APFC

Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner’s Exam

Question Paper: Year 2012

INSTRUCTIONS
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THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

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APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test

Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the test Booklet.

4. This test Booklet contains 120 items (questions) in two parts, Part A – English and Part B – General
Studies. Each item in Part B is printed both in Hindi and English. Each items comprises several
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer sheet. In
case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet and rough sheet issued to you.

9. PENALTY: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR THE WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY YOU . For each
item (question), for which a wrong answer has been given by you, one-third or 0.33 of the marks
assigned to that item will be deducted as a penalty. If for any question you give more than one
answer, it will be treated as wrong even if one of the given answers happens to be right and there
will be penalty as above for that item. If an item is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by you, there
will be no penalty for that item.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOK UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

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 QUESTION PAPER YEAR - 2012

1. Skills may be harnessed in

1. It is said that, in order to control
the society through
inflation, foreign inflow needs
participations of NGOs.
to be sterilized. Sterilization
2. To fill the internal gaps in the
here refers to
system, reviews and
(a) Ensuring that counterfeit international experiences
currency does not enter can prove to be helpful.
circulation. Which of these statements is/are
(b) Ensuring that black money is correct?
accounted for. (a) 1 only
(c) Withdrawing equivalent (b) 2 only
local currency to maintain a
desirable rate of exchange (c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Compliance with import- (d) Both 1 and 2
export regulations
5. Which of the following are the
2. NABARD means: main causes of the slow rate of
(a) National Bank for Agriculture growth of per capita income in
and Rural Development India?
(b) National Agricultural Bank 1. High rate of capital
and Rural Development formation
(c) National Agricultural Board 2. High level of fiscal deficits
and Rural Development 3. High rate of growth of
(d) National Board for population
Agricultural and Rural Area (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
Development (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3
3. In which of the following Acts, only
housing facility is a statutory 6. If the RBI adopts an
provision? expansionist open market
(a) The Plantations Labour Act, operations policy, this means it
1951 will :
(b) The Factories Act, 1948 (a) Sell securities in the open
(c) The Mines Act, 1952 market.
(d) None of the above (b) Buy securities from non-
4. Consider the following government holders.
statements regarding human
development:
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 (c) Openly announce to the (b) Kerala, Punjab and
market that it intends to Maharashtra
expand credit. (c) Maharashtra, Madhya
(d) Offer commercial banks Pradesh and
more credit in the open (d) Kerala, Madhya Pradesh and
market Gujarat
7. Which of the following is NOT a 10.Consider the following
recommendation of the statements in respect of the
National Cooperative Farming Comptroller and Auditor
Advisory Board for putting General (CAG):
cooperative farming on a 1. Reports on the accounts of
sounder footing? the States are submitted to
(a) Every Society should have a the President who shall
definite programme for total cause these to be placed
pooling of lands. before the Parliament.
(b) Financial assistance should 2. CAG is appointed by the
be given only for purchase of President of India and can be
new land. removed only on grounds
(c) State Governments should and procedure similar to
give priority to revitalization those of a Supreme Court
of the existing societies. Judge.
(d) Joint farming must be 3. The form in which accounts
practiced with respect to all of the Centre and States are
lands of the society. to be kept is prescribed by
CAG
8. Structural Planning refers to :
Which of these statements are
(a) Centralized planning. correct?
(b) Laying down broad goals and (a) 1, 2 and 3
strategies. (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Changing existing (c) 2 and 3 only
institutions or creating new (d) 1 and 3 only SC
ones.
(d) Fixing flexible targets. 11. Which of the following is NOT
one of the features of the
9. Three States which have Human Special Economic Zones (SEZ)
Development Index (HDI) higher being set up for promoting
than China are: exports?
(a) Kerala, Maharashtra and
Madhya Pradesh

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 (a) Foreign workers will be 1. By setting up a large number
allowed free entry without of new manufacturing
Visa restrictions. industries and agribusiness
(b) The SEZ area will be treated centers in rural areas.
as foreign territory for trade 2. By strengthening Self Help
operations, duties and tariff. Groups (SHG) and providing
(c) There will be no routine skill development.
examination by customs 3. By supplying seeds,
authorities of import/export fertilizers, diesel pump-sets
cargo. and micro irrigation
(d) No license is required for equipment free of cost to
import into the zone farmers.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
12.Match List-I with List-II and
(c) 3 only (d) 1 only
select the correct answer using
the code given below the lists: 14.If 20% of P= 30% of Q = 1/6 of R,
List-I (Chairperson) then P: Q: R is:
A. D.M. Dharmadhikari (a) 2 : 3 : 16
B. Anil Kakodkar (b) 3 : 2 : 16
C. B.N. Srikrishna (c) 10 : 15 : 18
D. Adi Godrej (d) 15 : 10 : 18
List-II (Issue)
15.A tree increases annually by
1. National Corporate
1/8th of its height. What will be
Governance Policy
its height after 2 years, if it
2. Air India Indian Airlines
stands today 64 cm high?
merger
3. Indian Railways High Level (a) 72 cm (b) 74 cm
Safety Review Committee (c) 81 cm (d) 85 cm
4. Financial Sector Legislative 16.The sides of a triangle GHL are
Reforms Commission GH = 65 m, HL75 m and LG = 80
Code: m. What is the area of this
A B C D triangle?
(a) 1 3 4 2 (a) 2100 m² (b) 2160 m²
(b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 2200 m² (d) 2280 m²
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 2 4 3 1 17.Three sets of data on
comparable situations are
13.How does National Rural available as under :
Livelihood Mission (NRLM) seek
to improve livelihood options of
rural poor?
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 Set No. Mea Standar passes non-stop along the 600
No of n d m platform of a wayside station.
. dat Valu Deviatio What is the elapsed time for the
a e n train to entirely clear the
1 9 8 1.6 platform?
2 12 7 12 (a) 30 seconds (b) 31
3 15 9 1.4 seconds
(c) 32 seconds (d) 33
Considering all the data sets seconds
together, the overall mean value
21.Train A is 75 m long and travels
would be:
at a uniform speed of 54
(a) 7-24 (b) 7-66
km/hour. Train B is 125 m long
(c) 8-08 (d) 8.50
and travels at a uniform speed
18.A train travels at a certain of 36 km/hour in the direction
average speed for a distance of opposite to that of Train A. If
63 km. Thereafter it travels a these trains are crossing at a
distance of 72 km with an double-track stretch, what is
average speed of 6 km/hour the time taken for the two
more than the original speed. trains to fully clear each other?
Total time taken to complete (a) 10 seconds (b) 8 seconds
the journey is 3 hours. What is (c) 7.2 seconds (d) 6.6
the original average speed of seconds
the train?
22.Biome, largest recognizable
(a) 36 km/hour (b) 42
assemblage of animals and
km/hour
plants on the Earth, is
(c) 48 km/hour (d) 54
controlled mainly by:
km/hour
(a) Biological activity
19.An iron rod of 1 cm diameter (b) Landforms
and 8 cm length is drawn into a (c) Climate
wire of 18 m length with (d) Soil
uniform thickness. The
thickness of the wire would be: 23.Despite having huge coal
reserve in our country, why do
(a) 1/21 cm (b) 1/18
we import millions of tons of
cm
coal?
(c) 1/15 cm (d) 1/12
cm 1. It is policy of Govt. of India to
save its own coal reserve for
20.A 60 m long train travels at a future use and import now
uniform speed of 72 km/hour. It
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 from other countries for true and Statement (IIis the
present use. correct explanation of Statement
2. Most of the thermal plants in (1)
our country are coal based (b) Both Statement (I) and
and they are unable to get Statement (II) are individually
sufficient coal supply from true but Statement (II) is NOT the
our coal mines. correct explanation of Statement
3. Steel plants require large (1)
quantities of coking coal (c) Statement (I) is true but
which we do not have, coking Statement (II) is false
coal is to be imported from (d) Statement (I) is false but
other countries.
25. Statement (I): Industrial relation
(a) 1, 2 and 3
is currently more influenced by
(b) 2 and 3 only
the external market forces than
(c) 1 and 2 only
the power play between
(d) 1 and 3 only
employers and employees.
24.For calculating Body Mass Statement (II): The forces of
Ind7ex (BMI), weight of the globalization have made
person (in kg) is divided by the : competition so imperative that
(a) Square of the weight (in kg) unions and their tactics like
(b) Square of the height (in stopping productivity no more
meters) hold good.
(c) Square root of the height (in
26. Statement (I): Every State in
meters)
India has a High Court in its
(d) Vitamins intake
(State’s) territory.
Directions: Statement (II): A per Constitution
of India, each State is provided to
Each of the next Four (0-4) items have a high Court.
consists of two statements, one
labeled as the 'Statement (I) and the 27. Statement (I): The Directive
other as 'Statement (II)'. You are to Principles of State Policy
examine these two statements enshrined in the constitution,
carefully and select the answers to aim at providing the social and
these items using the codes given economic base of a genuine
below: democracy.
Statement (II): The Directive
Codes: Principles are merely directives
(a) Both Statement (I) and which the government has to
Statement (II) are individually keep in mind while framing
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 policy and is not enforceable pondered over the ways of
through courts. youth, they have foreseen
nothing but ruination staring the
28. Statement (I): In order to
world in its face. And yet the
produce electric power from a
world goes on. Every generation
geothermal reservoir,
passes from the spontaneity and
temperature above 1800 is
exuberance of youth to the
required.
caution and prudence of old age,
Statement (II): To drive steam and then yield place to the next.
turbines, high temperature
steam is used. 29. What, according to you, is the
theme and the idea of the
Next Four (04) items are based passage:
on the passage given below: (a) Generation gap
It has been rightly said that we (b) Problems of the youth
spend the first half of our lives (c) Optimism of the older
trying to understand the older generation
generation, and the second half (d) None of the above
trying to understand the younger
30. The older generation is
generation. Youth has always felt
suspicious about the younger
somewhat exasperated with age,
generation as the youngsters
and age has always been
lack:
suspicious of youth. With their
natural ebullience and (a) knowledge (b) experience
impatience, a majority of young (c) patience (d) t ime
people are keen to act and learn 31. The author seems to be
on their own rather than be supportive of the idea that
guided by the experience of their (a) the people of the older
elders. The older people being generation are men of words
more at home with words rather rather than action
than with action, often make (b) the young generation is
noises about the problems of impatient
youth. In every generation, old (c) the younger generation today
men are found shaking their is much misunderstood and
hoary heads and waxing more maligned than it
nostalgic about the good old deserves
days when young people knew (d) none of the above
better and showed due
reverence to age and tradition.
In all ages, whenever they have
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32. "And yet the world goes on"- 33. The author feels that the
what is the tone of the author in practice of bribery is there
this statement? because there are willing bribe
(a) Optimistic (b) Pessimistic givers.
(c) Cynical (d) Critical (a) True
(b) False
Next Four (04) items are based on (c) Partially true
the passage given below: (d) None of the above
Who deserves more severe
34. Who, according to the author, is
punishment? One who gives bribes
more responsible among the
or the one who takes them? The
following?
corrupt practice of bribery is possible
because there is someone who is (a) The bribe-taker
ready to pay money for illegal action (b) The bribe-giver
or decision in his favour. Otherwise, (c) The witness
how can one demand a bribe? The (d) The general public
bribe-giver tempts others to be 35. Who, according to the author,
corrupt and thus demoralizes our should be punished more
national character. Even Jesus Christ, severely?
fearing the power of temptation, (a) The Police who allow this
had said, "Lead me not into practice
temptation". A bribe-giver is (b) The bribe-giver
generally moneyed and influential, (c) The person who demands
while, on the other hand, one who bribe
demands bribe does so because of (d) None of the above
his poor circumstances and
compulsions. Hence, one who gives 36. Who, according to the author, is
bribe should be awarded more more corrupted?
severe punishment because he (a) Our system
exploits the weakness of the poor. (b) The person who demands
Giving and taking bribe happens in a bribe
more vicious circle which can (c) The affluent who exploits the
continue only because of money. weakness of the poor
Naturally, therefore, it is the affluent (d) The supporter of bribe who is
that grease this wheel of corruption left with little choice
and should accordingly be dealt with
firmly and suitably punished to put a 37. A judgment made before all the
stop to this nefarious practice. facts are known must be called:
(a) Deliberate (b) Sensible
(c) Premature (d) Harsh
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38. Which of the following pairs of D. Wild Ass Sanctuary 4, Kerala
words expresses the same List-II
relationship as in ELUSIVE 1. Rajasthan
CAPTURE? 2. Gujarat
(a) Sensible decide 3. West Bengal
(b) Headstrong controlled 4. Kerala
(c) Elastic stretch Code:
(d) Persuasive convince A B C D
39. Choose the word which is the (a) 2 1 4 3
nearest opposite to the (b) 3 4 1 2
meaning of the underlined word (c) 2 4 1 3
: (d) 3 1 4 2
I wish I could pursue my studies. 43.Which one of the following
(a) Discontinue (b) Abandon statements is true about red
(c) Restrain (d) Deter soil?
40. Which of the following options (a) It is rich in humus.
is the closest in meaning to the (b) It is rich in potash.
word CIRCUITOUS? (c) It is rich in iron compounds.
(a) Indirect (b) Confusing (d) It is derived from volcanic
(c) Crooked (d) Cyclic origin.

41.A cultivator has about two 44.Gun metal is an alloy of

hectares rain fed land without (a) Copper, Tin and Zinc
irrigation facilities. Which type (b) Aluminium, Tin and Steel
of crops would he like grow? (c) Copper, Steel and Zinc
1. Jowar 2. Cotton (d) Aluminium, Tin and Zinc
3. Arhar 4. Potatoes 45.If the electrical resistance of a
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 typical substance suddenly
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only drops to zero, then the
(c) 2 and 4 only substance is called :
(d) 1 and 3 only
(a) Semiconductor
42.Match List-1 with List-II and (b) Conductor
select the correct answer using (c) Superconductor
the code given below the lists: (d) Super semiconductor
List-I 46.The material used for electric
A. Buxa Tiger Reserve fuse is an alloy of tin and lead.
B. Periyar Tiger Reserve This alloy should have:
C. Sariska National Park

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 (a) High specific resistance
low melting point.
(b) Low specific resistance
high melting point.
(c) Low specific resistance
low melting point.
(d) High specific resistance
high melting point.
47.The word FTP stands for :
(a) File Transit Provision
(b) File Translate Protocol
(c) File Transfer Provision
(d) File Transfer Protocol
48.RAM stands for:
(a) Random
(b) Read Access Memory
(c) Random Attribute Memory
(d) Random Applicable Memory
49.Which of the following is also
known as brain of computer?
(a) Monitor
(b) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
(c) Control Unit
(d) Central Processing Unit
(CPU)
50.A technique in which data is
written to two duplicate disks
simultaneously, is called:
(a) Mirroring
(b) Multiplexing
(c) Duplicating
(d) Copying
51.The term 'e-Waste' refers to :
(a) The files that are deleted and
enter the 'Waste-bin' folder
in a computer
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and (b) The temporary files, folders,
links etc. that are rarely used
and in a computer
(c) The electronic products such
and as mobiles, PCs etc. that are
disposed off after their
and useful life
(d) A portal that offers services
for collecting household
waste
52.CAD stands for:
(a) Computer Aided Design
(b) Computer Application in
Design
(c) Coded Algorithm in Design
(d) Design
53.Archaeological studies suggest
the theory
(a) All the continents were
settled with human societies
at about the same time
(b) Farming societies developed
before hunting and gathering
(c) The earliest human evolved
in the Rift valley in East Africa
(d) The wheel was in use in all
ancient societies
54.Which term is used to describe
the spread of Buddhism from
India through Southeast Asia?
(a) Social mobility
(b) Cultural diffusion
(c) Ethnocentrism
(d) Interdependence
55.The main objective of the
Minimum Wage Act, 1948 is to
 safeguard the interests the (b) An insurance scheme
workers engaged in: exclusively for bank
(a) Unorganized sector employees
(b) Organized sector (c) A composite financial service
(c) Industrial sector offering both bank and
(d) Agricultural sector insurance products
(d) A bank deposit scheme
56.Which one of the following exclusively for employees of
expresses the relation between insurance companies
normal price and market price?
(a) Market price is greater than 59.Inflation can be controlled by:
normal price (a) Increase in wages
(b) Market price is equal to (b) Decrease in taxation
normal price (c) Reduction in public
(c) Market price tends to be expenditure
equal to normal price (d) Making the rupee dearer
(d) Market price is lesser 60.Consider the following
than normal price statements :
1. By the early nineteenth
century British carried out
57.Consider the following detailed surveys.
statements about heritage : 2. The effort was to know the
1. Heritage is that which has topography, the soil quality,
been or may be inherited. the flora, the fauna, the
2. Heritage is anything given or logical histories and the
received to be a proper cropping pattern.
possession. Which of these statements is/are
Which of these statements is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 61.Which of the following is a
58.Bancassurance is : correct statement about both
(a) An insurance scheme to the Mughal and Ottoman
insure bank deposits empires in the sixteenth
century?

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 (a) Both of these empires had (d) Records of the East India
powerful navies that company
engaged European navies.
64.Consider the following:
(b) Both of these empires
expanded through the use of 1. Rowlatt Act movement
gunpowder weapons and 2. Khera movement
extensive bureaucracies. 3. Champaran
(c) Both of these empires gave 4. Ahmedabad mill strike
little monetary support to What is the correct chronological
artistic and cultural order of the above mentioned
endeavors. Gandhian movements?
(d) In both of these empires the (a) 3, 4, 2 and 1 (b) 2, 3, 1 and
majority of the people were 4
Muslims. (c) 3, 2, 4 and 1 (d) 2, 1, 3 and
4
62.Which is the correct meaning of
the term 'rule of 65.Which of the following can be
primogeniture? termed an infrastructural
bottleneck in the development
(a) Favourite son inheriting his
of India's economy?
father's estate
(b) Eldest son inheriting his (a) The federal nature of Indian
father's estate Polity
(c) Division of the inheritance (b) Existence of a large variety of
amongst all the sons financial institutions
(d) Division of the inheritance (c) Delay in the administration of
amongst all the sons and justice relating to land
daughters acquisition and displacement
(d) The volatility of the Indian
63.Which of the following would rupee
be the most useful source of
evidence for research about the 66.The newly introduced rupee
agrarian history of the sixteenth symbol is based on:
and early seventeenth (a) Roman and Greek script
centuries? (b) Persian and Dravidian script
(a) Accounts of contemporary (c) Roman and Devanagari script
travellers (d) Greek and Devanagari script
(b) Individual revenue records 67.Which one of the following
(c) Chronicles and documents Institutions was NOT set up by
from the Mughal court the Constitution of India?

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 (a) Union Public Service 70.The following provision,
Commission "Protection of monuments and
(b) Election Commission places and objects of national
(c) Planning Commission importance" is a:
(d) Union Judiciary (a) Fundamental Right
68.The Mahatma Gandhi National guaranteed by the
Rural Employment Guarantee Constitution of India
Act (MGNREGA) aims at (b) Directive Principle of State
enhancing livelihood security in Policy of the Constitution of
rural areas of India by providing India
at least one hundred : (c) Fundamental Duty laid down
by the Constitution of India
(a) Days of guaranteed
(d) Presidential order in
employment in a financial
accordance with the
year to able adults in the
Constitution of India
Information Technology
sector. 71.The Seventh schedule of the
(b) Days of guaranteed wage Constitution of India contains
employment in a financial provisions regarding :
year to adult members of a (a) Scheduled Languages
rural household. (b) Oaths and affirmations
(c) Meals to children of rural (c) Administration of Tribal
households in one financial areas
year. (d) Union, State, Concurrent
(d) Employees for rural Lists
developmental schemes in a
financial year. 72.The Mid-Day Meal Scheme was
launched in 1995 with the aim
69.One of the following to :
Government of India 1. Enhance enrolment,
programmes aims to help, build retention and attendance of
or upgrade dwelling units of primary school children
below the poverty line rural 2. Improve the nutritional
families: status of primary school
(a) National Programme Social children
Assistance 3. Improve the habit of reading
(b) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana among rural households
(c) Indira Awas Yojana 4. Encourage the use of Tiffin
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru National boxes among primary school
Urban Renewal Mission TAL children
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 (a) 1 and 2 only (c) Must be a member of one of
(b) 1 and 4 only the Houses of Parliament
(c) 2 and 3 only prior to appointment.
(d) 1, 2 and 4 (d) Must be a member of Rajya
Sabha.
73.The President of India is elected
by the members of an electoral 76.Match List-I with List-II and
college consisting of elected select the correct answer using
members of: the code given below the lists:
1. Both Houses of Parliament List-I (Commission)
2. The Legislative Assemblies of A. Second Administrative
the States Reforms Commission
3. Union Council of Ministers B. Second Commission on
(a) I only (b) 2 only Centre State relations
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 C. Thirteenth Finance
Commission
74.The responsibility of
D. National Com- mission for
preparation of electoral rolls in
the Review of the working of
India rests with :
the Constitution
(a) The Parliament List-II (Chairperson)
(b) The Local Administration 1. Vijay Kelkar
(c) The Election Commission 2. Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah
(d) The Returning Officer 3. Justice Madan Mohan Punchi
75.At the time of becoming the 4. M. Veerappa Moily
Prime Minister of our country Code :
one : A B C D
(a) Must be a member of one of (a) 4 3 1 2
the Houses of the (b) 2 3 1 4
Parliament. If not, must (c) 4 1 3 2
become a member of one of (d) 2 1 3 4
the Houses within Six 77.What is common to Sardar
months. Hukum Singh, Jagjivan Ram,
(b) Need not necessarily be a Inderjit Gupta, Somnath
member of one of the Chatterjee and Seth Govind
Houses of Parliament but Das?
must get elected as a (a) They were Speakers of the
member of Lok Sabha within Lok Sabha
Six months. (b) They were Deputy Speakers
of the Lok Sabha

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 (c) They were Pro-tem Speakers 80.Match List-I with List-II and
of the Lok Sabha select th correct answer using
(d) None of the Above the code given belov the lists:
78.The purpose of Adjournment List-1 (Contribution)
motion in our Parliament is : A. Industrial Welfare Movement
B. Human Relations Thought
(a) To allow a discussion on a
C. Concept of Third Force
definite matter of urgent
D. Ahmedabad Experiment
public importance.
List-II (Contributor)
(b) To let opposition members
1. Charles A Myer
collect information from
2. A.K. Rice
concerned Ministers.
3. Robert Owen
(c) To allow a reduction of
4. Elton Mayo
specific amount in the
Code:
demand of grant.
A B C D
(d) To postpone the proceedings
(a) 2 1 4 3
to check the inappropriate or
(b) 3 1 4 2
the violent behavior on the
(c) 2 4 1 3
part of some members.
(d) 3 4 1 2
81.Match List-I with List-II and
79.Consider the following
select the correct answer using
statements regarding
the code given below the lists:
limitations on the authority of
the Indian Parliament: List-I (Board/Committee)
A. First National Commission on
1. Most of the important laws
Labour, 1969
can be introduced in the
B. Wage Board for Working
Parliament with the prior
Journalists, 2009
consent of the President.
C. Second National Commission
2. Parliament has to operate
on Labour, 2002
within the jurisdiction
D. Index Review Committee,
earmarked by the
2009
Constitution.
List-II (Chairperson)
Which of these statements is/are
1. G.K. Chadha
correct?
2. Ravindra Verma
(a) Both 1 and 2
3. P.B. Gajendragadkar
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
4. G.R. Majithia
(c) 1 only
Code:
(d) 2 only
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
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 (b) 1 4 2 3 85.What is the maximum limit of
(c) 3 2 4 1 gratuity payable under the
(d) 1 2 4 3 Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972?
82.Which of the following is NOT (a) 3 Lakhs rupees
covered by the Employees (b) 7-5 Lakhs rupees
Provident Fund and (c) 10 Lakhs rupees
Miscellaneous Provisions Act, (d) 10.5 Lakhs rupees
1952? 86.In which part of the Indian
(a) Pension Constitution, Worker's
(b) Provident Fund participation in Management
(c) Deposit Linked Insurance has been incorporated?
(d) Injury Compensation (a) The Preamble
83.Which of the following (b) The Fundamental Rights
statements about Workmen's (c) The Directive Principles of
Compensation Act, 1923 is true? State Policy
(d) None of the above
(a) It is not social security
legislation. 87.Which of the following is the
(b) Its name has been changed earliest to be constituted?
to the Employee's (a) Press Council of India
Compensation Act in 2009. (b) United News of India
(c) It provides maximum (c) NAM News Network
compensation in the event of (d) Press Trust of India
death.
(d) It does not provide 88.Which of the following
compensation for statements is true about
occupational diseases. Industrial Policy since 1991?
(a) Only 5 industries related to
84.Which of the following security, strategic and
legislations is comprehensive environmental concerns
social security legislation? require industrial License.
(a) The Maternity Benefit Act (b) An investor need not file an
(b) The Employees State industrial entrepreneur
Insurance Act Memorandum.
(c) The Employees (c) There is no reservation of
Compensation Act products for production in
(d) The Employees Provident small scale sectors.
Funds and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act

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 (d) The number of industries (b) Deep sea oil and mineral
reserved for public sector exploration
has been enhanced. (c) Clean environment and
climate change
89.Which one of the following sets
(d) Building common food stock
of industries were among first
to save human being from
modern industries in India?
any natural disaster
(a) Tea, Cotton and Sugar
(b) Jute, Silk and Cotton 93.Which of the following can be
(c) Cotton, Jute and Coal-Mines threats to the biodiversity of a
(d) Sugar, Silk and Steel geographical area?
1. Global warming
90.The regional project by name
2. Fragmentation of habitats
'CASA-1000* (Central Asia-
3. Invasion of alien species
South Asia-1000), funded by
4. Promotion of vegetarianism
World Bank, pertains to the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
field of:
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) Eradication of HIV AIDS (c) 3 and 4 only
(b) Roads and Buildings (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Electricity
(d) Eradication of illiteracy
91.The Endeavour of 'Janani 94.Vultures, which were very
Suraksha Yojana' Programme is common in our countryside a
to : few years ago, are rarely seen
1. Promote institutional nowadays. This is attributed to
deliveries one of the following:
2. Provide monetary assistance (a) Destruction of their nesting
to the mother to meet the sites by new invasive species
cost of delivery (b) A drug used by cattle owners
3. Provide for wage loss due to for treating their diseased
pregnancy and confinement cattle
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) Scarcity of food available to
only them
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) A widespread, persistent and
92."Kyoto Protocol', an agreement fatal disease amongst them
signed by various countries, is 95.Who won the Golden Boot
associated with Award in the recently concluded
(a) International trade UEFA Euro 2012?
(a) Fernando Torres (Spain)
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 (b) Mario Balotelli (Italy) B. An Ashes Summer
(c) Cristiano Ronaldo (Portugal) C. Sachin : A Hundred Hundreds
(d) Mario Gomez (Germany) Now
D. Opening Up : My Autography
96.Which of the following sets of
List-II (Author)
countries has only federations?
1. Steve Waugh and Nasser
(a) New Zealand, India, Hussain
Zimbabwe and Argentina 2. Greg Chappell
(b) Malaysia, Australia, Nigeria 3. Mike Atherton
and Brazil 4. V. Krishnaswamy
(c) India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Code:
South Africa A B C D
(d) France, Germany, Sweden (a) 3 4 1 2
and Switzerland (b) 2 4 1 3
97.Match List-1 with List-II and (c) 3 1 4 2
select the correct answer using (d) 2 1 4 3
the code given below the lists: 99.Why was Justice Dalveer
List-I (Person) Bhandari in the news recently?
A. Steve Jobs (a) He became member of UN
B. Sheryl Sandberg Human Rights Council.
C. Larry Page (b) He was elected to the
D. Ross Levinsohn International Court of
List-II (Company) Justice.
1. Google (c) He became Director General
2. Apple of World Trade Organization.
3. Yahoo (d) He became Secretary-
4. Facebook General of SAARC.
Code:
A B C D 100. Match List-I with List-II and
(a) 2 1 4 3 select the correct answer using
(b) 3 1 4 2 the code given below:
(c) 2 4 1 3 List-I (Head)
(d) 3 4 1 2 A. Jim Yong Kim
B. Kamlesh Sharma
98.Match List-I with List-II and
C. Christine Lagarde
select the correct answer using
D. Catherine Day
the code given below PSC the
List-II (Institution)
lists:
1. President Word Bank
List-I (Book)
A. Rahul Dravid : Timeless Steel
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2. Secretary-General
Commonwealth
3. Managing Director, IMF
4. Secretary-General of the
European Commission
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 1 2 4 3

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