Test ID : 121

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GRAND TEST - 1
Std : XI (CBSE – Online & Offline) Max. Marks: 720
Test Date : 05.09.2022 Time : 3 Hrs.
Note :
For every correct answer four marks will be awarded. For every wrong answer one mark
will be reduced. For unanswered questions zero mark.
Choose the correct answer : 180 x 4 = 720
1. A body is projected with an initial velocity u2
20m/s at 60o to the horizontal. Its initial 1) R1 = R2 = sin α
g
velocity vector is _____ (g = 10 m/s2)
1) 10iˆ − 20ˆj 2) 10 3iˆ −10ˆj u2
2) h1 + h2 =
g
3) 10iˆ + 10 3jˆ 4) 5iˆ + 5 3jˆ
h2
2. A body is projected with velocity u such that 3) = cot 2 α
its horizontal range and maximum vertical h1
heights are same. The maximum height is
u2
2 2 4) R1 = R 2 = sin 2 α
u 3u g
1) 2)
2g 4g 6. Equations of motion of a projectile are given
2 2
16u 8u by x = 36t and 2y = 96t – 9.8t2m. The angle of
3) 4)
17g 17g projection is equal to (x & y are in metre and
3. A gardener wants to wet the garden without ‘t’ is in second)
moving from his place with a water jet whose 3 4
velocity is 20 ms-1 the maximum area that he 1) sin −1   2) sin −1  
4 3
can wet (g = 10 ms-2) (in metre2)
1) 1600 π 2) 40 π 4 3
3) sin −1   4) sin −1  
3) 400 π 4) 200 π 5 5
4. The range R of projectile is same when its 7. A bomb is dropped on an enemy post by an
maximum heights are h1 and h2. What is the aeroplane flying horizontally with a velocity at
relation between R and h1 and h2? 60 kmph and at a height of 490 m. At the time
1) R = h1h 2 2) R = 2h1h 2 of dropping the bomb, how far the aeroplane
should be from the enemy post so that the
3) R = 2 h1h 2 4) R = 4 h1h 2
bomb may directly hit the target?
5. Two bodies are thrown from the same point
with the same velocity of projection with 400 500
1) m 2) m
angles α and 90o - α . If R1 and R2 are the 3 3
ranges and h1 and h2 are maximum heights 1700
3) m 4) 498 m
respectively, then 3
 2 Test ID : 121
8. A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane flying 13. A balloon with mass m is descending down
horizontally with a velocity of 720 kmph at an with an acceleration a (where a < g). How
altitude of 980 m. Time taken by the bomb to much mass should be removed from it so that
hit the ground is it starts moving up with an acceleration a?
1) 1 s 2) 7.2 s
2ma 2ma
3) 14.14 s 4) 0.15 s 1) 2)
g+a g −a
9. A boy wants to throw a ball from a point A so
ma ma
as to just clear the obstruction at B. The 3) 4)
g+a g −a
minimum horizontal velocity with which the
boy should throw the ball is 14. A body of weight w1 is suspended from the
ceiling of a room through a chain of weight
w2. The ceiling pulls the chain by a force
1) w1 2) w2
w1 + w 2
3) w1 + w2 4)
2
1) 23.5ms-1 2) 235ms-1 15. When a force 1 N acts on 1 kg mass at rest for
3) 47 ms-1 4) 32.5ms-1 1s, its final momentum is P. When 1 N force
10. A body is thrown horizontally from the top of acts on 1 kg mass at rest through a distance
a tower and strikes the ground after 3 sec. at 1 m, its final momentum is P′. The ratio of P
an angle 45o with horizontal. Then height of to P′ is
the tower is ________m (g = 10 m/s2)
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2
1) 30 2) 45
3) 1 : 2 4) 2 : 1
3) 60 4) 90
16. A body of mass 1 kg which is dropped from a
11. Gravel is dropped on a conveyer belt at the
height 10 m bounces to a height 2.5 m. The
rate of 0.5 kg/sec. Find the extra force
impulse felt by the ground is
required in Newton to keep the belt moving at
2 m/sec. 1) 12.5 Ns 2) 7 Ns

1) 6 N 2) 1 N 3) 7.5 Ns 4) 21 Ns

3) 2 N 4) 4 N 17. A body of 2 kg has an initial speed 5 ms-1. A

force acts on it for some time in the direction
12. In the figure given below, the position-time
of motion. The force time graph is shown in
graph of a particle of mass 0.1 kg is shown.
figure. The final speed of the body.
Find impulse at t = 2sec.

1) 0.4 kg ms-1 2) – 0.8 kg ms-1 1) 9.25 ms-1 2) 5 ms-1

3) – 0.2 kg ms-1 4) 0.1 kg ms-1 3) 14.3 ms-1 4) 4.25 ms-1
 3 Test ID : 121
18. A particle of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity 22. Three blocks connected together by strings are
of 3 m/s is acted upon by a force which pulled along a horizontal surface by applying
changes its direction of motion by an angle of force F. If T3 = 36 N, What is tension T1?
90o without changing its speed. What is the
magnitude of impulse experienced by the
particle?
1) 6 Ns 2) 2 Ns 1) 2 N 2) 3 N

3) 3 2 Ns 4) 6 2 Ns 3) 6 N 4) 1 N

19. In a football match a ball is kicked by a player 23.
with a force of 25N for 0.2 sec and then by
another player with a force of 70 N for 0.1 sec
in the same direction. If the foot ball gains a
velocity of 24 m/s after the two kicks, the
mass of the football is nearly
1) 5 kg 2) 10 kg
3) 2.5 kg 4) 0.5 kg
20. Two blocks of masses m and M are placed on
a horizontal frictionless table connected by 24.
light spring as shown in the figure. Mass M is
pulled to the right with a force F. If the
acceleration of mass m is a, then the
acceleration of mass M will be
By what acceleration the boy must go up so
that 100 kg block remains stationary on the
wedge. The wedge is fixed and is smooth.
(g = 10 m/s2)
1) 4 m/s2 2) 3 m/s2
3) 8 m/s2 4) 6 m/s2
In the figure shown, the frictional coefficient
between table and block is 0.2. Find the ratio
of tensions in the right and left strings.

(F − ma) (F + ma)
1) 2)
M M
1) 17 : 24 2) 34 : 12
F am
3) 4) 3) 2 : 3 4) 3 : 2
M M
25. Three identical point masses are connected by
21. Three blocks A, B and C of masses 4 kg, 2 kg
three identical strings of length (l) and are
and 1 kg respectively are in contact on a
revolved in horizontal circular path about
frictionless surface as shown. If a force of 14N
centre O. The ratio of tensions T1 : T2 : T3 is,
is applied on the 4 kg block then the contact
force between A and B is

1) 1 : 1 : 1 2) 3 : 2 : 1
1 1
1) 8 N 2) 18 N 3) 6 : 5 : 3 4) 1 : :
2 3
3) 2 N 4) 6 N
 4 Test ID : 121
26. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal 30. When the trolley shown in figure is given a
frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If a horizontal acceleration a, the pendulum bob of
force P is applied at the free end of the rope, mass m gets deflection to a maximum angle θ
the force exerted by the rope on the block will with the vertical. At the position of maximum
be deflection, the net acceleration of the bob with
Pm respect to trolley is
1) P 2)
M+m
1) g2 + a2
PM Pm
3) 4) 2) a cos θ
M+m M−m
3) g sin θ - a cos θ
27. In the system shown in figure, pulley is
4) a sin θ
smooth. String is massless and inextensible.
Find acceleration a of the system. 31. A 6 kg box sled is travelling across the ice
(Take g = 10 m/s2) horizontally at a speed of 9 m/s. What a 12 kg
packet is dropped into it vertically, the
subsequent speed of the sled is
1) 27 m/s 2) 3 m/s
3) 9 m/s 4) 15 m/s
32. At high altitude a body at rest explodes into
two fragments of masses in the ratio 1 : 4,
lighter fragment receiving horizontal velocity
1) 10 m/s2 2) 12 m/s2
of 40 m/s. Time after which their velocities are
3) 6.7 m/s2 4) 20 m/s2 perpendicular to each other is (g = 10 m/s2)
28. The apparent weight of a person in a lift 1) 10 s 2) 4 s
moving downwards is half his apparent weight
3) 2 s 4) 1 s
in the same lift moving upwards with the same
33. A body of mass 60 kg is suspended by means
acceleration. Acceleration of the lift is
of three strings P, Q and R as shown in the
g
1) 2) g figure is in equilibrium. The tension in the
3 string P is
g g
3) 4)
2 4
29. A man in a lift feels an apparent weight W
when the lift is moving up with a uniform
acceleration of 1/3rd of the acceleration due to
gravity. If the same man were in the same lift 1) 130.9 g N 2) 60 gN
now moving down with a uniform acceleration 3) 50 g N 4) 103.9 gN
that is 1/2 of the acceleration due to gravity, 34. In the following figure the masses of the
then his apparent weight is blocks A and B are same and each equal to
3W 3W ‘m’. The tensions in the strings OA and AB
1) 2)
8 4 are T2 and T1 respectively. The system is in
W 5W equilibrium with a constant horizontal force
3) 4)
8 8 mg on B. Then T1 is
 5 Test ID : 121
O 38. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice
when given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by
θ2 T 2
friction in 10 s. Then the coefficient of friction
m A
is (g = 10 ms-2)
θ1 T 1 1) 0.02 2) 0.03
m B mg
3) 0.06 4) 0.01
1) mg 2) 2 mg 39. Block A of mass 2 kg is placed over block B
of mass 8 kg. The combination is placed over
3) 3 mg 4) 5 mg
a rough horizontal surface. Coefficient of
35. In the figure, a block of weight 60 N is placed friction between B and the floor is 0.5.
on a rough surface. The coefficient of friction Coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.4.
between the block and the surface is 0.5. What A horizontal force of 10 N is applied on block
maximum can be the weight W such that the B. The force of friction between A and B is
block does not slip on the surface? (g = 10 ms-2)

1) 100 N 2) 40 N
3) 50 N 4) zero
60
1) 60 N 2) N  1 
2 40. A body is placed on rough  µ =  inclined
 3 3
30
3) 30 N 4) N plane. A force F is needed to stop this body to
2
slide downward. A force 2F is needed so that
36. Find the acceleration of the blocks in m/s2 the body is just about to move upwards. Slope
of inclined plane is
1) 30o 2) 45o
3) 60o 4) 20o
1) 1, 1 2) 1, 0 41. A block placed on a horizontal surface is
being pushed by a force F making an angle θ
3) 0, 0 4) 2, 1
with the vertical. The coefficient of friction
37. A vehicle of mass m is moving on a rough
between block and surface is µ. The force
horizontal road with momentum P. If the
required to slide the block with uniform
coefficient of friction between the tyres and
velocity on the floor is
road is µ, then the stopping distance is
µ mg ( sin θ − µ cos θ )
P P2 1) 2)
1) 2) ( sin θ − µ cos θ ) µmg
2µmg 2µmg
3) µmg 4) none of these
P P2
3) 4)
2µm 2g 2µm 2g
 6 Test ID : 121
42. A body of mass M is fired with initial velocity 47. How many significant figures are present in
u up the inclined plane set at angle θ with the following respectively?
horizontal. Coefficient of friction is µ. The 0.0025, 2.0034, 500.0
distance that body covers before it stops, is 1) 5, 5, 4 2) 2, 5, 3
given by 3) 2, 5, 4 4) 2, 3, 1
48. Which of the following has least number of
u2 u2
1) 2) molecules?
2g(µ cos θ + sin θ) 2µg cos θ
1) 11.2 lit of O2 at STP
u2 u2 2) 8 g of O2
3) 4)
2g (µ cos θ − sin θ) 2g (tan θ − µ) 3) 0.1 mole of O2
43. A 30 kg box has to move up an inclined slope 4) 2.24 x 104 ml of O2 at STP
of 30o to the horizontal at a uniform velocity 49. 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 5.6Litres of volume
of 5 ms-1. If the frictional force retarding the at STP. The gas is
motion is 150N, the horizontal force required
1) N2O 2) NO
to move up is (g = 10 ms-2)
3) CO 4) CO2
2 3 50. The volume occupied by 4.4 gram of CO2 at
1) 300 x N 2) 300 x N
3 2 STP is
3) 300 N 4) 150 N 1) 22.4 L 2) 2.24 L
44. A body takes times ‘t’ to reach the bottom of 3) 0.224 L 4) 0.1 L
an inclined plane of angle θ with the 51. Number of gram atoms in 12.044 x 1023 Na
horizontal. If the plane is made rough, time atoms?
taken now is 2t. The coefficient of friction of
1) 4 2) 2
the rough surface is
3) 1 4) NA
3 2
1) tan θ 2) tan θ 52. Which of the following acid has the same
4 3
molecular weight and equivalent weight
1 1
3) tan θ 4) tan θ 1) H3PO2 2) H3PO3
4 2
3) H3PO4 4) H2SO4
45. A car is negotiating a curved road of radius r.
If the co-efficient of friction between the tyres 53. In a metal oxide 32% oxygen is present what
and the road is µ, the car will skid if its speed will be the equivalent mass of metal?
exceeds 1) 17 2) 53
1) µrg 2) 2µrg 3) 32 4) 52
54. Calculate mass percentage of sulphur in
3) 3µrg 4) 2 µrg sodium sulphate.
46. Law of multiple proportions is illustrated by 1) 32% 2) 46%
the two compounds 3) 22.5% 4) 16%
1) sodium chloride and sodium bromide 55. Which of the following has the empirical
2) ordinary water and heavy water formula as CH2O?
3) caustic soda and caustic potash 1) C2H5OH 2) CH3OH
4) sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide 3) CH3COOH 4) CH3COCH3
 7 Test ID : 121
56. The simplest formula of a compound 63. Incorrect set among the following is
containing 50% of element X (atomic mass 1) 6C12, 6C13, 6C14 (Isotopes)
10) and 50% of element Y (atomic mass 20) is 2) 1H1, 1H2, 1H3 (Isotopes)
1) XY 2) XY3 3) 18Ar38, 19K39, 20Ca40 (Isotones)
3) X2Y 4) X2Y3 4) 6C13, 7N15, 8O17 (Isobars)
57. In a compound C, H and N atoms are present 64. Which of the following having highest
in 9 : 1 : 3.5 by weight, molecular weight of wavelength?
compound is 108. Molecular formula of 1) γ-rays
compound is
2) UV rays
1) C2H6N2 2) C3H4N
3) IR rays
3) C6H8N2 4) C9H12N3 4) Radio waves
58. The weight of the urea required in making 2.0 65. Compare the energies of two radiations, E1
litre of 0.25 molar aqueous solution is with wave length 800nm and E2 with wave
1) 30 g 2) 15 g length 400 nm
3) 45 g 4) 60 g 1) E1 = 2E2 2) E1 = E2
59. 0.45g of an acid of molecular weight 90 was 1
3) E2 = 2E1 4) E2 = E1
neutralized by 20 ml of 0.50 N KOH. The 2
basicity of acid is 66. What is the number of photons of light with
1) 1 2) 2 wavelength 300 nm that provide 2J of energy?
3) 3 4) 4 1) 3 x 1018 2) 3 x 1016
60. Specific gravity of H2SO4 is 1.83 g/cc then 3) 6 x 1018 4) 6 x 1016
calculate the normality of 98% w/w H2SO4 67. Which of the following graphs is correct for
solution is the photoelectric effect?
1) 42 N 2) 18 N
3) 36.6 N 4) 26 N
61. Which mode of expressing concentration is 1) 2)
independent of temperature? KE of KE of
emitted electron emitted electron
a) Molality
b) Percent by mass
c) Mole fraction
d) Molarity 3) 4)
1) a, b, d 2) a, c, d KE of KE of
emitted electron emitted electron
3) a, b, c 4) a, b, c, d
68. How many number of spectral lines are
62. What is the specific charge of α-particle to
obtained when an electron jumps from 4th
proton?
orbit to 2nd orbit in a hydrogen spectrum?
1) 1 : 1 2) 4 : 1
1) 5 2) 3
3) 1 : 2 4) 2 : 1 3) 2 4) 4
 8 Test ID : 121
69. An electron in 3d-subshell has orbital angular 76. Incorrect set of quantum numbers given to
momentum orbital in the following
h Orbital Quantum number
1) 2) 2hπ
2π 1) 2p n = 2, l = 1
h h 2) 4s n = 4, l = 0
3) 6 4) 2
2π π 3) 3d n = 3, l = 2
70. The ratio of ionization energies of Li+2 and 4) 5f n = 5, l = 4
Be+3 is 77. Number of orbitals represented by n = 3, l = 2
2 3 and m = +2 is
1) 2)
3 2 1) 1 2) 2
9 16 3) 3 4) 4
3) 4)
16 9 78. Which of the following is not a redox reaction?
71. The ratio of the radii of first orbits of H, He+ 1) Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2
and Li+2 is 2) C + 2H2SO4 → CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
1) 1 : 2 : 3 2) 6 : 3 : 2 3) CaF2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF
3) 1 : 4 : 9 4) 9 : 4 : 1
4) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
72. An electron is moving in Bohr’s fourth orbit.
79. Match the following in List – I and List – II
Its de-Broglie wavelength is λ. What is the
List – I List – II
circumference of the fourth orbit?
A) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO 1) Decomposition
1) 4λ 2) 16λ
redox reaction
3) 12λ 4) 2λ
B) 2KClO3 
MnO2
∆
→ 2) Decomposition
73. The order of de Broglie’s wavelength of electron,
proton and neutron moving with the same 2KCl + 3O2 but not a redox
speed is reaction
∆
1) λe > λp > λn C) CaCO3  → 3) Disproportionation
CaO + CO2 redox reaction
2) λe > λn > λp
D) Cl2 + 2NaOH → 4) Combination
3) λn > λp > λe
NaCl + NaOCl redox reaction
4) λn > λe > λp
Identify the correct match
74. Which of the following orbital is with the four 1) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
lobes present along the axis?
2) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
1) d z2 2) d yz 3) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
3) d zx 4) d x 2 − y2 4) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
80. The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions
75. How many number of orbitals associated with
SO32-, S2O42- and S2O62- follow the order
the principal quantum number n = 3
1) S2O42- < SO32- < S2O62-
1) 18 2) 9
2) SO32- < S2O42- < S2O62-
3) 7 4) 2
3) S2O42- < S2O62- < SO32-
4) S2O62- < S2O42- < SO32-
 9 Test ID : 121
Match the following − OH −
81. 87. 3→ CrO + I −
Cr(OH)3 + IO  2−
4
List – I List – II
The number of OH- and H2O molecules
(species) (Oxidation number) involved in the above balanced equation
A) O2- W) 0 respectively
B) O2-2 X) +1 1) 4, 5 2) 5, 4
C) O2 Y) -1/2 3) 3, 6 4) 6, 3
D) O2+2 Z) -1 88. What is n-factor for ferric oxalate, when it
A B C D A B C D reacts with KMnO4 in acidic medium?
1) Y Z W X 2) Z Y W X 1) 6 2) 3
3) Z Y X W 4) Y Z X W 3) 4 4) 2
82. In which of the following compounds carbon 89. The equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 (Mol.wt = M)
oxidation state is zero in the reaction
1) CH3CHO 2) H2C2O4 2Na2S2O3 + I2 → Na2S4O6 + 2NaI
3) C6H12O6 4) C3O2 M M
1) 2)
83. What is the change in oxidation state of 3 4
carbon in the following reaction? M
3) 4) M
C6H12O6(s) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) 2
1) -4 to +4 2) 0 to -4 90. Equivalent weight of I2 in the reaction,
3) +4 to +4 4) 0 to +4 I2 + 5Cl2 + 6H2O → 2HIO3 + 10HCl is
84. In which reaction H2O2 acts as reducing 1) M 2) M/2
agent? 3) M/5 4) M/10
1) Ag2O + H2O2 → 2Ag + H2O + O2 91. Katherine Esau reported in her publication that
2) 2KI + H2O2 → 2KOH + I2 curly top virus spreads in a plant through
3) PbS + 4H2O2 → PbSO4 + 4H2O 1) Food conducting tissue
4) H2O2 + SO2 → H2SO4 2) Water conducting tissue
2-
85. xCr2O7 (aq) + ySO32-(aq) + zH +
(aq)
3+
→ Cr (aq) + 3) Phloem
SO42-(aq) + H2O(l) 4) Both (1) or (3)
The value of x, y and z in the above 92. Identify the incorrect pair
stoichiometric equation is
1) Respiratory roots – Rhizophora
1) 1, 1, 1 2) 2, 3, 4
2) Proproots - Sugarcane
3) 1, 3, 8 4) 2, 4, 5
3) Storage roots – Turnip
86. Write the stoichiometric coefficient x, y
4) Stilt roots – Maize
respectively for the following equation
93. The reduced leaf found at the base of pedicel
xI 2 + yOH − → IO3− + I − + H 2 O
is known as
1) 6, 3 2) 3, 2 1) Stipule 2) Bract
3) 3, 6 4) 3, 3 3) Corolla 4) Calyx
 10 Test ID : 121
94. Select the correct matching 99. Statement – I : Veins provide rigidity to the
I) Hypogynous A) Gynoecium X) Plum leaf bade and act as channels of transport for
occupies the water, minerals and food.
highest position Statement – II : In leguminous plants leaf
II) Epigynous B) Ovary is said Y) Mustard blade is pulvinus.
to be half inferior 1) Both the statements are correct
III) Perigynous C) Margin of the Z) Guava 2) Both the statements are incorrect
thalamus grows 3) Statement – I is correct, II is incorrect
upward enclosing
4) Statement – I is incorrect, II is correct
ovary completely
100. Identify the plant in which lateral branches
1) I – C – X, II – A – Y, III – B – Z
originate from the basal and underground
2) I – B – Z, II – A – Y, III – C – X portion of the main stem, grow horizontally
3) I – A – Y, II – C – Z, III – B – X beneath the soil and grow obliquely upwards
4) I – C – Z, II – B – X, III – A – Y giving rise to leafy shoots.
95. All the stamens of a flower are united into one 1) Jasmine 2) Pineapple
bundle or monadelphous condition in 3) Strawberry 4) All of these
1) Citrus 2) Arhar 101. Select the correct statements from the
3) Asparagus 4) China rose following
96. Find out incorrect combination w.r.t stem A) Thorns are woody, pointed and straight
modifications. B) Underground stems of some plants such as
1) Flattened stem – Opuntia grass and strawberry spread to new niches
2) Stem tendril – Pisum C) Stem tendrils develops from axillary buds
3) Thorn – Bougainvillea D) Example of gourds are cucumber,
4) Underground stem – Turmeric Pumpkins, Watermelon
97. A lateral branch with short internodes and 1) A and B 2) B and C
each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft 3) C and D 4) A, B, C and D
of roots are found in aquatic plants like 102. Which of the following pair represent
1) Pistia 2) Eichhornia insectivorous plant?
3) Wolffia 4) Both (1) and (2) 1) Pitcher plant, Acacia
98. If the lamina of leaf has incisions that do not 2) Venus fly trap, Pistia
reach midrib, it is called as 3) Pitcher plant, Venus fly trap
1) simple leaf 4) Acacia, Pistia
2) pinnately compound leaf 103. In racemose type of inflorescence
3) palmately compound leaf 1) main axis do not terminate into a flower
4) all of these 2) main axis terminate into a flower
3) flowers are arranged in basipetal order
4) all of these
 11 Test ID : 121
104. Identify the odd one w.r.t alternate phyllotaxy 111. A placentation in which ovules develop on the
1) China rose 2) Mustard central axis and septa are absent, is found in
3) Calotropis 4) Sunflower 1) Mustard
105. The flowers are zygomorphic in 2) Dianthus
a) Gulmohar b) Cassia 3) Tomato
c) Datura d) Mustard 4) Lemon
e) Chilly 112. Iffruit is developed without fertilization is
Choose the correct answer from the following called as
options 1) parthenocarpic fruit
1) a, b only 2) c, d, e only 2) apomictic fruit
3) b, c, d only 4) a, d only 3) polyembryonic fruit
106. Identify the incorrect match 4) fleshy fruit
1) Valvate – Calotropis
113. Mango is developed form
2) Twisted – Cassia
1) Monocarpellary superior ovary
3) Imbricate – Gulmohar
2) Multicarpellary superior ovary
4) Vexillary – Pea
3) Monocarpellary inferior ovary
107. The arrangement of flowers on the floral axis
4) Syncarpous ovary
is termed as
114. The plumule and radicle in monocot seed are
1) Aestivation 2) Placentation
enclosed in sheaths called as A and B
3) Phyllotaxy 4) Inflorescence
respectively
108. Sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one
another, without overlapping in the flower of A B
1) Lady’s finger 2) China rose 1) Coleoptile Coleorhiza
3) Calotropis 4) Cassia 2) Coleorhizae Coleoptile
109. Epiphyllous stamens are found in
3) Coleoptile Scuteullum
1) Ashwagandha 2) Trifolium
4) Scutellum Coleorhiza
3) Mustard 4) Lily
115. Select
the correct matching w.r.t economical
110. Match the following correctly.
importance of plants.
Column – I Column – II
1) Spices – Chilli
A) Parietal I) China rose
2) Medicine – Tulip
B) Marginal II) Sunflower 3) Ornamental – Asparagus
C) Axile III) Pea 4) Dye yielding – Trifolium
D) Basal IV) Argemone 116. Monocarpellary condition is found in
1) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II 1) Petunia 2) Lily
2) A – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II 3) Onion 4) Arhar
3) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
4) A – III, B – IV, C –II, D – I
 12 Test ID : 121
117. Floral formula of Brassicaceae is 124. Sclereids are present in
1) Fruit wall of nuts
1) K2+2 C4 A2+4 G(2)
2) Leaves of tea
3) Seed coat of legumes
2)
4) All of the above
125. Which of the following are lateral meristems?
3) 1) Cork cambium
2) Interfascicular cambium
4) 3) Intercalary meristem
4) Both (1) and (2)
118. Identify the number of plants that have
tricarpellary gynoecium 126. Hard lignified, thick walled, long and pointed
cells of a plant are
Arhar, Tobacoo, Tulip, Aloe, Allium,
Asparagus, Colchicum, Gloriosa, Belladona 1) parenchyma
1) 5 2) 6 2) sclereids
3) 7 4) 8 3) collenchyma
119. Shield shaped cotyledon of monocot seed is 4) sclerenchyma fibres
called as 127. During the formation of primary plant body,
1) Plumule 2) Coleorhiza specific regions of the apical meristem
produces
3) Scutellum 4) radicle
1) Dermal tissue 2) Ground tissues
120. Non endospermic seeds are seen in
3) Vascular tissues 4) All of the above
1) Pisum 2) Sesbania
128. A meristem may be defined as the group of
3) Trifolium 4) All of the above
cells which
121. Both vessels and companion cells are absent
1) conserve food
in
2) divide continuously to give rise to new cells
1) Angiosperms 2) Gymnosperms
3) do not divide
3) Dicots 4) Monocots
4) are dissimilar in structure and function
122. A mature sieve tube differs from companion
cell in 129. Which
of the following tissue forms the major
component or bulk of storage organ?
1) Being dead
1) Collenchyma 2) Parenchyma
2) Lacking cytoplasm
3) Sclerenchyma 4) Fibres
3) Lacking functional nucleus
130. Which of the following is a primary meristem?
4) All of the above
1) Cork cambium
123. Xylem parenchyma stores
2) Intrafascicular cambium
1) starch 2) fat
3) Vascular cambium
3) tannins 4) all of the above
4) All of the above
 13 Test ID : 121
131. Commercialfibres like jute, flax and hemp are 2) Lining of body cavity is mainly composed
obtained from of compound epithelium
1) secondary xylem 3) Skin is covered by simple columnar
2) secondary phloem epithelium
3) primary xylem 4) Epithelial tissue cells are compactly packed
without any intercellular matrix
4) primary phloem
139. Which of the following statement is false?
132. Whatare the chief conducting elements of
1) Compound epithelium has a limited role in
xylem in gymnosperms?
secretion and absorption
1) Fibres 2) Ciliated epithelial cells are either columnar
2) Tracheids or cuboidal
3) vessels 3) Ciliated epithelium helps to move particles
4) xylem parenchyma in a specific direction
133. Stems are modified into green, fleshy 4) Cilia are present on the outer surface of
cylindrical structures in fallopian tube
1) Euphorbia 2) Calotropis 140. Statement-I: Compound epithelium found in
the lining of stomach.
3) Opuntia 4) Casuarina
Statement-II: Compound epithelium only
134. Theleaf base is sheathy and covers the stem
involved in secretion and absorption.
partially or totally in
1) Both Statements I and II are correct
1) Grasses 2) Pisum
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
3) Mango 4) Pistia incorrect
135. Papillionaceous corolla is seen in 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
1) Fabaceae 2) Liliaceae correct
3) Solanaceae 4) All of the above 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
136. Which of the following epithelium forms the 141. Match the column - I with column - II and
inner lining of blood vessels? choose the correct option.
1) Cuboidal 2) Columnar Column - I Column - II
3) Squamous 4) Transitional i) Rapid transfer of ions A) Tight junctions
137. Which of the following tissue in human body
ii) Stop leakage of
is associated with diffusion and filtration? B) Gap junctions
substance
1) Simple cuboidal epithelium
iii) Cementing C) Communicating
2) Simple squamous epithelium
neighbouring cells junctions
3) Compound epithelium
D) Adhering
4) Simple columnar epithelium iv) Transfer of molecules
junctions
138. Which of the following character is suitable
for epithelial tissue? 1) i - A, ii - B, iii - C, iv - D
1) Compound epithelium mainly helps in 2) i - D, ii - C, iii - B, iv - A
protection 3) i - C, ii - A, iii - D, iv - B
4) i - B, ii - D, iii - C, iv - A
 14 Test ID : 121
142. Microvilli are present on the surface of _____ 150. Statement-I: Neuroglia are excitable cells.
epithelium. Statement-II: Neurons make up more than
1) cuboidal epithelium one-half the volume of neural tissue in our
2) columnar epithelium body.
3) squamous epithelium 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
4) both 1 and 2 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
143. The connective tissue in which the fibres are incorrect
not secreted by its component cells is ____ 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
connective tissue. correct
1) dense regular 2) dense irregular 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
3) fluid 4) adipose 151. Nerve cord of chordates is

144. Ligaments are 1) single, ventral, tubular, non-ganglionated

1) connective tissue which connects bones to 2) single, dorsal, hallow, non-ganglionated
bone 3) single, ventral, solid, ganglionated
2) connective tissue which connects bones to 4) single, dorsal, solid, ganglionated
cartilage 152. One of the following is not a tunicate.
3) connective tissue which connects skeletal 1) Ascidia 2) Salpa
muscle to bone 3) Doliolum 4) Amphioxus
4) connective tissue which connects skeletal 153. Which of the following statements are
muscle to cartilage correct?
145. ‘Lacunae’ enclose A) Tunicata and Cephalochordata are often
1) mast cells 2) adipocytes referred to as protochordates
3) osteocytes 4) fibroblasts B) Urochordates and cephalochordates are
146. Pliable, solid matrix is seen in exclusively marine
1) bone 2) cartilage C) Notochord, in cephalochordates extends
3) muscle 4) blood from head to tail
147. Smooth muscle are 1) A and B 2) B and C
1) involuntary, fusiform, non-striated 3) A and C 4) A, B and C
2) voluntary, fusiform, striated 154. Which of the following statement is incorrect

3) involuntary, cylindrical, non-striated w.r.t Cyclostomata?

4) voluntary, cylindrical, striated 1) Cyclostomes have a sucking and circular
mouth
148. Intercalated disc are characteristic feature of
2) They have 6 - 15 pairs of gill slits for
1) skeletal muscle 2) cardiac muscle
respiration
3) smooth muscle 4) bone
3) Their body is devoid of scales and unpaired
149. The typical muscle such as the biceps is
fins
1) smooth muscle without intercalated discs
4) Cranium and vertebral column are
2) smooth muscle with intercalated discs cartilaginous
3) skeletal muscle without intercalated discs
4) cardiac muscle with intercalated discs
 15 Test ID : 121
155. Which of the following is a ectoparasite on 161. Match the column - I with column - II and
some fishes? choose the correct option.
1) Lamprey Column - I Column - II
2) Lancelet A) Vulture i) Columba
3) Branchiostoma
B) Penguin ii) Psittacula
4) all of these
C) Pigeon iii) Aptenodytes
156. How many of the following have internal
fertilisation. D) Parrot iv) Neophron
Carcharodon, Trygon, Exocoetus, 1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
Catla, Torpedo 2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
1) 2 2) 3 3) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
3) 4 4) 5 4) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
157. Read the following and find out the incorrect 162. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t
statement. crocodile?
1) Dog fish has teeth that are modified placoid 1) Four chambered heart
scales 2) Fertilization in internal
2) In flying fish, gills are covered by 3) Homoiothermous
operculum 4) Tympanum represents ear
3) Pristis has no air bladder 163. In which of the following long bones are
4) Mouth in Trygon is terminal pneumatic?
158. Which of the following statement is correct 1) Fishes 2) Amphibians
w.r.t to Chondrichthyes? 3) Reptiles 4) Birds
A) Notochord is persistent throughout life 164. Which of the following is a flightless bird?
B) Teeth are modified placoid scales 1) Neophron 2) Pavo
C) Pelvic fin bear claspers in female 3) Struthio 4) All of these
1) A and B 2) B and C 165. Statement-I: Mammals are poikilothermous.
3) A and C 4) A, B and C Statement-II: Mammals are unique in
159. Air bladder of fishes helps in possessing hair.
1) respiration 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
2) buoyancy 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
3) excretion incorrect
4) both 1 and 2 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
160. Which of the following statement is correct correct
w.r.t Amphibia? 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
1) Body is divisible into head, neck and trunk 166. Excretory organ of Balanoglossus

2) The heart with one auricle and one ventricle 1) Gills

3) A tympanum represent the ear 2) Proboscis gland
4) Fertilisation is internal 3) Kidney
4) Nephridia
 16 Test ID : 121
167. In Echionoderms water vascular system helps in 173. How many of the following are related to the
1) locomotion 2) food transport Nereis?
3) respiration 4) all of these diooecious, parapodia, triploblastic, marine
form, parasitic
168. Match the column - I with column - II and
choose the correct option. 1) 2 2) 3
3) 4 4) 5
Column - I Column - II
174. Muscular pharynx is a characteristic feature of
A) Sepia i) Tusk shell
1) Ancylostoma 2) Planaria
B) Pinctada ii) Squid
3) Taenia 4) Fasciola
C) Dentalium iii) Cuttle fish 175. Which of the following is called sea walnut?
D) Loligo iv) Pearl oyster 1) Pleurobrachia 2) Physalia
1) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i 3) Adamsia 4) Gorgonia
2) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i 176. In which of the following digestion is both

3) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii extra and intracellular?

4) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii 1) Cnidaria 2) Ctenophora
169. Which of the following statement is incorrect 3) Platyhelminthes 4) both 1 and 2
w.r.t mollusca? 177. Statement-I: Obelia exhibit metagenesis.

1) The space between the shell and the mantle Statement-II: Some of the ctenophores have a
is called mantle cavity skeleton (CaCO3) and cnidocytes.
2) The mouth contains a file- like rasping 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
organ for feeding, called radula 2) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
3) This is the second largest animal phylum 3) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
4) Body is unsegmented with head, muscular 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
foot and visceral hump 178. Which of the following statement is correct
170. Balancing organ of arthropods w.r.t porifera?
1) statocyst 2) trachea 1) They have organ level of organization
3) malpighian tubule 4) both 2 and 3 2) All are marine
171. In arthropods, living fossil is 3) Fertilisation is external
1) Limulus 2) Locusta 4) They are hermaphrodite
3) Laccifer 4) all of these 179. Pseudocoelomates are
172. In annelids, which of the following helps in 1) Triploblastic
locomotion 2) radially symmetrical
i) Longitudinal muscles ii) Circular muscles 3) organ level of organization
iii) Nephridia iv) Statocyst 4) all of these
1) i, ii, iii 2) iii, iv 180. An undifferentiated layer, mesoglia present in
3) i, iii, iv 4) i, ii 1) Physalia 2) Taenia
3) Wuchereria 4) all of these
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