1-Which of the following is a hereditary disease?

(A) Rabies

(B) Colour blindness

(C) Polio

(D) Small pox

2-Deficiency of Vitamin B complex causes

(A) Dermatitis

(B) Peliagra

(C) Rickets

(D) Scurvy

3-In hypermetropia, distinct image of the object forms

(A) Behind the retina

(B) In front of retina

(C) No image is formed

(D) Depends upon the age of the person

4-The pelvis consists of number of bones are

(A) Three

(B) Four

(C) Five

(D) Six

5-Which food has maximum biological value for proteins?

(A) Soyabean
(B) Egg

(C) Meat

(D) Fish

6-Lactose is made up of
(A) Glucose + Fructose

(B) Glucose + Glucose

(C) Glucose + Galactose

(D) Fructose + Fructose

7-Which part of eye which can be transplanted?

(A) Retina

(B) Cornea

(C) Optic nerves

(D) Complete eye

8-The breathing rate in human beings is

(A) 36 per minute

(B) 12 to 20 per minute

(C) 72 per minute

(D) 20 to 30 per minute

9-The following is not a source of vitamin

(A) Milk

(B) Amla (Gooseberry)

(C) Lemon

(D) Green chilli

10-Select out the odd one

(A) DPT – Vaccine

(B) DOTS – TB

(C) AB+ – Universal donor

(D) Adrenalin – Harmone

ANSWERS:
1-(B), 2-(A), 3-(A), 4-(D), 5-(B), 6-(C), 7-(B), 8-(B), 9-(A), 10-(C)

11-Chickenguniya is a
(A) Hereditary disease

(B) Deficiency disease

(C) Pathogenic disease

(D) Congential disease

12-Which of the following is not a hereditary disease?

(A) Haemophilia

(B) Hypertrichosis

(C) Encephalitis

(D) Thalassemia

13-Skull consists of
(A) 14 bones

(B) 22 bones
(C) 12 bones

(D) 8 bones

14-Enzyme which helps in digestion of fat

(A) Amylase

(B) Lipase

(C) Enterokina

(D) Tripsin

15-Pathogens means
(A) Microorganisms which causes disease

(B) Organisms which are found in animal

(C) Organisms which are beneficial for us

(D) Organisms which are found in plants

16-Widal test is performed

(A) To identify the typhoid fever

(B) To identify the AIDS

(C) To identify the causes of Diarrhoea

(D) To identify the causes of Dysentery

17-Analgesics are given

(A) To relieve pain

(B) To give rest

(C) To induce sleep

(D) To destroy pathogenic microorganisms

18-Asepsis means
(A) Freedom from infection

(B) Freedom from anxiety

(C) Freedom from noise

(D) Freedom from pain

19-Osteoporosis is caused by deficiency of

(A) Vitamin A

(B) Vitamin B

(C) Vitamin C

(D) Vitamin D

20-Hepatitis is caused due to

(A) Infected blood transfusion

(B) Use of contaminated water

(C) Addiction of drug

(D) Dialysis

ANSWERS:
11-(C), 12-(B), 13-(B), 14-(B), 15-(A), 16-(A), 17-(A), 18-(A), 19-(D), 20-(B)

21-Ascorbic acid is
(A) Protein

(B) Vitamin
(C) Enzyme

(D) Lipid

22-The type of BCG vaccine is

(A) Killed vaccine

(B) Triple vaccine

(C) Live attenuated

(D) Combined vaccine

23-Infant morality rate is expressed in terms of

(A) Rate per 100 live births

(B) Rate per 1000 live births

(C) Rate per 1000 total births

(D) Rate per 100 total births

24-The gastric juice is produced by

(A) Liver

(B) Pancreas

(C) Stomach

(D) Intestine

25-The duration of one cardiac cycle is

(A) 0.1 second

(B) 0.3 second

(C) 0.6 second

(D) 0.8 second

16-Anabolism means
(A) Storage of energy

(B) Breakdown of energy

(C) Mixing of energy in water

(D) Change in energy

27-Antibiotics are used or administered for the purpose

(A) To reduce pain

(B) To reduce ederna

(C) To prevent infection

(D) To relieve fever

28-The condition occur due to lack of oxygen (O2) in the body is

(A) Jaundice

(B) Cyanosis

(C) Dehydration

(D) Paleness

29-The percentage of water in the average adult human body is

(A) 80%

(B) 60%

(C) 40%

(D) 90%
 30-The type of hepatitis which caused after blood transfusion
(A) Hepatitis-A

(B) Hepatitis-B

(C) Hepatitis-C

(D) Hepatitis-D

ANSWERS:
21-(B), 22-(C), 23-(B), 24-(C), 25-(D), 26-(B), 27-(C), 28-(B), 29-(B), 30-(C)

Question 1

Which of these is not a definition of health?

a) Health as not ill
b) Health despite disease
c) Health means not seeing a doctor
d) Health as vitality
Question 2

Which of these things is health psychology concerned with?

a) What causes illness?

b) Who is responsible for illness?
c) How should illness be treated?
d) All of the above
Question 3

Which of these is not an example of a health behaviour?

a) Smoking
b) Taking regular exercise
c) Eating healthy food
d) Going to the gym
Question 4

The models of health behaviour are also known as...

a) Mental models of health behaviour

b) Cognition models of health behaviour
c) Brain models of health behaviour
d) Thought models of health behaviour
Question 5

Which of these is not an element of the Health Belief Model?

a) Threat
b) Expectations
c) Cure
d) Socio-demographic factors
Question 6

Which of these is a stage in the Stages of Change Model?

a) Study
b) Contemplation
c) Deliberation
d) Meditation
Question 7

What does the term 'mortality' refer to?

a) Death
b) Illness
c) Health
d) Morbidity
Question 8

Which law relates to a person's right to choose whether they want treatment or not?

a) The Misuse of Drugs Act 1971

 b) The Health and Safety at Work e.t.c. Act 1974
c) The Mental Capacity Act 2005
d) The Medicines Act 1968
Question 9

Why is it important to pharmacists that research is carried out in a rigorous way?

a) So that they know that the research was done properly

b) To increase the income for the pharmacy
c) To get more people to take medicines
d) To get doctors to prescribe more medicines
Question 10

Which of these is not a reason why a knowledge of behavioural and social sciences is
important to pharmacists?
a) It can help us to understand patients better
b) It can improve adherence to medication
c) It can help to build a concordant relationship with patients
d) Knowing what people are thinking is more important than knowledge of
medicines
Submit my answ ers

1. Which of the following study determine prevalence of diseases?

a) Longitudinal study b) Case control study
c) Cohort study. d) Cross sectional study
Recommended reading: List of Laboratories for SARS CoV-2 Rapid Antigen Test

2. 85% cancer among smoker is-

a)Attribute risk b)Relative risk

3. In which of the following study relative risk is calculated? a. Case control study b. Cohort
study
c. Longitudinal study d. Cross sectional study

4.Which of the following is the limiting amino acid?

a.soyabean b. Gram
c. lentils d. pea
5. Which of the following international conferences advocate the health promotion.
a. Ottawa charter b. ICPD
c. Beijing conference d.habitat II

6. According to Alma-Ata, elements of PHC are

a. eight b. three c. six d. five

7. Which of the following protein is reference is considered as reference protein.

a. egg b.meat c. milk d.all

8. Nucleo protein requires which of the following

a. folic acids b. nuclic acids c. ascorbic acid d.all
9. Measurement of climate change is in
a.decadal b.heptadal c.milidal d.all

10.Measure of water vapour per cu cm is-

a. absolute humidity b. relative humidity
c.both d. none

11. Daily dose of thiamine for adults is:

a.1mg b.2mg c.3mg d. none

12 John Snow located source of

a. cholera b. typhoid c .plague d. All

13.Inductive research was purposed by

a.aristotle b. Socrates c.plato d. none

14.Father of medical sociology-

a. Macintyre b. Hippocrates c. john snow d. none

15. Which of the following meats contains more cholesterol and triglycerides
a. pork meat b. beef meat c. fish d. all

16. Overall meteorology of geography is known as.

a. climate b. global warming c. climate change d. none

17. CDM stands for-

a. clean development mechanism b. community development mechanism
c. clear development model d. none

18. Preservative of sewage is called-

a. chloroform b. haloform
c. formalin d. all
19. Group affinity means
a. common interest i.e. we feeling b. vested interest
c. both d. none

20. Burden of disease is measured by:

a. Disability Adjusted life years(DALY) b. Physical Quality of life years (PQLY)
c. Health Adjusted Life Years (HALE) d. All of the above
[quads id=11]
21. A baby is called low birth weight if he /she measures less than :
a. 2.5 kg b.1.5 kg c. 3.5 kg d. 2.2 kg

22. Most common side effect of IUD is

a. bleeding b.UTI(Urinary Tract Infection)
c. leucorrhoea c. amenorrhea.

23. Which of the following eliminate odour, taste and color from water:
a. chlorine b. potash c. ozone d. UV rays.

24. Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is:

a)trophozoite b)cyst c)sporozoite d)merozoite

25.The very important variable for assessing nutrition of under 5 children is/are:
a)weight b)height c)age d)all of above

26. Most common diarrhoeal agent for infant is:

a)rhino virus b)rota virus c)enterovirus d)E.coli

27.Constant presence of disease in an area during a period of time is :

a)endemic b)epidemic c)sporadic d)pandemic

28.Which is not the principle of management?

a)scaler chain of command b)division of work
c)hierarchial management d)discipline
Recommended readings
▪ Syllabus for Undergraduate Common Entrance Examination 2020
▪ List of Registered Postgraduate Medical (Health Professionals) Programs in Nepal
▪ Medical Education Commission Syllabus for Postgraduate Entrance Examination (2020)
▪ Syllabus for Postgraduate Integrated Entrance Examination
▪ Syllabus for Bachelor in Public Health (BPH) Common Entrance Examination
▪ Syllabus for MBBS/BDS/BSc Nursing/BASLP/B Perfusion Technology Common Entrance
Examination
▪ Syllabus for Bachelor in Nursing Science (BNS) Common Entrance Examination
▪ Syllabus for BAMS/BSc MLT/BSc MIT/BPT/B Pharm/B Optometry Common Entrance
Examination
29.PNMR refers to:
a)post Neonatal mortality rate b)post natal mortality rate
c)perinatal mortality rate d)prenatal mortality rate

30.A baby is called exclusively breast feed if he/she is breast fed for:
a)2-3 month b)3-4 months c)3-5 months d)7-8 months

31.The vector responsible for leishmaniasis is:

a) mosquito b)bugs c) tsetse flies d)sandflies

32. Which method is suitable for teaching mother group about preparation of superflour:
a)demonstration b)group discussion
c) roleplaying d)exhibition

33. MDG stands for:

a)Medical Development Group b)Millennium Development Goals
c)Master Development Goals d)Management development goal

34. The nature of common source epidemic:

a)scattered effect b)explosive
c)more prevalence rate d)all of above

35. In any programme target refers to:

a)set of activities b)objective of programme
c) degree of achievement d)evaluation to be done

36. 8 years long study was done and at last 45 new cases per 1000 found and that last case is
called:
a)prevalence rate b)incidence rate
c)primary case d)index rate

37. In any study, selection bias interfere:

a)internal validity b)external validity
c)face validity d)translation validity

38. Median age of old population, refers to population of age:

a)30 years b)>30 years c)30-40 years d)40-45 years

39. Among the following, common occupational disease in working place:

a)cardiovascular disease b)skin disease
c)mental disease d)endocrine disease

40. major source of air pollution in city is:

a)burning wood b)industries c)automobiles d)gas stove

41. Latrine intended to use for camps of longer duration is:

a)shallow trench latrine b)deep trench latrine
c)bore hole latrine d)water seal latrine

42. In any study nutritional status measurement is done through:

a)nominal scale b)ordinal scale
c)interval scale d)ratio scale

43. opportunistic infection is :

a)primary infection b)secondary infection
c)tertiary infection d)side effect of drug

44. Helisinki declaration was about:

a)women rights b)ethics in research
c)human rights d)gender issue

45. In quasi experimental study there is no :

a)no control b)no randomization
c)neither randomization nor control d)both randomization and control

46. obesity occurs due to:

a)more consumption of calorie b)more consumption of protein
c)more consumption of vitamins d)None

47. When people migrate within the same country ,it is called:
a)in migration b)emigration
c)outmigration d)immigration

48. clustrom protein coagulates due to:

a)albumin b)globulin c)fibrinogen d)prothrombin

49 .UN declaration on human right occurred in:

a)1948 b)1950 c)1946 d)1952

50 . Very simple probability is:

a)conditional probability b)marginal probability
c)binomial probability d)both (b)&(c)

51. Randomization is done in experimental study:

a)to eliminate selection bias. b)to select control
c)to eliminate confounding bias c)all of above
52 .when research topic is not novel and relevant:
a)correct it b)change it
c)read more about it d)review articles

53 .which of the following does not affect sample size?

a)site of the study b)population
c) time d)all

54 . when group do not became able to to make decision,then there should be:
a)democratic decision b)group should be dismissed
c)hip pocket decision d)group decision

55 .PERT means:
a)gender analysis b)network analysis
c)statistical analysis d)problem analysis

56 .Road to health card was designed by :

a)David Morley b)John Hopkins
c)kurt lewin d)john snow

57 .Iodine surveillance in community is done by:

a)testing iodine secretion in urine b)measuring iodine from packets
c)analysis of goiter prevalence d)data collection

58 .Population balancing equation indicates:

a)constant balance in population b)change in population
c)increase in population d)decrease in population

59 .Abstract of journal doesn’t contain:

a)methodology b)ethical consideration
c)conclusion d)sample size

60 . Sensitivity means;
a)true negative b)false negative
c)true positive d)false positive

61 . ascribed status is achieved :

a)by birth b)by adolescents
c)by mother d)by social norms

62 .very strong desire to do something refers to:

a)overt behavior b)covert behavior
c)perception d)attitude
63 .In the study of COPD which test will be suitable:
a)Z test b)t- test
c)chi-square test d)anova test

64 .Male and female rats experimented with 4 different drugs, then which of the following
study is conducted.
a.chi square test b. z test
c. t test d. none

65 .validity stands for.

a. accuracy b. reliability
c. consistency d. all

66 .Selection bias interferes-

a. internal validity b. external validity
c. face validity c. all

67 .Targets means –
a. degree of achievement b. result that you want to achieve
c. both a. and b. d. none

68 .Nature of common sources epidemic

a. explosive b. slow
c. static d. all

69 . Median age of old population is

a. more than 30 years b. more than 40 years
c. 50 years c. 60 years

70 . MDG stands for

a Millennium Development Goals b. mild development goals
b Both a and b c. none

71 .Preparation of Super flour can be best done with

a. demonstration b.exhibition
c . both d. none

72. Cognitive skills related to

a. knowledge b. attitude
c. behavior d. none

73 .Covert behavior means

a. very strong desire to do something b. no any desire to do something
c. convincing behavior d. none
74 .FCTC stands for
a. framework convention on t Framework convention on Tobacco Control
Tuberculosis control
c. fact on tremendous care

75.POMA Stands for

a. planning , organizing, monitoring and appreciation
b. planning , organizing, monitoring, and application
c. planning, organizing, monitoring, apprehension.
d. all of the above

75. Vitamins that is related for coagulation is

a. Vitamin K b. vitamin c
c. Vitamin d. Vitamin A

76. Enlargement of vital organs is due to :

a. phospholipids b. glycolipid
c. phospholipase d. all

77.Global fund is:

a. multilateral b. bilateral
c. both a and b ` c. none

78. Alma Ata conference on Health was held in

a.12 September 1978 b. 14 September 1968
c. 14september 1978 d. none

79. Selective PHC

a. vertical program b. horizontal program
c. parallel program d. all

80. SAP stands for

a. reducing public sector subsidy b. increasing public sector subsidy
c. increasing government sector subsidy d. none

81.Precision stands for –

a. Reliability b. accuracy
c. consistency d. validity

82.More CO2 is generated from

a. fossils fuels b. kitchens(burning firewood)
c. industries d. all
83.Acid rain due to
a. SO2 b. H2SO4
c. HCL d. b. and c

84.Green house gas –

a. trap heat of planet b. reflects heat from the planet
c. reduces temperature of atmosphere d. all

85.Which of the following is the strength of Case control study?

a. rare disease b. bias can be minimized
c. temporal relationship can be established d. relative risk can be calculated

86.Which is not related to marriage?

a. Polygamy b. living together
c. love d. divorce

87.Which of the following is the social indicator?

a. CBR b.IMR c. CDR d. None

88.ICPD focus on
a. women RH issues b. child health issues
c adolescent health issues d. all

89. Main objective of IHP

a) disease control b) donor harmonizarion
c) health promotion d) research

90. Rejecting Ho when true-

a) type II error b) random error
c) systemic error d) type I error

91. According to NDHS 2006, in which birth spacing , IMR is more

a) 3 yrs b) 2yrs
c) 1yr d) 5yrs

92. Calculating formula of GFR

a) No. of live birth *1000/population of women of reproductive age(15-49yrs)
b) No. of live birth *1000/population of married women of reproductive age(15-49yrs)
c) No. of live birth *1000/Total population of women
d) No. of live birth *100000/population of women of reproductive age(15-49 yrs)

93. Parameter is related to

a) population b) sample
c) statistics d) variable
94. Health economics- increased competition do not interfere health services

95. Which of the following is not true about incidence in tuberculosis?

a) also known as annual incidence rate
b) also known as tuberculine conversion index
c) can be judged by percentage of person showing positive reaction to standard tuberculine test
d) expess the attacking force of tuberculosis in a community

96. Mass miniature radiography is stopped as general measure of case finding measure
because of
a) lack of definitiveness
b) high proportion of erroneous enterpretation of film
c) low yield of cases commensurate with effort involed
d) all of the above

97. The main of antituberculosis is

a) bacteriological care
b) radiological care
c) prevent complication
d) contact tracing

98. Vibrio cholera are destroyed by all except

a) boiling b) drying
c) bleaching powder (1 mg/lit.) d) cresol

99. Which of the following opportunistic fungal infection is seen in AIDS?

a) candida b) Cryptococcus
c) coccidioides d) all of the above

100. Anti malaria month is observed in

a) april b) may
c) june d) july

MCQ Questions on Human

Health and Disease
August 15, 2020 by Kishen

Biology is the study of life. Below, You will find a list of Biology MCQ Questions as per the latest
prescribed syllabus. Ace up your preparation with the Objective Questions available on Human
Health and Disease and enhance your subject knowledge. Understand the concept clearly by
consistently practicing the Multiple Choice Questions and score well in your exams.

MCQ Questions on Human Health and

Disease
1. Immunosuppressants such as _________ prevent transplanted organs from being
rejected in recipients.
(a) Thrombin
(b) Cyclosporine
(c) Aspirin
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Cyclosporine

2. Both B & T lymphocytes are produced in the bone marrow; however, only the T
lymphocytes travel to the ______ and mature there.
(a) Spleen
(b) Thymus
(c) Pituitary gland
(d) Adrenal gland

Answer

Answer: (b) Thymus

3. The _________ is at its largest in children, but with the onset of puberty, it
eventually shrinks and gets replaced by fat.
(a) Thymus
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Parathyroid gland
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Thymus

4. Ascaris lumbricoides is a species of parasitic roundworm that lives in _________.

(a) Humans
(b) Grasshoppers
(c) Pigs
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Humans

5. Which of the following diseases has been eradicated?

(a) Smallpox
(b) Rinderpest
(c) Polio
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

6. A kind of an injury or damage, which results in the premature death of all the
nearby cells in a tissue or an organ through autolysis is called _______.
(a) Neurosis
(b) Necrosis
(c) Apoptosis
(d) Cellular senescence

Answer

Answer: (b) Necrosis

7. Hypochondria is also termed as_______.

(a) Health anxiety
(b) Sleep apnea
(c) Hypnagogia
(d) Narcolepsy

Answer

Answer: (a) Health anxiety

8. The immune system comprises_______.

(a) Humoral and fibrous systems
(b) Humoral and Cell-mediated systems
(c) Antigens
(d) Lymphocytes
Answer

Answer: (b) Humoral and Cell-mediated systems

9. Which of the following is a viral disease?

(a) Diphtheria
(b) Filariasis
(c) Leprosy
(d) Influenza

Answer

Answer: (d) Influenza

10. Carcinoma arises from the_______.

(a) Epithelial cells
(b) Bone Marrow
(c) Pigment containing Cells
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Epithelial cells

11. Melanoma is a type of cancer that develops from _______.

(a) Granulocytes
(b) Melanocytes
(c) Adipocyte
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Melanocytes

12. Human Immunodeficiency Virus causes aids by attacking a type of white

blood cell called_______.
(a) CD4
(b) CD3
(c) CD8
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) CD4

13. Plague is caused by the bacterium _______.

(a) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
(b) Yersinia pestis
(c) Yersinia enterocolitica
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Yersinia pestis

14. Elephantiasis is caused by _______.
(a) Filarial worms
(b) Flatworms
(c) Tapeworms
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Filarial worms

15. ___________ is an example of a stimulant.

(a) Lorazepam
(b) Amphetamine
(c) Oxazepam
(d) Phencyclidine

Answer

Answer: (b) Amphetamine

Immunosuppressants such as _________ prevent transplanted organs from being rejected in

recipients.

1.
1.
1. Thrombin
2. Cyclosporine
3. Aspirin
4. None of the above

2. Both B & T lymphocytes are produced in the bone marrow; however, only the T lymphocytes travel
to the ______ and mature there.

1.
 1.
1. Spleen
2. Thymus
3. Pituitary gland
4. Adrenal gland

3. The _________ is at its largest in children, but with the onset of puberty, it eventually shrinks and
gets replaced by fat.

1.
1.
1. Thymus
2. Hypothalamus
3. Parathyroid gland
4. None of the above

4. Ascaris lumbricoides is a species of parasitic roundworm that lives in _________.

1.
1.
1. Humans
2. Grasshoppers
3. Pigs
4. None of the above

5. Which of the following diseases has been eradicated?

1.
1.
1. Smallpox
2. Rinderpest
3. Polio
4. All of the above

6. A kind of an injury or damage, which results in the premature death of all the nearby cells in a
tissue or an organ through autolysis is called _______.

1.
1.
1. Neurosis
2. Necrosis
3. Apoptosis
4. Cellular senescence

7. Hypochondria is also termed as_______.

 1.
1.
1. Health anxiety
2. Sleep apnea
3. Hypnagogia
4. Narcolepsy

8. The immune system comprises_______.

1.
1.
1. Humoral and fibrous systems
2. Humoral and Cell-mediated systems
3. Antigens
4. Lymphocytes

9. Which of the following is a viral disease?

1.
1.
1. Diphtheria
2. Filariasis
3. Leprosy
4. Influenza

10. Carcinoma arises from the_______.

1.
1.
1. Epithelial cells
2. Bone Marrow
3. Pigment containing Cells
4. None of the above

11. Melanoma is a type of cancer that develops from _______.

1.
1.
1. Granulocytes
2. Melanocytes
3. Adipocyte
4. None of the above

12. Human Immunodeficiency Virus causes aids by attacking a type of white blood cell
called_______.
 1.
1.
1. CD4
2. CD3
3. CD8
4. None of the above

13. Plague is caused by the bacterium _______.

1.
1.
1. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
2. Yersinia pestis
3. Yersinia enterocolitica
4. None of the above

14. Elephantiasis is caused by _______.

1.
1.
1. Filarial worms
2. Flatworms
3. Tapeworms
4. None of the above

15. ___________ is an example of a stimulant.

1.
1.
1. Lorazepam
2. Amphetamine
3. Oxazepam
4. Phencyclidine

Answer Keys

1-2 2- 2 3- 1 4- 1 5- 4

6- 2 7- 1 8- 2 9- 4 10- 1

11- 2 12- 1 13- 2 14- 1 15- 2

Threatened or actual use of physical force or power to harm another

person or to damage property?
answer choices
Neglect
Friendship
Rape
Violence
2. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
Any form of sexual intercourse that takes place against a person's will.
answer choices
Sexual Assault
Rape
Abuse
Neglect
3. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
illegal sexual contact that usually involves force upon a person without
consent or is inflicted upon a person who is incapable of giving consent.
answer choices
Sexual Assault
Rape
Abuse
Neglect
4. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
Traits to a Healthy Relationship
answer choices
Acceptance, Respect, Trust, Talkative, Empathy, Kindness, & Commitment.
Acceptance, Respect, Trust, Honesty, Empathy, Karing, & Commitment.
Acceptance, Honesty, Bullying, Neglect, & Abuse.
Acceptance, Respect, Communication, Trust, Honesty, Empathy, Kindness,
& Commitment.
5. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
What are the 4 different kinds of Relationships?
answer choices
Close Friendship, Animal lover, Engagement, & Marriage
Close Friendship, Dating, Engagement, & Marriage.
Close Friends, Courting, Living Together, & Marriage.
Boyfriend & Girlfriend, with your pet, & friends.
6. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
What are the 3 communication styles?
answer choices
Aggressive, Passionate, & Attitude.
Aggressive, Passive, Assertive, & Loving.
Aggressive, Passive, & Assertive.
Harassment, Refusal, & Empathy.
7. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
What are the different types of Abuse?
answer choices
Physical, Mental, Aggressive, & Sexual.
Physical, Mental, Verbal, & Sexual.
Physical, Emotional, Verbal, & Mental.
Physical, Mental, Loud noises, & Sexual.
8. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
A serious disagreement or argument or situation between yourself or a
group of individuals.
answer choices
Verbal Abuse
Neglect
Emotional Abuse
Conflict
9. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
The ability or willingness to deal with something particularly opinions or
behavior that you don't agree with.
answer choices
Tolerance
Sterotyping
Neglect
Conversation
10. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
Forcing someone to execute strenuous, humiliating, dangerous, or wild
tasks.
answer choices
Bullying
Abuse
Hazing
Harrassment
11. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
Where the person will show feelings and opinions and their needs in such a
way that disregards the privilege of others.
answer choices
Aggressive Communication
Passive Communication
Assertive Communication
Harassment
12. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
Where the person manages to not show their own opinions or feelings,
protect their rights, and identify their own needs.
answer choices
Aggressive Communication
Passive Communication
Assertive Comunication
Harassment
13. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
Where the person will make their opinions and feelings clear, firmly state
their rights or needs, but does not intrude on others rights.
answer choices
Aggressive Communication
Passive Communication
Assertive Communication
Harassment
14. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
Using strength, influence, or authority to intimidate or pressure someone
into doing what you want, even if it's bad.
answer choices
Tolerance
Bullying
Hazing
Neglect
15. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
What are the 9 types of Violence?
answer choices
Physical, Sexual, Emotional, Psychological, Spiritual, Verbal, Cultural &
Neglect.
Physical, Sexual, Emojis, Psychological, Spiritual, Verbal, Cultural, & Neglect.
Physical, Sexual, Emotional, Psychological, Spiritual, Cultural, Verbal,
Neglect, and Financial.
Watching too many movies.
16. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
What are the 3 R's on stopping domestic violence?
answer choices
Recognize, Restriction, & Report.
Recognize, Resist, & Report.
Recon, Run, & Report
Roar, Rage, & Report.
17. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
How do you know you have a healthy relationship?
answer choices
Each person in the relationship is fun and outgoing.
Each person in the relationship is truthful and a bully.
Each person in the relationship is loving and crazy.
Each person in the relationship is valued and respected.
18. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
A feeling of deep appreciation for someone/something obtained by their
abilities, qualities, or accomplishments.
answer choices
Courage
Honor
Respect
Positivity
19. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
Why do people commit violence?
answer choices
Because built up anger and waiting for right person. Being disrespected,
laughed at, or abused.
Because built up anger and waiting for the last straw. Being disrespected,
overwhelmed, or abused.
Because built up anger, playing video games, failing classes. Being
disrespected, tickled, or kissed.
Because you just feel like it.
20. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
What are some causes of Violence?
answer choices
Alcohol, lack of respect, low self-esteem, laughed at, and neglected.
Alcohol, lack of knowledge of what is real and what isn't. Video games.
Alcohol, lack of attention or respect, low self-esteem/self worth, and
abused or neglected.
Alcohol, lack of respect and attention, being a bully, and being a dog lover.
21. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
What is a friendship?
answer choices
A significant relationship between multiple people marked with emotions,
respect, love, and hugs.
A significant relationship between 2 people marked by feelings, care,
respect, admiration, concern, love or like.
A significant relationship between owner and dog, where you cuddle with
your dog.
A significant relationship between friends that are disrespectful, bullying,
and abuse.
22. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
What is a Nuclear Family?
answer choices
Consist of guardians and having pets.
Consist of grandparents and no kids.
Consist of 2 parents and their children.
Consist of your animals and siblings.
23. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
What is one of the most dangerous problems a family can face?
answer choices
Neglect
Sexual Assault
Love
Abuse
24. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
What is something you should do when being bullied?
answer choices
Ignore them and throw your food at them.
Sit with a group of friends.
Don't tell a teacher.
Snapchat about it.
25. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
What is Peer Pressure
answer choices
An influence from members of one's peer group, usually around the same
age.
An influence from members of your family, usually around your teen years.
An influence from anybody that will tell you to do something so you will do
it.
Aggressive pressure or intimidation.
26. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
Aggressive pressure or indimidation
answer choices
Assault
Peer pressure
Harassment
Hazing
27. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
Skills that allow you to be effective at saying no to drugs or alcohol offers.
answer choices
Being awesome
Refusal skills
Assertive refusal
Nagging
28. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
Unwanted sexual touching, any sort of unwanted sexual advances or
suggestions. Can be physical advances or attacks, verbal suggestions or
insults.
answer choices
Sexual Conflict
Sexual Abuse
Assault
Rape
29. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
Being hit, hurt physically, and leaving marks such as bruising, cuts, red
marks, and broken bones.
answer choices
Physical Abuse
Physical Neglect
Fighting
Abuse
30. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
Occurs when a group or person interferes with another person's efforts at
achieving a goal.
answer choices
Bullying
Cause of conflict
Hazing
Interpersonal conflicts
31. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
When someone uses words to affect you emotionally, name calling to make
them feel not worthy, loved, or respected.
answer choices
Bullying
Hazing
Verbal Abuse
Physical Abuse
32. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
What is a sign of a toxic friendship?
answer choices
Lack of empathy
Laughing and giving hugs
Being supportive
Pushing you hard to be a better person
33. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
How many people a minute are victims of physical violence, rape or stalking
by an intimate partner?
answer choices
21
20
24
18
34. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
What is the percent of teens who were in a violent relationship that ever
tells anybody about it?
answer choices
30
33
40
25
35. Multiple-choice
Report an issue
5 minutes
Q.
What are the BIG 3 traits for a healthy relationship?
answer choices
Communication, Honesty, and Empathy
Respect, Honesty, and Commitment
Communication, Respect, and Trust
Respect, Trust, and Commitment
1. Psychological disorders are deviant,distressing, dysfunctional and
____________.
a) disturbing
b) dangerous
c) dissociative
d) None of the above
Chapter 4: Psychological Disorders
Ans: b) dangerous
Q 2._________________ is the term used when people develop a fear of
entering unfamiliar situations.
a) Social phobias
b) Agoraphobia
c) Specific phobias
d) None of the above
Chapter 4: Psychological Disorders
Ans: b) Agoraphobia
Q 3.________________ is diagnosed if a person has a persistent belief that
s/he has a serious illness, despite medical reassurance, lack of
physical findings, and failure to develop the disease.
a) Somatisation disorders
b) Conversion disorders
c) Dissociative disorders
d) Hypochondriasis
Chapter 4: Psychological Disorders
Ans: d) Hypochondriasis
Q 4.________________ is characterised by extensive but selective memory
loss that has no known organic cause.
a) Dissociative amnesia
b) Dissociative fugue
c) Dissociative identity disorder
d) None of the above
Chapter 4: Psychological Disorders
Ans: a) Dissociative amnesia
Q 5.In children's aggressive behaviour like dominating and bullying
others without provocation is seen in :
a) verbal aggression
b) physical aggression
c) hostile aggression
d) proactive aggression
Chapter 4: Psychological Disorders
Ans: d) proactive aggression
Q 6.Inattention and hyperactivity-impulsivity are main features of :
a) Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
b) Oppositional Defiant Disorde
c) Conduct Disorder
d) None of the above
Chapter 4: Psychological Disorders
Ans: a)Attention-deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
Q 7.People with somatoform disorders mostly complain about :
a) inability to stop thinking about a particular idea or topic
b) recurrent anxiety attacks
c) bodily symptoms without any physical disease
d) All of the above
Chapter 4: Psychological Disorders
Ans: c) bodily symptoms without any physical disease
A chronic illness is best described as:
a long-term condition that has the ability to be treated but never cured
a condition which can be treated and cured with the correct therapy and/or medication

a condition which may be treated and will be cured within six months to one year
a condition which has the ability to be treated and cured immediately
Next
Worksheet

1. Which of the following characteristics are NOT associated with a

chronic illness?
a. Illness will subside and be cured with effective treatment and/or therapy
b. Illness normally has a gradual onset
c. The illness can cause a significant decrease in the quality of your life
d. The illness can also affect other organs at the same time and can lead to
secondary illnesses
2. What is a common side effect of a chronic illness and can affect up
to one-third of those who suffer from chronic illnesses?
a. Depression
b. Nausea
c. Diarrhea
d. Fatigue

Morse and Johnson (1991) proposed a generic model of the

emotional and coping responses from the onset of symptoms
through to living with a chronic illness. Which of the following
is not included in their model?
Uncertainty

Striving for recovery

Dysphoria

Disruption

Adjustment or adaptation offer different meanings depending on the

perspective taken. From a biopsychosocial perspective adaptation is likely to
consider:
lack of distress, emotional well-being, cognitive adaptation and psychiatric
morbidity.

emotions, cognitions and coping responses, pathology and nature and extent of
social functioning.

symptom reduction, pathology, physical adjustment.

None of the above

The cognitive adaptational model provided by Shelley Taylor (1983) centred
around which three themes?
Restoring self-esteem, searching for meaning and acceptance of the situation

Searching for meaning, restoring self-esteem and motivation to face challenges

Restoring self-esteem, attempting to gain control and searching for meaning

Attempting to gain control, restoring self-esteem and gaining equilibrium

Taylor's (1983) approach to adjustment differs to the stage models by not

doing what?
It does not categorise people

It does not impose sequencing

It allows for differing perspectives

It creates expectations to responses

What percentage of people with leukaemia and lymphoma reported moderate

to severe levels of depression (Montgomery et al. 2003)?
46%
 62%

70%

51%

What percentage of the diabetic population was found to have clinical levels of
anxiety by Grigsby et al. (2002)?
14%

12%

10%

16%

What proportions of patients with coronary heart disease are thought to be

clinically depressed?
A quarter

A third (or more)

All

Half
How long can depression persist following discharge from hospital after a heart
attack (Lane et al., 2002)?
12 months

6 months

9 months

18 months

According to Constanzo et al. (2007), what emotion has frequently been

reported by cancer patients and their carers on discharge from hospital?
Abandonment

Relief

Vulnerability

Anxiety

According to Massie (2004), what are the prevalence rates of depression

among people who are dying?
 10-20%

30-37%

4-8%

12-26%

Kubler-Ross (1969) described a five staged reactive process to dying. Which of

the following is not one of these stages?
Acceptance

Regret

Bargaining

Shock

Select the answer that correctly fills in the blank below.

Not all patients reach a point where they are accepting of moving toward
death. Hinton (1999) followed cancer patients over time and found that
______ of the patients were 'accepting' of death.
all

a quarter
 a third

half

Select the answer that correctly fills in the blank below.

The effects of negative emotional reactions to illness are of importance
because depression is a significant cause of ______ among the physically ill.
mortality

disability

morbidity

All of the above

A number of studies report that those facing significant health or life stressors,
often also report gains from their experiences. In which larger framework do
these studies fit?
Post traumatic increase

Post traumatic progress

Post traumatic escalation

Post traumatic growth

Which of the following is not one of the five domains of positive change
following stress or trauma?
A valued change in life priorities and goals

A sense of increased personal well-being

Greater appreciation for life

Enhanced personal relationships

What percentage of people in Western and Eastern Europe are reported by a

Gallup survey to feel that god was important in their lives?
28%

49%

62%

83%

What percentage of those who had a heart attack or developed breast cancer
reported some personal gains over the first 3 months (Petrie et al., 1999)?
 45%

60%

58%

51%

Select the answer that correctly fills in the blank below.

Park (2006) reported that religiousness was associated with higher ______ in
the face of general stress.
perceived challenge appraisals

meaning making appraisals

personal growth

All of the above

Which of the following is one of the adaptive tasks required as a result of

chronic illness (Moos and Schaefer 1984)?
Dealing with changes in relationships with family and friends

Managing dietary needs

Maintaining spiritual beliefs

 Rising to the challenges of the illness

Moos and Shaeffer (1984) identified which of these processes as consequence

of illness?
Coping skills

All of the above

Adaptive tasks

Cognitive appraisal

Illness impacts on the family and it can disrupt the 'family system'. McCubbin
and Patterson (1982) observed three stages in the adaptation for the family:
the stage of resistance, the stage of restructuring, and the stage of ______.
unification

dissolution

consolidation

incorporation
McCubbin and Patterson (1983) studied children with cystic fibrosis and
revealed three factors associated with parental coping. What were the three
factors?
Relationships with medical staff and other parents of ill children; focusing on
family life and relationships; maintenance of well-being through social
relationships

Maintenance of well-being through social relationships; relationships with

medical staff and other parents of ill children; acknowledging reality

Adopting new roles to aid recovery; focusing on family life and relationships and
developing new coping strategies

Focusing on family life and relationships; maintenance of well-being through

social relationships; focusing on treatment

According to Carers UK (2007), approximately how many informal carers are

there based in the UK?
6 million

3.7 million

4.7 million

5.7 million

The benefits of social support in times of poor health or stress include:

increased adherence to treatment and self-care.

 reduced mortality or increased survival.

less distress/better emotional adjustment.

All of the above

Data obtained from 169 newly married couples, suggested that women are
better at providing support than men in what particular area?
The amount of support they provide

The responsiveness to changing needs

The skills utilised in giving the support

All of the above

According to research carried out by researchers such as Wells (1999) what

factors are likely to affect caregiver well-being?
The degree of intrinsic motivation they experience

The degree of extrinsic motivation they experience

Their relationship with the cared-for person

All of the above

What percentage of carers over the age of 70 years responded to the influenza
vaccination Kiecolt-Glaser et al. (1996)?
23.3%

32.7%

53.8%

70%

Which of the following has not been identified as a 'deep-seated' source of

stress for care-givers?
Feelings of guilt

Feelings of anger

Feelings of grief

The emotional demands

According to Chronister and Chan (2006), caregiver quality of life could best be
explained by:
 discrepancies in illness beliefs between the care-giver and the cared-for person.

the type of relationship with the patient/cared-for person.

a combination of perceived burden and perceived mastery in relation to caring.

their coping style.

Select the answer that correctly fills in the blanks below.

A carer's response to the patient's situation may influence their wellbeing, for
example, through the use of ______ and ______.
denial; disengagement

denial; inhibition

inhibition; dissatisfaction

dissatisfaction; disengagement