6 (4) XeF8
(3) S2 O32− (4) S2 O72−
98. Tyndall effect is due to
93. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is a (1) reflection of light.
white solid? (2) scattering of light.
(1) NO (2) NO2 (3) absorption of light.
(3) N2O3 (4) N2O5 (4) adsorption of light.

94. With excess of Cl2, ammonia forms 99. Which of the following is less than zero during
(1) NH4Cl (2) N2 adsorption?
(3) NCl3 (4) NH3.NCl3 (1) G (2) S
(3) H (4) All of the above
95. Which of the following statements is correct for
CsBr3? 100. Which one of the following coordination
(1) It is a covalent compound compounds exhibits ionization isomerism?
(2) It contains Cs3+ and Br− ions (1) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 (2) [Cr(en)3Cl3]
(3) [Cr(en)3]Cl3 (4) [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4
(3) It contains Cs+ and Br3− ions
(4) It contains Cs3+, Br− molecule lattice

[10]
 BOTANY
SECTION - A 105. Choose the incorrect statement from followings:
101. Which of the following are true regarding (1) Dinoflagellates have stiff cellulose plates on
anaphase: the outer surface.
(A) Each chromosome move towards equatorial (2) Euglenoids have two flagella one lies
plate. longitudinally and the other transversely.
(B) Centromere of each chromosome is towards (3) Slime mould's spores are dispersed by air
equator. current.
(C) Segregation of homologous chromosome (4) In diatoms the cell wall forms two thin
occur. overlapping shells.
(D) Daughter chromosome moves towards
opposite pole. 106. Pleiotropic gene is:
(1) A, B, C and D (1) A gene that controls one character
(2) C and D (2) Many genes that control one character
(3) A, C and D (3) A gene that controls more than one character
(4) Only D (4) A gene that controls recessive traits
102. Select the two correct statements out of the four 107. In the diagramatic representation of response of
(a-d) given below about lac operon: organisms against temperature. Find out the
(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the
correct match.
repressor and inactivate the repressor
(b) In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds
with the operator region
(c) The z-gene codes for permease
(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and
Jacque Monad
The correct statements are:
(1) (b) and (d)
(2) (a) and (b) (1) A – Mammals, B – Birds
(3) (b) and (c) (2) B – Mammals, C – Plants
(4) (a) and (c) (3) A – Plants , B – Mammals
(4) A – Birds, B – Mammals
103. In rooted plants, transport in ______ is essential
unidirectional, from ______ to______. 108. Match the column-I & column II and find out the
Choose the correct option and fill the blanks: correct option.
(1) Xylem, the stem, roots Column-I Column-II
(2) Phloem, roots, the stems (A) Valvate (M) Pea
(3) Xylem, roots, the stems (B) Twisted (N) Cassia
(4) Phloem, the stem, roots (C) Imbricate (O) Calotropis
104. Find out the correct match from the following (D) Vexillary (P) China rose
table? (1) A-O, B-P, C-N, D-M
Column-I Column-II Column-III (2) A-M, B-N, C-O, D-P
i. Spring Narrow Higher (3) A-N, B-M, C-P, D-O
wood lumen density (4) A-P, B-O, C-M, D-N
ii. Autumn Wide lumen Lower
wood density 109. In which one of the following plant Frankia can
iii. Heart dark brown Formation fix N2 in root nodules?
wood of tyloses (1) Alfalfa (2) Alnus
Options : (3) Sweet clover (4) Lentils
(1) (i), (ii)
(2) Only (iii) 110. Which hormone is recognised for it's growth
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) promoting as well as growth inhibiting role?
(4) Only (ii) (1) Ethylene (2) Cytokinin
(3) ABA (4) Auxin

[11]
111. If both parents are affected by thalassemia, which 118. Immediate cause of the opening or closing of the
is an autosomal recessive disorder. What are the stomata is
chances of pregnancy resulting in a normal child– (1) High humidity in atmosphere
(1) 25% (2) 75% (2) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose
(3) 100% (4) 0% microfibrils in guard cells
(3) Change in the turgidity of the guard cells
112. In secondary treatment of waste water flocs are : (4) Low light intensity
(1) Masses of bacteria associated with fungal
Filaments 119. Study the given table showing the solute potential
(2) Masses of mycoplasma associated with fungi (S) and pressure potential (P) of mesophyll cells
(3) Masses of protozoa associated with virus A, B and C. Considering that all three cells are
(4) Masses of bacteria associated with algae connected to each other. Find the direction of
water movement.
113. In mungbean, resistant to yellow mosaic virus and Cell s (bars) p (bars)
powdery mildew were induced by : A –18 8
(1) Selection (2) Hybridization B – 14 2
(3) Mutation (4) Introduction C – 12 10

114. Water potential is (1) (2)

A. Mainly determined by solute potential and
pressure potential
B. Taken to be zero for pure water at standard
temperature which is not under any pressure (3) (4)
(1) Both A and B are incorrect
(2) Only A is correct
(3) Only B is correct 120. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option
(4) Both A and B are correct I. C4 plants are ___(i)___ as efficient as C3 plants
in terms of fixing carbon.
115. From the given statements choose the correct II. ___(ii)___ of endodermal cells are the control
option: points where a plant adjusts the quantity and types
(1) The initial rapid uptake of ions into the free of solutes that reach ___iii_____.
space or outer space of cells is symplastic III. Transpiration can be studied by using paper
and active strips dipped in ____(iv)____ solution.
(2) The technique of growing plants in a nutrient (1) (i) Twice
solution is known as hydroponic (iii) Phloem
(3) Sulphur is the main constituent of biotin, (iv) Ferrous chloride
thymine and cytochromes (2) (i) Twice
(4) Toxicity symptoms of mineral ions are easy (ii) Transport proteins
to identify (iv) Ammonium chloride
(3) (i) Half
116. Which of the following is not the criteria for (ii) Protein channels
essentiality of a mineral element? (iii) Xylem
(1) The element must be indirectly involved in (4) (ii) Transport proteins
metabolism of the plant (iii) Xylem
(2) In the absence of the element the plants do (iv) Cobalt chloride
not complete their life cycle or set the seeds
(3) Element must be absolutely necessary for 121. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. taxonomic
supporting normal growth and reproduction categories
(4) The requirement of element must be specific (1) Dicotyledone, Monocotyledonae, Insecta
and not replaceable by another element (2) Poales, Sapindales, Muscidae
117. The element responsible for splitting of water to (3) Brassicaceae, Poaceae, Hominidae
liberate oxygen during photosynthesis and (4) Triticum, Mangifera, Musca
maintaining ribosome structure are (respectively)
(1) Mg; Fe 122. Several features of the cyanobacteria resembles
(2) Ca; Mn the green plants, except
(3) Mn; Mg (1) Presence of PS I, PS II
(4) Mg; Mn (2) Oxygenic photosynthesis
(3) Presence of Chl-a and Chl-b
(4) Presence of water as e– and proton donor
[12]
123. Given below are the type of genetic material 130. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t different
present in different viral group. Choose the phases present in life cycle of angiospermic
incorrect match plants?
(1) Plant viruses - ssRNA generally (1) Flower formation marks the end of vegetative
(2) Animal viruses - dsDNA only phase in plants
(3) Bacteriophages - dsDNA generally (2) Annual plants show clear-cut vegetative,
(4) Viroids - free RNA reproductive and senescent phases
(3) Reproductive phase is of variable duration in
124. Which of the following feature does not belong to different organisms
(4) Strobilanthus flowers twice in 12 years
the members of phycomycetes?
(1) Aseptate and coenocytic mycelium
131. In Hershey and Chase experiment, which one of
(2) Asexual reproduction through zoospores only
the following isotopes was used to label
(3) Asexual spores are produced endogenously
bacteriophage DNA?
(4) Sexual reproduction is present (1) 14C (2) 32P
15
(3) N (4) 35S
125. Which of the following is not associated with
Mosses? 132. Which of the following is an example of ex-situ
(1) Gametophyte is dorsiventrally appressed conservation?
(2) Multicellular and branched rhizoids are (1) National park
present in leafy gametophytic stage (2) Sanctuary
(3) Have dependent sporophyte stage (3) Biosphere reserve
(4) Budding and fragmentation help in (4) Zoological park
reproduction
133. Which among the following is most productive
126. What is the floral formula of Solanum nigrum? ecosystem in terms of mean net primary
(1) productivity?
(1) Tropical rain forest
(2) (2) Coniferous forest
(3) (3) Swamp and marsh
(4) Coral reefs
(4)
134. Breeding programme that deals with increasing
127. Simple tissue which has the ability to show the nutritional quality of food is called
dedifferentiation is (1) Biomagnification
(1) Parenchyma (2) Biofortification
(2) Sclerenchyma (3) Bioremediation
(3) A fundamental tissue (4) Bioaccumulation
(4) More than one options are correct
135. Swiss cheese has large holes produced by large
128. Facilitated diffusion of substances across the amount of CO2 given out by fermentive activity of
plasma membrane is (1) Penicillium
a. Sensitive to inhibitors (2) Propionibacterium
b. Uphill type (3) Mucor
c. Energy independent (4) Leuconostoc
d. Selective
(1) a, d are correct SECTION - B
(2) Only b is incorrect (ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS)
(3) a, c are incorrect 136. Given below is sequence of the processed mRNA
(4) a,c & d are correct ready for translation 5'–AUG CUA UAC UAA
CUG CCA UGC UAG-3' How many amino acids
129. Mark the odd one w.r.t. C4 cycle will be present in the polypeptide chain
(1) Not present in all green plants corresponding to this mRNA?
(2) PEP regeneration occurs in mesophyll cell (1) 7
(2) 8
(3) Decarboxylation in bundle sheath cell results
(3) 6
in formation of a ‘4C’ acid
(4) 3
(4) Carboxylation occurs in mesophyll cell

[13]
137. Inheritance of a trait is shown in the given 142. Along with the transpiration stream nodules of
pedigree chart: soyabean can export fixed nitrogen as________.
(1) Nitrates (2) Ureides
(3) Nitrites (4) Ammonia

143. Which of the following reaction of nitrogen

Find out the trait whose inheritance is expressed metabolism is performed by chemoautotrophic
by the pedigree? eubacteria?
(1) Myotonic dystrophy (1) NO3–
(2) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Proteins ⎯→ Amino acids ⎯→ NH3
(3) Colour blindness (3) N2 ⎯→ NH3
(4) Pseudoricketes (4) NH3 ⎯→ NO2– ⎯→ NO3–

138. Which of the following is a wrong statement 144. All are the chief sinks of mineral elements, except
regarding the figure given below? (1) Young leaves
(2) Senescent organs
(3) Apical meristem
(4) Storage organ

145. Loss of water in liquid phase form leaf tips of

(1) As the hydrostatic pressure in the phloem herbaceous plants is __A__. It occurs due to
sieve tube increases, mass flow begins __B__.
(2) Sucrose enters sieve tube cells by passive (1) A – Guttation
transport in leaves directly. B – Root pressure
(3) Loss of solute at the sink end produces a high (2) A – Transpiration
water potential in the phloem B – Root pressure
(4) At the source end, water moves from phloem (3) A – Guttation
to xylem B – Transpiration pull
(4) A – Transpiration
139. Which of the following is the most ecologically B – Transpiration pull
relevant environmental factor after temperature?
(1) Soil 146. Which of the following statement is correct for the
(2) Light processes represented in the given diagram?
(3) Altitude
(4) Water

140. Match the following

Column I Column II
a. Richmond-Lang effect (i) Ethylene
b. Apical dominance (ii) Gibberellin
c. Senescence (iii) Cytokinin
d. -amylase activity (iv) Auxin
(1) Uses special proteins which help in transport
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
of substances having a hydrophobic moiety
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) Uses energy to pump molecules along the
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
concentration gradient
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) Membrane proteins set up a concentration
gradient
141. Select the incorrect statement regarding the
(4) It is highly specific and allows cell to select
plasma membrane.
substances for uptake
(1) Ratio of proteins and lipids varies
considerably in different cell types
147. Water is not required for fertilization for which of
(2) 52% proteins and 40% lipids constitute the
the following group?
membrane of human RBC.
(1) All embryophytes
(3) Arrangement of proteins (P) and Lipids (L) is
(2) All spermatophytes
L–P–P–L.
(3) All tracheophytes
(4) Head of lipid is hydrophilic.
(4) All thallophytes

[14]
148. Number of chromosomes present in a cell at 150. Which of the following statement is correct for the
zygotene stage is 8. What is the number of sickle cell anaemia (w.r.t the modified allele)?
chromosomes at each pole in the anaphase II (1) No protein is produced
stage? (2) Abnormal protein is produced
(1) 4 (2) 16 (3) Normal protein is produced
(3) 8 (4) 12 (4) Lesser amount of protein is produced

149. Which of the following components is not

involved in the process of cyclic
photophosphorylation?
(1) Cyt bf complex (2) PS-I
(3) OEC (4) ATP synthetase

[15]
 ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A 156. Which of the following is incorrect match of the

phylum, its coelom type, segmentation and
151. Identify the trimeric protein which masks the presence/absence of notochord?
active sites for myosin on actin filaments. Phulum Coelom Segmen- Notoc
(1) Tropomyosin tation hord
(2) Troponin (1) Platyhel Coelomate Absent Absent
(3) Meromyosin minthes
(4) G-Actin (2) Annelida Coelomate Presence Absent
152. Select the correct match between items listed in (3) Aschel Pseudo Absent Absent
column-I with those in column-II. minthes coelomate
Column-I Column-II (4) Chordata Coelomate Present Present
a. Bicephalic ribs (i) Lack of relaxation
between 157. Given below is the diagram of human eye. Read
successive stimuli the following statements and find the correct
in sustained statement.
muscle
contractions
b. Hyaline cartilage (ii) 12 in number in
an adult man
c. Tetanus (iii) Chondroitin salts
and lacunae
d. Thoracic (iv) Rapid spasms in
vertebrae muscle due to low
Ca++ in body fluid
(v) 12 pairs in number
(1) A is iris and its role is to prevent reflections
in adult human.
of light.
(1) a-(ii); b-(iii); c-(iv); d-(v) (2) B is iris and it helps in accommodation.
(2) a-(v); b-(ii); c-(i); d-(iii) (3) C is cornea and is avascular
(3) a-(v); b-(iii); c-(i); d-(ii) (4) D is sclera and is made up of dense
(4) a-(v); b-(iii); c-(ii); d-(i) connective tissue.
153. During development of action potential in a nerve 158. Choose the option which is correct identification
fibre, positive and negative changes on outer and of structures labelled as A, B and C.
inner side of axon membrane are reversed due to
(1) Excretion of all K+ ions.
(2) More K+ ions enter than Na+ ions leave the
axon.
(3) More Na+ ions enter the axon than K+ ions
have left the same.
(4) All Na+ ions enter the axon.
A B C
154. How many of these hormones are related to blood (1) Nucleoside Nucleotide Adenine
sugar level? (2) Nucleotide Nucleoside Guanine
GH, Thyroxine, Adrenaline, Glucagon, Cortisol, (3) Nucleoside Nucleotide Guanine
Insulin.
(4) Nucleotide Nucleoside Adenine
(1) Six
(2) Five
(3) Four 159. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t
(4) Zero spermatogenesis.
(1) Spermatogenesis begins at puberty.
155. Find the incorrect Match. (2) The spermatogonia multiply by meiotic
(1) Gastrin – Stomach divisions to increase in number.
(2) Calcitonin – Thyroid gland (3) Secondary spermatocytes and spermatids are
(3) Cortisol – Adrenal medulla haploid cells containing 23 chromosomes.
(4) CCK – Small intestine (4) The abundant cytoplasm of the spermatid is
reduced to a condensed layer during its
transformation to spermatozoon.
[16]
160. Identify A, B, C, D 164. Read the following statements and answer the
correct option.
A. Probably eat meat
B. Cranial capacity: 900 CC
C. lived in east African grassland
D. no curve in vertebral column.
Which of the above characters belong to Homo
erectus?
(1) C and D (2) A and D
(1) A=potential energy, B=transition state, (3) A and B (4) B and C
C=activation energy with enzyme,
D=activation energy without enzyme.
165. Eustachian tubes connects the
(2) A=transition state, B=potential energy,
C=activation energy without enzyme, (1) External ear with middle ear
D=activation energy with enzyme. (2) External ear with internal ear
(3) A=potential energy, B=transition state, (3) Middle ear with pharynx
C=activation energy without enzyme, (4) Middle ear with internal ear
D=activation energy with enzyme.
(4) A=activation energy with enzyme,
166. Select the incorrect match with respect to the
B=transition state, C=activation energy
drug, source and its action.
without enzyme, D=potential energy.
Drug Source Action
161. Consider the following statements and state which (1) Smack Latex of poppy Depressant
of them are True or False. plant Papaver slows down
somniferum body functions
(1) The level of gonadotropins increases
gradually during luteal phase. (2) Cocaine Erythroxylum Sense of
(2) Degradation of corpus luteum causes sudden coca euphoria and
decline in progesterone. increased
(3) Secondary spermatocyte have only 23 energy
chromosomes. (3) Coke Atropa Hallucinations
(4) By the end of 12-weeks, embryo’s eye lashes belladonna
are formed. (4) Hashish Cannabis Hallucinations,
A B C D sativa affects
cardiovascular
(1) T F T F
system
(2) F T T F
(3) F T T T
167. Find the odd one out w.r.t. evolution.
(4) F F T T
(1) Flipper of Penguin and Dolphin
(2) Eye of Octopus and of Mammal
162. Out of the following set of characters, how many (3) Potato and Sweet potato
are found in bony fish? (4) Thorn of Bougainvillea and Tendril of
Placoid scales, cycloid scales, Swim bladder, Cucurbita.
Claspers, Operculum, cold blooded.
(1) Two (2) Three 168. Choose the statement as True (T) of False (F)
(3) Four (4) Five I. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a natural
genetic engineer.
163. Choose the correct sequence of stages during II. Biolistics or gene gun uses gold particles
ovarian cycle. coated with DNA and bombards the target
host cells.
(1) Graafian follicle–corpus luteum–corpus
haemorrhagicum – corpus albicans III. Denaturation in PCR requires high
temperature
(2) Graafian follicle – corpus haemorrhagicum
IV. agarose is used in gel electrophoresis
corpus luteum – corpus albicans
I II III IV
(3) Graafian follicle – corpus haemorrhagicum –
(1) F T F T
corpus albicans – corpus luteum
(4) Graafian follicle – corpus albicans – corpus (2) T F T T
haemorrhagicum – corpus luteum (3) F F T T
(4) T T T T

[17]
169. If cardiac output of a person at a time is 6.4 litre
and his heart rate is 80 per minute, the stroke
volume of the person will be
(1) 52 mL (2) 72 mL
(3) 80 mL (4) 60 mL
170. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. animal
breeding methods.
(1) MOET can be done in coe, sheep, rabbits,
etc.
(2) Cross breeding – Cross between different
breeds.
(3) inbreeding increases homozygosity.
(4) blue revolution is related with plants
171. Structure of plasmid vector is shown in the
diagram with its specific antibiotic resistance
genes and recognition sites of particular RE.
174. Find the incorrect statement.
(1) In continuous culture system, the used
medium is drained out from one side.
(2) DNA fragments are negatively charged
molecule, they move towards positive
electrode cathode in Gel electrophoresis.
(3) Restriction enzymes are endonuclease.
(4) Plasmid is extrachromosomal double
stranded DNA.
175. Mark the option which is not the advantage of
GM crops
(1) more tolerance to abiotic stress
(2) more nutritional value
(3) more reliance on chemicals
(4) more shelf life
176. Select the correct statement.
(1) The anamnestic response against a pathogen
is highly intensified.
(2) The T lymphocytes produce antibodies.
(3) The B lymphocytes produce cell mediated
response
(4) An antibody is represented by H2L4

177. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cortical

nephrons.
Select the correct match. (1) Loop of Henle is short and extends
(1) A-BamH-III, used to remove tetracycline superficially in the medulla.
resistant gene. (2) They are the most abundant type of nephrons
(2) D-When used as site for inserting gene of in kidneys.
interest, then recombinant organism can grow (3) Vasa recta is well developed in cortical
in tetracycline medium. nephrons.
(3) C-When used as site for inserting alien DNA, (4) Malpighian corpuscle, PCT and DCT of these
nephrons are situated in outer cortex.
then recombinant form will grow in both
ampicillin and tetracycline medium.
(4) B-SaI-I which removes the gene coding for 178. Read the following statement and choose correct
one.
producing β-galactosidase.
(1) RBC have an average life span of 120 days
after which all these are destroyed in liver.
172. Mark the option that fill in the blanks suitably:
(2) Basophils secretes histamine, serotonin,
Using ____ vectors, nematode-specific genes
heparin, etc. and are involved in
were introduced into the host plant for pest
resistance. inflammatory reactions.
(1) Streptococcus (3) Leucocytes are non-nucleated cells and are
(2) Bacillus anthracis relatively lesser in number.
(3) Agrobacterium (4) Eosinophils are maximum among
(4) Haemophilus influenzae granulocytes.

173. The protein products of the following Bt toxin 179. During each cardiac cycle, two prominent sounds
genes Cry I Ac and Cry II Ab are responsible for are produced which can be easily heard by
controlling
stethoscope. The second heart sound is associated
(1) Bollworm
(2) Roundworm with
(3) Moth (1) Closing of the atrioventricular valves
(4) Fruit fly (2) Opening of the tricuspid valves
(3) Closing of the semilunar valves
(4) Opening of the semilunar valves
[18]
180. Mark the odd one w.r.t. hormone, its source and 185. Dental formula in human beings is
function. 3223 2123
Hormone Source Functions (1) (2)
3223 2123
(1) ADH Adeno- Increase loss of
hypophysis water through 1232 2233
(3) (4)
(2) Aldo- Adrenal Stimulates the 1232 2233
sterone cortex reabsorption of
Na+ and water SECTION - B
from DCT (ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS)
(3) ANF SA node of Causes
186. Match Column I with Column II.
heart vasodilation and
Column I Column II
increase blood
volume but a. Pancreatic juice (i) Bilirubin and
decreases blood biliverdin
pressure b. Intestinal juice (ii) Maltase
(4) Renin Liver Converts c. Bile juice (iii) Trypsinogen,
angiotensinogen Procarboxypeptidase
into angiotensin d. Succus (iv) Enterokinase
II entericus
(1) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
181. Find the incorrect match. (2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
(1) Kwashiorkor – Protein deficiency (3) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(2) Jaundice – Increase in Bilirubin (4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(3) Vomiting – ejection of stomach contents
through mouth 187. Choose the correct match.
(4) Anemia – deficiency of Vitamin C. (1) cry I Ac – Corn borer
(2) cry I Ab – Cotton bollworm
(3) ELISA – Antigen: Antibody interactions
182. Study the diagram given below with labelled
(4) GEAC – Genetic Engineering Assignment
points with respect to steps of breathing and then
Committee
select the incorrect match.
188. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with
plasmid vector became possible with
(1) DNA polymerase
(2) Exonuclease
(3) DNA ligase
(4) Endonuclease
(1) A–Ribs and Sternum raised.
(2) B–Contraction of Diaphragm 189. Treatment of cancer involving use of biological
(3) C–Volume of thorax decreased. response modifiers which activate the immune
(4) D – Air inhaled during respiration. system and help in destroying the tumor is
(1) Radiation therapy
(2) Use of α-interferon
183. Which of the following factors raise P50 value and (3) Surgery
shift the HbO2 dissociation curve to right? (4) Use of mitotic inhibitors
(a) Rise in PCO2 (b) Fall in temperature
+
(c) Rise in H (d) Fall in DPG 190. Which of the following STDs cannot be treated
(1) a and b are correct with antibiotics?
(2) b and d are correct (A) Gonorrhoea (B) Syphilis
(3) a and c are correct (C) Chlamydia (D) Genital herpes
(4) a, b and c are correct (1) (D) only (2) (B) and (D)
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (C) only

184. Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium is

191. Which of the following factors will not cause
present in the lining of
change in gene frequency?
(1) Buccal cavity, oesophagus, cornea of eye
(1) Genetic drift
(2) Skin, hair, horn, nail
(2) Random mating
(3) Small pancreatic ducts, thyroid follicles and
(3) Gene migration
ovary
(4) Intestine, stomach and gall bladder (4) Non-random mating

[19]
192. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body 196. A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is
is given with parts lavelled A, B, C, and D. Identify
(1) Pineal gland the correct lebellings.
(2) Corpus cardiacum
(3) Corpus luteum
(4) Corpus allatum

193. Which of the following groups of animals is

correctly matched with its one characteristic (1) A=Neurotransmitter, B=Synaptic cleft
feature without even a single exception? (2) C=Neurotransmitter, D=Pre-synaptic
(1) Mammalia – Viviparity membrane
(2) Reptilia – Three chambered heart with (3) A=Neurotransmitter receptor, C=Synaptic
partially divided ventricle vesicles
(3) Chordata – Excretion by kidneys (4) B=Synaptic connection, D=Synaptic vesicle
(4) Chondrichthyes – Cartilaginous endoskeleton
197. The contraceptive device made up of polyurethane
pouch with a ring at either side is
194. Match the column A with column B and choose
the correct option. (1) Condom (2) Fem Shield
Column-A Column-B (3) Cervical Cap (4) Vault
a Adrenaline (i) Myxoedema
b Hyperparathyroidism (ii) Accelerate 198. How many of the following contraceptives have
heart beat hormones?
LNG 20, Lippes’s Loop, Saheli, Multiload,
c Oxytocin (iii) Electrolyte
Diaphragm, Norplant, Implanon, Progestasert.
balance
(1) Six (2) Seven
d Hypothyroidism (iv) Child birth
(3) Five (4) Three
e Aldosterone (v) Demineralizat
ion of bones
199. The development of P. Americana is
(1) a-(iii), b-(iv), (c-v), d-(ii), e-(i) (1) Holometabolous (2) Paurometabolous
(2) a-(v), b-(iii), (c-ii), d-(iv), e-(i) (3) Hemimetabolous (4) Ametabolous
(3) a-(ii), b-(v), (c-iv), d-(i), e-(iii)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), (c-iv), d-(v), e-(i) 200. Which of the following statements is correct
regarding the given diagram?
195. A bond which is formed between two
monosaccharides, is known as
(1) Ester bond
(2) Peptide bond
(3) Glycosidic bond
(1) Muscle fibres are unbranched
(4) Phosphodiester bond
(2) Muscle fibres are multinucleated and joined
to each other by intercalated discs
(3) Cells are fusiform in shape.
(4) All cells are functionally single unit.

[20]
 PHYSICS

ANSWERS

Section-A
1. (3) 27. (1)
2. (4) 28. (1)
3. (3) 29. (1)
4. (1) 30. (2)
5. (3) 31. (2)
6. (2) 32. (2)
7. (1) 33. (1)
8. (4) 34. (3)
9. (2) 35. (1)
10. (3)
11. (3) Section-B

12. (2) 36. (1)

13. (1) 37. (1)

14. (1) 38. (3)

15. (2) 39. (1)

16. (2) 40. (4)

17. (2) 41. (3)

18. (1) 42. (2)

19. (3) 43. (1)

20. (4) 44. (2)

21. (3) 45. (2)

22. (3) 46. (2)

23. (1) 47. (2)

24. (2) 48. (2)

25. (1) 49. (3)

26. (3) 50. (1)

 CHEMISTRY

ANSWERS

Section-A
51. (2)
77. (1)
52. (4)
78. (1)
53. (2)
79. (3)
54. (1)
80. (2)
55. (1)
81. (1)
56. (4)
82. (2)
57. (3)
83. (4)
58. (4)
84. (3)
59. (1)
85. (1)
60. (3)
Section-B
61. (3)
86. (4)
62. (1)
87. (2)
63. (4)
88. (3)
64. (3)
89. (2)
65. (1)
90 (2)
66. (2)
91. (2)
67. (2)
92. (4)
68 (4)
93. (4)
69. (4)
94. (3)
70. (2)
95. (3)
71. (1)
96. (1)
72. (2)
97. (4)
73. (2)
98. (2)
74. (4)
99. (4)
75. (1)
100. (4)
76. (1)
 BOTANY

ANSWERS

Section-A
101. (4) 127. (1)
102. (1) 128. (4)
103. (3) 129. (3)
104. (2) 130. (4)
105. (2) 131. (2)
106. (3) 132. (4)
107. (3) 133. (1)
108. (1) 134. (2)
109. (2) 135. (2)
110. (1)
111. (4) Section-B
112. (1) 136. (4)
113. (3) 137. (3)
114. (4) 138. (2)
115. (2) 139. (4)
116. (1) 140. (2)
117. (3) 141. (3)
118. (3) 142. (2)
119. (3) 143. (4)
120. (4) 144. (2)
121. (2) 145. (1)
122. (3) 146. (4)
123. (2) 147. (2)
124. (2) 148. (1)
125. (1) 149. (3)
126. (4) 150. (2)
 ZOOLOGY

ANSWERS

Section-A
151. (2) 177. (3)
152. (3) 178. (2)
153. (3) 179. (3)
154. (1) 180. (2)
155. (3) 181 (4)
156. (1) 182. (3)
157 (3) 183. (3)
158. (4) 184. (1)
159. (2) 185. (2)
160. (2)
161. (2) Section-B
162. (3) 186. (3)
163. (2) 187. (3)
164. (3) 188. (3)
165. (3) 189. (2)
166. (3) 190. (1)
167. (4) 191. (2)
168. (4) 192. (3)
169. (3) 193. (4)
170. (4) 194. (3)
171. (2) 195. (3)
172. (3) 196. (3)
173. (1) 197. (2)
174. (2) 198. (3)
175. (3) 199. (2)
176. (1) 200. (4)