COLLEGE OF ST.

JOHN – ROXAS
De La Salle Supervised
Gov. Atila Balgos Ave., Banica, Roxas City
5800 Capiz, Philippines

Pharmacology Final
JL De Guzman Busia, RN October 3. 2017

General Intsructions:
1. Write your answers on the test booklet.
2. No erasures/changing of answers.
3. Follow instruction carefully.

1. Nalidixic acid is a urinary tract antiseptic, it is not given with oral anticoagulants like warfarin
(Coumadin) because:
A. it intensifies its effect C. it can actually be given together
B. decreases its effect D. it can cause hypertension

2. Bethanecol chloride (Urecholine) is prescribed for a client with urinary retention. Which disorder
would be a contraindication to the administration of this medication?
A. gastric atony C. Neurogenic atony
B. urinary strictures D. Gastroesophageal refux

3. The client has a new order for metoclopramide. On review of the chart the nurse identifies that this
medication can be safely administered with which condition?
A. intestinal obstruction C. perforation of the stomach
B. peptic ulcer with bleeding D. vomiting following chemotherapy

4. The client is taking lactulose (Dulphalac). The nurse monitors for which sign or symptom to determine
whether the client is having a therapeutic effect?
A. reduction of fatty stools C. easy passage of bowel
B. will produce negative occult blood in stool D. absence of abdominal pain

5. The client has a PRN order for loperamide (Imodium). For which condition should the nurse plan to
administer this medication?
A. constipation C. an episode of diarrhea
B. abdominal pain D. positive stool occult test

6. The client has just taken a dose of trimethabenzamide hydrochloride (Tigan). What indicates that this
client has had a therapeutic response to the medication?
A. relief of constipation C. absence of abdominal pain
B. decrease in heartburn D. relief of nausea and vomiting

7. An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse noted that the client
manifests the most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?
A. tremors C. confusion
B. unconsciousness D. hallucinations

8. The client with gastric ulcer has an order fo sucralfate (Carafate) by mouth four times daily. The nurse
schedules the medication for which times?
A. with meals C. one hour after meals
B. every 6 hours RTC D. before meals
9. The client has been taking Omeprazole (Prilosec) for GERD for four weeks. The nurse evaluates that
the client is receiving optimal intended effect of the medication if client reports absence of which
symptom?
A. diarrhea C. flatulence
B. heartburn D. constipation

10. A client with peptic ulcer is diagnosed with H. pylori infection. The nurse expects that this will be
treated using a combination of:
A. 3 antibiotics + 1 Proton Pump Inhibitor C. 3 antibiotics + 1 antacid
B. 3 Proton Pump Inhibitor + 1 antibiotic D. 3 antacids + 1 antibiotic

11. Patient’s who have gastric ulcers are advised to prevent gastric food irritants like:
A. sweets C. salt
B. spices D. bland diet

12. Na containing antacids are less popular because it produces this side effect:
A. constipation C. diarrhea
B. systemic D. formation of stones

13. A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxin (Synthroid). Which laboratory
test must be closely monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the drug therapy

A. CD4
B. Hemoglobin A1c
C. Prothrombin time
D. Thyroxin

14. You are treating a child with primary nocturnal enuresis. Which of the following pituitary agents is
indicated for children with this disorder?
A. Corticotropin
B. Cosintropin(Cortrosyn)
C. Desmopressin (DDAVP)
D. Somatropin (Genotropin)

15. A patient diagnosed wth hypoparathyroidism is prescribed Vitamin D analogue calcitriol 0.25mcg
P.O. daily. You explain to the patient that calcitriol increases the plasma level of calcium by which of the
following actions?

A. Reduce bone resorption

B. Decrease osteoclastic activity
C. Increases GI absorption and bone resorption of calcium
D. Stimulates the parathyroid gland to secrete parathyroid hormone

16. What type of insulin and route of administration should you use in a medical emergency?

A. NPH insulin IM
B. NPH insulin SC
C. Regular insulin IV
D. Regular insulin SC

17. A client asks, “Why can’t I take insulin orally, like a pill?” The nurse correctly responds by saying
that insulin:

A. has unpredictable absorption rate when given orally

B. has a slow onset of action when given orally
C. is highy irritating to the gastric mucosa
D. is broken down in the GI tract before reaching the blood stream
18. A client takes glipize (Glucotrol) daily to treat type 2 DM. Which statement by the client indicates the
need for further teaching about this medication?

A. “I always carry candy with me in case my blood sugar drops”

B. “I avoid exposure to the sun as much as possible”
C. “I always wear my medical identification bracelet”
D. “I often skip lunch because I don’t feel hungry”

19. A client takes glipize (Glucotrol) daily to treat type 2 DM. Which statement by the client indicates the
need for further teaching about this medication?

A. “I always carry candy with me in case my blood sugar drops”

B. “I avoid exposure to the sun as much as possible”
C. “I always wear my medical identification bracelet”
D. “I often skip lunch because I don’t feel hungry”

20. A teenager is diagnosed with DM type I. The physician prescribes regular insulin 5 units SC stat. The
client asks “What’s insulin?” Which of the following accurately describes insulin?

A. It’s a pancreatic hormone that lowers the blood glucose level

B. It’s a hormone that stimulates cells to take in glucose
C. It’s a synthetic hormone that keeps the blood glucose level above 100mg/dl
D. It’s a pituitary hormone that stimulates gluconeogenesis

21. What would you teach a client taking intermediate-acting insulin to do with the vial?

A. Vigorously shake the vial before administering

B. Place the vial in a pan of hot water before administering
C. Turn the vial upside down for 15 minutes before withdrawing
D. Gently rotate the vials in the palms of the hands before withdrawing

22. A client is receiving insulin. You warn him about the interaction of insulin and alcohol to prevent:

A. hyperglycemia
B. hyperlipidemia
C. hypoglycemia
D. hypolipidemia

23. There is a 30 year old male presenting with lumpy jaw, suppurative inflammation and formation of
multiple abscesses and sinus tracts with discharge of pus containing sulfur granules. Best therapy in this
case will be:

A. Antitubercular drugs
B. Aminoglycosides
C. Penicillin
D. Co trimoxazole

24. Nurse Rita is giving instructions to her client who is taking antihistamine. Which of the following
nurse teachings is appropriate for the client?

a. Avoid ingesting alcohol. b. Be aware that you may need to take a decongestant.
c. Be aware that you may have increased saliva. d. Expect a relief in 24 hours.
25. Raul, a 20-year-old student, used to buy OTC drugs whenever he feels sick. Which of the following
statements best describes the danger of self-medication with over-the-counter drugs?

a. Clients are not aware of the action of over-the-counter drugs.

b. Clients are not aware of the side effects of over-the-counter drugs.
c. Clients minimize the effects of over-the-counter drugs because they are available
without
prescription.
d.Clients do not realize the effects of over-the-counter drugs.

26. Shenaya will be having her exam in pharmacology tomorrow. She should be aware that antitussive is
indicated to:

a. encourage removal of secretions through coughing.

b. relieve rhinitis
c. control a productive cough.
d. relieve a dry cough.

27. The nurse should instruct a client who is taking an expectorant to:

a. restrict fluids. b. increase fluids. c. avoid vaporizers. d. take antihistamines.

28. When administering the methylxanthine theophylline, the nurse can expect:

a. Decreased pulmonary function b. Increased pulmonary function

c. Increased residual volume d. Decreased tidal volume

29. A client with which of the following conditions may experience a dangerous or fatal side effect of
theophylline?

a. Cardiac disorder b. Diabetes c. Renal disease d. Hepatic disease

30. To evaluate the effectiveness of theophylline therapy, which of the following laboratory values must
be drawn?

a. Glucose b. Hematocrit c. Potassium d. Theophylline levels

31. The effects of theophylline may be increased by:

a. Phenobarbital b. Phenytoin c. Rifampin d. Cimetidine

32. Antimicrobial agent of choice for the outpatient treatment of infections due to animal bite wound be:

a. Cefuroxime sodium b. Amoxicillin/clavulanate potassium

c. Penicillin V d. ) Ampicillin sodium/Salbactam sodium

33. A drug that may cause nephrotoxicity, is:

a. ) Penicillin G b. Erythrocin c. Gentamycin d. Cefuroxime

34. Which one of the following is a common early side effect of Penicillin?

a. Constipation b. Loss of appetite c. Orthostatic hypotension d. Skin rash

35. Which of the following might be seen in patient of TB, who has regularly been injecting
intramuscular injection of streptomycin:

a. Depression b. Increased serum alanine aminotransferase

c. Priapism d. ) Deafness
36. Which of the following is NOT a recognized complication of ampicillin toxicity:

a, Hemolytic anemia b. ) Diarrhea c. Nausea d. Ventricular fibrillation

30. Doxycycline is used:

a. ) for Pneumonia as drug of 1st choice b. for the prevention of TB
c. for the prevention of malaria d. for the prevention of leprosy

37. Clindamycin:

a. is chemically related to macrolides

b. binds to 30S ribosomal subunit
c. is not recommended for oral route
d. cross-resistance may be observed between macrolides and Clindamycin

38. Which adverse reaction is a patient most likely to experience postsurgery after receiving general
anesthesia
A. Nausea and vomiting B. Seizures C . Cyanosis D. Fever

39. The drug commonly prescribed to treat an opioid overdose is:

A. butorphanol. B. naloxone. C . pentazocine. D. ketamine.

40. What are the most common adverse reactions to aspirin?

A. Increased rate and depth of respirations B.C onfusion, sedation, and hypothermia
C . Dizziness and vision changes D. Nausea, vomiting, and GI distress

41. Desflurane is which type of anesthetic?

A. Opioid B. Local C. Topical D. General

42. A patient is taking lovastatin, an HMG-C oA reductase inhibitor. Which parameter should the patient
monitor periodically?
A. Liver function test results B. Electrolyte levels C . Vision testing D. C oagulation studies

43. A patient diagnosed with hypertension is most likely to be prescribed which class of drugs first?
A. Angiotensin II receptor blocker B. Beta-adrenergic blocker
C . C alcium channel blocker D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

44. Nitrates are the drug of choice for relieving acute angina. Nitrates work by:
A. promoting vasodilation, reducing preload, and increasing afterload.
B. promoting vasodilation, reducing preload, and reducing afterload.
C . promoting vasodilation, increasing preload, and increasing afterload.
D. promoting vasodilation, increasing preload, and reducing afterload.

45. Besides bronchitis, acetylcysteine may also be used to treat:

A. acetaminophen overdose.
B. severe rhinorrhea.
C . stomatitis.
D. diarrhea.

46. Which adverse reaction most commonly occurs with a decongestant, such as tetrahydrozoline,
especially if it’s taken more often
than recommended?
A. Nausea B. Dizziness C . Diarrhea D. Rebound nasal congestion

47. A patient is asked why he’s taking antibiotics for an ulcer. The practitioner explains that antibiotics
will:
A. destroy the bacteria causing the ulcer.
B. destroy the virus causing the ulcer.
C . prevent infection from entering through open areas in the gastric mucosa.
D. prevent infection from occurring.
48. How does simethicone relieve gas in the GI tract?
A. It disperses and prevents gas pocket formation.
B. It facilitates expulsion of gas pockets.
C . It neutralizes gastric contents and reduces gas.
D. It coats and protects the lining of the stomach.

49. The antiemetic drug that would probably be best for a patient who experiences motion sickness on an
airplane is:
A. chlorpromazine.
B. dronabinol.
C . dimenhydrinate.
D. dolasetron

50. To prevent a postsurgical patient from straining during a bowel movement, the practitioner is most
likely to prescribe:
A. docusate.
B. magnesium citrate.
C . bisacodyl.
D. castor oil.