FIITJEE – INTERNAL Phase Test

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Pattern - CPT-2 QP CODE: 100121 PAPER - 1

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 186

▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
NWCMSW223D1_PT-2

1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. All the section can be filled in PART-A & B of OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
BATCH –

2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.

(i) Part-A (01-04) – Contains Six (04) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(ii) PART–A (05–12) contains (8) Multiple Choice Questions which have One or More Than One Correct
answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result
in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in −1
marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

(iii) Part-B (01-06) contains six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals to Two decimal places (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and
each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

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 2 NWCMSW223D1_PT-2_Paper-1

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
(PART – A)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

s p
1. A flat mirror M is arranged parallel to a wall and light from a
0
point source S on the wall is reflected back to the wall. With 45
what velocity will be spot move along the wall if the mirror is
brought up to the wall with a velocity v?
(A) Zero (B) 2v
(C) v/2 (D) v M

2. Light of wavelength 3500Ao is incident on two metals A and B, A of work function 4.2 eV and
B of work function 1.19 eV respectively. The photoelectrons will be emitted by
(A) metal A (B) metal B
(C) both A and B (D) neither metal A nor metal B

3. A ray of light falls on a transparent sphere with centre of C as

shown in figure. The ray emerges from the sphere parallel to
line AB. The refractive index of the sphere is A C B
o •
60
(A) 3 / 2 (B) 2 / 3
(C) 2 (D) 3

4. From a newly formed radioactive substance (Half life 2 hours), the intensity of radiation is
64 times the permissible safe level. The minimum time after which work can be done
(A) 6 hours (B) 12 hours
(C) 24 hours (D) 128 hours

(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

5. An emf is produced in a coil, which is not connected to an external voltage source. This can
be due to:
(A) the coil being in a time-varying magnetic field.
(B) the coil moving in a time-varying magnetic field.
(C) the coil is moving in constant magnetic field.
(D) the coil is stationary in external spatially varying magnetic field, which does not change
with time.
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P1 P2
x x x x x

x x x x x
6. In the diagram shown, the identical wires P1Q1 and
x x x x x
P2Q2 are made to slide on the rails with same speed 4cm 9
2 2
of 5 cm/s. In this region a magnetic field of 1T exists. x x x x x
The electric current in 9  resistor is x x x x x

x x x x x

Q1 Q2
(A) Zero if both wires slide towards left
(B) Zero if both wires slide in opposite direction
(C) 0.2 mA if both wires move towards right
(D) 0.01 mA if both wires move in opposite direction

7. A conducting rod of length l is moved at constant velocity

v0 on two parallel, conducting, smooth fixed rails, which
are placed in a uniform constant magnetic field B
perpendicular to the plane of the rails as shown in figure.
A resistance R is connected between the two ends of the
rail. Then, which of the following is/are correct?
(A) The thermal power dissipated in the resistor is equal
to the rate of work done by an external person pulling
the rod.
(B) If applied external force is doubled, then a part of the external power increases the
velocity of the rod.
(C) Lenz’s law is not satisfied if the rod is accelerated by an external force.
(D) If resistance R is doubled, then power required to maintain the constant velocity V0
becomes half.

8. A long straight conductor of circular cross-section of radius R carries a current io whose

r
current density J is assumed to be varying with radial distance r as J = Jo   , where Jo is a
R
positive constant, then
Jo or 2
(A) Magnetic field outside wire varies as
3R
 J R2
(B) Magnetic field inside wire varies as o o
3r
(C) Inside the conductor graph between magnetic field and radial distance is parabolic
(D) Outside the conductor graph between magnetic field and radial distance is hyperbolic.

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9. In the given diagram a wavefront AB moving in air is B

incident on a plane glass surface xy. Its position CD

after refraction through the glass slab is shown also  D
along with normals drawn at A and D. The refractive x A ' ' y

index of glass will be equal to : C

(A) (BD/AC) (B) (AB/CD)
(C) (sin  / sin  ') (D) (cos  / cos  ')

10. Light from a monochromatic source is incident normally on a small photo sensitive surface S
having work function . If power of the source is W and a is the distance between the source
and S, then
 W S 
(A) The number of photons striking the surface per unit time will be  2 
 4hca 
1
(B) The maximum energy of the emitted electrons will be (hc − )

e
(C) The stopping potential needed to stop the most energetic photons will be (hc − )

(D) Photo emission occurs only if 0    (hc / )

11. Two capacitors of capacitance C1 and C2 are charged to a +– +–

potential difference of V1 and V2 respectively and are +– +–
V1 + –
– + –V
connected to an inductor of inductance L as shown in the
C1
+ C2 + – 2
figure. Initially key k is open. Now key k is closed and
k
current in the circuit starts increasing. When current in the
circuit is maximum
(A) charge on both the capacitors is same
(B) induced emf in the inductor is zero
(C) potential difference across both the capacitors is same
(D) electrostatic potential energy stored in both the capacitors is same

12. In the loops shown in figure, all curved

sections are either semicircles or I I
quarter circles. All the loops carry same
current. The magnetic fields at the a a
B1 b b
centres have magnitudes B1, B2, B3 and
B2
B4. Then, I
(A) B4 is maximum I
(B) B3 is minimum a
(C) B4>B1>B2>B3 B4
(D) B1>B4>B3>B2 a b
b
B3

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(PART – B)
(Integer Type)
Part-C (01-06) contains six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative
numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and there will be no negative marking.

1. A spot is placed on the bottom of a slab made of transparent material of refractive index 1.5.
The spot is viewed vertically from the top when it seems to be raised by 2.1 cm. Then the
height of the slab is

2. The magnification of an object placed in front of a convex lens is +2. The focal length of the
lens is 2.0 metres. Find the distance (in metre) by which object has to be moved to obtain a
magnification of –5.

3. The current in the coil of self-inductance 3H is increasing according to I = 2sin t2.

Find the amount of energy (in Joules) spent during the period when the current changes 0 to
5 ampere.

4. An inductor of inductance 100 mH is connected across a charged capacitor of capacitance

0.5 F and the resulting LC circuit is set oscillating at its natural frequency. Let Q denote the
instantaneous charge on the capacitor and I the current in the circuit. It is found that the
dI
maximum value of charge is 200 C. When charge = 30 C, the value of is 10n As–1.
dt
Find the value of ‘n’.

5. A coil, a capacitor and an AC source of rms voltage 24 V are connected in series.

By varying the frequency of the source, a maximum rms current of 6A is observed. If coil is
connected to a battery of emf 12 volt and internal resistance 4, then current through it in
steady state in Amperes is ______

6. For the given incident ray as shown in figure, the condition Incident
of total internal reflection of ray will be satisfied if the 45
0
ray

refractive index of block will be:

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S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIII :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
(PART – A)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The degree of dissociation of calcium chloride is 0.4. What will be the osmotic pressure of
0.5 M aqueous solution of CaCl2 at 1000 K?
[R = Universal gas constant]
(A) 900 R (B) 90 R
(C) 9 R (D) 0.9 R

2. Which of the given property of a salt does not change by adding water to it’s saturated
solution?
(A) Ionic product (B) Solubility product
(C) Solubility(in g/L) (D) Solubility(mol L–1)

3. Which can produce H2 gas easily on heating?

(A) NH3 (B) PH3
(C) AsH3 (D) BiH3

4. I 2 + Cl 2 ⎯⎯
→ 2 ICl
The boiling point order of the molecules of above reaction is
(A) I 2  Cl 2  ICl (B) ICl  I 2  Cl2
(C) I 2  ICl  Cl2 (D) ICl  Cl2  I 2

(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

5. 200 mL of 0.4 M NaCl( = 1) solution is isotonic to ( = degree of dissociation of solute)

(A) 400 mL of 0.8 M glucose solution
(B) 200 mL of 0.4 M CaCl2( = 0.8) solution
(C) 600 mL of 0.4 M MgCl2( = 0.5) solution
(D) 500 mL of 0.2 M AlCl3( = 1) solution

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6.

The correct statement(s) regarding the above portion of a cubic unit cell of a metal is/are
o
2a o
(A) If the edge length of the unit cell is ‘a’ A , then the radius of the metal atom is A
4
(B) Coordination number of the metal is 12
(C) It contains no voids or holes
a
(D) The diameter of the metal atoms is
2

7. What type of covalent bond(s) is/are present in S2O32− ion?

(A) S = S (B) S = O
(C) S – O– (D) – O – O –

8. NCl3 + H2O ⎯⎯→ NH3 + ( X )

PCl3 + H2O ⎯⎯→ H3PO3 + ( Y )
Choose correct statement regarding products (X) and (Y).
(A) They are formed when Cl2 reacts with water.
(B) Both are used as bleaching agents.
(C) Y is more acidic than X.
(D) One of the product is formed when MnO2 reacts with HCl

9. Choose correct statement(s) regarding H3PO3?

(A) It is formed when P4O6 reacts with H2O.
(B) It behaves as a reducing agent as well as an acid.
(C) It undergoes disproportionation reaction when heated.
(D) It contains two P = O bonds and three O – H bonds.

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t1/2
10.

[A0]/mol L–1
Choose correct statement(s) regarding the characteristic of the reaction whose graph(half-
live versus concentration) is given above
(A) the rate of reaction and rate constant have the same units.
(B) The rate versus concentration graph is a parallel line.
(C) It is an elementary reaction.
(D) It’s half-life decreases by increasing temperature.

11. In which of the following reaction(s), more oxygen is produced by lowering the equilibrium
pressure?
(A) 2NO ( g) + O2 ( g ) 2NO2 ( g ) (B) 2 CO ( g) + O2 ( g) 2 CO2 ( g )
(C) S ( s ) + O2 ( g ) SO2 ( g ) (D) 2 Ag2O ( s ) 4 Ag ( s ) + O2 ( g )

12. Let the molar solubility product(Ksp) constant of Be(OH)2 is 4  10–6. Choose correct
statements.
(A) The concentration of the saturated solution is 0.01 mol L–1.
(B) Molarity of the OH– ions in the saturated solution is (2  0.01)M.
(C) The pH of the saturated solution is 12.3.
(D) Evaporation of water from the solution can result in the formation of the precipitate of
Be(OH)2

(PART – B)
(Integer Type)
Part-C (01-06) contains six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative
numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and there will be no negative marking.

1. In liquid state, the HF molecules associate with each other through intermolecular hydrogen
bonds. If the bond angle of HFH in the structure of xo, what is the value of x?

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2. In a metal carbide, the metal atoms form the FCC lattice. The carbon atoms occupy the
voids. If the limiting empirical formula of the carbide is MxCy, what is the value of (x + y)?

P
(in mm
of Hg)
3.
160

120

XB = 1 0.5 XA = 1

What will be the vapour pressure of the dilute solution of liquid A and B in mm of Hg unit
when the mole fraction of A is 0.5?

1
4. In a first order chemical reaction, fraction of molecules cross the energy barrier at 1000
10
K. What is the activation energy of the reaction in kJ mol–1 unit?
1
[R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1] [n = -2.303]
10

5. What is the pH of 0.01 N HCl solution?

6. What is the atomicity of one of the allotropes of phosphorus, which on heating produces red
and black phosphorus?

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S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIIIII :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
(PART – A)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Point of concurrency of lines ( x − y + 1) +  ( 2x + y + 5 ) = 0 is

(A) (1, 2) (B) (–2, –1)
(C) (–1, –2) (D) None

2. If (a, b) is the midpoint of a chord passing through the vertex of the parabola y2 = 4x, then
(A) a = 2b (B) 2a = b
(C) a2 = 2b (D) 2a = b2

3. If the roots of the equation x2 + bx + c = 0 and x2 − cx + b = 0 differ by the same quantity,

then the value of (b + c), is:
(A) 4 (B) 1
(C) 0 (D) –4

(3x − 4y + 7)2
4. The length of the major axis of the ellipse (5x − 10)2 + (5y + 15)2 = is
4
20
(A) 10 (B)
3
20
(C) (D) 4
7

(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

5. Length of perpendicular from (4,1) on 3x − 4y + k = 0 is 2 units. then k. is

(A) 2 (B) –18
(C) 5 (D) 13

6. If area of a triangle with vertices (1,5) , ( 4,a) and ( 2,3 ) is 3 then a =

(A) 5 (B) –5
(C) 7 (D) –7

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If slopes of one of the lines ax − 12xy + y = 0 is square of the other then ‘a’ equal to
2 2
7.
(A) 9 (B) 27
(C) 16 (D) –64

8. If ax2 + bx + 10 = 0 does not have two distinct real roots then the possible values of 5a + b
are (a, b ϵ R)
(A) –3 (B) –2
(C) –1 (D) 0

9. Equation of normal to parabola y2 = 12x at the extremities of its latus rectum

(A) y + x = 9 (B) y + x = 16
(C) x − y = 9 (D) y − x = 16

10. If 24a−b = log7 ( 2401) and log4 ( 98a + 138b) = 5, then find the value of the product
(ab).
(A) a = 2 (B) a = 6
(C) ab = 12 (D) ab = 36

11. If the ordinate of a point on the parabola y2 = 4x is twice the latus rectum, then the point is
(A) (16, 8) (B) (16, -16)
(C) (16, -8) (D) (16, 16)

x2 y2
12. If x − y = 1 touch − = 1 and the point of contact is (h, k) then
2 1
(A) h = 2 (B) h = 3
(C) k = 1 (D) k = 2

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(PART – B)
(Integer Type)
Part-C (01-06) contains six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative
numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer and there will be no negative marking.

1. ( )
If the point P a2 ,a lies in the region corresponding to the acute angle between the lines
2y = x and 4y = x such that the value of ‘a’ lies in (p, q) when p,q  N then p + q + 1 is

3
2. The solution set of the system of equaitons log2 x + log2 y = log2 9 + 1, logx + y ( 27 ) = is (p, q)
2
then pq =

3. If z =
( 3 + i)( 7 − i)2 , then the value of z is equal to
3−i

4. The circle z + 3 = 1 touches z − 7i = r . Then sum of possible values of r is

5. If the tangents on the ellipse 4x2 + y2 = 8 at the points (1, 2) and (a, b) are perpendicular to

each other, then is equal to:

33
6. The least positive value of ‘a’ for which the equation, 2x2 + ( a − 10 ) x + = 2a has real
2
root is ________

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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST

BATCH: NWCMSW223D1
PHASE TEST–2: PAPER-1
Code: 100121
JEE ADVANCED LEVEL
ANSWER KEY
ANSWER KEYS
Physics
PART – A
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B
5. ABC 6. BC 7. ABD 8. CD
9. ACD 10. ABD 11. BC 12. ABC
PART – B
1. 6.30 2. 1.40 3. 37.50 4. 600.00
5. 1.50 6. 1.22 (range: 1.21 to 1.23)

Chemistry
PART – A
1. A 2. 3.B D 4. B
5. ACD 6. 7.AB ABC 8. AC
9. ABC 10. ABD
11. ABD 12. ABCD
PART – B
1. 180 2. 4 3. 140
4. 19.14 (range: 19.10 to 19.25) 5. 2 6. 4

Mathematics
PART – A
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. B
5. AB 6. AD 7. BD 8. BCD
9. AC 10. AC 11. AC 12. AC
PART – B
1. 7 2. 18 3. 50 4. 8.00
5. 64 6. 8

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