Module 5 & 7

MODULE 05
FOR B-1 LEVEL CERTIFICATION

DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENT SYSTEMS
AVIATION MAINTENANCE TECHNICIAN CERTIFICATION SERIES
Q. No. 2. Analog circuits are different from digital circuits in that they do not have two set values,
such as:
a. 0 volts representing "OFF" and 5 volts representing "ON".
b. 1 volts representing "OFF" and 5 volts representing "ON".
c. 2 volts representing "OFF" and 5 volts representing "ON".
Correct answer: a. 0 volts representing "OFF" and 5 volts representing "ON".
Ref: Digital Techniques Electronic Instrument Systems 5.3.2
Q. No. 3. AC (alternating current) analog signals can be:
a. Bipolar.
b. Unipolar.
c. Polar.
Correct answer: a. Bipolar.
Q. No. 4. AC synchro transmitter that varies in value (amplitude) from:

a. 0 volts to its +6 volt limit and returns to 0 volts before moving to its -5 volt limit.
b. 0 volts to its +5 volt limit and returns to 0 volts before moving to its -5 volt limit.
c. 0 volts to its +4 volt limit and returns to 0 volts before moving to its -5 volt limit.
Correct answer: b. 0 volts to its +5 volt limit and returns to 0 volts before moving to its -5 volt
limit.
Q. No. 5. Analog signals have the advantage in that they can represent any functional quantity,
such as:
a. Time and pressure.
b. Time, temperature and pressure.
c. Temperature and pressure.
Correct answer: b. Time, temperature and pressure.
Q. No. 6. Aircraft fuel quantity and oil pressure are:

a. Analog synchro systems.
b. Digital synchro systems.
c. Both digital and analog synchro systems.
Correct answer: a. Analog synchro systems.
Q. No. 7. All synchro’s, the transmitter rotor turns proportional to the pressure sensed, which
vary:
a. The voltages set up in the windings of the synchro stator.
b. The voltages set up in the windings of the synchro rotor.
c. The voltages set up in the windings of the both synchro stator and rotor.
Correct answer: a. The voltages set up in the windings of the synchro stator.
Q. No. 8. Analog circuits and devices vary:
a. Frequently in both time and value from high to low.
b. Repeatedly in both time and value from high to low.
c. Continuously in both time and value from high to low.
Correct answer: c. Continuously in both time and value from high to low.
Q. No. 9. Digital data are

a. Discrete and discontinuous representations of information.
b. Alternate and continuous representations of information.
c. Frequent and continuous representations of information.
Correct information: a. Discrete and discontinuous representations of information.
Q. No. 10. Digital signals are different from analog signals in that there are:
a. only one (binary) levels of voltage: high for "ON".
b. only one (binary) levels of voltage low for "OFF".
c. only two (binary) levels of voltage: high for "ON" and low for "OFF".
Correct answer: c. only two (binary) levels of voltage: high for "ON" and low for "OFF".
Q. No. 11. In digital system, when a switch is:

a. ON it represents the digit 1, and when it is OFF, it represents the digit 0.
b. ON it represents the digit 2, and when it is OFF, it represents the digit 0.
c. ON it represents the digit 0, and when it is OFF, it represents the digit 0.
Correct answer: a. ON it represents the digit 1, and when it is OFF, it represents the digit 0.
Q. No. 12. An Analog-to-Digital Converter (ADC) is a device that:

a. Converts a frequently input voltage to a digital data stream.
b. Converts a continuous input voltage to a digital data stream.
c. Converts a continuous output voltage to a digital data stream.
Correct answer: b. Converts a continuous input voltage to a digital data stream.
Q. No. 13. The ADC performs conversions periodically by sampling and quantizing the input
signal:
a. Over a very short period of time.
b. Over a very long period of time.
c. Over a short period of time.
Correct answer: a. Over a very short period of time.
Q. No. 14. To begin the analog-to-digital data conversion process, the voltage range is divided
into:
a. 2ⁿ equal bins and then sampled frequently.
b. 2ⁿ equal bins and then sampled repeatedly.
c. 2ⁿ equal bins and then sampled continuously.
Correct answer: c. 2ⁿ equal bins and then sampled continuously.
Ref: Digital Techniques Electronic Instrument Systems5. 3.3
Q. No. 15. The first sample generates binary output 01 to represent 1 volt measured at the first
interval, and the second sample results in a binary output of:
a. 10 which represents 2 volts at the second interval, and so on.
b. 12 which represents 2 volts at the second interval, and so on.
c. 16 which represents 2 volts at the second interval, and so on.
Correct answer: a. 10 which represents 2 volts at the second interval, and so on.
Q. No. 16. Quantization error can be reduced by:

a. Generating less bits per sample, with each bit occupying less of the overall voltage range.
b. Generating more bits per sample, with each bit occupying less of the overall voltage range.
c. Generating bits per sample, with each bit occupying less of the overall voltage range.
Correct answer: b. Generating more bits per sample, with each bit occupying less of the overall
voltage range.
Q. No. 17. A 4-bit ADC will sample:

a. 16 voltage bands, which is its decimal equivalent value of dynamic range.
b. 22 voltage bands, which is its decimal equivalent value of dynamic range.
c. 24 voltage bands, which is its decimal equivalent value of dynamic range.
Correct answer: a. 16 voltage bands, which is its decimal equivalent value of dynamic range.
Q. No. 18. Digital information stored on Digital Video Discs (DVD) and Compact Disc (CD) use
DACs to convert:
a. Digital data streams to analog music.
b. Digital data streams to analog music and video signals.
c. Analog data streams to digital music and video signals.
Correct answer: b. Digital data streams to analog music and video signals.
Q. No. 19. A DAC is a device that reconstructs finite-precision time series data in to a
continuously varying signal, which theoretically can have:
a. An infinite number of states.
b. Definite number of states.
c. Number two states.
Correct answer: a. An infinite number of states.
Q. No. 20. DAC converts:

a. A binary output to a matching decimal number that corresponds to the input voltage.
b. A binary input to a matching decimal number that corresponds to the output voltage.
c. A binary output to a matching decimal number that corresponds to the input and output
voltage.
Correct answer: b. A binary input to a matching decimal number that corresponds to the output
voltage.
Q. No. 21. Reconstruction noise, as well as sampling noise from quantization, not only combine
in the final signal, but also compound over multiple stages of conversion resulting in a loss of:
a. Quality of the original signal.
b. Fidelity, of the original signal.
c. Quality, or fidelity, of the original signal.
Correct answer: c. Quality, or fidelity, of the original signal.
Q. No. 22. A prime example of an everyday device that converts analog signals to digital and
back to analog signals is:
a. A telephone.
B A microphone.
c. A gramophone.
Correct answer: a. A telephone.
Q. No. 23. The microphone on the phone receives sound pressure from the sender’s voice, which
produces:
a. An analog signal.
b. A digital signal.
c. Both analog and digital signal.
Correct answer: a. An analog signal.
Q. No. 24. It is well known that the quality of the sender’s voice on the phone will always be of:
a. High quality as compared to hearing the person speak in person.
b. Good quality as compared to hearing the person speak in person.
c. Less quality as compared to hearing the person speak in person.
Correct answer: c. Less quality as compared to hearing the person speak in person.
MODULE 05
DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
5.4 DATA BUSES
Q No. 1. An integrated avionics system consists of various subsystems and components that need
to:
a. Communicate with each other in order to share information.
b. Share information.
c. Communicate with each other.
Correct answer: a. Communicate with each other in order to share information.
Q. No. 2. In order to reduce aircraft weight and increase reliability, it became necessary to:
a. Decrease the amount of aircraft wiring.
b. Decrease the amount of aircraft connectors.
c. Decrease the amount of aircraft wiring and connectors.
Correct answer: c. Decrease the amount of aircraft wiring and connectors.
Q. No. 3. Avionics system designers began using ADCs and DACs with serial point-to-point
digital data buses requiring only:
a. Two twisted pairs of wires connecting single data transmitters and single data receivers.
b. One twisted pairs of wires connecting single data transmitters.
c. One twisted pairs of wires connecting single data receivers.
Correct answer: a. Two twisted pairs of wires connecting single data transmitters and single data
receivers.
Q. No. 4. Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM) enabled different forms of information to be

transmitted through:
a. One communication system.
b. Between two communication system.
c. Among three communication system.
Correct answer: a. One communication system.
Q. No. 5. The TDM concept had evolved from single data source and single data sink to multiple
data sources and multiple data sinks residing on
a. A single multiplex bus.
b. A double multiplex bus.
c. A triple multiplex bus.
Correct answer: a. A single multiplex bus.
Q. No. 6. The Bus Monitor (BM) monitors the status of each transfer to determine that the data
was:
a. Successful transmitted and received.
b. Successful transmitted and received error free.
c. Successful received error free.
Correct answer: b. Successful transmitted and received error free.
Q. No. 7. Isolation transformers can be either directly coupled with:

a. No more than a 1 foot stub length, or transformer coupled with a maximum stub length of 20
feet.
b. More than a 1 foot stub length, or transformer coupled with a maximum stub length of 20 feet.
c. No more than a 2 foot stub length, or transformer coupled with a maximum stub length of 20
feet.
Correct answer: a. No more than a 1 foot stub length, or transformer coupled with a maximum
stub length of 20 feet.
Q. No. 8. The command word tells the RT:

a. To receive data, transmit data, or to switch modes.
b. To receive data and transmit data.
c. To Transmit data and or to switch modes.
Correct answer: a. To receive data, transmit data, or to switch modes.
Q. No. 9. Aeronautical Radio Incorporated (ARINC) was formed in

a. 1919.
b. 1929.
c. 1939.
Correct answer: b. 1929.
Q. No. 10. ARINC 429 has a:

a. Self-clocking and self-synchronizing data bus protocol.
b. Self-synchronizing data bus protocol.
c. Self-clocking.
Correct answer: a. Self-clocking and self-synchronizing data bus protocol.
Q. No. 11. A629 data bus, used in the Boeing 777, has a data rate of 2 Mbps, which is 20 times
faster than A429, and can handle:
a. 130 terminals instead of only 20.
b. 131 terminals instead of only 20.
c. 132 terminals instead of only 20.
Correct answer: b. 131 terminals instead of only 20.
Q. No. 12. Each data frame contains of a source address and destination address, in addition to
error checking so that:
a. Damaged data can be detected.
b. The data frame retransmitted if required.
c. Damaged data can be detected and the data frame retransmitted if required.
Correct answer: c. Damaged data can be detected and the data frame retransmitted if required.
Q. No. 13. ARINC 664 Avionics Full-Duplex Switched (AFDX) network, currently being used
in:
a. The Airbus A380 and the Boeing 787.
b. The Airbus A380.
c. The Airbus A380, the Boeing 777 and the Boeing 787.
Correct answer: a. The Airbus A380 and the Boeing 787.
Q. No. 14. AFDX network topology consists of:

a. Switches for traffic policing and LRU terminals for traffic shaping.
b. Switches for traffic policing and integrity checking.
c. Switches for traffic policing and LRU terminals for traffic shaping and integrity checking.
Correct answer: c. Switches for traffic policing and LRU terminals for traffic shaping and
integrity checking.
Q. No. 15. The switches and the terminals communicate with each other:
a. Simultaneously (full-duplex) to prevent data collisions.
b. Continuously to prevent data collisions.
c. Repeatedly to prevent data collisions.
Correct answer: a. Simultaneously (full-duplex) to prevent data collisions.
Q. No. 16. AFDX data words will contain:
a. Destination and source addresses.
b. Destination and the frame size can be anywhere from 64 to 1518 bytes.
c. Destination and source addresses and the frame size can be anywhere from 64 to 1518 bytes.
Correct answer: c. Destination and source addresses and the frame size can be anywhere from 64
to 1518 bytes.
Q. No. 17. IEEE 1394 Firewire Management System for:

a. Flight control, engine control and utility systems control, due to its large bandwidth and fault-
tolerant topology.
b. Flight control and utility systems control, due to its large bandwidth and fault-tolerant
topology.
c. Engine control and utility systems control, due to its large bandwidth and fault-tolerant
topology.
Correct answer: a. Flight control, engine control and utility systems control, due to its large
bandwidth and fault-tolerant topology.
Q. No. 18. IEEE 1394 FIREWIRE has since become popular for aircraft in-flight entertainment
systems for streaming high speed video signals due to its high data rate of up to:
A. 800 Mbps.
B. 700 Mbps.
c. 600 Mbps.
Correct answer: a. 800 Mbps.
MODULE 05
DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
5.5 LOGIC CIRCUITS
Q. No. 1 Transistors are used in digital electronics to construct circuits that act as:
a. Digital logic gates.
b. Analog Logic gates.
C. Analog and Digital logic gates.
Correct answer: a. Digital logic gates.
Q. No. 2. By combining any number of these tiny solid-state gates:

a. Significant memorization, manipulation, and calculation of information can be performed.
b. Significant memorization and calculation of information can be performed.
c. Manipulation and calculation of information can be performed.
Correct answer: a. Significant memorization, manipulation, and calculation of information can be
performed.
Q. No. 3. The NOT gate can be constructed with:

a. Transistors to yield this electrical logic every time.
b. Resistors to yield this electrical logic every time.
c. Transistors and resistors to yield this electrical logic every time.
Correct answer: c. Transistors and resistors to yield this electrical logic every time.
Q. No. 4. Logic NOT gate is built with:
a. Bipolar junction transistors, resistors, and a few diodes.
b. Bipolar junction transistors, resistors, and a many diodes.
c. Unipolar junction transistors, resistors, and a few diodes.
Correct answer: a. Bipolar junction transistors, resistors, and a few diodes.
Q. No. 5. The NAND gate is a combination of an:

a. AND gate and a NOT gate.
b. Not gate and a OR gate.
C. AND gate, OR gate and a NOT gate.
Correct answer: a. AND gate and a NOT gate.
Q. No. 6. The NOR gate output values are exactly the:

a. Opposite of the OR gate output values.
b. Opposite of the NOT gate output values.
c. Opposite of the AND gate output values.
Correct answer: a. Opposite of the OR gate output values.
Q. No. 7. With an EXCLUSIVE OR gate, if both inputs are Logic 1,

a. The Logic 1 output is excluded and results in Logic 0.
b. The Logic 1 output is excluded and results in Logic 1.
C. The Logic 1 input is excluded and results in Logic 0.
Correct answer: a. The Logic 1 output is excluded and results in Logic 0.
Q. No. 8. The EXCLUSIVE NOR gate produces a:

a. 1 output when all inputs are 1s and also when all inputs are 1s.
b. 1 output when all inputs are 1s and also when all inputs are 0s.
c. 1 output when all inputs are 0s and also when all inputs are 0s
Correct answer: b. 1 output when all inputs are 1s and also when all inputs are 0s.
Q. No. 9. TTL logic circuit elements are primarily:

a. Bipolar semiconductor components connected together to produce a consistent output.
b. Unipolar semiconductor components connected together to produce a consistent output.
c. Bipolar semiconductor components connected together to produce a consistent input.
Correct answer: a. Bipolar semiconductor components connected together to produce a consistent
output.
Q. No. 10. By using a series of voltage and/or no-voltage outputs:

a. A logic circuit manipulates and stores data.
b. A logic circuit manipulates, computes, and stores data.
c. A logic circuit manipulates and computes.
Correct answer: b. A logic circuit manipulates, computes, and stores data.
Q. No. 11. CMOS transistor output is triggered by:

a. Lower voltage.
b. Higher voltage and does not rely on current flow through the base emitter junction.
c. Lower voltage and does not rely on current flow through the base emitter junction.
Correct answer: c. Lower voltage and does not rely on current flow through the base emitter
junction.
Q. No. 12. Aircraft logic circuit consists of:
a. A 2-input NOR gate and a 2-Input AND gate.
b. A 3-input NOR gate and a 3-Input AND gate.
c. A 4-input NOR gate and a 4-Input AND gate.
Correct answer: b. A 3-input NOR gate and a 3-Input AND gate.
MODULE 05
DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
5.10 FIBER OPTICS
Q. No. 1. Coaxial cable, also known as coax, consists of a center wire conductor:
a. Surrounded by a semi-rigid insulator.
b. Surrounded by a rigid insulator.
c. Covered by a rigid insulator.
Correct answer: a. Surrounded by a semi-rigid insulator.
Q. No. 2 Aircraft networks, such as AFDX and Firewire, with data rates running as high as:
a. 100 Mbps require the use of fiber optic cables.
b. 1000 Mbps require the use of fiber optic cables.
c. 2000 Mbps require the use of fiber optic cables.
Correct answer: b. 1000 Mbps require the use of fiber optic cables.
Q. No. 3. When installing fiber cable, care must be taken not to exceed its recommended bend
radius since:
a. A sharp bend will decrease the tensile strength and may snap the glass.
b. A sharp bend will decrease the tensile strength.
c. May snap the glass.
Correct answer: a. A sharp bend will decrease the tensile strength and may snap the glass.
Q. No. 4. Optical cables made from silica glass fibers have the lowest attenuation, and as such,
are widely used in the telecommunications industry for:
a. Large bandwidths.
b. Long distances.
c. Large bandwidths and long distances.
Correct answer: c. Large bandwidths and long distances.
Q. No. 5. Optical cables are generally more expensive and require the use of:
a. Optical transmitters and receivers.
b. Optical transmitters.
c. Optical receivers.
Correct answer: a. Optical transmitters and receivers.
Q. No. 6. A basic fiber optic link connects two electrical circuits from the data source to the data
sink (user) using:
a. A light source, transmitter and receiver to provide information to the user.
b. A light source, fiber optic cable and receiver to provide information to the user.
c. A light source, transmitter, fiber optic cable, and receiver to provide information to the user.
Correct answer: c. A light source, transmitter, fiber optic cable, and receiver to provide
information to the user.
Q. No. 7. Fiber-optic cables that are available:

a. Single mode.
b. Multimode.
c. Single mode and multimode.
Correct answer: c. Single mode and multimode.
Q. No. 8. Single-mode fiber uses a single direct beam of light, thus allowing for:
a. Greater distances and increased transfer speeds.
b. Greater distances.
c. Increased transfer speed.
Correct answer: c. Greater distances and increased transfer speeds.
Q. No. 9. Fibers must be checked for:

a. Precise perpendicularity.
b. End finish prior to termination.
c. Precise perpendicularity and end finish prior to termination.
Correct answer: c. Precise perpendicularity and end finish prior to termination.
Q. No. 10. The excess fiber is removed and then:

a. Polished to the desired length and optical finish.
b. Polished to the desired length.
c. Optical finish.
Correct answer: a. Polished to the desired length and optical finish.
Q. No. 11. A coupler is a device that has:
a. Multiple input ports for light to travel.
b. Multiple output ports for light to travel.
c. Multiple input or output ports for light to travel.
Correct answer: c. Multiple input or output ports for light to travel.
Q. No. 12. It is important to note that fiber optic cable breakages do not cause:
a. Intermittent failures, unlike copper wire.
b. Intermittent failures, like copper wire.
c. Intermittent failures.
Correct answer: a. Intermittent failures, unlike copper wire.
MODULE 05
DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
5.11. ELECTRONIC DISPLAYS
Q. No. 1. As previously stated, "glass cockpits" evolved in the:
a. Early 1970’s.
b. After 1970’s.
c. Early 1980’s.
Correct: answer: a. Early 1970’s.
Q. No. 2. In a color display, the screen is coated with a pattern of phosphor dots doped to emit
three primary colors:
a. Red, Green and Blue.
b. Red, Yellow and Blue.
c. Red, Orange and Blue
Correct answer: a. Red, Green and Blue.
Q. No. 3 The electrons are accelerated through a hole in the:

a. Anode by the voltage difference between the cathode and the anode.
b. Cathode by the voltage difference between the cathode and the anode.
c. Cathode and anode by the voltage difference between the cathode and the anode.
Correct answer: a. Anode by the voltage difference between the cathode and the anode.
Q. No. 4. The light intensity is changed by changing the anode voltage, which can be as high as:
a. 10 000 volts.
b. 20 000 volts.
c. 30 000 volts.
Correct answer: b. 20 000 volts.
Q. No. 5. The electron beam is steered by:

a. Vertical defection plates on to any position on the screen.
b. Horizontal defection plates on to any position on the screen.
c. Horizontal and vertical defection plates on to any position on the screen.
Correct answer: Horizontal and vertical defection plates on to any position on the screen.
Q. No. 7. CRTs typically have a 60 Hz refresh rate meaning that the screen is updated every:
a. 1/60 of a second or 16.7 milliseconds.
b. 1/60 of a second
c. 16.7 milliseconds.
Correct answer: a. 1/60 of a second or 16.7 milliseconds.
Q. No. 8. Raster is well suited for quickly filling in the background for:
a. Artificial horizon and weather radar display formats.
b. Artificial horizon and digital map.
c. Artificial horizon, digital map and weather radar display formats.
Correct answer: c. Artificial horizon, digital map and weather radar display formats.
Q. No.9. The image on the CRT is made by sweeping the electron beam horizontally from:
a. Left to right, one line after the other.
b. Left to right.
c. One line after the other.
Correct answer: a. Left to right, one line after the other.
10. The human eye will not notice the flicker of the image if the image changes at least every:
a. 25 milliseconds.
b. 30 milliseconds.
c. 35 milliseconds.
Correct answer: b. 30 milliseconds.
Q. No. 11. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) operate on the principle of:
a. Electroluminescence.
b. Electromagnetic.
c. Hydroelectric.
Correct answer: a. Electroluminescence.
Q. No. 12. LEDs are used for:

a. Indicator lights and digital readouts.
b. Backlighting of liquid crystal display screens and light sources for fiber optic transmitters.
c. a and b are correct.
Correct answer: c. a and b are correct.
Q. No. 13. As a cockpit display, LEDs have very good brightness and contrast; however, their
resolution is limited to only about:
a. 64 cells per inch.
b. 66 cells per inch.
c. 68 cells per inch.
Correct answer: a. 64 cells per inch.
Q. No. 14. Liquid crystals consist of molecules that are:

A. Elongated.
b. Elongated. or rod-shaped.
c. Rod-shaped.
Correct answer: b. Elongated. or rod-shaped.
Q. No. 15. When an electric force field is applied to the liquid crystal cell in a direction normal to
the cell’s grooved surfaces:
a. The molecules will align with the field.
b. The twisting effect will be destroyed.
c. The molecules will align with the field and the twisting effect will be destroyed.
Correct answer: c. The molecules will align with the field and the twisting effect will be
destroyed.
Q. No. 16. AMLCDs are considerably:

a. More sophisticated and thus more expensive.
b. Sophisticated and expensive.
c. Simple and expensive.
Correct answer: c. More sophisticated and thus more expensive.
Q. No. 17. The TFTs connect the pixels to power from the data line when:
a. They are turned on.
b. They are turned off.
c. They are turned on and off.
Correct answer: a. They are turned on.
Q. No. 18. By choosing different levels of bias it is possible to have:
a. Many shades of gray.
b. Many intensities of color.
c. Many shades of gray or many intensities of color.
Correct answer: c. Many shades of gray or many intensities of color.
MODULE 05
DIGITAL TECHNIQUES
5.15. TYPICAL ELECTRONIC/DIGITAL AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS
Q. No. 1. Most of the electronics in the Boeing 777 reside in the main equipment center racks
located:
a. Under the cockpit floor and above the nose gear wheel well.
b. Under the cockpit floor.
c. Above the nose gear wheel well.
Correct answer: a. Under the cockpit floor and above the nose gear wheel well.
Q. No. 2. The flight control electronics and air data/ inertial reference unit are located on the:
a. Bottom two shelves of the E1 and E2 racks.
b. Top two shelves of the E1 and E2 racks.
c. Bottom one shelves of the E1 rack.
Correct answer: a. Bottom two shelves of the E1 and E2 racks.
Q. No. 3. The cabin electronics are situated immediately:

a. Above that in the second shelf from the bottom.
b. Above that in the third shelf from the bottom.
c. Under that in the third shelf from the top.
Correct answer: b. Above that in the third shelf from the bottom.
Q. No. 4. Integrated Modular Avionics Information Systems used to control:

a. Onboard communications, navigation and surveillance systems.
b. Onboard communications and surveillance systems.
c. Onboard communications and navigation systems.
Correct answer: a. Onboard communications, navigation and surveillance systems.
Q. No. 5. AIMS contains the electronics for:

a. The Electronic Instrument System and Flight Management System and the Communications
Management System.
b. The Electronic Instrument System and Flight Management System.
c. The Electronic Instrument System and the Communications Management System.
Correct answer: a. The Electronic Instrument System and Flight Management System and the
Communications Management System.
Q. No. 6. The Boeing 777 EIS consists of:
a. A dual-redundant Electronic Flight Instrument Systems.
b. Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System.
c. A dual-redundant Electronic Flight Instrument Systems and Engine Indication and Crew
Alerting System.
Correct answer: c. A dual-redundant Electronic Flight Instrument Systems and Engine Indication
and Crew Alerting System.
Q. No. 7. On the left side of the instrument panel is the Captain’s EFIS, consisting of:
a. A Primary Flight Display (PFD) and a Navigation Display (ND).
b. A primary Flight Display (PFD).
c. A Navigation Display (ND).
Correct answer: a. A Primary Flight Display (PFD) and a Navigation Display (ND).
Q. No. 8. Two EICAS displays are located in the:

a. Front instrument panel.
b. Center instrument panel.
c. Aft instrument panel.
Correct answer: b. Center instrument panel.
Q. No. 9. The lower EICAS display is known as a:

a. Single-Function Display (SFD).
b. Double-Function Display (DFD).
c. Multi-Function Display (MFD).
Correct answer: c. Multi-Function Display (MFD).
Q. No. 10. The avionic system architectures that became well established in the:
a. Early- 1970’s.
b. Mid-1970’s.
c. Later-1970’s.
Correct answer: b. Mid-1970’s.
Q. No. 11. The disadvantage of the federated approach was that there was a duplication of
processors, memories, and power supplies making the overall system:
a. Much heavier and costly than it needed to be.
b. Much heavier.
c. Expensive.
Correct answer: a. Much heavier and costly than it needed to be.
Q. No. 12. The Integrated Modular Avionics (IMA) concept provides a more unified approach to
avionics design resulting in:
a. Considerable less volume.
b. Significant less weight.
c. Considerable less volume and weight.
Correct answer: c. Considerable less volume and weight.
Q. No. 13. High levels of fault detection and isolation are designed in the BITE which allows for
the replacement of a faulty module on the aircraft with the module being returned to the
manufacturer for:
a. Repair.
b. Overhaul.
c. Repair and Overhaul.
Correct answer: a. Repair
Q. No. 14. AIMS integrates

a. Multiple functions that require large quantities of data collection and processing.
b. Multiple functions that require Small quantities of data collection and processing.
c. Double functions that require large quantities of data collection and processing.
Correct answer: a. Multiple functions that require large quantities of data collection and
processing.
Q. No. 15. AIMS is stand for:

a. Avionic Information Management system.
b. Airplane Information Management system.
c. Airborne Information Management system.
Correct answer: b. Airplane Information Management system.
Q. No. 16. The MAT is a station with:

a. A display module, disk drive module and keyboard.
b. A display module, keyboard, and cursor control.
c. A display module, disk drive module, keyboard and cursor control.
Correct answer: c. A display module, disk drive module, keyboard and cursor control.
Q. No. 17. ACARS is stands for:

a. Aircraft Communication Addressing and Reporting System.
b. Avionic Communication Addressing and Reporting System.
c. Aeronautical Communication Addressing and Reporting System.
Correct answer: a. Aircraft Communication Addressing and Reporting System.
Q. No. 18. ACARS was originally called ARINC Communication Addressing and Reporting
System because it was developed by
a. ARINC in 1978.
b. ARINC in 1977.
c. ARINC in 1976.
Correct answer: a. ARINC in 1978.
Q. No. 19. The ARINC 597 standard defines the operation of the ACARS Management Unit,
which uses discrete (on/off) inputs from:
a. The landing gear doors and parking brake.
b. The landing gear doors and weight-on-wheels sensors.
c. The landing gear doors, parking brake and weight-on-wheels sensors.
Correct answer: c. The landing gear doors, parking brake and weight-on-wheels sensors.
Q. No. 20. ACARS also has a Medium Shift Keying modem that is used to transmit the OOOI
reports over existing:
a. VHF or HF radios.
b. VHF radios.
c. HF radios.
Correct answer: a. VHF or HF radios.
Q. No. 21. Traditional radio navigational aids, such as:

a. VOR require external ground-based references to provide a navigation solution.
b. DME require external ground-based references to provide a navigation solution.
c. VOR and DME, require external ground-based references to provide a navigation solution.
Correct answer: c. VOR and DME, require external ground-based references to provide a
navigation solution.
Q. No. 22. Inertial Reference Systems (IRS), are self-contained navigation aids that use:
a. Rotation sensors, motion sensors and a computer to continuously calculate the position.
b. Orientation and velocity of the aircraft.
c. a and b are correct.
Correct answer: c. a and b are correct.
Q. No. 23. Inertial navigation uses gyroscopes to measure:

a. Angular velocity.
b. Acceleration meters to measure linear acceleration.
c. Angular velocity and acceleration meters to measure linear acceleration.
Correct answer: c. Angular velocity and acceleration meters to measure linear acceleration.
Q. No. 24. The Inertial Measuring Unit (IMU) detects:

a. A change in geographic position, velocity and orientation.
B. A change in geographic position and velocity.
c. A change in geographic position and orientation.
Correct answer: a. A change in geographic position, velocity and orientation.
Q. No. 25. The flight crew enters an initial geographic position (latitude and longitude) on the
ground prior to:
a. Takeoff.
b. while in flight.
c. Takeoff and while in flight.
Correct answer: c. Takeoff and while in flight.
Q. No. 26. With a Strapdown IMU, the gyros and accelerometers for each axis are "strapped
down" to the aircraft thereby eliminating the need for:
a. Gimbals, bearings, or torque motors to stabilize the platform.
b. Gimbals and bearings to stabilize the platform.
c. Gimbals or torque motors to stabilize the platform.
Correct answer: a. Gimbals, bearings, or torque motors to stabilize the platform.
Q. No. 27. Strapdown systems use rate gyros to measure the change in angular velocity:
a. In each axis.
b. In lateral axis.
c. In longitudinal axis.
Correct answer: a. In each axis.
Q. No. 28. Digital computers make it possible to integrate the changes in pitch, roll and raw at a
rate of:
a. 2000 Hz providing extreme accuracy.
b. 3000 Hz providing extreme accuracy.
c. 4000 Hz providing extreme accuracy.
Correct answer: a. 2000 Hz providing extreme accuracy.
Q. No. 29. The Ring-Laser Gyro (RLG) is made from a triangular block of glass with two tunnels
drilled parallel to the:
a. Perimeter of the triangle.
b. with reflective mirrors placed in each corner.
c. Perimeter of the triangle and with reflective mirrors placed in each corner.
Correct answer: c. Perimeter of the triangle and with reflective mirrors placed in each corner.
Q. No.30. When high voltage is applied between the anodes and cathode, the gas becomes:
a. Ionized.
b. Forms two high energy light beams (lasers) that travel around the cavity in opposite
directions.
c. Ionized and forms two high energy light beams (lasers) that travel around the cavity in
opposite directions.
Correct answer: c. Ionized and forms two high energy light beams (lasers) that travel around the
cavity in opposite directions.
Q. No. 31. If the gyro was rotated on its axis, the path of:
a. One beam would be shortened.
b. Other beam would be lengthened.
c. One beam would be shortened and other beam would be lengthened.
Correct answer: c. One beam would be shortened and other beam would be lengthened.
Q. No. 32. Frequency difference, as measured by the photocell detectors at one end of the
triangle, is directly proportional to angular rate of turn about:
a. The gyro’s axis.
b. The lateral axis.
c. The longitudinal axis.
Correct answer: c. The gyro’s axis.
Q. No. 33. MEMS stands for:

a. Main-Electro-Mechanical System.
b. Micro-Electro-Mechanical System.
c. Maintenance-Electro-Mechanical System.
Correct answer: b. Micro-Electro-Mechanical System.
Q. No. 34. Through the use of solid-state MEMS devices:

a. Reliability is increased while weight is decreased.
b. Reliability is increased while weight and volume is decreased.
c. Reliability is increased and volume is decreased.
Correct answer: b. Reliability is increased while weight and volume is decreased.
Q. No. 35. Tiny vibrating piezoelectric IMUs with resistance and capacitance pick-offs are:
a. Accurate and reliable.
b. Accurate and only a few millimeters in length and width.
c. Accurate and reliable and only a few millimeters in length and width.
Correct answer: c. Accurate and reliable and only a few millimeters in length and width.
Q. No. 36. Small errors in acceleration and angular rate measurements propagate in time into
progressively:
a. Larger errors in velocity and position.
b. Larger errors in velocity.
c. Larger errors in position.
Correct answer: a. Larger errors in velocity and position.
Q. No. 37. The Global Positioning System is a space-based navigation system that was launched
by the U.S. Department of Defense in the
a. Early 1990’s.
b. After 1990’s.
c. Early 1980’s.
Correct answer: a. Early 1990’s.
Q. No. 38. GPS provides:

a. Position data and velocity rate.
b. Position data and system time.
c. Position data, velocity rate, and system time.
Correct answer: c. Position data, velocity rate, and system time.
Q. No. 39. The GPS receiver can determine elevation as well:

a. With measurements from four satellites.
b. With measurements from three satellites.
c. With measurements from two satellites.
Correct answer: a. With measurements from four satellites.
Q. No. 40. The GPS is an ideal reference for:

a. Realigning and recalibrating the INS during flight.
b. Realigning the INS during flight.
c. Recalibrating the INS during flight.
Correct answer: a. Realigning and recalibrating the INS during flight.
Q. No. 41. All contribute to airline profitability:

a. On-time take-offs and landings, fuel conservation, and long engine and component life.
b. On-time take-offs, landings and fuel conservation.
c. On-time take-offs, landings and long engine and component life.
Correct answer: a. On-time take-offs and landings, fuel conservation, and long engine and
component life.
Q. No. 42. The FMS helps achieve these results by operating the aircraft with:
a. Precision than humanly possible.
b. Much higher precision than humanly possible.
c. Much greater precision than humanly possible.
Correct answer: c. Much greater precision than humanly possible.
Q. No. 43. Prior to take-off, the flight crew inputs their initial geographic location (latitude and
longitude) and flight plans on one of the CDUs located in the:
a. Aft console.
b. Center console.
c. Forward console.
Correct answer: b. Center console.
Q. No. 44. The FMC computes:

a. The optimum flight path and to guide the aircraft to its final destination.
b. The optimum flight path and using a stored digital map terrain data base.
c. The optimum flight path, using a stored digital map terrain data base, to guide the aircraft to its
final destination.
Correct answer: c. The optimum flight path, using a stored digital map terrain data base, to guide
the aircraft to its final destination.
Q. No. 45 The FMC communicates with the Thrust Management System that drives the auto-
throttle to control:
a. Aircraft speed.
b. The automatic Flight Control System.
c. Aircraft speed, and the automatic Flight Control System.
Correct answer: c. Aircraft speed, and the automatic Flight Control System.
Q. No. 46. The FMC continually optimizes the flight path as variables, such as:
a. Wind speed, change during flight.
b. Wind speed and direction, change during flight.
c. Direction, change during flight.
Correct answer: b. Wind speed and direction, change during flight.
Q. No. 47. Each flight path has vertical, horizontal, and navigational components, which are
maintained by manipulating the:
a. Engine controls.
B. Airframe controls.
c. Engine and airframe controls.
Correct answer: c. Engine and airframe controls.
Q. No. 48. Commercial air carriers use the FMS to establish guidelines by which flights can be
flown to promote the company’s goals for:
a. Fuel and equipment conservation.
b. Fuel.
c. Equipment maintenance.
Correct answer: a. Fuel and equipment conservation.
Q. No. 49. The FMC communicates to the crew via the CDU to present its:
a. Planned action and gain consensus, or ask for an input.
b. Planned action, gain consensus, or ask for decision.
c. Planned action, gain consensus, or ask for an input or decision.
Correct answer: c. Planned action, gain consensus, or ask for an input or decision.
Q. No. 50. Traffic collision avoidance systems are transponder based air-to-air traffic:
a. Monitoring systems.
b. Alerting systems.
c. Monitoring and alerting systems.
Correct answer: c. Monitoring and alerting systems.
Q. No. 51. The TCAS unit typically receives inputs from the:
a. Air data computer and radar altimeter.
b. Air data computer.
c. Radar altimeter.
Correct answer: a. Air data computer and radar altimeter.
Q. No. 52. Primary flight controls are:

a. The elevator, ailerons, and rudder.
b. The elevator, ailerons, and High lift flaps.
c. The elevator and ailerons.
Correct answer: a. The elevator, ailerons, and rudder
Q. No. 53. Deployment of the flaps during takeoff or landing extends the flap sections rearward
and downward to:
a. Increase wing area and camber, thereby greatly increasing lift.
b. Decrease wing area and camber, thereby greatly increasing lift.
c. Increase wing area and camber, thereby greatly decreasing lift.
Correct answer: a. Increase wing area and camber, thereby greatly increasing lift.
Q. No. 54. The PFCs calculate the f light control commands based on the:
a. Flight control law algorithms and flight augmentation.
b. Flight control law algorithms and envelope protection software.
c. Flight control law algorithms, flight augmentation and envelope protection software.
Correct answer: c. Flight control law algorithms, flight augmentation and envelope protection
software.
Q. No. 55. The ADFCS is a closed-loop control system meaning that the actual position of the
control surface is fed back as an input signal to the flight control computer so that adjustments
can be made to:
a. Achieve and maintain the desired control settings.
b. Achieve the desired control settings.
c. Maintain the desired control settings.
Correct answer: a. Achieve and maintain the desired control settings.
Q. No 56. The PFCs receive autopilot commands from the three Autopilot Flight Director
Computers (AFDCs), which receive:
a. Flight navigation and guidance inputs from the FMS.
b. Flight navigation from the FMS.
c. Guidance inputs from the FMS.
Correct answer: a. Flight navigation and guidance inputs from the FMS.
Q. No. 57. The Proximity Electronics Unit monitors the position of the:
a. Landing gear, up-locks and down-locks.
b. All electrically controlled hydraulic selector values.
c. Landing gear, up-locks, down-locks, and all electrically controlled hydraulic selector values.
Correct answer: c. Landing gear, up-locks, down-locks, and all electrically controlled hydraulic
selector values
Q. No. 58. On board the aircraft, a communications manager computer in the cabin acts as the
server to pass the data to and from the SATCOM and distribute the data between:
a. The Wi-Fi access point and cellphone picocell.
b. The Wi-Fi access point and the IFE network.
c. The Wi-Fi access point, cellphone picocell and the IFE network.
Correct answer: c. The Wi-Fi access point, cellphone picocell and the IFE network.
Q. No. 59. The cabin crew can also send:

a. Live news, sports or entertainment.
b. Live news or weather feeds.
C. Live news, sports or weather feeds.
Correct answer: c. Live news, sports or weather feeds.
Q. No 60. A high bandwidth data bus network, such as Firewire, is used for sending and
receiving:
a. Broadband video.
b. Voice-Over-Internet Protocol (VOIP) data.
c. Broadband video and Voice-Over-Internet Protocol (VOIP) data.
Correct answer: c. Broadband video and Voice-Over-Internet Protocol (VOIP) data.
MODULE 07A
FOR B-1 & B-2 CERTIFICATION
MAINTENANCE PRACTICES
7.4 -Avionic General Text Equipment
Q. No. 1 BITE can be built in to
a. An individual LRU
b. A LRU or it can be part of a computerized maintenance system.
c. An individual LRU or it can be part of a computerized central maintenance system.
Correct answer: c. An individual LRU or it can be part of a computerized central maintenance
system.
Ref: Module 07 A - Maintenance Practices. 4.2
Q. No. 2. Built in test equipment is

a. A common feature on all modern aircraft.
b. A simple feature on all modern aircraft.
c. A main feature on all modern aircraft.
Correct answer: a. A common feature on all modern aircraft.
Q. No. 3. Signals are sent and received by the BITE to determine if there are any faults, to isolate
the faults, and to:
a. Verify correct operating parameters, especially after repair of an LRU.
b. Verify correct operating parameters, especially after repair. or replacement of an LRU.
c. Verify correct operating parameters, especially after replacement of an LRU.
Correct answer: b. Verify correct operating parameters, especially after repair. or replacement of
an LRU.
Q. No. 4. BITE displays are selected on

a. The central maintenance computer Control Display Units (CDU's).
b. The central maintenance computer.
c. The maintenance computer Control Display Units (CDU's).
Correct answer: a. The central maintenance computer Control Display Units (CDU's).
Q. No. 5. BITE CDU’s are typically located on:

a. The flight deck.
b. The avionics compartment
c. The flight deck and in the avionics compartment.
Correct answer: c. The flight deck and in the avionics compartment.
Q. No. 6. An automatic Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System (ACARS)

sends BITE maintenance data to the:
a. Ground maintenance station while the aircraft is en-route.
b. Ground maintenance center while the aircraft is en-route.
c. Maintenance station while the aircraft is en-route.
Correct answer: a. Ground maintenance station while the aircraft is en-route.
Q. No. 7. Latest generation maintenance diagnostic systems allow for wireless communication for
troubleshooting:
a. WiFi and cellular are used.
b. WiFi, cellular and satellite technologies are used.
c. WiFi, and satellite technologies are used.
Correct answer: b. WiFi, cellular and satellite technologies are used.
Q. No. 8. The maintenance function of BITE is accessible:

a. Only when the aircraft is on the ground.
b. Only when the aircraft is in the air.
c. When the aircraft is on the ground.
Correct answer: a. Only when the aircraft is on the ground
Ref: Module 07 A - Maintenance Practices. 4.3.
Q. No. 9 When a new test is selected, a complete check of circuitry and software occurs that
yields output data that is:
a. Recorded.
b. Both recorded and displayed.
c. Displayed.
Correct answer: b. Both recorded and displayed.
Q. No. 10. All troubleshooting and testing of aircraft electronic equipment

a. Is not preformed by built in test equipment.
b. Is preformed by built in test equipment
c. Is preformed by built in test equipment only.
Correct answer: a. Is not preformed by built in test equipment.
Q. No. 11. Trained technicians use a wide variety of avionics testing equipment
a. To investigate and repair the aircraft's electronic units and systems.
b. To investigate, test and repair the aircraft's electronic units and systems.
C. To investigate, test and repair the aircraft's electronic units.
Correct answer: b. To investigate, test and repair the aircraft's electronic units and systems.
Q. No. 12 Avionics test equipment can be classified into

a. Two categories: shop test equipment and portable test equipment.
b. Three categories: shop test equipment, base test equipment and portable test equipment.
c. One category: shop test equipment.
Correct answer: a. Two categories: shop test equipment and portable test equipment.
Q. No. 13. A modulized, remove and replace approach to avionics maintenance allows:
a. Quick and easy resolution of many avionics malfunctions.
b. Quick resolution of many avionics malfunctions.
c. Easy resolution of many avionics malfunctions.
Correct answer: a. Quick and easy resolution of many avionics malfunctions.
Q. No. 14. Analyzers can be:

a. Shop-based units.
b. Portable units.
c. Shop-based or portable units.
Correct answer: c. Shop-based or portable units.
Q No. 15. Many modern digital multimeters include expanded capabilities to measure:
a. Frequency, capacitance and temperature.
b. Frequency, temperature.
c. Frequency and capacitance.
Correct answer: a. Frequency, capacitance and temperature.
Q. No. 16. A connection is made to a portable laptop computer for:

a. Processing of information.
b. Display of information.
c. Processing and display of information.
Correct answer: c. Processing and display of information.
Q. No. 17. The technician should be aware of the dangers of high voltage and electrocution when
utilizing test equipment on:
a. Both energized and de-energized avionics.
b. Energized avionics only.
c. De-energized avionics.
Correct answer: a. Both energized and de-energized avionics.
Q. No. 18. Oscilloscopes include the time domain, they are useful in indicating rapid variations
such as:
a. AC voltages, pulses and complex waveforms.
b. AC voltages, pulses, spikes and complex waveforms.
c. AC voltages, spikes and complex waveforms.
Correct answer: b. AC voltages, pulses, spikes and complex waveforms.
Q. No.19. SSTDR's are found as small as a digital multimeter and directly state whether the
circuit is in:
a. An open or shorted state.
b. An open or longest state.
c. An open only.
Correct answer: a. An open or shorted state.
Q. No. 20. Typical instrumentation on pitot-static test equipment includes:

a. An altimeter and vertical speed indicator.
b. An altimeter, vertical speed indicator and airspeed indicators.
C. A vertical speed indicator and airspeed indicators.
Correct answer: b. An altimeter, vertical speed indicator and airspeed indicators.
Q, No. 21. Most analyzers will have a record mode of operation to capture data and display it:
a. Numerically or graphically.
b. Numerically.
C. Graphically.
Correct answer: a. Numerically or graphically.
Q. No. 22. The calibration intervals for test equipment varies with:
a. The type of equipment and environment.
b. The type of equipment, environment, and use.
c. The type of equipment and use.
Correct answer: b. The type of equipment, environment, and use.
Q No. 23. The data bus analyzer typically plugs into where an LRU is removed so that:
a. Incoming signals to the LRU can be evaluated.
b. Outgoing signals to the LRU can be evaluated.
c. Both Incoming and outgoing signals to the LRU can be evaluated.
Correct answer: a. Incoming signals to the LRU can be evaluated.
Q. No. 24. The accepted industry practice for calibration intervals is usually:
a. One year.
b. Two years.
c. Six months.
Correct answer: a. One year.
MODULE 07A
FOR B-1 & B-2 CERTIFICATION
MAINTENANCE PRACTICES
7. 7 - Electrical Wiring Interconnection System (EWIS)
Q. No. 1. An EWIS is any wire, wiring device, or combination of these, including termination
devices, installed in any area of the aircraft for the purpose of:
a. Transmitting electrical energy between two or more intended termination points.
b. Transmitting electrical energy between three or more intended termination points.
c. Transmitting electrical energy between four intended termination points.
Correct answer: a. Transmitting electrical energy between two or more intended termination
points.
Q. No. 2. Maximum dielectric strength values can be measured by:

a. Raising the voltage of a test sample until the insulation breaks down.
b. Raising and lowering the voltage of a test sample until the insulation breaks down.
c. Lowering the voltage of a test sample until the insulation breaks down.
Correct answer: a. Raising the voltage of a test sample until the insulation breaks down.
Q. No. 3 The type of conductor insulation material varies with:

a. The type of installation.
b. The Size and type of installation.
c. The size of installation.
Correct answer: a. The type of installation.
Q. No. 4. Wire may be required to operate at higher temperatures due either to:
a. High ambient temperatures and high current loading.
b. High ambient temperatures, high current loading, or a combination of the two.
c. High current loading.
Correct answer: b. High ambient temperatures, high current loading, or a combination of the two.
Q. No. 5. Inadequate bonding or grounding can lead to:

a. Unreliable operation of systems, electromagnetic interference (EMI) and personnel shock
hazard.
b. Electrostatic discharge damage to sensitive electronics and damage from lightning strike.
c. Both a and b are correct.
Correct answer: c. Both a and b are correct.
Q. No. 6. Power return fault currents are normally the:

a. Lowest currents flowing in a structure.
b. Highest currents flowing in a structure.
c. Medium currents flowing in a structure.
Correct answer: b. Highest currents flowing in a structure.
Q. No. 7. Equipment bonding-low-impedance paths to aircraft structure are normally required for
electronic equipment to provide:
a. Radio frequency return circuits.
b. Most electrical equipment to facilitate reduction in EMI.
c. Radio frequency return circuits and for most electrical equipment to facilitate reduction in
EMI.
Correct answer: c. Radio frequency return circuits and for most electrical equipment to facilitate
reduction in EMI.
Q. No. 8. The resistance of each connection should normally:

a. Not exceed 0.003 ohm.
b. More than 0.003 ohm.
c. Less than 0.003 ohm.
Correct answer: a. Not exceed 0.003 ohm.
Q. No. 9. Copper wire can be stripped in a number of ways depending on:

a. The size and insulation.
b. The size and weight.
c. The size weight and insulation.
Correct answer: a. The size and insulation.
Q. No. 10. Make sure insulation is:

A. Clean-cut with no frayed.
b. Clean-cut with no frayed or ragged edges.
c. Clean-cut with no frayed or ragged edges. Trim, if necessary.
Correct answer: c. Clean-cut with no frayed or ragged edges. Trim, if necessary.
Q. No. 11. Terminal strips should be mounted in such a manner that:

a. Loose metallic objects cannot fall across the terminals or studs.
b. Loose metallic objects cannot fall across the terminals.
c. Loose metallic objects cannot fall across the studs.
Correct answer: a. Loose metallic objects cannot fall across the terminals or studs.
Q. No. 12. It is good practice to provide at least one spare stud for:
a. Future circuit expansion.
b. In case a stud is broken.
c. Future circuit expansion or in case a stud is broken.
Correct answer: c. Future circuit expansion or in case a stud is broken.
Q. No. 13. Tightening terminal connections should not deform:

a. The terminal lugs.
b. The studs.
c. The terminal lugs or the studs.
Correct answer: c. The terminal lugs or the studs.
Q. No. 14. Crimping tools should be inspected:

a. Annually and on condition if excessive play is detected.
b. On condition if excessive play is detected.
c. Annually.
Correct answer: a. Annually and on condition if excessive play is detected.
Q. No. 15. Junction boxes are used for:

a. Collecting and distributing circuits to the appropriate harnesses.
b. Collecting, organizing, and distributing circuits to the appropriate harnesses that are attached to
the equipment.
c. Organizing, and distributing circuits to the appropriate harnesses that are attached to the
equipment.
Correct answer: b. Collecting, organizing, and distributing circuits to the appropriate harnesses
that are attached to the equipment.
Q. No. 16. The junction box arrangement should permit easy access to any installed items of:
a. Equipment, terminals, and wires.
b. Equipment and wires.
c. Terminals and wires.
Correct answer: a. Equipment, terminals, and wires.
Q. No. 17. Junction box layouts should take into consideration the necessity for:
a. Adequate wiring space.
b. Possible future additions.
c. Adequate wiring space and possible future additions.
Correct answer: c. Adequate wiring space and possible future additions.
Q. No. 18. Connectors must be identified by an original identification number derived from:
a. MIL Specification (MS) or Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) specification.
b. MIL Specification (MS).
c. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) specification.
Correct answer: a. MIL Specification (MS) or Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM)
specification.
Q. No. 19. Environment-resistant connectors are used in applications where they are probably
subjected to:
a. Fluids, vibration, mechanical shock and corrosive elements.
b. Fluids, vibration, heat, mechanical shock, corrosive elements.
c. Fluids, vibration, heat and corrosive elements.
Correct answer: b. Fluids, vibration, heat, mechanical shock, corrosive elements.
Q. No. 20. Plastic insertion and extraction tools are used to prevent damage to:
a. Contact retaining clips and insert materials.
b. Contact retaining clips.
c. Insert materials.
Correct answer: a. Contact retaining clips and insert materials.
Q. No. 21. Connectors must be installed in a manner that:

a. Ensures moisture drain out.
b. Ensures fluids drain out.
c. Ensures moisture and fluids drain out
Correct answer: c. Ensures moisture and fluids drain out.
Q. No. 22. Connectors must be mounted in a vertical position, as through a shelf or floor, the
connectors:
a. Must be potted.
b. Must be potted or environmentally sealed.
c. Must be environmentally sealed.
Correct answer: b. Must be potted or environmentally sealed.
Q. No. 23. Coaxial cable damage can occur when:

a. Clamped too tightly, or when they are bent sharply.
b. Clamped too tightly.
c. When they are bent sharply.
Correct answer: a. Clamped too tightly, or when they are bent sharply.
Q. No. 24. Coaxial cable consists of:

a. A conductor wrapped with a dielectric.
b. A conductor wrapped with insulator.
c. A conductor wrapped with a dielectric or insulator.
Correct answer: c. A conductor wrapped with a dielectric or insulator.
Q. No. 25. To ensure satisfactory service, inspect wire annually for:

a. Abrasions, defective insulation, condition of terminations, and potential corrosion.
b. Abrasions, defective insulation and potential corrosion.
c. Abrasions, condition of terminations, and potential corrosion.
Correct answer: a. Abrasions, defective insulation, condition of terminations, and potential
corrosion.
Q. No. 26. Whatever method of marking is used, the marking should be:
a. Legible.
b. The color should contrast with the wire insulation or sleeve.
c. Legible and the color should contrast with the wire insulation or sleeve.
Correct answer: c. Legible and the color should contrast with the wire insulation or sleeve.
Q. No. 27. Each wire harness for a particular aircraft installation is identical in:
a. Shape.
b. Shape, size and length.
c. Shape and length.
Correct answer: c. Shape and length.
Q. No. 28. Wires and wire bundles must be supported by:

a. Clamps or plastic cable straps.
b. Clamps.
c. Plastic cable straps.
Correct answer: a. Clamps or plastic cable straps.
Q. No. 29. Kinked or wrinkled bends in rigid conduits are:

a. Recommended and should be replaced.
b. Not recommended and should be replaced.
c. Should be replaced.
Correct answer: b. Not recommended and should be replaced.
Q. No 30. EWIS can be made to ensure:

a. Reduced degradation.
b. Provide a longer functional life.
c. Reduced degradation and provide a longer functional life.
Correct answer: c. Reduced degradation and provide a longer functional life.

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MODULE 05

FOR B-1 LEVEL CERTIFICATION

Q. No. 4. AC synchro transmitter that varies in value (amplitude) from:

Q. No. 6. Aircraft fuel quantity and oil pressure are:

Q. No. 9. Digital data are

Q. No. 11. In digital system, when a switch is:

Q. No. 12. An Analog-to-Digital Converter (ADC) is a device that:

Q. No. 16. Quantization error can be reduced by:

Q. No. 17. A 4-bit ADC will sample:

Q. No. 20. DAC converts:

Q. No. 4. Time-Division Multiplexing (TDM) enabled different forms of information to be

Q. No. 7. Isolation transformers can be either directly coupled with:

Q. No. 8. The command word tells the RT:

Q. No. 9. Aeronautical Radio Incorporated (ARINC) was formed in

Q. No. 10. ARINC 429 has a:

Q. No. 14. AFDX network topology consists of:

Q. No. 17. IEEE 1394 Firewire Management System for:

Q. No. 2. By combining any number of these tiny solid-state gates:

Q. No. 3. The NOT gate can be constructed with:

Q. No. 5. The NAND gate is a combination of an:

Q. No. 6. The NOR gate output values are exactly the:

Q. No. 7. With an EXCLUSIVE OR gate, if both inputs are Logic 1,

Q. No. 8. The EXCLUSIVE NOR gate produces a:

Q. No. 9. TTL logic circuit elements are primarily:

Q. No. 10. By using a series of voltage and/or no-voltage outputs:

Q. No. 11. CMOS transistor output is triggered by:

Q. No. 7. Fiber-optic cables that are available:

Q. No. 9. Fibers must be checked for:

Q. No. 10. The excess fiber is removed and then:

Q. No. 3 The electrons are accelerated through a hole in the:

Q. No. 5. The electron beam is steered by:

Q. No. 12. LEDs are used for:

Q. No. 14. Liquid crystals consist of molecules that are:

Q. No. 16. AMLCDs are considerably:

Q. No. 3. The cabin electronics are situated immediately:

Q. No. 4. Integrated Modular Avionics Information Systems used to control:

Q. No. 5. AIMS contains the electronics for:

Q. No. 8. Two EICAS displays are located in the:

Q. No. 9. The lower EICAS display is known as a:

Q. No. 14. AIMS integrates

Q. No. 15. AIMS is stand for:

Q. No. 16. The MAT is a station with:

Q. No. 17. ACARS is stands for:

Q. No. 21. Traditional radio navigational aids, such as:

Q. No. 23. Inertial navigation uses gyroscopes to measure:

Q. No. 24. The Inertial Measuring Unit (IMU) detects:

Q. No. 33. MEMS stands for:

Q. No. 34. Through the use of solid-state MEMS devices:

Q. No. 38. GPS provides:

Q. No. 39. The GPS receiver can determine elevation as well:

Q. No. 40. The GPS is an ideal reference for:

Q. No. 41. All contribute to airline profitability:

Q. No. 44. The FMC computes:

Q. No. 52. Primary flight controls are:

Q. No. 59. The cabin crew can also send:

Q. No. 2. Built in test equipment is

Q. No. 4. BITE displays are selected on

Q. No. 5. BITE CDU’s are typically located on:

Module 5 & 7

Module 5 & 7

Module 5 & 7