SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO NGHỆ KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10

AN TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN PHAN BỘI

CHÂU
NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019

Môn thi chuyên: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 120  phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Điểm Họ tên, chữ ký giám khảo Số phách

Bằng số: Giám khảo 1:

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Bằng chữ: Giám khảo 2:

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SECTION A: LISTENING
PART I: You will hear a talk about the history of fireworks. Decide whether the following
statements are True (T) or False (F). 
1. Up to 16 century, fireworks were used for wars and religions.
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2. Some scientists were interested in using ideas from fireworks displays to show the
formation of rockets.
3. In London in the middle of the 17 century, scientists believed in fireworks at first.
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4. Fireworks were seen as a method of education for people in Russia.

5. The Paris Academy of Sciences played a key role in staging fireworks displays.
6. In the 18 century, Italian fireworks specialists became influential.
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7. Sevandoni’s fireworks display followed the same pattern as an opera. 

YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2 3. 4 5. 6 7.
. . .
PART II: You will hear five students talking about their first year at university. Choose
from the list (A – F) what each student says about the course they took. Use the letters only
once. There is one extra letter which you do not need to use. 
A.  I was able to change an earlier decision about my studies.
B.  I'm happy to have an active social life while at college.
C.  I had to be careful when choosing which college to study at.
D.  I had to give up a good job to concentrate on my studies.  
E.  I had to face some criticism when I chose a subject to study.
F.  I'm pleased that I'm able to combine studying with a job.
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. Speaker 1: 2. Speaker 2: 3. Speaker 3: 4. Speaker 4: 5. Speaker 5:
PART III: You will hear a talk about the history of bikes. For questions 1 – 8, fill in each
gap with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS. 
Years/Time Feature Advantage Disadvantage

wooden wheels need (1) ______ quite (2) ______

1830s
covered with metal than walking

Chain and sprocket easier and (5)

(3) ______ harder to balance
are (4) ______ ______ ride

The faster you go, the more you

1880s use (6) ______ more comfortable
feel every (7) ______

dangerous before
1890s equal-sized wheels safer
(8) ______ appeared

YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4.
5. 6. 7. 8.
SECTION B: PHONETICS
PART I:  Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. noisy B. zealous C. lazy D.
pizza
2. A. decided B. hatred C. sacred D.
warned
3. A. timber B. bomber C. climber D.
plumber
4. A. archive B. orchid C. orchard D.
orchestra
5. A. pirate B. inflate C. private D.
considerate
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
PART II:  Choose the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary
stress in each of the following questions.
1. A. electronic B. education C. deficiency D.
possibility
2. A. companion B. comfortable C. compliment
D. competence
3. A. lemonade B. apartment C. mathematics D.
understand
 4. A. accidental B. electrician C. manufacture D.
industrial
5. A. communicate B. acceptable C. passenger D.
accomplishment
YOUR ANSWERS: 
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

SECTION C:  GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY

PART I: Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences.
1. The evidence suggests that single fathers ______ more likely to work than single mothers.  
A. can be B. must be C. be D.
are
2.  Little Deon: “This herb smells horrible, mommy!” 
     Mommy: “______, it will do you a power of good.”
A. Come what may B. By the by C. What is more D.
Be that as it may
3. Margret’s encouraging words gave me ______ to undertake the demanding task once again.
A. a point B. an incentive C. a resolution D. a
target
4. It is said that a drizzle on the Phap Van - Cau Gie Expressway caused poor ______ and
slippery road surface, leading to the vehicles, traveling at high speed, unable to respond safely. 
A. vision B. view C.
visibility D. visionary
5. This man is so arrogant that he is completely ______ to all criticism. 
A. impervious B. unaware C. attentive
D. unconscious
6. It's very late and I have a busy day tomorrow. If you don't mind, I think I'll ______ now. 
A. black out B. turn in C. lay off
D. sleep on 
7. You can ask John anything about history. He actually has quite a good ______ for facts. 
A. head B. understanding C. knowledge D.
ability
8. Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined words in the following question. 
The children were full of beans today, looking forward to their field trip.
A. eating a lot B. hyperactive C. melancholy D.
lively and in high spirits 
9. Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined words in the following question.
The minister came under fire for his rash decision to close the factory.
A. was dismissed B. was acclaimed C. was criticized
D. was penalized
10. Choose the best answer from A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to
complete the following exchange.
Mary and her friend, Sarah, are in a coffee shop. 
Mary: “Would you like Matcha ice–cream or Caramen with jam?”
Sarah: “______”
A. I like eating it. B. Yes, I’d love two.
C. It doesn’t matter. D. Neither is fine. They
are good.
YOUR ANSWERS:
1. 2 3. 4. 5.
.
6. 7 8. 9. 10.
.
PART II: Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in
the space in the same line. 
The Media Commentators
A live broadcast of any public event, such as a space flight or sporting
occasion, is almost (1) ______ accompanied by the thoughts of a VARY
commentator. This may be on television, along with the relevant pictures, ALTER
or (2) ______ on radio. The technique (3) ______ differs between the two INVOLVEMENT
media, with radio broadcasters needing to be more explicit and (4) ______. DESCRIBE
Because of the absence of visual information, TV commentators do not
need to paint a picture for their audience; instead their various observations
should add to the images that are already there. There will sometimes be COMMENT
silences and pauses in TV (5) ______ although these are becoming
increasingly rare. Both types of commentators should try to be more OPINION
informative, but should avoid sounding (6) ______. In sports ones, fairness PART
and (7) ______ to both sides is vital, but spontaneity and enthusiasm are (8) VALUE
______ by those watching or listening. Sports commentators usually
broadcast live in an essentially unscripted way although they may refer to PREDICT
previously prepared materials such as sports statistics. Because of the (9)
______ nature of live events, thorough preparation in advance is vital. The
internet has helped enormously with this aspect of the job. Anyone ORGANIZE
interested in becoming a commentator should have excellent (10) ______
skills, the willingness to work irregular hours and a strong voice.
YOUR ANSWERS: 
1. 2 3. 4. 5.
.
6. 7 8. 9. 10.
.
PART III: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Identify and correct the mistakes.
The Malaysian Airlines plane MH 370 is not the first disappearance without trace. Even if it
is, this is highly unusual. In 2009, an Air France airbus jet also vanished of radar screen.
Wreckage from the lost aircraft were eventually found in the Atlantic yet the causes of the crash
remained mystery until voice and data recorders were found years later. The final report said
human error was partly blamed. “Today aircrafts are incredibly reliable and you do not get any
sudden structure failure in a flight”, Mr. Louis, an aviation expert in New York said. “It just
doesn’t happen. It just won’t happen”, he added. Boeing describes its 777 model a super star.
First flown in 1995, more than a thousand planes now rolled up the production line. It can travel
for 16 hours non-stop and experts point to its impressive safe record with one fatal crash in 5
million flights. It could take investigators months if not years to determine what exactly
happened to the Malaysian aircraft but experts believe what happened was quick and left the
pilot no time to put a distress call.
YOUR ANSWERS: 
Mistake Lin Correction Mistake Line Correction
e
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
SECTION D: READING
PART I: Read the following passage and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to
indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. 
CONVERSE
In 1908, Marquis Converse opened the Converse Rubber Shoe Company in Malden,
Massachusetts, USA. To start (1) ______, the company made simple rubber-soled footwear for
men, women and children. By 1910, Converse was producing 4,000 pairs of shoes daily, and in
1915 the company began manufacturing tennis shoes. The company’s main turning (2) ______
came in 1917 when the Converse All-Star red-and-white basketball shoe was introduced. This
was a real innovation, (3) ______ the sport was only 25 years old. Then, in 1921, a basketball
player named Charles H. ‘Chuck’ Taylor contacted the company complaining of sore feet.
Converse immediately gave him a job as a salesman and ambassador, and he promoted the shoes
around the U.S for the (4) ______ of his career. In 1923, after teaching his first basketball clinic,
Chuck’s signature was added to the All Star patch. In 1941, when the U.S.A became involved in
the Second World War, Converse shifted production to manufacturing shoes, boots, and
protective (5) ______ for pilots and soldiers.
Converses were hugely popular with teenagers during the 1950s, Rock-and-Roll era, and in
1966 the company added a range of new colors to basic red-and-white Chuck Taylor All-Star
basketball shoe. The shoes continued to be popular (6) ______ the early-1980s, but lost a large
proportion of their market (7) ______ during the mid-1980s and 1990s, with the appearances on
the (8) ______ of trainers, made by new competitors such as Nike and Reebok. Converses were
no longer the official shoe of America’s National Basketball Association, a title they had  (9)
______ for many years. In 2001, the company changed (10) ______, the last factory in the U.S
closed and manufacture moved to China, Indonesia and Vietnam. In 2003, the company was
bought by Nike.
A. from B. it                     C. with                
D. up
A. point         B. place               C. pot                   D.
situation
A. accounting         B. considering    C. viewing           D.
bearing
 A. remains                   B. surplus        C. rest                D.
remnants
A. clothing                B. cloth             C. attire             D. dress
A. by                            B. before          C. until               D.
while
A. part                         B. portion        C. piece              D.
share
A. shelf                        B. market         C. shops             D.
stores
A. competed                B. owned           C. possessed      D. held
 A. places                     B. businesses     C. hands           D.
holders
YOUR ANSWERS:    
1. 2 3. 4. 5.
.
6. 7 8. 9. 10.
.
PART II: Read the passage below and choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to each
question.
The Beatles became the most popular group in rock music history. This quartet of
extraordinary talented musicians generated a phenomenal number of pieces that won gold
records. They inspired a frenzy that transcended countries and economic strata. While all of
them sang, John Lennon and Paul McCartney wrote the majority of their songs. Originally,
Lennon and five others formed a group called the Quarrymen in 1956, with McCartney joining
them later that year. George Harrison, John Lennon, and Paul McCartney, together with Stuart
Sutcliffe, who played the bass guitar, and Pete Best on the drums, performed together in several
bands for a few years until they finally settled on the Sliver Beatles in 1960. American rock
musicians, such as Chuck Berry and Elvis Presley, influenced Lennon's and McCartney's music,
whose first hits consisted of simple tunes and lyrics about young love, "Love Me Do" and
"Please, Please Me". The Beatles' US tour propelled them to stardom and led to two movies "A
Hard Day’s Night” and “Help!”, filmed in 1964 and 1965. The so-called British invasion of the
United States was in full swing when they took the top five spots on the singles chat, followed
by the release of their first film.
During the 1960s, their music matured and acquired a sense of melody. The lyrics of their
songs became deeper and gained in both imagination and meaning. Their popularity continued to
grow as the Beatles turned their attention to social problems and political issues in "Nowhere
Man" and "Eleanor Rigby". Loneliness and nostalgia come through in their ballads “Michelle"
and "Yesterday", which fully displayed the group's professional, development and sophistication.
Lennon's sardonic music with lyrics written in the first person, and McCartney's song that
created scenarios with off beat individuals, contributed to the character of the music produced
by the group. In addition to their music, the Beatles social trend that popularized hair, Indian
music, and mod dress.
For a variety of reasons, the musicians began to drift apart, and their last concert took place
in San Francisco in 1966. The newspapers and tabloids publicized their quarrels and lawsuits,
and the much idolized group finally disbanded in 1970. However, their albums had outsold
those of any other band in history. Although all of the Beatles continued to perform solo or form
new rock groups, alone, none could achieve the recognition and success that they had been able
to win together.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The creation and history of a music group B. The history and music of the Beatles
C. The history and milestones of rock music D. The fashion and music popular in the
1960s
2. According to the passage, which of the Beatles had the greatest musical talent?
A. Stuart Sutcliffe and Pete Best B. John Lennon, Paul McCartney
and George Harrison
C. George Harrison and John Lennon D. John Lennon and Paul
McCartney
3. According to the passage, how many members were in the band, formed in 1956?
A. five B. four C. seven
D. six
4. According to the passage, the Beatles' fame grew as a result of ______.
A. their first two hits B. two movies made in the
U.S
C. Chuck Berry's involvement D. their American tour
5. The author of the passage implies that the Beatles ______.
A. became popular relatively quickly B. were active in social movements
C. competed with American musicians D. wrote their music as a group
6. The author of the passage implies that over time, the music and lyrics by the Beatles ______.
A. were dedicated to women named Eleanor and Michelle
B. made them the richest musicians in the world
C. declined in quality and political significance
D. became more complex than at the beginning of their career
7. According to the passage, when did the Beatles experience their greatest success?
A. Throughout their lifetimes B. After their break-up in 1970
C. In the late 1950s D. During the early and mid -
1960s
8. The word "scenarios" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
    A. love themes  B. sceneries C. situations D. life
stories
9. The word "disbanded" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
   A. reveled B. separated C. bonded
D. slipped
10. According to the passage, how did Lennon and McCartney enhance the music of the group?
A. They struggled to reach stardom in the United States.
B. They composed lyrics to scornful songs and ballads.
C. Their music added distinctiveness to the Beatles' repertoire.
D. Their loneliness and sadness made their music popular.
YOUR ANSWERS:    
1. 2 3. 4. 5.
.
6. 7 8. 9. 10.
 .
PART III: Read the following passage and do the tasks below.
TREES IN TROUBLES
A. Ecologically, big trees are incredibly important. For a start, they sustain countless other
species. They provide shelter for many animals, and their trunks and branches can become
gardens, hung with green ferns, orchids and bromeliads, coated with mosses and draped with
vines. With their tall canopies basking in the sun, they capture vast amounts of energy. This
allows them to produce crops of fruit, flowers and foliage that sustain much of the animal life in
the forest.
B. Only a small number of tree species have the genetic capacity to grow really big. The
mightiest are native to North American, but big trees grow all over the globe, from the tropics to
the boreal forests of the high latitudes. To achieve giant stature, a tree needs three things: the
right place to establish its seedling, good growing conditions and lots of time with low adult
mortality. Disrupt any of these, and you can lose your biggest trees.
C. In some parts of the world, populations of big trees are dwindling because their seedlings
cannot survive or grow. In southern India, for instance, an aggressive non-native shrub, Lantana
camara, is invading the floor of many forests. Lantana grows so thickly that young trees often
fail to take roof. With no young trees to replace them, it is only a matter of time before most of
the big trees disappear. Across much of northern Australia, gamba grass from Africa is
overturning native savannah woodlands. The grass grows up to four metres tall and burns
fiercely, creating super-hot fires that cause catastrophic tree mortality.
D. Without the right growing conditions trees cannot get really big, and there is some
evidence to suggest tree growth could slow in a warmer world, particularly in environments that
are already warm. Having worked for decades at La Selva Biological Station in Puerto Viejo de
Sarapiqui, Costa Rica, David and Deborah Clark and colleagues have shown that tree growth
there declines markedly in warmer years. “During the day, their photosynthesis shuts down when
it gets too warm, and at night they consume more energy because their metabolic rate increases,
much as a reptile’s would when it gets warmer,” explains David Clark. With less energy
produced in warmer years and more being consumed just to survive, there is even less energy
available for growth.
E. The Clarks’ hypothesis is correct, which means tropical forests would shrink over time.
The largest, oldest trees would progressively die off and tend not to be replaced. According to
the Clarks, this might trigger a destabilization of the climate; as older trees die, forests would
release some of their stored carbon into the atmosphere, prompting a vicious cycle of further
warming, forest shrinkage and carbon emissions.
F. Big trees face threats from elsewhere. The most serious is increasing mortality, especially
of mature trees. Across much of the planet, forests of slow-growing ancient trees have been
cleared for human use. In western North America, most have been replaced by monocultures of
fast-growing conifers. Siberia’s forests are being logged at an incredible rate. Logging in tropical
forests is selective but the timber cutters usually prioritize the biggest and oldest trees. In the
Amazon, my colleagues and I found the mortality rate for the biggest trees had tripled in small
patches of rainforest surrounded by pasture land. This happens for two reasons. First, as they
grow taller, big trees become less flexible; when winds blow across the surrounding cleared land,
there is nothing to stop their acceleration. When they hit the trees, the impact can snap them in
half. Second, rainforest fragments dry out when surrounded by dry, hot pastures and resulting
drought can have devastating consequences: one-four year study has shown that death rates will
double for smaller trees but will increase 4.5 times for bigger trees.
G. Particular enemies to large trees are insects and disease. Across vast areas of western
North America, increasingly mild winters are causing massive outbreaks of bark beetle. These
tiny creatures can kill entire forests as they tunnel their way through the inside of trees. In both
North America and Europe, fungus-causing diseases such as Dutch elm disease have killed off
millions of stately trees that once gave beauty to forests and cities. As a result of human activity,
such enemies reach even the remotest corners of the world, threatening to make the ancient
giants a thing of the past.
Task 1.  Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write
the appropriate numbers (i-x) in boxes 1-5.  Paragraphs C and G have been done for you.
List of headings
How deforestation harms isolated trees
How other plants can cause harm
Which big trees support the most diverse species
Impact of big tree loss on the wider environment
Measures to prevent further decline in big tree populations.
How wildlife benefits from big trees
Risk from pests and infection
Ways in which industry uses big tree products
How higher temperatures slow the rate of tree growth
Factors that enable trees to grow to significant heights.
1. Paragraph A ...........................
2. Paragraph B ...........................
    Paragraph C .......ii..................
3. Paragraph D ...........................
4. Paragraph E ...........................
5. Paragraph F ...........................
    Paragraph G ........vii...............
Task 2. Complete the sentences below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the
passage for each answer. Write your answers in Boxes 6-10.
6. The biggest trees in the world can be found in ______.
7. Some trees in northern Australia die because of ______ made worse by gamba grass.
8. The Clarks believe that the release of ______ from dead trees could lead to the death of more
trees.
9. Strong ______ are capable of damaging tall trees in the Amazon.
10. In western Northern America, a species of ______ has destroyed many trees.
YOUR ANSWERS:    
1. 2 3. 4. 5.
.
6. 7 8. 9. 10.
.
PART IV: Fill in each numbered space with ONE suitable word.
 Among all the abilities with (1) _WHICH_____ an individual may be endowed, musical
talent appears (2) ______ in life. Very young children can exhibit musical precocity (3) ______
different reasons. Some develop exceptional (4) ______ as a result of a well-designed
instructional regime, such as the Suzuki method for the violin. Some have the good fortune to be
born into a musical (5) ______ in a household filled with music. In a number of interesting cases,
musical talent is part of an otherwise disabling condition such as autism or mental retardation. A
musically gifted child has an inborn talent; (6) ______, the extent to which the talent is expressed
(7) ______ will depend upon the environment in which the child lives.
Musically gifted children master (8) ______ an early age the principal elements of music,
including pitch and rhythm. Pitch – or melody – is more central in certain cultures, for example,
in Eastern societies that (9) ______ use of tiny quarter – tone intervals. Rhythm, sounds
produced at certain auditory frequencies and grouped according to a prescribed system is
emphasized in sub-Saharan Africa, (10) ______ the rhythmic ratios can be very complex.
YOUR ANSWERS:    
1. 2 3. 4. 5.
.
6. 7 8. 9. 10.
.
SECTION E: WRITING
PART I: For each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in
meaning to the original sentence, using the word given. This word must not be altered in
any way. 
1. Kate didn’t get the job because she wasn’t experienced enough.
(DOWN)
Kate’s failure……is down to her lack of
experience…………………………………………………………………………………………
……
2. It’s possible that the burglars got into the building by forcing a fire exit open.
(GAINED)
The burglars MAY HAVE GAINED ACCESS TO THE BUILDING BY FORCING A FIRE
EXIT OPEN
3. Nobody can predict the real consequences of global warming.
(SAYING)
There IS NO SAYING WHAT THE REAL CONSEQUENCES OF GLOBAL WARMING
WAS
4. Thomas said that the situation at work was like a family argument.
(LIKENED)
Thomas LIKENED THE SITUATION AT WORK TO A FAMILY ARGUMENT
5. He answered the judge’s question as accurately as he could.
(ACCURATE)
He gave THE MOST ACCURATE ANSWER TO THE JUDGE’S QUESTION AS POSSBLE
AS HE COULD
PART II: You have recently received an email from your English penfriend, Elizabeth,
who you're going to visit soon. Read Elizabeth's email and the notes you have made. Then
write an email (about 80-100 words) to Elizabeth, using all your notes.

Email
From: Anna Jones
Sent: 5 June 2018
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Subject: Visit

I'm so glad you're coming to visit.

Can you tell me exactly what time you're arriving on the 15 ?th

Since you're planning to stay for two weeks, I'll organise a trip to London.

Also, it will be my brother's 18 birthday, and we'll be having a big party at our house. There'll be
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lots of people and even a band!

If you can stay longer, I hope we will visit my cousins in Scotland. Can you change your plans?
Let me know!

Write soon!
Anna

From: Nam
Sent: 9 June 2018
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Subject: Visit

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Love,
Nam

PART III: Write an essay (at least 250 words) on the following topic:

In this academic year, to get admitted to high school in Nghe An province, a 9 grader must
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handle not only Mathematics and Literature but also a set of three subjects including Biology,
Civic Education and a Foreign Language. What is your opinion on this change?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH VÀO LỚP 10
NGHỆ AN TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN PHAN BỘI CHÂU NĂM
HỌC 2018 – 2019

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM 

Môn thi chuyên: TIẾNG ANH 
(Hướng dẫn chấm này gồm 02 trang)

SECTION A: LISTENING (40 points)

PART I: MULTIPLE CHOICE. (7 x 2 = 14 points)
1. T 2. 3. F 4. T 5. F 6. T 7. T
F

PART II: (5 x 2 = 10 points)

1. Speaker 1: 4. Speaker 4:
2. Speaker 2: A 3. Speaker 3: F 5. Speaker 5: B
C E
PART III: SENTENCE COMPLETION. (8 x 2 = 16 points)

1. less 2. uncomfortable 3. 1860s 4. connected

effort
5. smoother 6.  rubber wheels 7. bump 8. brakes

SECTION B: PHONETICS (10 points)

PART I: (5 x 1 = 5 points)
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B

PART II: (5 x 1 = 5 points)

1. 2. A 3. B 4. 5. C
C D

SECTION C:  GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (30 points)

PART I: (10 x 1 = 10 points)

1. C 2. 3. B 4. 5. A
D C
6. B 7. 8. D 9. B 10. C
A

PART II:  (10 x 1 = 10 points)

1. invariably 2. 3. involved 4. descriptive 5. commentary/

alternatively commentaries
6. opinionated 7. impartiality 8. valued 9. unpredictable 10. organizational

PART III: (10 x 1 = 10 points)

Mistake Line Correction Mistake Line Correction
1. disappearance 1 to disappear 6. aircrafts 4 aircraft
2. of 2 from 7. a 6 as a
3. were 3 was 8. rolled 7 have rolled
4. mystery 3 a mystery/ 9. safe 8 safety
mysterious
5. blamed 4 to blame 10. put 10 make

SECTION D: READING (60 points)

PART I: (10 x 1 = 10 points)
1. 2. A 3. B 4. 5. A
C C
6. 7. D 8. B 9. 10. C
C D

PART II:  (10 X 2 = 20 points)

1. B 2. 3. C 4. 5. A
D D
6. D 7. 8. C 9. B 10. C
D

PART III: (10 X 2 = 20 points)

1. vi 2. x 3. ix 4. iv 5. i
6. North 7. (super-hot) fires 8. (stored) carbon 9. winds 10. beetle
America

PART IV: (10 x 1 = 10 points)

1. which 2. earliest 3. for 4. skill(s) 5. family
6. however 7. publicly 8. at 9. make 10. where

SECTION E: WRITING (60 points)

PART I: (5 x 2 = 10 points)

1. Kate’s failure to get the job was down to lack of experience.

2. The burglars may/ might have gained access/entry to the building by forcing a fire exit
open.
3. There is no saying what the real consequences of global warming are.
4. Thomas likened the situation at work to a family argument.
5. He gave as accurate an answer to the judge’s question as he could.