REVIEW INNOVATIONS

MANILA – CEBU – DAVAO

FIFTH EVALUATION EXAMINATION REVIEW FOR NOVEMBER 2020 CE BOARD EXAM

1. Given a compound curve with a long chord equal to 135m drivers are traveling on a straight road at 30 mph and
forming an angle of 120 and 180 respectively with their cars can decelerate at 2 ft/s2,
tangents. The common tangent is parallel to the long 10. Determine the shortest stopping distance d for a normal
chord. Determine the longest radius of the compound driver from the moment he sees the pedestrians.
curve. A. 567 ft C. 592 ft
A. 174.26 m C. 348.52 m B. 616 ft D. 517 ft
B. 390.31 m D. 780.62 m 11. Determine the shortest stopping distance d for a drunk
driver from the moment he sees the pedestrians.
2. For a given intersection angle, tables of the functions of a A. 567 ft C. 592 ft
one degree curve show the tangent distance to be 324 m. B. 616 ft D. 517 ft
For the same intersection angle and a curvature of 40, the 12. The position of a particle along a straight line is given by
tangent distance is: S = (1.5t3 – 13.5t2 + 22.5t) m, where t is in seconds.
A. 81 m C. 78 m Determine the total distance travelled, in m, during the 6-
B. 83 m D. 76 m s interval.
A. 48.0 C. 69.0
3. Spiral Curves are connected at both ends of a 5-degree B. 27.0 D. 58.5
simple curve. If the length of the spiral is 80m, determine
the value of superelevation. 13. Extreme-sports enthusiasts have been known to jump
A. 0.20 C. 0.24 off the top of El Capitan, a sheer granite cliff of height
B. 0.18 D. 0.22
910 m in Yosemite National Park. Assume a jumper
Situation 1. A grade of -5% is followed by a grade of +1%, runs horizontally off the top of El Capitan with speed 4
the grades intersecting at station 10+050 of elevation m/s and enjoys a free fall until she is 150 m above the
374.50 meters. The change of grade is restricted to 0.4%. valley floor, at which time she opens her parachute. It
4. Compute the length of vertical parabolic sag curve. is important to be as far away from the cliff as possible
A. 200 m C. 300 m before opening the parachute. How far from the cliff is
B. 250 m D. 350 m this jumper when she opens her chute?
5. How far is the lowest point of the curve from the PT? A. 89.4 C. 49.8
A. 100 m C. 80 m B. 48.9 D. 84.9
B. 50 m D. 40 m
6. What is the elevation at station 10+000?
A. 348 m C. 368 m 14. Agent Bond is standing on a bridge, 15 m above the
B. 358 m D. 378 m road below, and his pursuers are getting too close for
comfort. He spots a flatbed truck approaching at 25
Situation 2. A simple curve has a central angle of 360 and a m/s, which he measures by knowing that the telephone
degree of curve of 60. poles the truck is passing are 25 m apart in this region.
7. Find the nearest distance from the midpoint of the curve The roof of the truck is 3.5 m above the road, and Bond
to the point of intersection of tangents. quickly calculates how many poles away the truck
A. 9.35 m C. 8.38 m should be when he drops down from the bridge onto
B. 8.53 m D. 9.83 m
the truck, making his getaway. How many poles is it?
8. Compute the distance from the midpoint of the curve to
A. 1.0 pole C. 2.0 poles
the midpoint of the long chord joining the point of B. 1.5 poles D. 2.5 poles
curvature and point of tangency.
A. 9.35 m C. 8.38 m 15. A train starts from rest at station A and accelerates at
B. 8.53 m D. 9.83 m
0.5 m/s2 for 60 s. Afterwards it travels with a constant
9. If the stationing of the point of curvature is at 10+020,
velocity for 15 min. It then decelerates at 1 m/s2 until it
compute the stationing of a point on the curve which
intersects with the line making a deflection angle of 8 0 is brought to rest at station B. Determine the distance
with the tangent through the PC. between the stations.
A. 10+053.33 C. 10+053.53 A. 28.35 km C. 25.38 km
B. 10+073.33 D. 10+073.73 B. 23.85 km D. 23.58 km

Situation 3. Tests reveal that a normal driver takes about 16. An aircraft begins its take-off run with an acceleration
0.75 seconds before he or she can react to a situation to of 4 m/s, which then decreases uniformly to zero in 15
avoid a collision. It takes about 3 seconds for a driver seconds, at which time the craft becomes airborne.
having 0.1% alcohol in his system to do the same. If such What is the take-off run in meters?

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REVIEW INNOVATIONS 5th Evaluation Examination CE Board November 2020
A. 150 m C. 300 m A. 2.05 hrs C. 1.95 hrs
B. 450 m D. 600 m B. 2.00 hrs D. None of the Above
27. What will be the difference in elevation between the
17. A ball A is thrown vertically upward from the top of a water level in the tube and the overflow be at t = 4 hrs?
30-m-high building with an initial velocity of 5 m/s. At A. 0.900 m C. 0.887
the same instant another ball B is thrown upward from B. 0.913 m D. None of the Above
the ground with an initial velocity of 20 m/s.
Situation 6. Sheet piles were driver in a river bed as shown
Determine the height from the ground at which they
in the figure. The trench level within the sheet piles is kept
pass. at trench level by pumping. (k = 4 x 10 -7 m/s, γsat = 20
A. 20.38 m C. 28.30 m
kN/m3)
B. 23.08 m D. 23.80 m
28. Number of flow channels(Both Sidcs).
A. 3 C. 4
18. Find the average height of the parabolic curve y = -x2 + B. 6 D. 8
4x from x = 0 to x = 4. 29. Rate of seepage in cu.m/s.
A. 2.67 C. 2 A. 1.08 x 10-6 C. 3.00 x 10-7
B. 1 D. 1.33 B. 6.00 x 10-7 D. 5.40 x 10-7
30. Pressure head at point D.
19. The graph of y = ax2 + c has its vertex at (0, 4) and passes A. 2.0 m C. 3.6 m
through the point (3, −5). Find the value of a. B. 0.5 m D. 0.9 m
A. −1 C. −2
B. 1 D. 2 Situation 7. A horizontal jet of water 38 mm Ø strikes a
vertical plate at a velocity of 8.2 m/s.
20. A company’s daily profit P in pesos, is given by the
31. Calculate the force (N) done by the water on the jet?
equation P = −2x2 + 120x − 800 where x is the number of A. 34.1 C. 76.3
articles per day. Find x so that the daily profit is B. 101.4 D. 135.2
maximum. 32. Calculate the force done by the water on the plate if the
A. 20 C. 30
B. 40 D. 50 latter moves in the same direction at 2.7 m/s?
A. 34.1 C. 76.3
21. A student received grades of 72, 75, and 78 on three tests. B. 101.4 D. 135.2
What must her score in the next test be for her to have an 33. Calculate the force done by the water on the plate if the
average grade of 80 for all four tests? latter moves opposite to the jet at 2.7 m/s.
A. 90 C. 88 A. 34.1 C. 76.3
B. 95 D. 98 B. 101.4 D. 135.2

Situation 4. A silt has a unit weight of 20 kN/m3 and a water Situation 8. On the right end of a 450-mm pipe is a nozzle
content of 26% when fully saturated. Assume that γw = 10 which discharges 150-mm  water jet into the air, the
kN/m3 pressure in the pipe is 360 kPa and the velocity of flow
22. What is the specific gravity of the particles? is 2.7 m/s.
A. 2.4 C. 2.9 34. Compute the axial force on the nozzle due to the effect
B 2.7 D. 2.1 of the water jet.
23. What is the void ratio? A. 10.43 C. 22.95
A. 0.4 C. 0.7 B. 35.46 D. 47.98
B. 0.9 D. 1.0
24. What is the dry unit weight? 35. Compute the coefficient of velocity.
A. 14 kN/m3 C. 18 kN/m3 A. 0.90 C. 0.93
B. 16 kN/m3 D. 20 kN/m3 B. 0.96 D. 0.98
36. Compute the efficiency of the nozzle.
Situation 5. A clay sample is tested in a falling head A. 69.1% C. 75.1
permeameter. The sample is 75 mm in diameter and 100 B. 81.2% D. 87.3
mm high. The small tube is 3 mm in diameter. The
Situation 9. An oil moving through a 20-mm Ø pipe has a
difference in height between water level in the small tube
above the sample and the downstream overflow is head loss of 15.6 m over a length of 135 m. Assuming
measured is measured as a function of time. At time t = 0, Reynold’s number of 1940:
the difference is 1.1 m, and at time t = 1 hr, the difference 37. Calculate the friction factor f.
is 1.05 m. A. 0.033 C. 0.035
25. Calculate the hydraulic conductivity of the clay sample. B. 0.037 D. 0039
A. 2.25 x 10-9 m/s C. 2.13 x 10-9 m/s 38. Calculate the kinematic viscosity.
B. 2.02 x 10-9 m/s D. 2.07 x 10-9 m/s A. 1.21×10-5 m2/s C. 3.21×10-5
26. At what time will the difference in elevation between the B. 2.21×10-5 D. 4.21×10-5
water level in the tube and the overflow be 1 m?
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REVIEW INNOVATIONS 5th Evaluation Examination CE Board November 2020
39. Calculate the flow. Situation 11. Refer to Figure. The butt connection shows 8 –
A. 2.1 li/min C. 22.1 22 mm diameter A325 bolts spaced as follows:
B. 12.1 D. 32.1
S1 = 40 mm S2 = 80 mm
Situation 10. A double-angle tension member, 100 mm x S3 = 50 mm S4 = 100 mm
100 mm x 8 mm is subjected to a tensile load, P = 210 kN.
The diagonal member is on a slope 2V:1H and is Thickness of plates:
connected to the supporting beam by a wide tee. t1 = 16 mm; t2 = 12 mm

S1 = 38 mm t1 = 20 mm Steel strength and stresses are:

S2 = 75 mm t2 = 18 mm Yield strength, Fy = 248 MPa
S3 = 100 mm t3 = 16 mm Ultimate strength, Fu = 400 MPa
Allowable tensile stress on the gross area = 148 MPa
Allowable strength and stresses: Allowable tensile stress on the net area = 200 MPa
Yield strength, Fy = 248 MPa Allowable shear stress on the net area = 120 MPa
Ultimate strength, Fu = 400 MPa Allowable bolt shear stress, Fv = 120 MPa
Bolt shear strength, Fv = 150 MPa
Bolt tensile stress, Ft = 195 MPa
Bolt bearing stress, Fp = 1.2Fu
Assume that the bolts are equally loaded.

Calculate the allowable tensile load, T (kN), under the

following conditions:
43. Based on the gross area of the plate.
A. 571 C. 762
B. 381 D. 286
44. Based on the net area of the plate.
A. 528 C. 264
B. 352 D. 432
45. Based on block shear strength.
A. 230 C. 480
B. 307 D. 608

40. Determine the required diameter “d1” (mm) of the 3 bolts Situation 12. An 8-m long steel column is pinned at the top
in shear connecting the double-angle member to the wide and fixed at the bottom. The column is provided with
tee. lateral support at mid height in the weak direction. The
A. 16 C. 12  2 EI
B. 20 D. 25 Euler critical load is Pc =
41. Determine the required diameter “d2” (mm) of the four (kL) 2
bolts in tension connecting the wide tee to the flange of
the supporting beam. The properties of the column section:
A. 16 C. 12 k = effective length factor
B. 20 D. 25 Ix = 178.1 x 106 mm4
42. Determine the required diameter “d2” (mm) of the four Iy = 18.8 x 106 mm4
bolts connecting the wide tee to the flange supporting A = 8129 mm2
beam. k = 1.0 when both ends are pinned
A. 16 C. 12
B. 20 D. 25 k = 0.5 when both ends are fixed

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REVIEW INNOVATIONS 5th Evaluation Examination CE Board November 2020
k = 0.7 when one end is fixed and other end is B. 224 D. 248
pinned 51. If column is replaced with 350x350mm squared tied
column, determine the required number of 25mm diameter
46. What is the critical effective slenderness ratio of the vertical bars if bars will be distributed equally on all sides.
column? A. 6 C. 12
A. 38 C. 54 B. 8 D. 16
B. 83 D. 58
47. Calculate the critical load Pc in kN? Situation 14. A column with circular ties shown in Figure
A. 11210 C. 4733 RCC-001 carries a dead load of 1,200 kN and a live load of
B. 5493 D. 2319 550 kN. Use fc’=28 MPa and fy=415 MPa. Use 2010/2015
48. Determine the minimum length of the column for which NSCP.
the Euler’s formula is valid if the proportional limit of the
steel used is 320 MPa.
A. 11.7m C. 3.8m
B. 7.6m D. 10.8m

Situation 13. A spirally reinforced concrete column has a

section shown in Figure RCC-003 carries a dead load of
1,000 kN and a live load of 520 kN. Use fc’=28 MPa and
fy=415 MPa. Use U = 1.2D + 1.6L. For shear calculations,
refer to RC-02.

Figure RCC-001
Figure RCC-003
52. Which of the following most nearly gives the diameter of the
RC-02
column (mm) if main bar diameter is 28mm.
A. 320 C. 380
411.4.1 Simplified calculation for Vc. B. 340 D. 400
53. Which of the following most nearly gives the required area
411.4.1.1 For members subject to shear and flexure only, of steel reinforcement (mm2) if the diameter of column is
𝑽𝑽𝒄𝒄 = 𝟎𝟎. 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏λ ඥ𝒇𝒇𝒄𝒄 ′𝒃𝒃𝒘𝒘 𝒅𝒅 (411-3) 400mm?
A. 3,760 C. 2,882
411.4.1.2 For members subject to axial compression. B. 1,658 D. 1,479
54. Which of the following most nearly gives the required
𝑵𝑵𝒖𝒖
𝑽𝑽𝒄𝒄 = 𝟎𝟎. 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 ቆ𝟏𝟏 + ቇ λ ඥ𝒇𝒇𝒄𝒄 ′𝒃𝒃𝒘𝒘 𝒅𝒅 (411_ 4) minimum diameter of main bars (mm) if the diameter of
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝒈𝒈 column is 400mm?
Quantity Nu/Ag shall be expressed in MPa. A. 25 C. 28
B. 32 D. 20

Situation 15. A 100 mm x 250 mm timber beam is reinforced

411.4.1.3 For members subject to significant axial with a 50 mm x 6 mm steel plate attached at bottom of the
tension, shear reinforcement shall be designed to carry timber. The beam is loaded with 9 kN/m over a 4 m span.
total shear, unless a more detailed calculation is made If the modulus of elasticity is 200 GPa for steel and 16 GPa
using Section 411.4.2.1 through 411.4.2.3. for timber, calculate:
55. the moment of inertia (mm4) of the equivalent steel
49. Which of the following most nearly gives the minimum safe section.
A. 183.68 x106 C. 20.87 x106
diameter of the column (mm) if ρ=0.011? B. 14.69 x10 6 D. 192.36 x106
A. 350 C. 385
B. 300 D. 425 56. the maximum tensile stress (MPa) for timber.
A. 13.9 C. 9.3
50. Determine the concrete nominal shear strength Vc (kN), if B. 10.7 D. 11.5
column diameter is 400mm. 57. the minimum stress (MPa) for steel.
A. 115 C. 310
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REVIEW INNOVATIONS 5th Evaluation Examination CE Board November 2020
A. 140.1 C. 155.6
B. 132.7 D. 128.4

Situation 16. A welded spiral steel pipe with 760 mm inside

diameter is made from steel plates 4.5 mm thick. The pipe
is subjected to an internal pressure “p” and axial tensile force
“T” producing a tangential stress of 124 MPa and a
longitudinal stress of 68 MPa. The weld line makes 30° with
a diameter as shown.

760 mm
58. The applied axial tensile force “T” in kN is nearest to:
A. 56.3 C. 71.8
B. 64.5 D. 78.2
59. The tensile force per unit length of weld (kN/m) is nearest
to:
A. 369 C. 495
B. 268 D. 398
60. The shear force per unit length of weld (kN/m) is nearest to:
A. 63 C. 126
B. 109 D. 13

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Nothing Follows

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