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PAPER CODE : (2701CMD300122020) Test Pattern
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

CT#4
NANDED (MAHARASHTRA) (ACADEMIC SESSION 2022-2024) 05-02-2023
PRE - MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE

Time : 3:20 Hours. PHASE-I,II&III Maximum Marks : 720
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on this Test Booklet.
Important Instructions :
1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point
Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each
question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are
720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions
(all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to
attempt any 10 question out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be considered
as answer.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this
Test Booklet with them.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this
Test Booklet with them.
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on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in
the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
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Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)__________________________________________________________
Form Number : in figures _________________________________________________________________
: in words ___________________________________________________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : ________________________________________________________
Candidate's Signature : ________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Medical

Allen Career Institute, P.No-1, Gopal Krishna Education Centre,
Yeshwant College Road, Shyam Nagar, Nanded, Maharashtra. 431602
ALLEN
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : MT#10+ MT#11+ MT#12 + COM, Motion of COM, Thermodynamics (Heat engine and refrigerator,
Second law of thermodynamics, Reversible and irreversible process , Carnot cycle )
SECTION-1 4. According to the second law of thermodynamics :
Attempt All 35 questions (1) heat energy cannot be completely converted
to work
1. Which of the following is correct according to
Claussius statement of second law of (2) work cannot be completely converted to
thermodynamics. heat energy
(1) It is possible to transfer heat from a low (3) for all cyclic processes we have dQ/T < 0
temp. reservoir to a high temp. reservoir. (4) the reason all heat engine efficiencies are less
(2) No heat engine can have 100% efficiency. than 100% is friction, which is unavoidable
(3) No process is possible whose sole result is 5. If the P-V diagrams of two thermodynamics
the transfer of heat from a colder object to devices working in a cyclic process are as
a hotter object shown in the figure, then :-
(4) None of these

2. "Heat cannot be itself flow from a body at
lower temperature to a body at higher
temperature" is a statement or consequence of- (1) A is a heat engine, B is a heat
pump/refrigerator
(1) second law of thermodynamics
(2) B is a heat engine, A is a heat
(2) conservation of momentum pump/refrigerator
(3) conservation of mass (3) Both A and B are heat engines
(4) first law of thermodynamics (4) Both A and B are heat pumps/refrigerator
3. Which of the following statement is false ? 6. A thermodynamic process of one mole ideal
(1) Whole of work can be converted into heat monoatomic gas is shown in figure. The
efficiency of cyclic process ABCA will be :
(2) Whole of heat can be converted into work
(3) Temperature of a body can be raised
without heating it
(4) Temperature of a body may not change
when it is heated 100
(1) 25% (2) 12.5% (3) 50% (4) %
13
Nurture - I, II & III 2701CMD300122020
English / 05022023 Space for Rough Work Page 2/31
ALLEN
7. The temperature entropy diagram of a 11. A Carnot engine operates with a source at 500
reversible engine cycle is given in the figure. K and sink at 375 K. Engine consumes 600
Its efficiency is kcal of heat per cycle. The heat rejected to sink
per cycle is
(1) 250 kcal (2) 350 kcal
(3) 450 kcal (4) 550 kcal
12. A refrigerator works between temperature –10°C
and 27°C, the coefficient of performance is.
1 2 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) 7.1 (2) 1 (3) 8.1 (4) 15.47
3 3 2 4
8. The efficiency of a Carnot cycle is 1/6. By 13. If the door of a refrigerator in kept open in a closed
lowering the temperature of sink by 65 K, it room then which one of the following is true :
increases to 1/3. The initial temperatures of the (1) Room is cooled
source and sink respectively (Given : (2) Room is heated
Temperature of source remain same) (3) Room is either cooled or heated
(1) 390 K and 325 K (4) Room is neither cooled nor heated
(2) 450 K and 410 K 14. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator
is 5 the temperature inside freezer is –3°C, the
(3) 350 K and 275 K temperature of surroundings to which it rejects
(4) 400 K and 310 K heat is :
9. A Carnot engine takes 6 × 106 cal of heat from (1) 31°C (2) 41°C (3) 51°C (4) 21°C
reservoir at 627°C and gives it to a sink at 15. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of η =
27°C. Then work done by the engine is 1
as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If
(1) 4.2 × 106 J (2) 8.4 × 106 J 11
the work done on the system is 9 J, the amount
(3) 16.8 × 106 J (4) zero of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower
temperature is:-
10. If the temperature of the source is decreases,
the efficiency of a Carnot engine:- (1) 99 J (2) 90 J (3) 1 J (4) 100 J
(1) decreases 16. Which of the following can be coefficient of
performance of refrigerator?
(2) increases
(1) 1 (2) 0.5
(3) remains constant
(3) 9 (4) All of these
(4) first increases and then remains constant
Page 3/31 Space for Rough Work English / 05022023
ALLEN
17. A refrigerator absorbs 2000 cal heat from ice 22. A nucleus of mass number A originally at rest,
trays. If COP is 4 then work done by the motor emits alpha particle with speed v. The recoil
of the refrigerator will be :- sped of the daughter nucleus is.
(1) 2100J (2) 4200J 4v 4v
(1) (2)
(3) 500J (4) 8000J A−4 A+4
18. For any reversible process, the change in the v v
(3) A−4
(4) A+4
entropy of the system and surroundings is
(1) 0 (2) 1 23. A shell following a parabolic path explodes
somewhere in its flight. The centre of mass of
(3) ∞ (4) None of these
fragments will move in :-
19. When 2 kg of ice at 0°C melts to water at 0°C,
the resulting change in its entropy, taking latent (1) Vertical direction
heat of ice to be 80 cal/g, is - (2) Any direction
(1) 273 cal/K (2) 586 cal/K
(3) Horizontal direction
(3) 80 cal/K (4) 293 cal/K
(4) Same parabolic path
20. A mass m moving horizontal (along the x-axis)
with velocity v collides and sticks to mass of 24. A nucleus at rest splits into two nuclear parts
3m moving vertically upward (along the y-zsis) having same density and radii in the ratio 1:2.
with velocity 2v. The final velocity of the Their velocities are in the ratio :
combination is: (1) 2:1 (2) 4:1
1 ^ 3 ^ 1 ^ 2 ^
(1) vi + vj (2) vi + vj (3) 6:1 (4) 8:1
4 2 3 3
2 ^ 1 ^ 3 ^ 1 ^ 25. Assertion:- Two objects are moving towards
(3) vi + vj (4) vi + vj
3 3 2 4 each other due to mutual attraction. The kinetic
21. In the figure shown the initial velocity of boat energy of the system remains constant.
(30 kg) + person (15 kg) is 2 m/s. Find velocity Reason:- Total linear momentum of the system
of person w.r.t. boat so that velocity of boat consisting both the objects remain constant
will be 1 m/s in right (Neglect friction between even in the presence of external forces.
boat and water) (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A).
(1) 3 m/s towards right (2) 3 m/s towards left (3) (A) is true statements but (R) is false.
(3) 4 m/s towards right (4) 4 m/s towards left (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

ALLEN
26. A body at rest breaks up into 3 parts. If 2 parts 29. If a ball is thrown upwards from the surface of earth:
having equal masses fly off perpendicularly (1) The earth remains stationary while the ball
each other with a velocity of 12m/s, then the moves upwards
velocity of the third part which has 3 times (2) The ball remains stationary while the earth
mass of each part is :- moves downwards
– (3) The ball and earth both moves towards
(1) 4√2m/s at an angle of 45° from each body
–
each other
(2) 24√2m/s at an angle of 135° from each
(4) The ball and earth both move away from
body each other
(3) 6√–2m/s at 135° from each body 30. Internal forces can change (for system) :-
– (1) The linear momentum but not the kinetic
(4) 4√2m/s at 135° from each body
energy
27. A bullet of mass m strike the block with speed
(2) The kinetic energy but not the linear momentum
u and get embedded in it. If composite system
is just able to complete the circular path then (3) Linear momentum as well as kinetic energy
radius of the curve is :- (4) Neither the linear momentum nor the
kinetic energy
31. Two blocks of masses m and M are moving
with speeds v1 and v2 (v1 > v2) in the same
direction on the frictionless surface respectively,
M being ahead of m. An ideal spring of force
constant k is attached to the backside of M (as
u2 u2
(1) (2) shown). The maximum compression of the
45g 23g
spring when the block collides is
u2 u2
(3) (4)
2g g
28. A projectile is fired at a speed of 100 m/sec at
m
−
−−
an angle of 37° above the horizontal. At the (1) v1 √

k
highest point, the projectile breaks into two −−
−
parts of mass ratio 1:3, the smaller coming to M
(2) v2 √
k
rest. Then the distance of heavier part from the
−−−−−−−−−−
launching point is :- mM
(3) ( v2 − v2 )√
( M + m) K
(1) 480 m (2) 960 m
(3) 1120 m (4) 1440 m (4) None of above is correct
ALLEN
32. Choose the correct statement SECTION-2
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(1) it is not possible questions will be considered for marking.
(2) whatever may be the speed of the blocks 36. A man stands at one end of the open truck
the centre of mass will remain stationary which can run on frictionless horizontal rails.
(3) the centre of mass of the system is moving Initially, the man and the truck are at rest. Man
with a velocity of 2 in ms–1 now walks to the other end and stops. Then
(4) the centre of mass of the system is moving which of the following is true ?
with a velocity of 1 ms–1 (1) The truck moves opposite to direction of
33. If spring is compressed by 20 cm and released motion of the man even after the man
then at natural length :- ceases to walk.
(2) The centre of mass of the man and the
truck remains at the same point throughout
(1) Both the blocks will have same velocity the man's walk.
(2) A will have more speed (3) The kinetic energy of the man and the
truck are exactly equal throughout the
(3) B will have more speed man's walk.
(4) Both will be at rest (4) The truck does not move at all during the
A gun fires a bullet of mass 50 g with a man's walk.
34.
velocity of 30 msec–1. Because of this the gun 37. A 500 kg boat is 9 m long and is floating
is pushed back with a velocity of 1 msec–1. without motion on still water. A man of mass
The mass of the gun is :- 100 kg is at one end and if he runs to the other
(1) 15 kg end of the boat and stops, the displacement of
(2) 30 kg
the boat is :-
(3) 1.5 kg (4) 20 kg
(1) 1.5 m in the direction of displacement of
35. A bullet is fired from a rifle. If the rifle recoils the man
freely, then the kinetic energy of the rifle is :- (2) 0.75 m in the direction of displacement of
(1) less than that of the bullet the man
(2) more than that of the bullet (3) 1.5 m in the direction opposite to the
displacement of the man
(3) same as that of the bullet (4) 0.75 m in the direction opposite to the
(4) equal or less than that of the bullet displacement of the man
ALLEN
38. A block of mass M with a semicircular track of 41. A 50 kg boy runs at a speed of 10 m/s and jumps
radius R rests on a horizontal frictionless onto a cart as shown in the figure. The cart is
surface. A uniform cylinder of radius r and initially at rest. If the speed of the cart with the boy
mass m is released from rest from the top point
A. The cylinder slips on the semicircular on it is 2.50 m/s, what is the mass of the cart ?
frictionless track. The distance travelled by the
block when the cylinder reaches the point B is :
(1) 150 kg (2) 210 kg

(3) 175 kg (4) 260 kg
M ( R − r) m ( R − r) 42. A person is standing on trolley of mass 4 m. If
(1) (2)
M +m M +m initially whole system was moving with speed v0
( M + m) R on smooth ground. Now person starts running
(3) (4) none over it with velocity 2v0 towards right. Then
M
39. A ball collides to a surface as shown in figure. If what will be the new velocity of centre of mass ?
1
cofficient of restitution is e
=
– then θ will be :-
√ 3
(1) 45° (2) 60° (3) 30° (4) 0° v0

3v0
(1) v0 (2) 0 (3) (4)
40. A balloon of mass M with a light rope and 4 2
monkey of mass m are at rest in mid air. If the 43. A heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two
monkey climbs up the rope and reaches the top fragments which fly off with velocities 8 : 1.
of the rope, the distance by which the balloon The ratio of radii of the fragments is :-
descends will be (The length of the rope = L):-
(1) 1 :2 (2) 1 :4 (3) 4 :1 (4) 2 :1
44. For the system shown in figure. The
acceleration of centre of mass is (g = 10 m/s2)

m mL
(1) 2 (2)
( m + M) m+M
(1) − 0.4^j − 0.8î (2) − 0.4^j + 0.8î
( m + M )L ( M + m)
(3) (4) (3)
m mL − 0.8^j + 0.4î (4) None
ALLEN
45. A reversible refrigerator operates between a 49. For free expansion of a gas which of the
low temperature reservoir at TC and a high following is true ?
temperature reservoir at TH. Its coefficient of (1) Q = W = 0 and ΔEint = 0
performance is given by :
(2) Q = 0, W > 0 and ΔEint = –W
(1) (TH – TC)/TC
(3) W = 0, Q > 0 and ΔEint = Q
(2) TC/(TH – TC)
(4) W = 0, Q < 0 and ΔEint = 0
(3) (TH – TC)/TH
50. A box (thermally insulated) has two chambers
(4) TH/(TH – TC) separated by a membrane. One of volume V
46. An ideal heat engine working between contains an ideal gas at temperature T. The
temperature T1 and T2 has an efficiency η, the 1
other of volume ( V ) is evacuated. If the
new efficiency if both the source and sink 2
temperature are doubled, will be :- membrane breaks down, the gas temperature
η will be :-
(1) (2) η
2 (1) 3/2 T
(3) 2η (4) 3η (2) 2T/3
47. A carnot engine is working between steam (3) T
point and ice point. The percentage of heat
converted into work is :- (4) None of these
(1) 26.8% (2) 100%
(3) 35% (4) 75%
48. An ideal heat engine working between
temperature TH and TL has efficiency η. If both
the temperature are raised by 100 K each, the
new efficiency of heat engine will be :
(1) equal to η
(2) greater than η
(3) less than η
(4) greater or less than h depending upon the
nature of the working substance

ALLEN
SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
Topic : MT#10 + MT#11 + MT#12 + Ionic equilibrium {Indicators, Solubility and Solubility product}
SECTION-1 54. In a reversible reaction, two substances are in
Attempt All 35 questions equilibrium. If the concentration of each one is
reduced to half, the equilibrium constant will be
51. The equilibrium constant of the reaction : (1) reduced to half of its original value
H2O(g) + CO(g) H2(g) + CO2(g) ; Kc = 0.44
⇌
(2) doubled
at 125K. Then the value of Keq.for reaction (3) same
H2(g) + CO2(g) H2O(g) + CO(g)
⇌
(4) reduced to one fourth its original value.
(1) 0.22 55. What is the effect of halving the pressure by
1
doubling the volume on the following system at
(2) 500°C H 2 g I 2 g ⇌ 2HI(g)
0.44 ( )
+ ( )
(3) 0.44 (1) Shift to product side

(4) None (2) Shift to product formation
52. For the reaction C s C O 2 g 2C O 2 g the
+ ⇌ ,
(3) Liquefaction of HI
( ) ( ) ( )
partial pressures of CO2 and CO are 2.0 and 4.0 (4) No effect

atm respectively at equilibrium. What is the 56. In the melting of ice, which one of the
conditions will be more favourable ?
value of Kp for this reaction?
(1) 0.5 atm (1) High temperature and high pressure
(2) 4.0 atm (2) Low temperature and low pressure
(3) 8.0 atm (3) Low temperature and high pressure
(4) 32 atm (4) High temperature and low pressure
53. The value of KC for the dissociation reaction 57. In the reaction 2A(g) + B(g) C(g) + 362 kcal.
⇌
42
H 2 (g) ⇌ 2H (g) is 1.2 × 10 −
Which combination of pressure and
This equilibrium mixture contains mainly temperature gives the highest yield of C at
equilibrium:-
(1) H2(g)
(1) 1000 atm and 500°C
(2) H (g) atoms
(2) 500 atm and 500°C
(3) 1 : 1 molar mixture of H2 and H
(3) 1000 atm and 50°C
(4) 1 : 2 molar mixture of H2 and H (4) 500 atm and 100°C
ALLEN
58. Which of the following has the lowest heat of 62. Compare stability of the following carbocation?
hydrogenation ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (1) i > ii > iii (2) iii > ii > i
(3) iii > i > ii (4) i > iii > ii
59. Arrange the following carbanions in decreasing 63. Among the following the aromatic compound is :
order stability :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(1) III > I > IV > I
(2) III > II > I > IV 64. Stability order of following cations is :-
(3) I > III > II > IV
(4) III > I > II > IV
60. Select the acid with highest Ka
(1)
(2)
(1) IV > III > II > I (2) I > II > III > IV
(3) I > IV > III > II (4) I > III > IV > II
(3)
65. Which of the following will not show tautomerism
(4)
(1) (2)
61. Which of the following is not an electrophile :-
⊕
(1) BH3 (2) H 3O
⊕ ⊕
(3) (4) CH3COCH3
(3) N O2 (4) Cl
ALLEN
66. Which one of the following resonating 70. Which will not show keto-enol tautomerism :-
structures of 1–methoxy–1,3–butadiene is least
stable :- (1)
(1) Θ ⊕
C H 2 − CH = CH − CH = O − CH 3
(2) Θ ⊕
CH 2 = CH − C H − CH = O − CH 3 (2)
(3) Θ ⊕
C H 2 − C H − CH = CH − O − C H 3
(4) CH 2 = CH − CH = CH − O − C H 3 (3)
67. Correct order of –I effect is :-
(1) –CN > –NO2 > –CHO
(4)
(2) –OH > –Cl > –CH3
(3) –X > –OH > –NH2 71. Most stable resonating structure of given cation is:-
(4) –Cl > –F > –Br
68. Given
(1) (2)
Which of the given compounds can exhibit

tautomerism :- (3) (4)
(1) I and III (2) II and III
(3) I, II and III (4) I and II 72. Which of the following carbonium ion has
maximum +I effect ?
69. Which of the following compounds has
delocalized lone pair ?
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)

ALLEN
73. Which of the following is most basic 77. Which has least bond length in C–O bond ?
(1) CH3–OH (2)
(1) (2) (3) C2H5–OH (4)
78. In which of the following cases is the solution

of AgCl unsaturated ?
(3) (4) (1) [Ag+][Cl–] < Ksp
(2) [Ag+][Cl–] > Ksp
74. The correct order of stability of given anion is :-
(3) [Ag+][Cl–] = Ksp
(4) [Ag+][Cl–] ≤ Ksp
79. Which of the following metal sulphides has
maximum solubility in water ?
(1) II > I > III > IV (2) I > II > IV > III (1) CdS(Ksp = 36 × 10–30)
(3) II > I > IV > III (4) I > II > III > IV (2) FeS(Ksp = 11 × 10–20)
75. The correct order of stability of following (3) HgS(Ksp = 32 × 10–54)
carbon free radical is :-
(4) ZnS(Ksp = 11 × 10–22)
80. The solubility product of Ag2CrO4 is 32×10–12.
What is the concentration of CrO 24 ions in that
−
(1) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (2) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1 solution
(3) 2 > 3 > 1 > 4 (4) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4 (1) 2 × 10–4 M (2) 16 × 10–4 M
76. The order of stability of the following (3) 8 × 10–4 M (4) 8 × 10–8 M
tautomeric compound is :-
81. The solubility in water of a sparingly soluble
salt AB2 is 1.0 × 10–5 mol L–1. Its solubility
product will be:
(1) 1 × 10–15 (2) 1 × 10–10
(3) 4 × 10–15 (4) 4 × 10–10
82. Maximum solubility of AgBr will be in :-
(1) II > III > I (2) I > II > III (1) 0.1 M KBr (2) 0.1 M CaBr2
(3) III > II > I (4) II > I > III (3) 0.1 M AgCl (4) H2O (pure)
ALLEN
83. Assertion: Solubility of AgBr decreases in the SECTION-2
presence of sodium bromide. This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
Reason: Sodium bromide undergoes hydrolysis can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
in water
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion questions will be considered for marking.
(2) If the Assertion & Reason are true but 86. Which will lead to maximum enolisation?
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion (1) (2)
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false
(3) (4)
84. Which of the following is a buffer solution ?
(1) 500 mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL 87. The correct statement regarding a carbonyl
of 0.1 N NaOH compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha
(2) 500 mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL carbon,is :-
of 0.1 N HCl
(1) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen
(3) 500 mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL atom on its alpha-carbon never
of 0.2 N NaOH equilibrates with its corresponding enol.
(4) 500 mL of 0.2 N CH3COOH + 500 mL (2) a carbonyl compound with a hydrgen atom
of 0.1 N NaOH
on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates
85. Assertion : If Ksp < ionic product, precipitate is with its corresponding enol and this
formed process is known as aldehyde-ketone
Reason : Solubility product (Ksp) is the highest equilibration.
limit of ionic product of the electrolyte in
saturated solutions. (3) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen
atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the equilibrates with its corresponding enol
Assertion. and this process is known as
carbonylation.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (4) a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen
Assertion. atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is equilibrates with its corresponding enol
False. and this process is known as keto-enol
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false. tautomerism.
ALLEN
88. Keto and enol forms of a compound are related 93. Compare bond length in the given compounds
to each other as :- across (carbon-oxygen) :-
(1) Resonance structures
(2) Conformers
(3) Configurational isomers
(4) Structural isomers
89. This molecule can be enolized involving:
(1) a > b > c
(2) b > c > a
(3) b > a > c
(4) a > c > b
(1) Hα (2) Hβ
94. {-OH, -NO2, -CHO, -OCOCH3, -COO-, -O-,
(3) Hγ (4) Cannot be enolized ⊕
− N H 3 , -SO3H}
90. Number of groups showing +M from above set is/are
(1) 6
is an example of (2) 5
(1) +E effect (2) –E effect (3) 4
(3) +M effect (4) –M effect (4) 3
91. Which is wrong electromeric effect : 95. Which of the following order is correct ?
(1)
(1) Basic strength
(2) CH3–CH=CH2
(3) –C≡N
(4) CH≡CH (2) Acidic strength
92. Identify '–R' effect group among the following

(1) –NO2 (2) –NH2 Basic
(3)
(4) strength
(3) –OH
(4) All
ALLEN
96. The equilibrium constant for the reaction. 100. CH3COO– ion is a :-
Br2 2Br¯ at 500 K and 700 K are 10–10 &
⇌
(1) Weak conjugate base
10–5 respectively. The reaction is :-
(2) Strong conjugate base
(1) exothermic
(3) Weak conjugate acid
(2) endothermic
(4) Strong conjugate acid
(3) both
(4) none
97. In which of the following equilibrium
reactions, the equilibrium would shift to right
side, if total pressure is decreased :-
(1) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 ⇌
(2) H2 + I2 2HI⇌
(3) N2O4 2NO2 ⇌
(4) H2 + Cl2 2HCl ⇌
98. The conjugate base of HSO3– is :-

(1) H2SO3
(2) H2SO4
(3) SO3–2
(4) None of these
99. Which of the following is a Bronsted acid ?
(i) HCN
(ii) H2PO4–
(iii) NH4+
(iv) HCl
(1) (i), (iii)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii), (ii)
(4) (i), (iii), (iv)
ALLEN
SUBJECT : BOTANY
Topic : MT#10 + MT#11 + MT#12 + Transport in plants
SECTION-1 106. Which one of the following is not a ecological
Attempt All 35 questions importance of moss plants?
101. Which option is not related with (1) some mosses provide food for herbaceous
phaeophyceae? mammals, birds and other animals.
(1) Gelatinous coating of algin. (2) Very high water holding capacity of
mosses is useful for trans-shipment of
(2) Gametes are pear shaped and bear two
living materials
laterally attached flagella.
(3) Mosses along with lichens are the pioneer
(3) The food is stored as floridean starch.
organism to colonise rocks
(4) They possess chlorophyll a,c, carotenoids
(4) Mosses form dense mats on the soil and
and xanthophylls.
reduce the impact of falling rain.
102. In gymnosperms, the reduced gametophyte is
107. Life cycle of given member is respectively
called :-
a. Equisetum b. Marchantia
(1) Endospore (2) Pollen grains
(1) Haplontic and Diplontic
(3) Ovule (4) Egg
(2) Diplontic and Haplontic
103. In which the following sexual reproduction is
(3) Haplodiplontic and Diplontic
of oogamous type but both male and female
gametes are non-motile. (4) Haplodiplontic and Haplodiplontic
(1) Spirogyra (2) Fucus 108. Protonema, gamete, protonemal bud, spore,
spore mother cells, gametophyte, zygote,
(3) Chara (4) Polysiphonia
embryo.
104. The gametophyte is an independent, free living How many of above structure are haploid in
generation in :- bryophytes ?
(1) Pinus (2) Cycas (1) 7
(3) 1 & 2 both (4) Marchantia (2) 6
105. In which heterospore is absent ? (3) 5
(1) Dryopteris (2) Pinus (4) 4
(3) Cycas (4) Wolffia
ALLEN
109. Read the following statement and answer as 112. Match the following ?
asked next to them :-
(A) Sexual Reproduction may be Isogamous,
anisogamous, or oogamous
(B) Union of gametes may take place in water
or with in the ooganium
(C) The gametes are pyriform (pear shaped)
and bear two laterally attached flagella
(D) Vegetative reproduction takes place by
fragmentation
Above statements represent to which class of
algae?
(1) Chlorophyceae (2) Phaeophyceae (1) 2-a-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-b-i, 4-d-ii
(3) Xanthophyceae (4) Rhodophyceae (2) 1-c-iv, 2-d-iii, 3-b-i, 4-a-ii
110. Pea, Mustard, Canna, Chinarose, Gulmohar, (3) 1-d-iv, 2-a-i, 3-b-iii, 4-c-ii
Bean, Datura, Cassia (4) 2-a-i, 1-d-iv, 3-c-ii, 4-b-iii
How many plants from the above group has 113. In given following examples. How many plants
zygomorphic symmetry ? show hypogynous condition ?
Mustard, Chinarose, Rose, Plum, Peach, Guava
(1) Five (2) Three Apple, Cucumber, Brinjal
(3) Four (4) One (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five
111. Find out the correct examples for given floral 114. Match the following columns :-
diagrams :- Column-I Column-II
(Stem modification) (Found in)
A. Underground stem 1. Opuntia
B. Stem tendril 2. Potato
C. Stem thorn 3. Citrus
D. Flattened stem 4. Cucumber
(1) Sunhemp, Mustard, Petunia
(1) A – 3, B – 4, C – 2, D – 1
(2) Belladonna, Tulip, Pea (2) A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2
(3) Pea, Mustard, Tulip (3) A –2, B – 4, C – 3, D – 1
(4) Tomato, Capsella, Gram (4) A – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 3
ALLEN
115. Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, bicarpellary 119. Match the column-I with column-II
ovary with oblique ovary and fruit as a capsule or
berry are characteristic feature of :- Column-I Column-II
(1) Liliaceae (2) Asteraceae (a) Epipetalous stamen (i) Citrus
(3) Brassicaceae (4) Solanaceae (b) Epiphyllous stamen (ii) Pea
116. In which plants the lateral branches originate
from the basal and underground portion of the Monoadelphous China
(c) (iii)
main stem, grow horizontally beneath the soil stamen rose
and then come out obliquely upward giving rise
to leafy shoots ? (d) Diadelphous stamen (iv) Lily
(1) Banana & Pistia (e) Polyadelphous stamen (v) Brinjal
(2) Strawberry & Grass
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(3) Pineapple & Banana (1) (v) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) Strawberry & Jasmine (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
117. Actinomorphic symmetry are found in : (3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (v)
(1) Mustard, Datura, Pea (4) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) Mustard, Datura, Cassia 120. Identify the type of vascular bundles given in
(3) Mustard, Datura, Chilli the figures (i) and (ii) and select the correct
(4) Mustard, Datura, Gulmohar option:-
118. Select the correct option according to filling space :–
(a) The __1__ root of carrot, turnip and __2__ roots
of sweet potato and asparagus, get swollen and
stores food
(b) Rhizophora growing in __3__ areas in which
roots come out the ground and grow vertically
upward.
(c) Adventitous roots are found in __4__ monstera
and __5__
(1) 1–Tap, 2–Adventitous, 3–Marshy, 4–Grass,
5–Carrot
(2) 1–Adventitous, 2–Tap, 3–Swampy, 4–Grass,
5–Banyan
(3) 1–Adventitious, 2–Tap, 3–Swampy, 4–Turnip,
5–Grass (1) 1 (2) 2
(4) 1–Tap, 2–Adventitous, 3–Swampy, 4–Grass,
5–Banyan (3) 3 (4) 4
ALLEN
121. Identify the parts labelled A, B and C, D in 123. Phloem parenchyma are not present in which :-
given below diagrams and select the right
(1) Dicot stem (2) Dicot leaf
option :-
(3) Monocot stem (4) Dicot root
124. In dicot stem correct sequence of layers from
outside to inner side is :-
(1) Epidermis, pericycle, general cortex,
endodermis, vascular bundle and pith
(2) Epidermis, pericycle, endodermis, general
A B C D cortex, vascular bundle and pith
Shoot (3) Epidermis, general cortex, pericycle,
Root Apical Adventive
(1) Periblem Apical endodermis, vascular bundle and pith
Meristem bud
Meristem
(4) Epidermis, general cortex, endodermis,
Shoot pericycle, vascular bundle and pith
Root Apical Axillary
(2) Apical Protoderm
125. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
Meristem bud
Meristem
matching :-
Shoot
Root Apical Axillary
(3) Protoderm Apical
Meristem bud
Meristem
Root Shoot
Root Cap Leaf
(4) Apical Apical
Meristem primordium
Meristem Meristem
122. How many of the following are examples of

lateral meristem ?
(Cork cambium, intercalary meristem, (1) a–vessels, b–xylem fibre, c–
intrafascicular cambium, interfascicular sclerenchymatous fibre
cambium, Apical meristem) (2) a–companion cells, b–tracheid, c–sieve
(1) Four tube element
(2) Three (3) a–vessels, b–sclerenchymatous fibre, c–
tracheid
(3) Two
(4) a–tracheid, b–sclerenchymatous fibre, c–
(4) One
vessels
ALLEN
126. Match the column :- 129. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Column-I Column-II (1) Water loss from = due to root pressure
Two molecules cross the leaves in liquid phase
A membrane in the same (i) Uniport (2) Ascent of xylem sap = by transpiration pull
direction (3) Cooling of plant = by transpiration surface
Two molecules cross the (4) Closing of stomata = due to increased
turgidity of guard cells
B membrane in opposite (ii) Symport
direction 130. Given below is the diagram of stomatal
apparatus. In which of the following all of the
A molecule moves across three parts labelled as A, B and C are correctly
C a membrane in one (iii) Antiport matched ?
direction
(1) A-i B-ii C-iii
(2) A-ii B-iii C-i
(1) A-Microfibril, B-Stomatal aperture, C-
(3) A-iii B-ii C-i Guard cell
(4) A-iii B-i C-ii (2) A-Microfibril, B-Guard cell, C-Stomatal
aperture
(3) A-Stomatal aperture, B-Guared cell, C-
127. Microfibril

(4) A-Guard cell, B-Microfibril, C-Stomatal
aperture
Solution of which chamber has a lower solute 131. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
matching :-
potential and lower water potential respectively ?
(1) A & A (2) B & B
(3) A & B (4) B & A
128. When a cell is fully turgid, which of the
following will be zero :- (a) (b) (c)
(1) Osmotic pressure (1) a-flaccid, b-turgid, c-plasmolysed
(2) Turgor pressure (2) b-flaccid, c-turgid, a-plasmolysed
(3) Wall pressure (3) c-flaccid, a-turgid, b-plasmolysed
(4) Suction pressure (DPD) (4) c-flaccid, b-turgid, a-plasmolysed

ALLEN
132. SECTION-2
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(a) (b) questions will be considered for marking.
In the above diagram the pressure applied 136. Identify the following plant with its correct
is equal to :- description :-
(1) Diffusion pressure deficit
(2) Osmotic pressure
(3) Water potential
(4) Wall pressure
133. Consider the following about facilitated
diffusion and choose the odd one :-
(1) A concentration gradient must already be
present for molecules to diffuse
(2) It is sensitive to inhibitors which react (1) Sphagnum-Agar obtain from it
with lipid side chain
(2) Salvinia-Sporophyte independent
(3) Highly selective in nature
(3) Selaginella-Heterosporous plant
(4) ATPs are not required
134. According to mass flow hypothesis, the loading (4) Sphagnum-Used as packing material for
and unloading in phloem is : living material
(1) Active and Passive 137. The pteridophytes are restricted to narrow
geographical regions because :-
(2) Passive and Passive
(1) The gametophytes require cool, damp and
(3) Passive and Active shady places to grow.
(4) Active and Active (2) They are vascular cryptogams.
135. Which of the following pressure is ultimately (3) They need water for fertilisation.
responsible for enlargement and extension
growth of cells ? (4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) Solute potential (2) Imbibition pressure

(3) Osmotic pressure (4) Turgor pressure
ALLEN
138. Read carefully the following statements about 142. A tissue which occurs between mature tissues
pteridophytes. in grasses and capable to regenerate parts
I. They are called vascular cryptogams removed by the grazing herbivores. Identify
II. They produce spores rather than seed. that type of tissue?
III. They are used for medicinal purposes. (1) Apical meristem
IV. They are used as soil binders (2) Intra-fascicular cambium
V. They are frequently grown as ornamental (3) Cork cambium
plants.
(4) Intercalary meristem
Which of the statements given above are correct?
143. Underground parts of some plants spread to
(1) I, II and V (2) II, IV and V new niches and when older parts die new plants
are formed, this condition is seen in :-
(3) II, III, IV and V (4) I, II, III, IV and V
(1) Banana, pineapple and chrysanthemum
139. Study the following statements. Which of them
(2) Grass, monstera and Banyan
are correct ?
(3) Pistia and Eichhornia
(a) Gametophyte is not produced in pteridophyta.
(b) In gymnosperms, male and female (4) Grass and strawberry
gametophyte do not have independent free living 144. Which conditions are not found in solanaceae
existence. family ?
(a) Oblique ovary swollen placenta
(c) Coralloid roots are produced in Pinus and (b) Fruit - Lomentum
mycorrhizal roots are found in Cycas. (c) Gamosepalous
(d) Unbranched stem occurs in Cycas while the (d) Polypetalous
stem of Pinus and Cedrus is branched. (e) Epiphyllous stamen
(f) Unilocular ovary and mono carpellary
(1) Only b & d (2) Only c & d gynoecium
(3) Only a, c & d (4) All a, b, c & d (g) Axile placentation
(h) Diadelphous stamen
140. Specialised regions of plant having active cell (i) Endospermic seed
division are called :-
(1) a,c,f,a,i (2) b,e,f,g,h
(1) Tissue (2) Organ
(3) b,d,e,f,h (4) b,c,e,f,i
(3) Meristem (4) System
145. Which type of leaves are found in silk cotton :-
141. Collenchyma differs from sclerenchyma :-
(1) Simple
(1) Having thick walls
(2) Having a wide lumen (2) Palmately compound
(3) Being meristematic (3) Pinnately compound
(4) Retaining protoplasm at maturity (4) Both (2) & (3)
ALLEN
146. Trimerous flower, superior ovary with axile 150. Ascent of sap in tall tree occurs mainly due to:-
placentation are characteristics of :- (1) Transpiration pull
(1) Liliaceae (2) Cucurbitaceae (2) Capillarity
(3) Solanaceae (4) Asteraceae (3) Molecular adhesion
147. Transpiration and root pressure cause water to (4) Root pressure
rise in plants by :
(1) Pushing it upward
(2) Pushing and pulling it, respectively
(3) Pulling it upward
(4) Pulling and pushing it, respectively
148. Phloem sap is mainly :-
(1) Water and sucrose
(2) Water and mineral
(3) Sucrose and mineral
(4) PGR and minerals
149. Choose the correct combination of labelling of
water movement in the leaf.
(1) A - tracheids, B - Phloem, C - Mesophyll,

D - Stomatal pore, E - Guard cell
(2) A - Pholem, B - Xylem, C - Palisade,
D - Guard cell, E - Water pore
(3) A - Xylem, B - Phloem, C - Palisade,
D - Guard cell, E - Stomatal pore
(4) A - Phloem, B - Xylem, C - Mesophyll cell,
D - Subciliary cell, E - Water pore
ALLEN
SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY
Topic : MT#10+MT#11+MT#12 + Locomotion (Muscle)
SECTION-1 154. Respiratory process is regulated by certain
Attempt All 35 questions specialized centres in the brain. One of the
following listed centres can reduce the
151. The majority of CO2 is transported as –
inspiratory duration upon stimulation –
(1) Carbonates
(1) Medullary inspiratory centre
(2) Bicarbonates
(2) Pneumotaxic centre
(3) Carbaminohaemoglobin
(3) Chemosynthetic centre
(4) Dissolved state in blood
(4) Apneustic centre
152. Oxygen dissociation curve is –
155. Human kidney can produce urine nearly how many
(1) J-shaped (2) S-shaped times concentrated than the initial filtrate formed?
(3) L-shaped (4) Zig-zag (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 10 (4) 100
153. Which of the following is incorrect about the 156. ADH is synthesised by, ___________ released
given graph. by _______ and acts on _________.
(1) Hypothalamus, Neurohypophysis, DCT and CT
(2) Hypothalamus, Neurohypophysis, Loop of Henle
(3) Hypothalamus, Adenohypophysis, DCT and CT
(4) Hypothalamus, Adenohypophysis, Loop of Henle
157. Match the column I with column II.
Coulumn I Column II
A. Uremia I. Henle's loop
B. Ketonuria II. Ketone bodies in urine
C. Glycosuria III. Artificial kidney
(1) Increase in partial pressure of CO2 shift D. Blood dialvser IV. Glucose in urine
the curve to right. E. Concentration of urine V. Accumulation of urea in blood

(1) A - V, B - II, C - IV, D – III, E - I
(2) At low temperature the curve shifts to left.
(2) A- III, B - II, C - IV, D - I, E - V
(3) At high pH the curve shifts to right.
(3) A-I, B - II, C - IV, D - III, E - V
(4) Decrease in partial pressure of oxygen
shifts the curve to right. (4) A- I, B - II, C - IV, D - V, E – III
ALLEN
158. Match List I with List II and select the correct 160. Match the following.
option. Column I Column II
List I Superior carries deoxygenated
List II
(Plasma A. p.
(Functions) vena cava blood to lungs
protein)
Inferior carries oxygenated
Defence B. q.
I. Fibrinogen A. vena cava blood from lungs
mechanism
brings deoxygenated
II. Globulins B. Osmotic balance Pulmonary
C. r. blood from lower part
Coagulation of artery
III. Albumins C. of body to right atrium
blood
bring deoxygenated
(1) I-C, II -A, III- B (2) I-A, II - C, III- B Pulmonary
D. s. blood from upper part
vein
(3) I-C, II - B, III -A (4) I-B, II-A, III-C of body to right atrium
159. Match the following – (1) A - q, B - s, C - r, D - p
Column I Column II (2) A - s, B - p, C - q, D - r
I. Basophils A. Phagocytes
(3) A- s, B - r, C - p, D - q
Secrete histamine,
(4) A - s, B - p, C - r, D – q
serotonin , heparin
II. Neutrophils B. and involved in 161. Which of the following correctly traces the
inflammatory electrical impulses that trigger each heart beat
response (1) Pacemaker → AV node→ Atria→ Ventricles
Resist infections and (2) Pacemaker →Atria→ AV node→ Ventricles
III. Monocytes C. are also involved in
allergic reaction (3) AV node →Pacemaker→ Auricles →Ventricles
IV. Eosinophils D. Immunity (4) Ventricle→ pacemaker→ AV node→ Auricle

V. Lymphocytes 162. During cardiac cycle about % of ventricular
filling occurs prior to atrial contraction. _____
(1) I - B, II and III -A, IV - C, V - D
% ventricular filling occurs due to atrial
(2) I - B, II and III - C, IV -A, V - D contraction -
(3) I - C, II and III -A, IV - B, V - D (1) 50, 50 (2) 70, 30
(4) I - D, II and III -C, IV -A, V – B (3) 30, 70 (4) 10, 90
ALLEN
163. A red blood cell, entering the right side of the 166. Which one indicates B.P or hypertension?
heart passes by or through the following
(1) 120/ 80 mm Hg
structures –
1. Atrioventricular valves (2) 80/120 mm Hg
2. Semi-lunar valves
3. Right atrium (3) 140/90 mm Hg or higher
4. Right ventricle (4) 40/60 mm Hg
5. SAN
167. Streaming of cytoplasm/cyclosis is seen in -
(1) 2→3→1→4→5 (2) 3→1→5→2→4
(3) 3→5→1→2→4 (4) 5→3→1→4→2 (1) Amoeba (2) Macrophages
164. The below figure is the diagrammatic (3) Leukocytes (4) All
representation of standard ECG. 168. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Cytoplasmic streaming helps
in pseudopodia formation or
amoeboid movement
(2) Cytoplasmic streaming is caused
Column I Column II by contracting microfilament
Ventricular depolarization
A. P- wave I. followed by ventricular (3) Both 1 and 2
contraction (4) Locomotion is not a voluntary movement
Atrial depolarization 169. I. Paramecium employs cilia for pushing
QRS
B. Complex II. followed by systole of
both atria food in cytopharynx and in locomotion
II. Hydra takes help of tentacles for both food
Ventricular repolarization
C. T- wave III. followed by ventricular capturing and locomotion
relaxation III. All locomotions are movements and
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III (2) A-III, B -II, C-I vice- versa
IV. Methods of locomotion vary with
(3) A-II, B-I. C-III (4) A-II, B-III, C–I
habitats and the demands of situation
165. Heart beat increases - V. Ciliated epithelium is found in
(1) On stimulation of sympathetic nerves respiratory tract, renal tubules and
(2) On stimulation of vagus nerve (para reproductive tracts
sympathetic nerve) Which of the above statements is false?
(3) By adrenaline secreted by adrenal medulla (1) I and III (2) III
(4) Both 1 and 3 (3) III and V (4) IV and V
ALLEN
170. Which of the following statements is false? 174. Which of the following statements is false?
(1) Locomotion and many other (1) Smooth muscles are found in
movements required coordinated muscular urinary bladder, alimentary canal and
activities
genital tract
(2) Muscle is a specialised tissues
of endodermal in origin (2) A striated muscle is syncytium (multinucleate)
(3) There are about 639 muscles which contribute (3) The cytoplasm of striated muscle is
about 40 - 50 % of adult body wall called endoplasm
(4) Muscles show contractibility, (4) The plasma membrane and ER of
excitability and conductivity striated muscles are called sarcolemma
171. Which of the following statements about the and sarcoplasmic reticulum respectively
skeletal muscles is correct? 175. The source of Ca+2 for the muscle is -
(1) They are striated muscles (1) T-tubule
(2) They are voluntary muscles (2) Sarcosome
(3) They are primarily involved in (3) Sarcolemma
locomotory actions
(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(4) All
176. The fascia surrounding a muscle is made up of -
172. Which of the following statements about
(1) Cartilage
visceral muscles is correct?
(2) Collagenous connective tissues
(1) They are non-striated muscles
(smooth muscles) (3) Adipose tissue
(2) They are involuntary muscles (4) Blood vessels
(3) They have various functions 177. Contractile fibrils of muscles are called -
(4) All (1) Neurofibrils (2) Collagen fibres
173. Cardiac/heart muscles are - (3) Myofibrils (4) Yellow fibres
(1) Striated and involuntary 178. Myofibrils show alternate dark and light bands
(2) Not fatigued in -
(3) Branched (1) Cardiac muscles (2) Smooth muscles

(4) All (3) Striped muscles (4) Both 1 and 3
ALLEN
179. Select the true statement(s) - 183. Sarcomere is the area between -
(1) A-band is present in the middle of (1) 2 H-zones (2) 2 Z-lines
sarcomere (3) 2 M-lines (4) 2A-bands
(2) H-zone is present in the middle of A-band 184. Light bands (thin filaments) contain actin and
are called -
(3) M-line is present in the middle of H-zone (1) A-bands or Isotropic band
(4) All of the above (2) A-bands or Anisotropic bands
180. Which is the smallest one? (3) I-bands or Isotropic bands
(1) Muscle fibre (2) Myofibril (4) I-bands or Anisotropic bands
(3) Actin (4) Sarcomere 185. Dark bands (thick filaments) contain myosin
and are called -
181. Match Column I with Column II –
(1) A-bands or Isotropic band
Column I Column II
(2) A-bands or Anisotropic bands
Structural and (3) I-bands or Isotropic bands
A. functional unit of a I. H-zone
(4) I-bands or Anisotropic bands
myofibril
SECTION-2
B. Protein of thin filament II. Myosin This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
Protein of thick can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
C. III. Sarcomere
filament these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
The central part of more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
thick filament not questions will be considered for marking.
D. IV. Actin
overlapped by thin 186. Which of the following statements about the
filament striated muscles is false?
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV I. In the centre of each I-band is an elastic fibre (Z-
line) which bisects it
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV II. Thin filaments are firmly attached to the Z- line
(3) A- I, B - IV, C - III, D - II III. M-line is a fibrous membrane in the middle of
(4) A- III, B - IV, C - II, D – I A-bands
IV. A sarcomere comprises one full A-bands and 2
182. Z-line divides the myofibrils into - half I-bands
(1) Sarcomere (2) Sarcolemma (1) All (2) IV
(3) Sarcosome (4) Microtubules (3) I and II (4) None
ALLEN
187. The region between the ends of the A-bands of 190. Which of the following statements about the
2-adjoining sarcomeres is called - molecular arrangement of actin and myosin in
myofibrils is false?
(1) The Z-band (2) The H-zone I. Each actin (thin filament) is made of
(3) The T-tubule (4) The I-band 2F (filamentous) actins.
II. F-actin is the polymer of G (globular) actin.
188. Choose the letter from the figure that most III. 2F- actins are twisted into a helix
appropriately corresponds to the structure – IV. Two strands of tropomyosin (protein) lie
in the grooves of F-actin
V Troponin molecules (complex proteins)
are distributed at regular intervals on
the tropomyosin
VI. Troponin forms the head of the
I. A-band myosin molecule
VII. The myosin is a polymerised protein
II. I-band
III. Sarcomere (1) I, III, VII (2) Only VII
IV. H-zone (3) Only VI (4) Only III
V. Myosin
191. One myosin filament in the myofibril of
VI. Actin, Troponin, Tropomyosin
skeletal muscle fibres is surrounded by how
VII. Z- line
many actin filaments -
(1) I - E, II - D, III - F, IV - G, V - B, VI -
(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 4
C, VII -A
192. The cross bridges of the sarcomere in skeletal
(2) I - E, II - D, III - C, IV - G, V - B, VI - muscle are made up of -
A, VII - F
(1) Actin (2) Myosin
(3) I - E, II - D, III - F, IV - G, V - C, VI -
A, VII - B (3) Troponin (4) Myelin
(4) I - E, II - D, III - F, IV -A, V - B, VI - 193. The functions of tropomyosin in skeletal

muscle include -
C, VII – G
(1) Sliding on actin to produce shortening.
189. An individual sarcomere consist of-
(2) Release Ca+2 after initiation of contraction
(1) A stack of actin fibres
(3) Acting as "relaxing protein" at rest by
(2) A stack of myosin units \ covering up the sites where myosin
binds to actin
(3) Overlapping actin and myosin
(4) Generates ATP
(4) Overlapping myosin arid membrane
ALLEN
194. Tropomyosin is moved by which of following 198. Which of the following statements is false?
proteins - (1) Each myosin is a polymerised protein
(1) Calmodulin (2) Actin (2) Many meromyosin constitute one
(3) Troponin (4) Acetylcholine thick filament (myosin)
195. Ca+2 bind _________ in the skeletal muscles (3) Each meromyosin's tail is called
and leads to exposure of the binding site for
heavy meromyosin (HMM) and head is
_______ on the filament ___________.
called light meromyosin (LMM)
(1) Troponin, myosin, actin
(4) The globular head is an active
(2) Troponin, actin, relaxin ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for
(3) Actin, myosin, troponin ATP and active sites for actin
(4) Tropomyosin, myosin, actin 199. The action potential that triggers a muscle
196. Following is the figure of actin (thin) filaments. contraction travels deep within the muscle cell
Identify A, Band C. by means of _________.
(1) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(2) Transverse tubules
(1) A- Tropomyosin, B - Troponin, C - F-actin (3) Synapse
(2) A- Troponin, B - Tropomyosin, C - Myosin (4) Motor end plates
(3) A- Troponin, B - Myosin, C - Tropomyosin 200. ATP provides energy for muscle contraction by
(4) A- Troponin, B - Tropomyosin, C - F-actin allowing for-
197. (1) An action potential formation in the
muscle cell
(2) Cross-bridge detachment of myosin
from actin
The above figure is related with myosin
monomer (meromyosin). Identify A to C - (3) Cross-bridge attachment of myosin to
actin
(1) A- head, B - cross arm, C - GTP binding sites
(2) A- head, B - cross arm, C - Ca+2 binding sites (4) Release of ca+2 from sarcoplasmic reticulum
(3) A- head, B - cross arm, C -ATP binding sites
(4) A- cross arm, B - head, C -ATP binding sites
Space for Rough Work

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PAPER CODE : (2701CMD300122020) Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

PRE - MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)__________________________________________________________

Form Number : in figures _________________________________________________________________

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : ________________________________________________________

Candidate's Signature : ________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Medical

(4) None of these

Nurture - I, II & III 2701CMD300122020

an angle of 37° above the horizontal. At the (1) v1 √

(1) 150 kg (2) 210 kg

(1) 45° (2) 60° (3) 30° (4) 0° v0

Nurture - I, II & III 2701CMD300122020

(3) 0.44 (1) Shift to product side

partial pressures of CO2 and CO are 2.0 and 4.0 (4) No effect

Which of the given compounds can exhibit

Nurture - I, II & III 2701CMD300122020

78. In which of the following cases is the solution

92. Identify '–R' effect group among the following

(2) H2 + I2 2HI⇌

(3) N2O4 2NO2 ⇌

(4) H2 + Cl2 2HCl ⇌

98. The conjugate base of HSO3– is :-

122. How many of the following are examples of

(2) Turgor pressure (2) b-flaccid, c-turgid, a-plasmolysed

(3) Wall pressure (3) c-flaccid, a-turgid, b-plasmolysed

(4) Suction pressure (DPD) (4) c-flaccid, b-turgid, a-plasmolysed

(1) Solute potential (2) Imbibition pressure

(1) A - tracheids, B - Phloem, C - Mesophyll,

the curve to right. E. Concentration of urine V. Accumulation of urea in blood

IV. Eosinophils D. Immunity (4) Ventricle→ pacemaker→ AV node→ Auricle

(3) Branched (1) Cardiac muscles (2) Smooth muscles

(4) I - E, II - D, III - F, IV -A, V - B, VI - 193. The functions of tropomyosin in skeletal

Nurture - I, II & III 2701CMD300122020

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Candidate's Signature : __ Invigilator's Signature : _