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Test 3 - Intermediate
Test 3 - Intermediate
Test 3 - Intermediate
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AIM Awards ESOL International Examinations (Anglia)
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Entry Level 3 (601/4946/2)
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Listening Examination
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Paper code: CCIntermediate115
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CANDIDATE INSTRUCTIONS:
Listen to the recording and answer the questions.
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You will hear each part of the recording twice.
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There will be a pause before each part so you can read the questions.
There will be other pauses to let you think about your answers.
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When you hear the tone you should write your answers on the
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question paper.
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You must ask any questions now as you cannot speak during the test.
These materials may not be altered or reproduced, stored in any retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means,
electronic, electrical, chemical, optical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without the prior permission of the copyright owner.
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he was looking after he was at the hospital
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Jamie
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B. Who’s the dark-haired man in the photograph?
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Anna’s dad Anna’s brother
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C. When is the swimming pool going to open again?
next week
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museum seaside
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farm factory
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fruit pancakes
egg cereal
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Chester Zoo has been open to the public since 1931, and is
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(example)
well . known for successfully breeding different species of
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(1)
animals. Two red panda cubs are _______________ _______________ new arrivals
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at the zoo. The babies are actually two months old but only received their first
(2)
_______________ _______________ last week. That’s because the zookeepers
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(3)
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didn’t know the cubs had _______________ _______________ until they heard
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noises coming from the nest box.
healthy. The male weighs just over one kilo and the female just under one kilo. In a
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(5)
few weeks they _______________ _______________ to explore outside.
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(7)
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killed for their red fur, which is used for making coats. This fur
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(8)
_______________ _______________ a lot of money.
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The new red pandas at Chester Zoo are a real success story. Only a few
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(9)
_______________ _______________ will be able to see the twins playing, however.
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(10)
Red pandas are nocturnal, _______________ _______________ they spend most
Doesn’t
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True False
say
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e.g. Agatha Christie was born in England.
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1. She was an only child.
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3. Her father was a writer.
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4. Agatha was a nurse during the war.
5.
6.
She wrote over 70 novels.
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AIM Awards ESOL International Examinations (Anglia)
Entry Level 3
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(601/4946/2)
Paper code: CCIntermediate115
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CANDIDATE INSTRUCTIONS:
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Time allowed including listening – TWO hours.
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Make sure you have the correct candidate label in the box
above.
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These materials may not be altered or reproduced, stored in any retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any means,
electronic, electrical, chemical, optical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without the prior permission of the copyright owner.
Title:
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C__
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A__
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Either
1. Ask your friend about his / her new house and invite him / her to stay.
or
2. Tell your friend your news and ask if you can visit him / her.
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Please tick () the email you have chosen. Email 1 □
Email 2 □
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From:
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Subject:
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Message:
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C__
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A__
T__
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15
Crime-Fighting Parrot
A parrot has become famous after scaring off a gang of burglars. Peter the parrot is
the pet of businessman, Andrei Volkov, who lives in London. Andrei explains, ‘I was
asleep when the burglars entered. I’d left the kitchen window open because it was a
warm evening. They managed to climb through without waking me up, but luckily
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they disturbed Peter the parrot. He screeched so loudly that even the neighbours
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heard. One of them was so worried that she called the police. The parrot attacked
the robbers, who ran out of the house. I ran downstairs but they had already gone.
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The parrot had pieces of clothing and blood on his beak. However, it wasn’t his own
blood. He was absolutely fine and looked very proud of himself. The police arrived
two minutes later.’
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Despite the thieves making off with Andrei’s wallet, which had been left near the
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window, Peter the parrot scared them off before they could take anything else. His
owner continued, ‘He’s fantastic. He follows me round the house. He hates being in
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his cage so I only use it to take him to the vet’s. I’m sure he thinks he’s a guard dog.
He never follows me upstairs to bed at night but finds a quiet place downstairs where
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he can settle down and sleep: under the stairs, in a corner somewhere.’
The Police, who have been looking into the break-in, have already arrested one of the
gang. A policeman said, ‘The neighbour saw three men running away, although it was
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dark so she couldn’t give a good description. The blood and clothing which were
found on the parrot’s beak will provide DNA to help us find the other two. It’s even
more useful than having security film of them on camera. We’ll find them all.’
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True False
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True False
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6. Where does Peter the parrot usually sleep?
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A in his bird cage
B upstairs with Andrei
C wherever he likes downstairs
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A B C
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7. The police have caught
A
B
none of the burglars.
one of the burglars.
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C two of the burglars.
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A B C
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8. The police are confident they will catch all three burglars because
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A B C
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9. Find the word in the passage which means the OPPOSITE of:
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cool (paragraph 1)
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10. Find the words in the passage which means the SAME as:
investigating (paragraph 3)
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Section R2 (7 marks)
Read about the different parts of a dog and label the diagram below. The words that
you need to use are underlined. There is one example.
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Parts of a Dog
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Parts of a dog
The back end of the dog is called the rump. The rump is near the tail and is above
the dog’s back legs.
The brisket is the area of the dog’s chest between the front legs.
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The front part of the head, including the mouth and nose is called the muzzle.
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The hock is like an ankle on the back leg of the dog. It is on the lower part of the leg
at the back and the bone sticks out slightly.
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Behind the head and neck of the dog are the withers. This is the top of the shoulder
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and is the highest point on the dog’s back
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The part of the head between the dog’s eyes is called the stop.
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Towards the back of the head is the occiput. This is the highest point of the dog’s
head. There are many nerves in this part of the head, which is why stroking a dog’s
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The stifle is like the knee of a dog. It is on the front of the back leg and is about half
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Example:
If you go to Amanda’s party, I will come too.
A come B will come C came D coming
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1. Last year they went back to the hotel _____________________ they got married.
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A when B where C which D whose
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2. Ben _____________________ television when the phone rang.
A was watching B is watching C will watch D watching
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3. That was _____________________ interesting radio programme I’ve ever heard.
A so B the most C more D very
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4.
A move B to move
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We’re going to learn Spanish before _____________________ to Spain.
C moved D moving
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7. She _____________________ to visit New York since she was a little girl.
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Example:
My best friend wrote me this letter. (written)
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This letter was written to me by my best friend.
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1. My little bag is heavier than your suitcase. (as)
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Your suitcase
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John said
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3. The shirt was too expensive for me to buy. (money)
I didn’t
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4. Calm seas surround the little island. (by)
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She
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Example:
‘You’ll feel better soon,’ he said kindly . (kind)
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1. The ______________________ islands are very beautiful. (Greece)
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2. We looked for travel ______________________ on the internet. (inform)
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3. ‘Don’t go near the river! It’s ______________________!’ (danger)
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4. She’s the best ______________________ in the race. She’s so (run)
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5. She was very ______________________ because the children were (worry)
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late.
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any of them.
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7. If you look ______________________, you can see the stars and (careful)
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planets.
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10. She can’t find her shoes because her room is so (tidy)
______________________.
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Section W4 (5 marks)
In each sentence, there are two verbs. One of the verbs can be changed for the
phrasal verb given in brackets. Rewrite each sentence using the phrasal verb given.
Change the form of the phrasal verb where necessary. There are two examples.
Example 1:
The plane left on time, but we arrived 20 minutes early. (take off)
(take off)
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The plane took off on time, but we arrived 20 minutes early.
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Example 2:
I had the flu last week and I’m still recovering from it. (get over)
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I had the flu last week and I’m still getting over it.
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1.
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She stopped her dance classes because they cost too much money. (give up)
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3. The shoe shop lowered its prices in the sales so I bought two pairs. (put down)
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4. She invented a crazy excuse but no one believed it. (make up)
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5. The teacher never tolerated rudeness in class and taught the (put up with)
children to be polite.
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extra space
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2 marks for each correct answer.
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A. she was looking after Jamie (example)
B. Anna’s neighbour
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C. in a month
D. farm
E. pancakes
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F. opposite the park
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Section L2 (20 marks)
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2 marks for each question, i.e. 1 mark for each correct word. Accept phonetic and incorrect but
recognisable spellings for ½ mark. Ignore capital letters.
1.
2.
the latest
health check
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3. been born
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4. both of
5. will start
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6. is falling
7. in danger
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8. is worth
9. lucky visitors
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1. F
2. F
3. DS
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4. T
5. F
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6. T
7. F
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8. T
9. F
10. DS
CC115 1
Reading and Writing Entry 3 Paper CC115 2015 Key and Mark Scheme
Intermediate
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Usual criteria apply. Half marks may be awarded in this section.
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Accuracy 5 marks
Range of vocabulary and structure 5 marks
Task completion 5 marks
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Section W2 (15 marks)
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Usual criteria apply. Half marks may be awarded in this section.
Content organisation
Accuracy and appropriacy
Task completion (including range of language)
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5 marks
5 marks
5 marks
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Section R1 (13 marks)
No half marks to be awarded in this section.
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1. The burglars entered the house [by climbing] through the window (2)
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Any spelling and grammar mistakes do Spelling and grammar impede answered incorrectly
not impede understanding. understanding but correct answer can And/or
Only the information required by the still be deduced Spelling and grammar make it
question is given and/or impossible to deduce the answer
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4. F (1)
5. F (1)
6. C (1)
7. B (1)
8. B (1)
CC115 1
Reading and Writing Entry 3 Paper CC115 2015 Key and Mark Scheme
Intermediate
Section R2 (7 marks) One mark for each correctly identified part of the owl
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No half marks to be awarded in this section. Ignore spelling mistakes arising from miscopying.
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2 marks for each fully correct answer. No single or half marks can be awarded.
1. B where
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2. A was watching
3. B the most
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4. D moving
5. B in order to
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6. B aren’t I?
7. C has wanted
8. B made
9. C in
10. A Haven’t
CC115 2
Reading and Writing Entry 3 Paper CC115 2015 Key and Mark Scheme
Intermediate
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2 marks for each fully correct answer.
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One mark for each correct part of the sentence, divided as shown below. Different contractions are
acceptable (e.g. didn’t / did not). Only accept wordings provided below.
Words in square brackets [ ] are optional. No half marks to be awarded. Accept minor misspelling for full
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marks.
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1. Your suitcase is not as heavy as my little bag.
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2. John said [that] he was feeling rather sick.
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3. I didn’t have enough money to buy the shirt.
4.
5.
The little island
She
is surrounded
is such a
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by calm seas.
kind person [that] everyone wants to be her friend.
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Section R4 (10 marks)
Half marks may be awarded in this section. Mark these questions using the marking criteria provided
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below.
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with the correct spelling. Capital letters with phonetically recognisable spelling and/or unrecognisable spelling
not necessary for full mark.
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1. Greek
2. information
3. dangerous
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4. runner
5. worried
6. impossible
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7. carefully
8. happily
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9. Russian
10. untidy
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CC115 3
Reading and Writing Entry 3 Paper CC115 2015 Key and Mark Scheme
Intermediate
Section W4 (5 marks)
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1 mark for each correctly placed and correctly formed (tense) phrasal verb.
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½ mark for correctly placed phrasal verb with incorrect form or tense.
The verbs are underlined in the answers below. Ignore spelling mistakes or errors arising from miscopying
the original sentence.
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1. She gave up her dance classes because they cost too much money.
2. The firework went off while he was lighting it.
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3. The shoe shop put down its prices in the sales so I bought two pairs.
4. She made up a crazy excuse but no one believed it.
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5. The teacher never put up with rudeness in class and taught the children to be polite.
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CC115 4